510 Closed Exam B, Rev8

Closed Book API 510 Practice Exam B
Rev. 8 10/06 DTM Enterprises Technical Training Division Page 1 of 20

281-330-9542 www.DTM-Enterprises.org

Question 36 begins the closed book portion of this exam

It is recommended that you take this portion without referring to the ASME Code or API books
on your first attempt, to assess your strengths and concentrate your studies on the most needed
subject areas. It is suggested that you write your answers on a separate sheet to keep this copy
clean for future studies.


36. _________is the reduction in toughness due to a metallurgical change that can occur in some low alloy steels as a result
of long term exposure in the temperature range of about 650
o
F to 1100
o
F (343
o
C to 593
o
C) .

1. Mechanical fatigue
2. Brittle fracture
3. Temper embrittlement
4. Ductile failure

37. The minimum number of penetrameters used for a complete girth seam of a cylinder which is radiographed in a single
exposure containing 30 film holders is;

1. 30, one on each film holder.
2. 15 one every other film holder.
3. 3 which are 120 degrees apart.
4. 10 one every third film holder.

38. The following describes _________the distance from the tip of the welding electrode to the adjacent surface of the weld
pool.

1. arc blow
2. arc stand off
3. arc length
4. arc wash

39. Which of the following would be an appropriate SMAW electrode for welding a 9Cr 1Mo material?

1. E80XX-C1 or E70XX-C1L
2. E70XX-B2L or E80XX-B2
3. E80XX-B6 or E80XX-B6L
4. E80XX-B8 or E80XX-B8L

40. Which of the following methods may not be used to determine the minimum thickness of a pressure vessel?

1. Any suitable NDE.
2. Measurements through drilled test holes.
3. Gauging from uncorroded areas.
4. Sawson gauging methods.

41. When determining the Maximum Allowable working pressure for a vessel in corrosive service which of the following is
the correct wall thickness to use in the required calculations?

1. The as measured thickness, minus the expected corrosion loss before the date of the next inspection.
2. The as measured thickness, minus twice the expected corrosion loss before the date of the next inspection.
3. The as measured thickness, minus three times the expected corrosion loss before the date of the next inspection.
4. May be 1, 2, or 3 above depending on circumstances.

42. What is the purpose of a welding procedure?

1. To prove that welders can perform a given weld.
2. To prove that a weldment will provide the desired properties for construction.
3. To prove that the manufacturer has meet Section X requirements.
4. To prove that anyone can perform the weld satisfactorily if qualified.



43. What is the definition of a PQR?

1. A record that supports a WPS.
2. A Procedure Qualification Record.
3. A record of the essential variables used to weld a test coupon.
4. Pre-qualifying Record of a weld.

44. The following is a true statement about tensile testing specimens from Section IX.

1. They are never allowed to fail below the stated UTS of the base metal.
2. They are never allowed to fail in weld metal.
3. They must not fail more than 5% below the listed UTS of the base metal.
4. They must never fail by breaking.

45. When performing a radiograph where is the lead letter B placed?

1. On the front of the film holder.
2. On the outside surface of the vessel.
3. On the back of the film holder.
4. On the inside surface of the vessel.

46. In the Standard Practice For Measuring Thickness by the Manual Ultrasonic Pulse Echo Method SE-797 the scope
statement includes an temperature limit which is___________.

1. 250
o
F
2. 200
o
F
3. 50
o
F
4. 150
o
F

47. When performing a visual examination which of the following tools are not required to be available;

1. A flashlight.
2. A pit depth gauge.
3. UT thickness measurement equipment.
4. A Bronson Corrosion Metric Device (BCMD).

48. Liquid penetrant testing is capable of detecting;

1. Subsurface porosity.
2. Discontinuities open to the surface.
3. Embrittlement.
4. Internal flaws.

49. Which of the following is not re-rating a vessel

1. Increasing the MAWP.
2. Increasing the maximum design temperature.
3. Increasing the RV settings above the marked MAWP.
4. Adding a 4 nozzle to a vessel which has other 4 nozzles.

50. Hammer testing is not advisable when a vessel;

1. Is suspected of having very thin areas.
2. Is made of a soft metal such as aluminum.
3. Is under pressure.
4. Has a flange face exposed.


51. Which of the following contained in sludge will cause rapid corrosion?

1. Solid particles.
2. Liquid droplets.
3. Acidic components.
4. Gas suspended solid particles.

52. Requalification by written exam is required for an API inspector who has not been actively engaged in API inspections
in the past;

1. One year.
2. Two years.
3. Three years.
4. Four years.

53. One primary reason for inspecting pressure relief devices is to;

1. Determine the remaining life of the pressure relief device.
2. Measure and record the thickness data on the body of the valve.
3. Determine whether the device is functioning properly.
4. Clear the outlet piping of rainwater.

54. Which of the following best describes a part of the definition of maximum allowable working pressure for a vessel?

1. The vessel's design pressure.
2. The vessel's design pressure plus the hydrostatic head.
3. The maximum gage pressure permitted at the bottom of the vessel.
4. The maximum gage pressure permitted at the top of the vessel, in its operating position.

55. The symbol PHT on a vessel's name plate indicates;

1. A combination pneumatic and hydrostatic test.
2. The vessel has been post-weld heat treated.
3. The vessel is good for high temperatures.
4. The vessel was partially heat treated.

56. Which of the following describes types of Image Quality Indicator (IQI) required in Section V Art 2?

1. IQIs shall be either the hole type or the shim type.
2. IQIs shall be either the wire type or the shim type.
3. IQIs shall be either the shim type or the stepped type.
4. IQIs shall be either the hole type or the wire type.

57. The primary purpose of metallic linings is;

1. Increase the thickness of the vessel wall to resist internal pressure.
2. Protect the pressure vessel wall from corrosion and or erosion.
3. Serve as internal insulation.
4. Prevent contamination of the contents.

58. If an duplicate ASME Code name plate is to be attached to pressure vessel it must be placed only on;

1. The skirt.
2. One of the heads (does not matter which).
3. On the shell.
4. Any permanent attachment to the vessel.


59. A welded carbon steel joint has a MDMT which is lower than 120
o
F above what thickness must impact tested material
be used.

1. 6 inches.
2. 4 inches.
3. 2 inches.
4. 3 inches.

60. For alteration or repairs, half bead/temper bead welding may be used as an alternative for postweld heat treatment on
vessels that require notch toughness tests, but is limited to;

1. P No. 1
2. P No. 3.
3. P Numbers 1, 3, and 4 steels.
4. P Numbers 3 and 1 but are restricted to certain group numbers.

61. A safety valve must be tested using;

1. Water.
2. Steam.
3. Air.
4. Product fluids only.

62. Temper embrittlement _______________if the material contains critical levels of the embrittling impurity elements and
is exposed in the embrittling temperature range.

1. is not serious
2. can be permanently corrected by heat treatment
3. can be prevented
4. cannot be prevented

63. The welding position referred to as 2G in pipe is defined as;

1. The weld joint being horizontal and the part being vertical.
2. The weld joint being vertical and the part being horizontal.
3. The weld joint being at 45 degrees +or - 15 degrees.
4. The weld joint being at 45 degrees +or - 5 degrees.

64. The maximum inspection interval for a vessel with a remaining life of 16 years is;

1. 10 years.
2. 5 years.
3. 8 years.
4. 16 years.

65. A crack at a stress concentration must not be repaired without the permission of the;

1. The unit engineer.
2. A pressure vessel engineer.
3. A professional engineer.
4. Plant Manager.



66. If a pressure test is deemed necessary by the API inspector, it shall be at a pressure that;

1. Conforms to the construction code used to establish the vessel's MAWP.
2. Does not exceed the set pressure of the lowest relief device.
3. Is always 1.5 times the MAWP.
4. Allows for the weight of the testing fluid.

67. All pressure relieving devices must be tested and repaired by;

1. The original valve manufacturer.
2. The Authorized Inspector.
3. A repair concern which holds the NBIC VR symbol.
4. A repair concern experienced in valve maintenance.

68. Sometimes it is allowed to substitute a higher preheat as an alternative to PWHT, if this is done a;

1. Professional engineer must be consulted.
2. The authorized inspector must perform UT readings.
3. Metallurgical review must be performed.
4. Two PQRs must be completed.

69. If stresses are high in a vessel and reversals are frequent the vessel may fail because of;

1. Embrittlement.
2. Stress corrosion cracking.
3. Fatigue.
4. Creep.

70. If distortion of a vessels parts are suspected;

1. It should be shut down immediately.
2. The overall dimensions of the vessels parts should be checked and compared to original design details.
3. It should be subjected to profile radiography.
4. It should be decommissioned and scrapped.

71. When calculating the MAWP of a vessel after it is in service, the resulting MAWP from these calculations cannot be
higher than the original MAWP unless;

1. The actual thickness as determined by inspection is used in calculations.
2. The actual thickness minus any expected corrosion loss before the next inspection date is used in calculations.
3. The actual thickness is minus twice any expected corrosion loss before the next inspection date is used in
calculations.
4. A re-rating is performed per paragraph 7.3 of the API 510 Code.

72. The minimum actual thickness and maximum corrosion rate for any part of a vessel may be;

1. Estimated.
2. Adjusted at any inspection.
3. Changed to fit production schedules.
4. Ignored if the vessel is not operating at pressures above 30 psig.


73. The item(s) that must be given attention when inspecting riveted vessels are;

1. Caisson straps for leaks.
2. Strapped bars for corrosion.
3. Fayed edges for deterioration.
4. Caulked edges for leaks.

74. If inspecting a vessel using non-destructive inspections, where can guidance be found to accept or reject a condition in a
weld that has been discovered during the inspection?

1. Section V of the ASME Code.
2. Section VIII of the ASME or Code of construction.
3. API 510 Inspection Code.
4. NBIC.

75. Per API 510 the definition of actual thickness for determining MAWP of a vessel is;

1. The as measured thickness less 2 times the present corrosion rate.
2. The most critical value of the average thickness that has been determined.
3. The as measured thickness.
4. The original thickness less the original corrosion allowance.

76. When measuring the thickness of a corroded area of a ellipsoidal head, the governing thickness may be as follows;

1. The thickness of the serrated region.
2. The thickness of the skirt of the head.
3. The wall reading at the spin hole within the head.
4. The thickness of the knuckle and/or the spherical regions.

77. The API authorized inspector shall not approve repairs to a vessel until;

1. After inspection has proven the repairs have been satisfactorily completed and all required pressure test have been
performed and witnessed.
2. He has satisfied himself that the repairs have been completed.
3. Item b above plus all isolation steps used before the pressure test have been removed and the vessels have been
returned to an operable condition.
4. He has been given permission by the plant manager.

78. All repair and alteration welding must be performed in accordance with;

1. Acceptable company standards.
2. API approved welding procedures.
3. The applicable requirements of the ASME Code or another Code of construction to which the vessel was built.
4. NBIC.

79. Vessels with the following dimensions are exempt from both the API 510 and the ASME Section VIII codes.

1. Vessels with an internal or external working pressure of not more than 50 psi with a limit on size.
2. Vessels with an internal or external working pressure of not more than 15 psi with a limit on size.
3. Vessels with an internal or external working pressure of not more than 50 psi with no limit on size.
4. Vessels with an internal or external working pressure of not more than 15 psi with no limit on size.


80. Four principal strip lining methods for vessels are;

1. Fillet butt, butt strap, joggle and the J acobson modified.
2. Shingle, butt strap, joggle/cap and the fillet butt.
3. Butt strap, J acobson modified, joggle/cap and the shingle.
4. Shingle, J acobson modified, fillet butt.

81. What is one of the most important elements in providing reliability in a vessel's operation?

1. Proper welding procedures in accordance with the ASME code.
2. Regular scheduled external inspections made during equipment operation.
3. Highly trained operations personnel.
4. Avoidance of operational upsets and alerts.

82. Deterioration found in vessels is caused by three major forms of attack, what are they?

1. Electrochemical, chemical, mechanical actions.
2. Electrochemical, chemical, mechanical actions or a combination of the three.
3. Corrosion, abrasion, or cracks.
4. High temperature, low temperature and environmental corrosion.

83. Deterioration may be accelerated by;

1. Seismic movement.
2. Structural flaws.
3. Failing reinforcement pads.
4. Temperature, stress, vibration to name a few.

84. Certain insulated vessels are subject to CUI, among these are vessels who are;

1. Going from low temperature to high temperature conditions.
2. Going from high temperature conditions to low temperature conditions.
3. Undergoing metallurgical and chemical changes in the metal.
4. Exposed to mist or overspray from cooling towers.

85. Fatigue cracking occurring in a vessel can be a sign of;

1. Over pressure.
2. Formation shock.
3. J ohnson effects.
4. Excessive cyclic stresses.

86. Many of the problems that may develop in pressure vessels can be traced to faulty materials or fabrication, what are
some of the problems?

1. Out of plumb shells.
2. Obtuse components.
3. Cracking, leakage, blockage, and excessive corrosion.
4. Out of alignment source piping.

87. Which of the following problems is not caused by dimensional tolerances outside of that allowed by the ASME Code?

1. Stress concentrations and subsequent failure.
2. Leakage at welded joints.
3. Wasted materials during fabrication.
4. Distortion of the shape of the vessel.


88. One advantage of doing external inspections while a vessel is in service is;

1. The vessels do not then require an internal inspection.
2. The plant can continue to operate until the vessels shows signs of failing.
3. The required work load can be reduced for the vessel during out of service inspections.
4. Extra personnel can be eliminated during shut down periods.

89. The most common forms of CUI on vessels are of what descriptions?

1. Asbestos under scale attack and localized corrosion of carbon steel.
2. Asbestos under scale attack and chloride stress corrosion cracking of austenitic stainless steels.
3. General corrosion of carbon steel and binate corrosion of stainless steels.
4. Localized corrosion of carbon steel and chloride stress corrosion cracking of austenitic stainless steels.

90. On occasion, it may be desirable to enter a vessel before it has been properly cleaned, if this is the case what API
publication describes the precautions necessary for entry?

1. API 2245A.
2. API 2256C
3. API 2134B.
4. API 2217A.

91. Use of nondestructive devices for inspection of vessels is subject to requirements customarily met in gaseous
atmospheres, where can a list of these gaseous atmospheres be found?

1. OSHA 1910.
2. API publication 2217A and 2214.
3. API RP 572.
4. API RP 576.

92. External corrosion on stairs and ladders is most likely to occur where;

1. Stagnant pools of chemicals collect.
2. On parts where moisture is allowed to collect.
3. The ladders are not painted with an epoxy.
4. Vessels are located with a northern exposure.

93. Spalling of a foundation's fire proofing can be caused by;

1. Chlorides found in coastal atmospheres.
2. Leaching of ground contaminates.
3. Snow born contaminants in northern climates.
4. Freezing of trapped moisture.

94. In order to inspect anchor bolts beneath the surface of concrete foundations we;

1. Use eddy current testing on the top of the bolt.
2. Probe carefully with a pick along the bolts base.
3. Probe aggressively along the bolts base.
4. Use a sideways blow with a hammer.


95. If settling of a vessel is evident, the things that must be checked in the vessel are;

1. Adjacent machinery for settlement.
2. Ground conditions for water leaks that undermine the vessel foundation.
3. Distortion and cracking which may have occurred to the vessel's nozzles.
4. Sinking of the water table in the area.

96. Catalytic reformers have been known to experience creep when operated at temperatures;

1. Greater than 850
o
F.
2. Greater than 900
o
F.
3. Greater than 850
o
F if not solution annealed.
4. Greater than 900
o
F if not normalized.

97. The following is a true statement about grounding connections for vessels;

1. The mandatory resistance maximum value is 15 ohms.
2. The mandatory resistance maximum is 10 ohms.
3. 5 to 25 ohms or less, but jurisdictional rules may determine maximum values of resistance and should be checked.
4. 35 ohms maximum.

98. The following type(s) of external evidence of corrosion may not be found on vessels;

1. Atmospheric.
2. Caustic embrittlement.
3. Hydrogen blistering.
4. Klines Erosive Phenomena.

99. Leaks in a vessel are best found using what test method?

1. Vacuum testing.
2. Acoustic emissions testing.
3. Pressure testing.
4. Variable augmented pressure testing.

100. Fractionators, processing high temperature sulfur crude are susceptible to sulfide corrosion. Where is the corrosion the
most intense?

1. In the heat affected zones of welds.
2. In stagnant areas of the vessel which has poor circulation that allows concentration of the chemicals.
3. In the bottom head and shell course.
4. In the top head and shell course.

101. What can make the installation of heat exchanger bundles extremely difficult?

1. The length of the bundle.
2. The diameter of the bundle.
3. Out of roundness in the exchanger shell.
4. Dilter-J ohnson bundles.

102. When a vessel is initially hydrostatically tested one of the good side effects can be;

1. Beneficial stress redistribution at defects.
2. A thorough internal flushing.
3. Distortion.
4. The vessels shell often becomes perfectly round.


103. An in-situ chemical test can be administered to vessel parts to determine the type of material that has been used in the
vessels construction. Which of the following is the name of one such chemical?

1. Boric acid in a 20% solution of distilled water.
2. Nitric acid.
3. Phosphoric acid.
4. No such tests are possible in-situ, trepan samples must be sent to a laboratory.

104. As regards a heat exchanger that has two fixed tube sheets, the major disadvantage it has is;

1. It is limited in its diameter.
2. The bundles are hard extract.
3. The shell side cannot be exposed for cleaning.
4. Its length is limited to 30 feet.

105. If there is a concern about even slight leakage in an exchanger the proper type to use is one which has;

1. One fixed tube sheet with a floating head.
2. One fixed tube sheet with U tubes.
3. Two fixed tube sheets.
4. Double tube sheets.

106. Which of the following describes an induced draft air cooled exchanger?

1. The tubes are finned.
2. The tubes are usually made of aluminum.
3. The fan is located above the tubes.
4. The fan is located below the tubes.

107. Which of the following is not an advantage that a Fin-Type exchanger has over a standard type?

1. Dissipate more heat for a given size of exchanger.
2. Be fit into a smaller area.
3. Can be used effectively with two fluids that have widely different heat conductivity.
4. Requires more internal tube surface area.

108. When inspecting heat exchanger bundles, an overall heavy build up of scale on steel tubes should raise a suspicion that it
has experienced what condition?

1. Loss of process control during operations.
2. Very dirty cooling mediums (usually cooling water).
3. General corrosion of tubes.
4. Has suffered from microbiological attack.

109. Tubes may be tested for thickness during visual inspections using many different techniques, one of the most common
and fastest is to;

1. Tap the tubes using a light ball peen hammer.
2. Ultrasonic thickness testing of the tubes.
3. Measure the thickness using outside calipers.
4. Eddy current testing.


110. Locations where impingement corrosion in an exchanger is most likely to occur include;

1. The outside surfaces of tubes at each end of the exchanger.
2. The outside surfaces of tubes opposite shell inlet nozzles.
3. The outside surfaces of tubes opposite shell outlet nozzles.
4. The inside surfaces of tubes opposite the channel head.

111. A very common problem with Air-Cooled exchangers is the presence of corrosion at the inlets, this is best found by;

1. Inspecting using eddy current NDE.
2. Visual inspections through the header-box plug holes.
3. Removal of the tube bundle.
4. Pressure testing.

1. Which of following does not describes a Rupture Disk Devices use?

1. Protecting the upstream side of relief valves against corrosion.
2. Protecting the relief valves from plugging or clogging.
3. Minimizing leakage through relief valves.
4. The only pressure protection of vacuum vessels.

113. For graphite pre-bulged metal rupture disks installed so that pressure is against the concave side, the operating pressure
of the protected system is usually limited to;

1. 65 % of the disk predetermined bursting pressure.
2. 70 % of the disk predetermined bursting pressure.
3. 75 - 95 % of the disk predetermined bursting pressure.
4. 75 - 80 % of the disk predetermined bursting pressure.

114. Which of the following does not describe the main reasons for inspecting relief devices?

1. To protect personnel and equipment.
2. To determine the condition of a device.
3. To evaluate the inspection frequency.
4. To insure that the devices protective coating is of the proper type.

115. An important element in the accurate setting of all relief valves lifting pressure is use of;

1. Salisbury Test Blocks.
2. Properly calibrated gauges.
3. New seats and springs.
4. Soap bubble testing.

116. What chemical substance often causes stress corrosion failure of springs in relief devices?

1. Polymers.
2. Chlorides.
3. H
2
S.
4. Monosodium Glutamate

117. If damaged valve seats are discovered in a relief device what should be suspected as the cause?

1. Erosion.
2. Severe under sizing.
3. Improper or short piping spools at the inlet.
4. Corrosion, severe over sizing, improper or lengthy piping at the inlet.


118. Sticking of newly installed relief valves can often be traced to;

1. Poor alignment of the valve disk.
2. Incorrect valve disk.
3. Short pipe inlet runs.
4. Long pipe inlet runs.

119. In hydrogen sulfide service one issue that must be considered critical when choosing over pressure protection is;

1. Hydrogen chloride attack on any carbon steel used in the construction of the valve.
2. Picking the correct material for this service.
3. Nitric acid corrosion.
4. Elastrometric seals must be used.

120. One of the many things that must be considered when evaluating the failure of newly installed relief device to open at its
set pressure is;

1. The type of the gaskets used.
2. The possibility of rough handling during shipment or installation.
3. The possibility of turning the valve flanges by a single bolt hole causing distortion.
4. The valve being to far from the protected pressure vessel.

121. When the hydrostatic testing of discharge piping for pressure relief devices is to be performed what can happen if
precaution(s) are not taken?

1. The disk, spring, and body of the area on the inlet of the valve can be damaged.
2. The disk, spring, and body of the area on the discharge of the valve are fouled.
3. The disk, spring, and body of the area on the inlet of the valve can be damaged.
4. The disk, spring, and body of the area on the inlet of the valve can be fouled.

122. When setting time intervals between the inspections of relief devices, which of the following best apply?

1. They must be done at least every 8 years.
2. They must be done at least every 3 years.
3. Definite time intervals must be established.
4. None of the above.

123. As regards unscheduled inspections of relief devices, if a relief device opens but fails to reseat properly;

1. It must be immediately repaired.
2. The urgency of repair will depend on the nature of the leakage and production requirements.
3. The urgency will depend only on the value of the leaking fluid.
4. The urgency will depend on the type of leakage, and the characteristics of the leaking substance such as whether it is
toxic, flammable, or fouling.

124. A visual on-stream inspection of a relief device is not meant to ensure which of the following items?

1. Installation of the correct device, and the company ID such as a tag.
2. No gags or blinds left in place and all intervening block valves being open.
3. Upstream block valves are locked or chained in the proper position.
4. The valves discharge is pointed in the right direction.



125. Hot cracking is ________________________________________________________.

1. cracking formed at 350
o
F during operations of stainless vessels and piping
2. cracking formed at 550
o
F during operations carbon and low alloy steel piping and vessels
3. cracking formed at temperatures near the completion of solidification during welding
4. cracking formed above a 250
o
F preheat during welding

126. Who is responsible for confirming that welding equipment has been calibrated?

1. The inspector
2. The welding foreman
3. The welder using the equipment
4. The owner/user

127. The _______________is responsible for quality craftsmanship of weldments.

1. Welder
2. Inspector
3. Welding Foreman
4. Quality Control Manager

128. With SMAW depending on the type of electrode being used, the covering performs one or more of the following
functions:

1. Absorbs moisture stabilize the arc
2. Provides scavengers, deoxidizers, and fluxing agents to cleanse the weld and promote grain growth in the weld
metal.
3. Establishes the electrical characteristics of the electrode
4. Provides a protective layer for inner core wire

129. CUI Damage is aggravated by contaminants that may be leached out of the insulation, such as______.

1. chlorides
2. fluorides
3. Hydroxides and nitrous oxide.
4. Cyanides and hydrogen oxide.

130. One commonly accepted advantages of the GTAW process is:

1. No post-weld cleaning is required.
2. Produces high purity welds, generally free from defects
3. Allows for excellent control of filler pass penetration
4. Can be used with or without filler metal in all situations.

131. FCAW equipment is _________, __________, and ______portable than that for SMAW.

1. less complex, less costly and more
2. more complex , more costly, and less
3. more complex, less costly and less
4. less complex, more costly and more


132. Corrosion fatigue affects _____________________________.

1. Carbon Steel and Stainless Steels
2. Stainless Steels only
3. all metals and alloys
4. Nickel and Duplex Stainless alloys

133. Atmospheric corrosion affects _____________________________.

1. Carbon steel, low alloy steels and copper alloyed nickel.
2. Carbon steel, low alloy steels and copper alloyed aluminum
3. Molybdenum alloys, carbon steel and copper alloyed aluminum
4. Carbon steels only

134. . Cast structures, depending on their chemical composition can exhibit a wide range of mechanical properties for several
reasons. In general, it is desirable to keep the size of grains small, which improves ____________________.

1. weldability
2. strength and toughness
3. machining methods
4. corrosion resistance

135. Copper/zinc alloys can suffer dezincification in fresh, brackish and salt water systems. The copper/zinc alloys can suffer
______if any ammonia or ammonia compounds are present in the water.

1. CL SCC
2. SCC
3. HTHA
4. Intergranular corrosion

136. The ______________is adjacent to the weld and is that portion of the base metal that has not been melted, but whose
mechanical properties or microstructure have been altered by the preheating temperature and the heat of welding.

1. fusion line
2. heat-affected zone (HAZ)
3. root interface
4. bevel of a butt weld

137. Boiler condensate oxygen scavenging treatments typically include ____________or hydrazine depending on the system
pressure level along with proper mechanical deareator operation.

1. disassociated sulfur
2. deprecated hydrazine
3. deprecated sodium sulfite
4. catalyzed sodium sulfite

138. Corrosion of carbon steel and other alloys resulting from their reaction with sulfur compounds is ____.

1. Carburezation0
2. decarburization
3. Sulfidation
4. Sulfur attack



139. Thicker material sections also have a lower resistance to brittle fracture due to higher constraint which increases
______stresses at the crack tip.

1. biaxial.
2. triaxial
3. coaxial.
4. penaxial.

140. A pure metal has a definite melting temperature that is just above its solidification temperature. However, complete
melting of alloyed materials occur ___________________________.

1. when the highest melting element of the alloy has reached its melting point
2. over a range of temperatures
3. when the lowest melting element of the alloy has reached its melting point
4. at two distinct tempertures points.

141 The Vickers test is a ______________________.

1. microscopic test
2. hardness test
3. Incipient melting test
4. ductility test

142. Materials test reports, can be a very valuable tool for the inspector and welding engineer. There are typically two types
,___________________________________ reports.

1. ferrite and martensite assay type
2. martensite and cementite chemistry
3. stalactite and martensite analysis.
4. heat analysis and a product analysis

143. When speaking of materials acceptable for use in welding processes the term S number refers to;

1. Materials which are listed in the ASME Boiler and Pressure Vessel Code Material specification.
2. Materials which are not listed in the ASME Boiler and Pressure Vessel Code Material specifications of Section II
3. Alternative numbers for P Nos.
4. Alternative number for F Nos.

144. You are reading a WPS and see that it was qualified using P No. 5A to P No. 5A, you know that;

1. This WPS can be used to weld any P or S No 5 material.
2. This WPS can be used to weld any P or S No 5A to any metal from P or S Nos. 5A, 4, 3, or 1.
3. This WPS can be used to weld only P or S No 5A.
4. This WPS can be used to weld any P or S No 5A to any metal from P or S Nos. 5A, 4, or 3.

145. A welding procedure must be requalified if;

1. There is a change in any essential variable.
2. There is a change in any nonessential variable.
3. There is Code revision which makes it obsolete, such as a base material being dropped from the list of approved
ASME Code materials.
4. The welder is dissatisfied with the procedure.



146. A welder must requalify if he has previously;

1. Not qualified without backing and is now required to perform a weld without backing.
2. Has qualified without backing and is required to now weld with backing.
3. Not welded with a given process.
4. Has welded with a process in two years.

147. The dimensions of a plate test coupons for welding procedure qualification tests can be found in;

1. Article 2 of Section V.
2. Article II of Section IX.
3. Article IV of Section IX.
4. Article 4 of section V.

148. Which of the following markings cannot be found on an ASME Code vessel's nameplate?

1. The manufacturer's serial no.
2. The manufacturer's name.
3. The year built.
4. The names of all welders who worked on the vessel.

149. A relief valves in hydrofluoric acid service must be;

1. Be neutralized immediately after removal.
2. Set using water only.
3. Set using hydrofluoric acid.
4. Set using air only.

150. The following is true about the hydrostatic testing of vessels;

1. Tests must be performed using non-volatile fluids.
2. Tests must be performed using water.
3. This test is the most dangerous of all pressure tests.
4. This test is the least dangerous of all pressure tests.


ANSWERS
36. 3 571 4.2.3.1
37. 3 V T.277.2 (b)(1)(a)
38. 3 577 3.4
39. 4 RP 577 Appendix D Table D1
40. 4 API 572 10.5
41. 4 API 510 5.4
42. 2 IX QW-100.1
43. 3 IX QW-200.2
44. 3 IX QW-153.1
45. 3 V ART T-223
46. 2 SE-797 1.1
47. 4 API 572 10.2.2
48. 2 V ART 6 T-620
49. 4 API 510 3.1.7
50. 3 API 510 5.5
51. 3 API 572 10.4.3
52. 3 API 510 Appendix B.5
53. 3 API 576 6.1
54. 4 UG-98 & API 510 3.9
55. 4 UG-116
56. 4 V T-233.1
57. 2 API 572 10.4.5
58. 4 VIII UG-119(f)
59. 2 VIII UCS-66 (a)(1)(d)
60. 3 API 510 7.2.3.2
61. 2 VIII UG-125
62. 4 571 4.2.3.6
63. 1 IX ART IV 461..4
64. 3 API 510 6.4
65. 2 API 510 7.1.3
66. 1 API 510 6.5
67. 4 API 510 6.6
68. 3 API 510 7.2.3
69. 3 API 510 5.2
70. 2 API 510 5.6
71. 4 API 510 5.4
72. 2 API 510 5.7
73. 4 API 572 4.2
74. 2 VIII APPENDIX 4, 6 AND 8
75. 2 API 510 5.7(a)
76. 4 API 510 5.7(e)
77. 1 API 510 7.1.2
78. 3 API 510 7.1
79. 4 API 510 APPENDIX A (b)8
80. 2 API 572 4.3 FIG.4
81. 2 API 572 7.4
82. 2 API 572 8.1
83. 4 API 572 8.1
84. 4 API 572 8.2.1
85. 4 API 572 8.2.5
86. 3 API 572 8.4


87. 3 API 572 8.5.4
88. 3 API 572 9.2 (d)
89. 4 API 572 8.2.1
90. 4 API 572 10.2.1
91. 2 API 572 10.2.1
92. 2 API 572 10.3.2
93. 4 API 572 10.3.3
94. 4 API 572 10.3.4
95. 3 API 572 10.3.8
96. 2 API 572 10.3.8
97. 3 API 572 10.3.9
98. 4 API 572 10.3.13
99. 3 API 572 10.8.2
100. 3 API 572 10.4.3
101. 3 API 572 10.4.4
102. 1 API 572 10.8.2
103. 2 API 572 10.7
104. 3 API 572 A.2.3
105. 4 API 572 A.2.5
106. 3 API 572 A.5
107. 4 API 572 A.7
108. 3 API 572 A.9.1
109. 1 API 572 A.9.1
110. 2 API 572 A.9.2
111. 2 API 572 A.12
112. 4 API 576 4.9
113. 2 API 576 4.9.1.5
114. 4 API 576 6.1.
115. 2 API 576 5.4
116. 3 API 576 5.6
117. 4 API 576 5.2
118. 1 API 576 5.5
119. 2 API 576 5.6
120. 2 API 576 5.8
121. 2 API 576 5.10
122. 3 API 576 6.4
123. 4 API 576 6.5.3
124. 4 API 576 6.3
125. 3 577 3.27
126. 1 577 4.2.5.1
127. 1 577 4.3.1.1(a)
128. 3 577 5.2.1
129. 1 571 4.3.3.3(i)
130. 2 577 5.3.1
131. 2 577 5.5.2
132. 3 571 4.5.2.2
133. 2 571 4.3.2.2
134. 2 577 10.2.1
135. 2 571 4.3.4.3
136. 2 577 10.2.3
137. 4 571 4.3.5.6(a)
138. 3 571 4.4.2.1


139. 2 571 4.2.7.3(d)
140. 2 577 10.3.1
141. 2 577 10.4.3
142. 4 577 10.8
143. 2 IX QW-420.2
144. 2 IX QW- 424.1
145. 1 IX QW-202 (c)
146. 1 IX QW-353
147. 3 IX fig. QW-462.1(a)
148. 4 UG-116
149. 1 API 576 6.2.5 :Caution Note
150. 4 UG-99

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Closed Book API 510 Practice Exam B

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