Acne conglobata is characterised by: a . it is the most severe form of acne b .

abscendens nodules and fistula formations may be present in the clinical features e.
can be localized perigenital and axillary
Acne indurata is characterised by: a. tough, brownish-red nodules, painful on
palpation b . purulent lesions are disintegrate outside and usually heal with scars
Acne vulgaris can be provoked or exacerbated by these drugs: a. corticosteroids, d.
halogens S*
Acne vulgaris is characterized by: e. inflammatory process of follicle and retention
of sebum
Albinizmus is characterized by: b . it occurs from birth
Alopecia areata is characterized by: b . round well demarcated areas with affected
hair broken off 3 mm above the scalp surface e . Woods light examination of affected
areas shows fluorescence
Anagen stage is: b. stage, where is majority of hair of the scalp
Angioedema is: d. reaction with similar pathomechanism as urticaria
Angiolupoid sarcoidosis is characterized by: a . typical localization on nose c .
telangiectases d . soft reddish-brown nodules
Antropophilic dermatophytes are: a . Trichophyton rubrum c. Epidermophyton
floccosum e . Microsporum gypseum
Apocrine sweat glands are on: b. armpits, e. perigenital area
Argyria is dyschromia, in which following substances cumulate in the skin: a.
silver
Assign important characteristic and differential diagnostic signs of leukoplakia:
b . uniformly white-colored spots on the buccal mucosa, which may grow, infiltrate or
erode
Assign important characteristic and differential diagnostic signs of lichen ruber:
e . painful superficial erosions surrounded by a narrow erythema, covered by white
film on the bucal mucosa and soft palate
Assign important characteristic and differential diagnostic signs of lupus
erythematodes chronicus discoides: c . changes can be localized on the oral mucosa,
where they form asymptomatic erythematous plaques covered with white
hyperkeratosis
Assign the clinical forms of primary syphilis: d . ulcus durum
Assign the clinical forms of secondary syphilis: a . macular syphilid b .
condylomata lata c . plaques opalines
Assign the clinical forms of tertiary syphilis: e . tuberous syphilid
Assign the pathomechanisms of allergic drug eruptions: a. anaphylaxis, d. Arthus
reaction, e. cytotoxic reaction
Assign to gonorrhea anterior acuta tight finding: d . in the two glass urine test only
the first urine portion is cloudy e . there are many leukocytes and intracellular
gonococci in the smear
Assign to gonorrhoea anterior et posterior chronica tight finding: a . there is
mucus, epithelia, few leukocytes and little extracellular gonococci in the smear b . in
the two glass urine test both urine portions are cloudy
Assign to scalp psoriasis correct statements:b. lesions are well defined,c. scales
covering lesion form thick deposits,d. symptoms tend to be localized typically at the
interface of scalp and non hairy skin, e. auricles may also be affected
Assign to seborrhoeic dermatitis correct statements: b. eyebrows and nasolabial
folds may also be affected, c. scales covering lesion are strongly oily, yellowish
brown colored, d. skin under scales is minimally inflamed,e. the lipophilic yeast
Malassezia sp. plays an important role in the aetiopathogenesis
Atopic dermatitis in infantile age is characterized by this findings: a. onset in first
months of life b. symptoms are considerably itching c. first symptoms are typically
localized on the face d. basic symptoms are papules and vesicles
Atopic dermatitis is characterized by this findings: a. pale and dry skin b. typical
changes of clinical features depending on age d. it can be connected with allergic
rhinitis
Atrophy: b. skin is flat, smooth and glossy, d. all skin layers are thinner, e. larger skin
vessels can be seen through affected skin
Auspitz sign occurs in: b. eczema

Brown macula is: a. circumscribed overgrowth of melanin in the region of basal cells
Bullous pemphigoid is characterized by: b. favourite affected areas: lateral part of
the neck, axillas, flexor part of arm, inner thigh d. frequent changes of mucous
membranes

Candidal paronychia et onychia is most common in: a. infants b . adolescents
Catagen stage is: c. transition stage, d. the shortest of all stages
Causative agent of favus is: c . Trichophyton schoenleinii
Causative agent of granuloma inguinale is: b . Calymmatobacterium granulomatis
Causative agent of inflammatory tinea capitis (Kerion Celsi) is: b . Trichophyton
verrucosum
Causative agent of lymphogranuloma venereum is: c . Chlamydia trachomatis
Causative agent of pityriasis versicolor is:a . Malassezia sp.
Causative agent of scabies is a species which is appropriate to the genus: d .
sarcoptes
Causative agent of tinea capitis is: d. Malassezia sp.
Causative agent of tinea versicolor (pityriasis versicolor) is: d . Malassezia sp.
Causative agent of trichophytia superficialis capillitii is: b. Trichophyton
verrucosum
Causative agent of ulcus molle is: c. Haemophilus Ducreyi
Cells containing melanin: d . formed and stay in epidermis
Chilblain lupus is: b . involves acral areas e . form of discoid lupus Erythematosus
Choose appropriate therapy for furuncle and carbuncle: b. antiseptics c.
application of moist heat d. topical antibiotics e. systemic antibiotics
Choose appropriate therapy of atopic dermatitis: a. antihistamines b. topical
corticosteroids c. phototherapy e. climate treatment
Choose appropriate therapy of seborrhoeic dermatitis: b. salicylates d. mild
topical corticosteroids e. antifungals
Choose important skin functions: a. thermoregulation, b. mechanical barrier, d.
sensory organ
Choose preventive precautions for atopic dermatitis: a. dietary precautions with
eliminating known allergens c. using water and vacuum cleaner to keep the house
clean e. prevent contact of skin with wool and fur
Choose the aetiological agents if contact eczema is localized on eyelids in women:
d. cosmetics
Choose the aetiological agents if contact eczema is localized on back of hands: a.
professional allergens d. latex e. plastic materials
Choose the appropriate therapy for dermatitis herpetiformis: c. sulfones d.
corticosteroids e. gluten-free diet
Choose the appropriate treatment for impetigo: a. topical antibiotics b. systemic
antibiotics d. topical antiseptics
Choose the appropriate treatment of basal cell carcinoma: b. surgical excision c .
radiation therapy d. local cytostatic therapy e . cryotherapy
Choose the appropriate treatment of candidiasis: a . fluconazole e . ketoconazole
Choose the appropriate treatment of discoid lupus erythematosus: b .
corticosteroids e . antimalarials
Choose the appropriate treatment of lupus erythematosus: a . corticosteroids c.
kryotherapy
Choose the appropriate treatment of pemphigus vulgaris: b. corticosteroids e.
immunosuppressants
Choose the appropriate treatment of systemic lupus erythematosus: c. high doses
of systemic corticosteroids d . protection from UV radiation e. antimalarials
Choose the condition when does professional eczema get better? Inpatient
treatment / outpatient treatment with interruption of work/ e. change of workplace
Choose the correct order of growing stages of the hair: b. anagen catagen
telogen
Choose the group of people in which Candida albicans cause a disease most
frequently: b . adolescents c . housewives
Choose the group of people in which Candida albicans cause a disease most
frequently: d . swimming pool visitors
Choose the group of people in which Microsporum gypseum cause a disease most
frequently: a . persons working with hay (feeders, etc.) d. gardeners
Choose the group of people in which Trichophyton interdigitale cause a disease
most frequently: d . swimming pool visitors
Choose the group of people in which Trichophyton mentagrophytes cause a
disease most frequently: a. dog keepers b. livestock keepers c. rabbit breeders
Choose the group of people in which Trichophyton rubrum cause a disease most
frequently: b. farmers c . workers in the fruit-growing and canning industry
Choose the group of people in which Trichophyton verrucosum cause a disease
most frequently: b. livestock keepers
Choose the true statements for urticaria: a. lesions last short time, they are like
rash after contact with the nettle b. wheals are intensely itchy
Choose the typical diagnostic findings for lichen planus: c. intensive itching e.
Kobner phenomenon
Choose the typical diagnostic findings for pityriasis rosea: a. single primary lesion
is of round or oval shape localised on the trunk
Choose the typical diagnostic findings for psoriasis: a. infiltration with dry silvery
scales
Choose the typical diagnostic findings for seborrhoic dermatitis: d. oily yellow
scales
Chronic urticaria is related to: a. focal infection b. physical causes d. intestinal
parasites
Chrysiasis is dyschromia, in which following substances cumulate in the skin: e.
gold
Classical nontreponemal reactions become positive: c. in the 6th week after
infection
Clinical features of discoid lupus erythematosus include: a . sharply defined
chronic indurated plaques with scales c . oral cavity mucosa is affected occasionally e .
carpet tack sign is positive
Clinical features of erythroderma are characterized by: a. feeling cold b. acute
erythroderma is usually developing on the base of non inflamed skin, c. transverse
ridges are on the nails
Clinical features of migratory glossitis (lingua geographica) are: a . well-
demarcated area of erythema with smooth surface, without whitish coating on
keratinising surphace of tongue e . well-demarcated areas of erythema leading to the
formation geographical patches
Clinical features of parapsoriasis en plaques are characterized by: c. diameter of
lesions is less than 5 cm in small patch form, d. well defined yellow-red lesions as
having atrophy appearance,e. lesions resemble fingerprints in small patch form
Cold urticaria: a. is always of non-allergic origin d. can be genetically conditioned
Congenital syphilis of the child is manifested by the most severe forms: c . when a
pregnant woman suffers from recent syphilis
Correct statement about glossitis migrans (lingua geographica) is: e. it does not
cause any difficulties
Correct statement about glossitis Mller Hunter is: d . sharply defined areas are
red e. it does not cause any difficulties
Correct statement about lingua plicata is: a . localization of symptoms varies b .
tongue surface is highlighted
Correct statements about morbus Recklinghausen are: a. buttonhole-like
invagination of lesions is typical c . cafe au lait macules are present d . glioma of optic
nerve may often occur
Crust develops: d. from dried excretion over some pathological processes
Crusted scabies (Norwegian scabies) is: a . geographic variant of human scabies
Cumulative irritant contact dermatitis: b. appears as a failure of natural resistance
of skin c. occurs in housewives d. occurs mostly on hands e. has often a character of
professional dermatitis

Demarcated hyperpigmentation can be caused by: a . hormonal contraceptives b.
chronic exposure to heat d. bergamot oil
Dermal papula is: b. thickening of the dermis on basis of infiltrate or proliferation of
cells, oedema and hyperaemia
Dermatepidermatitis microbica erythematosquamosa is characterized by: b.
lesion is covered by thin large scales e. skin under the scales is dark-red, shiny and
dry
Dermatitis bullosa striata pratensis (Oppenheim) is a reaction: b. phototoxic
Dermatitis herpetiformis is characterized by: a. favourite affected areas: blade,
gluteal and sacral area e. iodine test is positive
Dermatitis herpetiformis is characterized by: a. negative Nikolsky sign I b.
positive allergy to iodine d. therapeutic effect of the sulfone e. itching and burning
sensation
Dermatitis solaris is a reaction: a. phototraumatic
Dermatomyositis is characterized by: b . finding Gottron papules on the dorsal
surfaces of fingers of hands c . favourite affected areas on a face and hands e. facial
expression of sadness, with reduced facial expression
Dermis contains: a. elastic fibers, b. collagen fibres, e. amorphous ground substance
Desmosomes are: d. bordered thickenings of cell membrane, tonofilaments are
clamped inside the keratinocytes
Developmental transition of cells from the basal layer to the horny layer in
normal skin depends on their: b. differentiation
Diagnosis of discoid lupus erythematosus is based on: a. direct immunofluorescent
examination
Diagnostic identification of mycobacteria may be used at:a. lupus vulgaris b.
tuberculosis ulcerosa cutis et mucosae c. scrofuloderma (tuberculosis cutis coliquativa)
e. ertythema induratum Bazin (tuberculosis cutis indurativa)
Diseases developing by exposure or participation of sun radiation are: b.
dermatitis bullosa striata pratensis (Oppenheim), e. hydroa vacciniforme
Diseases of connective tissue are the disease: a . with immune pathogenesis b . on
the basis of congenital disposition d. on the basis of an allergy to bacterial toxins e .
often accompanied by signs of involvement of internal organs

Eczema herpeticum is: b . disease associated with atopica dermatitis c . secondary
HSV 1 infection
Enanthema is: b. the pathological lesion occurring on mucous membrane
Enlargement of regional lymph nodes by syphilis occurs: a . in the 2 nd 3 rd
week after infection
Epidermal papula is: a. thickening of epidermis by acanthosis, spongiosis (=
intercellular oedema )
Erosion is: d. lesion developing after disturbing of the cover of vesicles
Erythema is: c. the lesion induced by active hyperaemia
Erythema mycoticum infantile (Ibrahim Beck) is most common in: a. infants
Erythema nodosum is characterised by: b. more common in females, c. location on
extensor surfaces of shins, e. lesions does not ulcerate
Erythroderma is: d. inflammation of the whole skin surface with scaling
Erythroplasia Queyrat is disease: a . of the mucosa of glans penis c. of the skin and
develops from human papilloma virus infection d . which often develops into
squamous cell carcinoma e . which belongs to obligatory premalignant conditions
Etiopathogenesis of lingua villosa nigra is: d . nicotine abuse
Etiopathogenesis of Sjgren syndroma is: a . underproduction of salivary glands b.
underproduction of lacrimal glands c. underproduction of sweat glands
Exanthema is: a. the skin lesion disseminated on the surface of the skin

Favourite affected area of erythema induratum Bazin (tuberculosis cutis
indurativa) is: d. flexors of lower part of legs
Favourite affected area of pemphigus vegetans is: c. intertriginous areas d. face
Favourite affected areas of bullous pemphigoid are: c. armpits d. flexor surface of
forearms and inner thighs
Few extracellular gonococci in the smear suggest: d . chronic gonorrhea
Fissure is: e. split without loss of skin substance
Flat dark red naevi, sharply defined, of irregular shape, usually unilateral
localized are typical for: b . naevus flammeus
For cultural examination of pathologic material from dermatomycosis is used: d .
Sabourauds glucose agar
For pruritus sine materia is characteristic: b. itching accompanies systemic
diseases c. itching accompanies psychiatric diseases e. renal insufficiency may be a
cause
For skin manifestations of systemic lupus erythematosus is typical: a .
accompanying symptoms are erythematous macules, telangiectases and small
haemorrhages on the fingers, especially on fingertips and around the nails c. vasculitis
may remain under the clinical features of urticarial vasculitis, livedo reticularis and
vasculitis allergica d. adnexal changes may be present by hair loss
Fungal infections on the skin are characterized by: b . they are round or polycyclic
sharply defined lesions with maximum expression in the peripheral zone d .
dermatophytes grow through the upper layer of epidermis or nail plate and hair
Furuncle is characterized by: c. inflammation is accompained by extensive oedema
and painfulness d. acute inflammation, suppuration and necrosis of follicular and
perifollicular tissue e. the most common causative agent is Staphylococcus aureus
Furuncles occurring on the central area of face are more dangerous that
furuncles occurring in other localizations because of: d. the possibility of
cavernous sinus thrombosis and meningitis

Generalised pustular psoriasis (von Zumbusch type) is characterized by: b.
formation of sterile pustules e. is the most severe form of pustular psoriasis
Geophilic dermatophytes are: e. Microsporum gypseum
Gonorrhoea is confirmed by: b . evidence of diplococci in Gram-stained smear
Granuloma annulare is characterized by: a . creation of solid papules with smooth
surface, with skin color or slightly red b. centrifugal spread with peripheral raised
edge d. no subjective symptoms
Granuloma annulare occurs: b. mostly in women d. especially among young people

Haemochromatosis is dyschromia, in which following substances cumulate in the
skin: b . hemosiderin
Haemosiderosis is dyschromia, in which following substances cumulate in the
skin: b . hemosiderin
Hair affected by which dermatophyte fluoresce under the Woods light? c .
Microsporum audouinii d . Microsporum canis
Herpes zoster is a secondary infection of: d . varicella
Herpes zoster is caused by: e . varicella-zoster virus
Herpes zoster is characterized by: a. intraepidermal vesicles
Histamin, acetylcholin, serotonin are: c. mediators mediating allergic response e.
substances which can be released even without immune mechanisms
How are hair, scale and nail in a suspicion of fungal infection microscopically
examined? c . Giemsa staining d . in the solution of KOH
How does the primary herpes simplex infection proceed most frequently? a.
subclinically
How many rows of cells with nuclei are normally in the stratum corneum? e. 0
How much hairs do fall out daily in the normal hair cycle? d. 70 100
How to remove condylomata acuminata? c . by cryotherapy e. by excochleation
Hyperkeratotic spicules on lower surface of white-yellow scales (carpet tack sign)
are typical for: d . discoid lupus erythematosus

Idiosyncratic reaction is: a. congenital sensitivity to a drug on non-immunological
basis
If an examination reveals that erythematourticarial manifestations occur slowly,
they do not change their shape for a long time, relapsing, painful and itchy
vesicles develop on them; differential diagnostics of the following must be
considered:
If an examination reveals that erythematourticarial manifestations occur
suddenly, they are concentric target , some of them with central dusky purpura,
mostly on extensors, differential diagnostics of the following must be considered:
c. erythema multiforme
Impetigo herpetiformis usually begins: d. during pregnancy
In pathogenesis of seborrhoeic diseases the primary role is played by: a. lipofilic
yeast Malassezia sp. b. functional disorders of sebaceous glands
In the treatment of candidiasis is not used: b . penicillin c . gentian violet
In which age group herpes simplex virus primoinfection usually occurs? b. 1 5
years (?)
In which cases is gingivitis hyperplastica found? a . xerostomia b. hydantoin
treatment
In which diseases does Kbner phenomenon occur? b. lichen planus, c. verrucae
plane
In which layer of the epidermis are located keratohyalin grains? c. stratum
granulosum
In which of following diseases can occur arthritis? a. gonorrhoea c. psoriasis
vulgaris
In which part of the skin is produced melanin? c. in melanocytes
In which period of pregnancy, abortion of the fetus may occur as a result of
mother's syphilitic infection? c. in 6 th 7 th month
In which syphilitic lesions Treponema pallidum can be proved? a . ulcus durum d .
condylomata lata
Incubation period of syphilis is: b. 3 weeks
Interdigital candidiasis is characterized by: a . skin of all interdigital spaces is
usually affected d . skin is whitish, macerated, moist with erosions and rhagas e . all
nail plates are affected
Interdigital tinea pedis and its causative agent Trichophyton interdigitale is
characterized by: a . the skin of all interdigital spaces is usually affected b. the 3rd
and the 4th interdigital spaces are predominantly affected d. all nail plates are always
affected
Irreversible alopecia includes: d. pseudopelade Brocq
Irritant contact dermatitis is characterized by: b . lesions spread to surrounding c .
monomorphic lesions are distributed evenly around the area e . well demarcated edges
of the lesion
Irritant contact dermatitis: a. develops by acting of irritating substance on the skin
b. occurs only in the site of contact d. recedes after elimination of irritating substance
Ixodes ricinus may cause: b. erythema migrans d. lymphadenosis cutis benigna e .
Lyme disease

Lesions of seborrhoeic dermatitis: a. are minimally infiltrated erythemato
squamous lesions covered by oily yellowish scales d. are slightly itching e. weeping
and crust forming are present only exceptionally
Leukoderma is characterized by: c . forms in the location of the previous
dermatoses e. margins are always hyperpigmented
Leukoderma may arise: a. in psoriasis vulgaris d . in syphilis e. in atopic dermatitis
Lichen sclerosus et atrophicus is a disease: e. variant of scleroderma
Lichenoid drug eruption is induced by: c. preparations of gold, d. beta blockers
Lilac ring is typical for: a. morphea
Localization of tumor under the nail can indicate: d . glomus tumor
Lfgren syndrome is combination of: a. erythema nodosum and bilateral hilar
lymphadenopathy in sarcoidosis
Lupus erythematosus is asociated with: b . arthralgia of small joints c . pericarditis
d. nephritis and proteinuria
Lupus pernio is a clinical variant of: e. sarcoidosis

Macula is: a. circumscribed coloring of various shape and size in the level of the skin
Mark clinical and morphological features about basal cell carcinoma: c . the face
is the most common site d . erosions and ulcers may occur e. elderly people are
usually affected
Mark clinical features caused by Pediculus pubis a. urticaria with central punctate
haemorrhage d . maculae ceruleae
Mark correct factors which support development of discoid lupus erythematosus:
c . exposure to sunlight e. herpetic infections
Mark correct statement about actinic keratosis: a . it is precancer b . it occurs
more often in elderly c . it occurs in areas exposed to sunlight
Mark correct statement about tinea: a . causative agent lives mainly in keratin c .
tinea is listed among notifiable contagious disease
Mark correct statements about aphthoid Pospischill Feyrter: c. manifested by
the cluster of vesicles on inflamed oral cavity mucosa d . disease may affect not only
oral cavity mucosa but also genital area
Mark correct statements about atopic dermatitis: a. genetic predisposition is
applied in aetiopathogenesis b. immune dysregulation is applied in aetiopathogenesis
c. important role in onset is played by defective epidermal barrier function
Mark correct statements about basal cell carcinoma: b . in the pathogenesis
excessive UV-radiation is significant d . telangiectases, threadlike border, irregular
pigmentation are typical e . overgrowth to the deeper layers may result in destruction
of cartilage and bone
Mark correct statements about bulla repens: a. the most common causative agent
is Staphylococcus aureus b. firm blister is usually localized on the tip of digit e. blister
is painful
Mark correct statements about bullous impetigo: a. blisters are large with several
centimeters in diameter b. lesions usually occur on face
Mark correct statements about carbuncle: a. is aggregate of several communicated
furuncles c. is accompanied by regional lymphadenopathy, lymphangoitis and fever
Mark correct statements about clinical features of stomatitis epidemica
epizootica: a . lips and oral cavity mucosa are affected preferably b . nonspecific
systemic symptoms develop first e . vesicles may develop also on upper and lower
limbs
Mark correct statements about dermatepidermatitis microbica
erythematosquamosa: a. disease most commonly occurs on the shins, especially in
people with circulatory disorders c. lesion are often extensive, sharply defined,
covered by large thin scales e. scalp and retroauricular area may also be affected
Mark correct statements about ephelides: a . usually appear in childhood c.
freckles increase in number in summer d. their intensity increases in summer e.
inheritance is autosomal dominant
Mark correct statements about erysipelas: a. develops after penetration the group
A of beta-haemolytic streptococci into lymph spaces of skin b. often occurs on the
face d. sometimes manifested in the bullous form
Mark correct statements about erysipelas: c. tiny erosions and rhagas are the site
penetration of infection e. often recurs in the same place
Mark correct statements about furunculosis: a. is recurring furuncles c.
immunodeficient patients are predisposed e. diabetics are predisposed
Mark correct statements about gingivostomatitis herpetica: a. herpes simplex
virus primoinfection can proceed this way b. occurs mostly in children c. infection
occurs as an acute illness with fever, headache and nausea d. after disturbance thin
roof of blisters develop grey-white erosions e. disease is accompanied with excessive
salivation, difficulty in opening themouth and swallowing
Mark correct statements about granuloma inguinale: a . the first manifestation of
disease can be a papula, which forms to a slowly growing ulcer b. the first
manifestation of disease can be a pustule, which forms to a slowly growing ulcer e .
the first manifestation of disease can be a nodule, which forms to a slowly growing
ulcer
Mark correct statements about herpes zoster: a. disease occurs mostly in older age
groups b . numerous tiny vesicles arise on the inflamed baser grouped into
herpetiform lesions c. Recurrent eruptions of new vesicles caused developmental
polymorphism of the clinical features e . disease is accompanied with the neuralgic
pain mostly in the elderly
Mark correct statements about herpes zoster: b. in herpes zoster ophthalmicus
herpetic keratitis and uveitis may develop c. in herpes zoster generalisatus
immunodeficient condition has to be taken into account e . uncomplicated forms of
herpes zoster may heal without scar
Mark correct statements about leucoderma syphiliticum: b . its synonym is
Venus necklace d . arises usually around the 5 th to 6 th month after infection e .
occurs on the lateral sides of the neck
Mark correct statements about lichen planus: d. lesions on skin itch intensively e.
glans penis may also be affected
Mark correct statements about lichen planus: d. skin lesions intensively itch e.
papules are flat polygonal shaped
Mark correct statements about lichen scrofulosus (tuberculosis cutis lichenoides):
b. the most affected sites are lateral areas of trunk c. eruption consists of tiny papules
with tendency to confluent d. eruption may disappear spontaneously within a few
weeks
Mark correct statements about lichen simplex chronicus are: a. favourite affected
areas are neck, distal parts of the limbs or genital area c. Wickham striae are missing d.
some skin types are more prone to lichenification e. systemic symptoms are missing
Mark correct statements about lymphogranuloma venereum: a . it is transmitted
by sexual intercourse c . lymph nodes in inguinal area are after 2-4 weeks enlarged,
painful and connected with inflamed skin d. lymph nodes colliquate and pus
discharges from numerous fistulae
Mark correct statements about molluscum contagiosum: b. papula is normal skin
color or light-pink c . papula is firm and smooth umbilicated usually 2-6 mm in
diameter e. poxvirus is a trigger
Mark correct statements about nonbullous impetigo: a. subcorneal vesicles are
present c. favourite affected areas are face, area around mouth and nasal entrance d.
painful regional lymphadenopathy may be present
Mark correct statements about nonbullous impetigo: c. blisters have thin cover
and rupture easily d. crusts of yellow-gold color are created on erosions e. epidemics
can be seen in kindergartens or paediatric wards
Mark correct statements about pemphigus vulgaris: a. Nikolsky sign I is positive c.
flaccid blisters filled with clear and serous fluid are present d. eruptions occur in
different time intervals e. also mucous membranes can be affected
Mark correct statements about pseudopelade Brocq: a . irreversible character of
alopecia b. isolated hair or clumps of normal hair on pathological areas c . skin of the
lesion is slightly decreased, tight, shiny, atrophic e. hair follicles are not present
Mark correct statements about scrofuloderma (tuberculosis cutis coliquativa): b.
spreads per continuitatem and haematogenous pathway c. lesion begins as a firm
nodule,followed by central liquefaction necrosis and perforation of abscess externaly
d. is characterized by variety regression of signs with formation of new nodules, sinus
tracts and ulcers
Mark correct statements about secondary syphilis: a . occurs around the 9 th - 10
th week after infection c . typical symptoms are condylomata lata
Mark correct statements about stomatitis epidemica epizootica: c . cattle is the
most frequent source of infection d. infection is induced by RNA epizootic stomatitis
virus
Mark correct statements about superficial pustular folliculitis (ostiofolliculitis): b.
often spreads by shaving d. infundibulum of hair follicle is affected e. absence of
systemic symptoms
Mark correct statements about syphilis gummosa: a. initially gumma seems as
tough, elastic, painless nodule c . disintegration of gumma forms ulcer of kidney
shape e . can also affect the mucous membranes
Mark correct statements about syphilis in pregnant women: d . fetus is safely
protect against possible congenital disorders if a woman is treated in the first three
months of pregnancy e . recent untreated syphilis of the mother in early pregnancy
causes significant fetal damage
Mark correct statements about syphilis secundaria recens: b . lesions are
symmetrically distributed d. the most common is macular and papular rash
Mark correct statements about tertiary syphilis: a . the most common
manifestation is tuberous syphilid d. tertiary syphilis is not infectious e . disintegration
of infiltrates forms deep ulcers with rigid edges
Mark correct statements about tuberculosis cutis luposa:
Mark correct statements about tuberous syphilid: a . tuberous syphilid is the most
common clinical form of tertiary syphilis b . the essential lesion is a well-defined
nodule with size to 10 mm d. lesions tend to spread serpiginous e . ulcers heal with
pigmented scar
Mark correct statements about ulcus molle: a. the first clinical symptoms begin
after 1-3 days incubation period e . begins as a papula, which occurs on red inflamed
base, changing to pustule, which ulcerates
Mark correct statements about verrucae vulgares: b . it is a contagious disease
regardless of age d. also healthy people can be the source of infection e. plantar warts
are usually very painful
Mark correct statements for secondary syphilis recidivans: a. a tiny number of
larger lesions compared with syphilis secundaria recens b. lesions are paler in
comparison with syphilis secundaria recens c. lesions often confluent
Mark correct statements relating to urtica: a. circumscribed oedema of the dermis
c. skin elevation that develops quickly and lasts for less than 24 hours, e. in
subcutaneous tisssues angioedema can develop
Mark skin manifestations of limited form of systemic sclerosis: a. Raynaud
syndrome d . sclerodactylia e . small necrotic ulcers on the distal phalanges
Mark the areas, where leukoplakia can occur: b . bottom of tongue c . lips (labial
mucosa) d. external genitalia
Mark the characteristic statements about molluscum contagiosum: e. indolent
hemispherical firm papules of the skin color, size of several millimetres with central
dish-shaped vallecula
Mark the correct statements about alopecia areata: b. it is manifested as
noncicatricial focal hair loss e . alopetic areas can occur anywhere on the body parts
with hair
Mark the correct statements about Bedn aphthous disease: c. superficial
ulcerations of the hard palate are present d. it occurs after rough wipping of the mouth
in infants
Mark the correct statements about cheilitis glandularis simplex: c. small red
papules with a small red dot in the center on lips d . secretion of glassy mucus
Mark the correct statements about dermatomyositis: b . is often associated with an
occult malignancy c. skin manifestations are most often on a face and hands
Mark the correct statements about favus: b . causative agent is Trichophyton
schoenleinii d . if the process takes a long time, there arise atrophy and alopecia e .
Woods light examination of affected hair shows bright green fluorescence
Mark the correct statements about glossitis Mller Hunter: a . subjective symtom
is dry mouth b . subjective symptom is burning sensation and pain on spicy foods c.
inflamated hypertrophic red plaques on the surface of the tongue d . atrophic plaques
with a smooth sufrace at a later phase
Mark the correct statements about halo naevus: b. it is lentigo surrounded by
vitiligo d . it is a pigmented naevus surrounded by a depigmented margin e. it may be
the first sign of developing vitiligo
Mark the correct statements about leucokeratosis nicotina palate: b . it is
characterized by small grouped macules and papules of whitish color d. the condition
usually heals spontaneously after stopping the long-term smoking e . there are dark
red dots in the centre of whitish lesions formed by mucous glands
Mark the correct statements about pemphigus vulgaris: a. erosions on the mucous
membranes are extremely painful b. thin blister roof and their dissemination into the
periphery leads to extensive erosion c. blister eruption is revealed in attacks e.
pemphigus has the highest lethality in all blistering dermatoses
Mark the correct statements about perioral dermatitis (dermatitis rosaceiformis):
b. occurs most often in young women c . favourite affected area is perioral e . the
clinical picture is characterized by erythema with small papules and flushed
papulovesicles
Mark the correct statements about plicated tongue (lingua plicata): c . surphace
of tongue mucosa is ridged with deep fissures d . may be associated with syndroma
Melkersson Rosenthal
Mark the correct statements about psoriasis: a. typical are dry and silver-white
scales, b. scalp is commonly affected, d. nail changes are common, e. favourite
affected areas are elbows and knees
Mark the correct statements about rosacea: c . erythema and telangiectases occur
Mark the correct statements about scleroedema adultorum: b. large amount of
mucopolysaccharides in derma d . aetiological factor can be diabetes mellitus
Mark the correct statements about stomatitis ulceromembranosa: a . synonymum
is stomatitis Plaut-Vincent b . increased salivation, foetor ex ore, fever c . necrotic
ulcers e . deep tissue destruction in the worst phase
Mark the correct statements about tinea capitis: a . causative agent is
Microsporum audouinii
Mark the correct statements about tinea pedum (epidermophytia pedum): a .
infection is often transmitted indirectly in the swimming pool, shared showers, sports
facilities b . diagnosis is confirmed by evidence of fungi and positive fungal culture e .
treatment with terbinafine is used
Mark the correct statements about vitiligo: b . the first symptoms usually appear in
childhood c. symptoms are most commonly on the face, neck and hands d. subjective
problems or systemic features dont occur
Mark the correct statements relating to the clinical manifestations of oral cavity
mucosa: a. aphthae typically occur on the mucous membranes
Mark the disease in which the virus as an aetiological agent has not been proved
so far: b . pemphigus vulgaris
Mark the incorrect statements about acne vulgaris: d . acne conglobata is one of
the easier forms of acne e. in the formation participates seborrhoea
Mark the most common site of erysipelas: b. face c. shin
Mark the statements about pseudopelade Brocq: c . hair loss in a slow increasing,
confluent areas with atrophic skin e. skin is not inflammatory altered, hair follicles are
not present
Mark three most common causative agents of tinea pedis (epidermophytia pedis):
b . Trichophyton rubrum c . Epidermophyton floccosum e . Trichophyton interdigitale
Mark true statements about verrucae plane: a. flat papules with yellowish-brown
color c. Wickham striae are missing d. Kobner phenomenon is present e. papules are
purple colored
Mark typical findings of erysipelas: a. asymmetrical demarcated erythema and
oedema d. shiver e. fever
Match the appropriate statements for gingivostomatitis herpetica: a . it is rare in
the elderly c. round surface erosions e . excessive salivation
Match the serologic type 1 Herpes simplex virus and the diseases it brings on: a .
Herpes simplex b . gingivostomatitis herpetica d . aphthoid Pospischill Feyrter e .
eczema herpeticum
Match the serologic type 2 Herpes simplex virus and the diseases it brings on: c .
herpes simplex progenitalis
Melasma may be associated with: a . the use of oral contraceptives c. pregnancy d .
the combined effect of hormonal changes and UV radiation
Migratory glossitis (lingua geographica) is characterised by: c . migration of
clinical findings
Mixed papula is: e. thickening of epidermis and dermis by hypertrophy or
hyperplasia of all layers of epidermis, oedema and hyperaemia in the dermis
Molluscum contagiosum is caused by: c . virus from poxviruses group
Mycobacterium tuberculosis can be proved in lesions: b. only by anergic form of
cutaneous tuberculosis c. by normergic and anergic form of cutaneous tuberculosis

Naevus anaemicus is characterized by: a. does not react with hyperemia after
friction b. it occurs from birth or from early childhood
Negative patch tests to a particular test kit of allergens mean that: a. it is not
allergic contact eczema, b. causative allergen is not in the diagnostic test kit, c. testing
was affected by current administration of antihistamines
Nonimflammatory tinea capitis (trichophyton type) is characterized by clinical
findings: a . multiple small disseminated scaly areas with thinned hairs, which break
off at or near to the scalp surface c . round well demarcated areas appearance of
normal skin with hair loss e . Woods light examination of affected hair shows bright
green fluorescence
Nummular dermatitis is usually localized on: b. lower limbs c. upper limbs

Ochronosis is dyschromia, in which following substances cumulate in the skin: d.
pigment in alcaptonuria
Ophiasis means: c. strips hair loss on the scalp border
Oral candidiasis is most common in: a. infants, b . diabetics

Palmoplantar pustular psoriasis: b. is mostly disease of adult d. the course of
disease is chronic e. it is difficult to treat
Papula develops by: c. overgrowing or infiltration of cell elements
Papula is: b. circumscribed cellular infiltrate or overgrowth of tissue of the skin up to
1 cm
Parapsoriasis en plaques is characterized by: a. diameter of lesions is less than 5
cm in small patch form,e. course has 3 forms
Pemphigus foliaceus is characterized by: d. the first symptoms are usually occured
in seborrheic areas e. better prognosis than pemfigus vulgaris
Pemphigus vulgaris is characterized by: c. flaccid bullae usually on normal skin d.
frequent changes of mucous membranes
pH of the healthy skin is: c. 5,5
Physical urticaria: a. occurs during a day c. is verifiable by a particular physical test
e. can be sometimes genetically conditioned
Physiological daily hair growth is approximately: b. 0,35 mm
Piebaldism (partial albinism) is: c . congenital defects in melanin production, in
which white hair grow on round depigmented area
Pityriasis lichenoides et varioliformis acuta is: e. is disease with favourite affected
areas on trunk and flexor surfaces of limbs
Pityriasis rosea begins with: c. primary solitary lesion of round or oval shape
Pityriasis rosea is most commonly localized on: d. the trunk and proximal part of
limbs
Pityriasis versicolor occurs in people:a . with increased level of sugar in the blood
d . immunosuppressive, e . which are more sweating
Primary skin lesion in psoriasis is: a. flat papula covered with silvery scales
Prurigo is defined as: b. form of skin reaction due to various provocative causes d.
disease, which etiological factors are external and internal
Prurigo simplex acuta can be related: b. with insect bite d. with food allergens
Prurigo simplex acuta is disease: c. characteristic lesion is urtica with exudation d.
with usually altered trunk and limbs
Pruritus cum materia is characterized by: a. itching accompanies skin diseases d.
atopic dermatitis is a common cause
Psoriasis is characterized by: a. psoriasis is not a contagious disease, c. well defined
erythemato papulo squamous flat papula is a primary lesion, d. psoriasis can occur
at any age, regardless of gender
Psoriasis vulgaris is characterized by: b. scales, d. papula
Psoriatic arthritis is characterized by:a. the most common, it is an asymmetric
peripheral oligoarthropathy,b. small joints of hands are mainly affected,d. a
significant association with HLA-B27, e. rheumatoid factor is usually negative

Red macula is: d. local redness conditioned by limited hyperaemia in pars papillaris
and pars reticularis
Rhinophyma is characterized by: a. the nose has cauliflower appearance with
enhanced follicular orifices b . hypertrophy of the sebaceous glands and connective
tissue on the nose

Sarcoidosis is caused by: a . agents of deep fungal infection b. Mycobacterium
tuberculosis c. viral agents d. genetic factors
Scale develops: c. as a consequence of disturbing coherence of cells in diseased
process
Scar: a. does not contain sweat and sebaceous glands, b. the cause is loss of skin
tissue extending to dermis, d. hypertrophic forms can also develop
Sebaceous glands are normally found on: b. backs of the hands/c. face/d. abdomen
Sebaceous glands are: b. in the dermis
Seborrhoeic dermatitis in small children is characterized by this symptoms: a.
onset usually in the first months of life c. the first symptoms are on the scalp, axilla,
diaper area e. basic symptom is slight erythema with oily scales of yellowish color
Seborrhoeic dermatitis of adults and older children is localized: a. in nasolabial
folds b. in borderline of hairy part of head and forehead d. in presternal area
Secondary erythroderma can develop from: a. psoriasis vulgaris, b. eczema, c.
lichen planus, d. pityriasis rubra pilaris
Secondary lichenification occurs on basis of: c. contact dermatitis d. atopic
dermatitis
Sensibility in allergic contact dermatitis can develop: c. monovalent and also
polyvalent e. to substance of the same and similar chemical structure
Skin color depends on: a. the skin pigment (melanin), b. the thickness of epidermis,
c. the amount of beta- carotene, e. vascularisation
Skin surface in man 175 cm high and 75 kg heavy is about: d. 1,7 m2
Small, whitish wheals on trunk with erythematous area are found in: c. urticaria
after physical stimuli d. cholinergic urticaria
Soft pedunculated skin-colored nodules on neck or in intertriginous areas can
include: a. hemangioma b. lipoma
Solar urticaria is a reaction: c. photoallergic
Squamous cell carcinoma may usually develop from: b. morbus Bowen c . actinic
keratosis d. verruca seborrhoica
Squamous cell carcinoma: a . develops from preexisting actinic keratosis b .
develops from premalignant cutaneous conditions
Status Fordyce is characterised by: c. ectopic sebaceous glans on labial mucosa,
bucal mucosa, glans penis, inner side of prepucium and labia minora
Superficial pustular folliculitis (ostiofolliculitis, impetigo Bockhart): b. is most
commonly caused by staphylococci c. predisposing factors are humid and warm
microclimate d. infundibulum of hair follicle is affected
Surface of verrucae vulgares is: b. smooth only initially d . gradually cornifies and
becomes rough and verrucous
Symptoms of hypersensitivity in scabies are: a . inflammatory nodules e. oedemas
Symptoms of Peutz Jeghers syndrome are: a. whitish brown macules reminding
ephelides c . pigmented macules around mouth and on the oral mucosa d . polyps in
the intestinal tract
Systemic corticosteroids as first-line drugs are used in treatment of: b. pemphigus
vulgaris

Telogen stage is: e. stage, in which hair normally falls
The best drug for syphilis is considered to be: c. penicillin
The course of rosacea may complicate by the occurence of: d . rhinophyma
The first symptom of pediculosis capitis is: c . localized pruritus
The first-degree burn of skin is manifested by: a. oedema, c. erythema, e. pain
The host of Microsporum canis is: e. a dog
The host of Trichophyton mentagrophytes is: d. rodents
The host of Trichophyton verrucosum is: c. a cattle
The most common predisposing factors of furunculosis are: b. cachectic patients c.
immunodeficient patients d. diabetes mellitus
The most common sites of lupus vulgaris are: a. acral areas distal part of
extremities d. nose, cheeks, ears (most common)
The most common sites of tuberculosis ulcerosa cutis et mucosae are: b. around
body orifices
The most commonly causative agent of tinea manuum (epidermophytia manuum)
is:b . Trichophyton rubrum c . Trichophyton interdigitale
The most effective preventive precaution of recurrent allergic contact dermatitis
is: a. using of protective clothes, gloves b. using of protective creams c. elimination of
revealed inducing allergen d. to protect skin from drying
The most reliable diagnostic sign for morbus Darier is: b. histological findings
The normal trichogram ratio of anagen, telogen and catagen hair is: d. 85 : 1 : 14
The pigmented macules in Peutz Jeghers syndrome may appear: c . around the
mouth and on oral mucosa
The principle of Wickham striae is: c. thickening of the granular layer
The provocation method in the follow-up examination of gonorrhea in men is
done with: b. diluted Lugol's solution
The second-degree burn of skin is manifested by: a. oedema, b. blister, c. erythema,
e. pain
The third-degree burn is manifested by: c. erythema, d. necrosis
The two most frequent causative agents of pyoderma are: b. Streptococcus
pyogenes c. Staphylococcus aureus
thickness of the tumor
Tinea capitis caused by genus Microsporum is characterized by clinical findings:
b . round well demarcated areas, affected hairs break off 2-4 mm above the scalp
surface e . Woods light examination of affected hair shows bright green fluorescence
Tinea inguinalis (epidermophytia inguinalis) caused by Trichophyton rubrum is
characterized by: a . the edges of the lesions are nibbled, intermittent cracked
Tinea profunda (Kerion) is: e . deep fungal infection caused by dermatophytes
Transmission of human scabies can be caused by: c . direct and long-term contact
with the infected person d. clothing
Treponema pallidum is getting into the human body usually: e. by sexual
intercourse
Trichotillomania is caused by: e . repetitive hair manipulations by the patients own
hands
True statements about prurigo simplex acuta are: b. wheals with central
microscopic vesicles d. lesions are located predominantly on the trunk and limbs
True statements for scabies are: d. papules are usually on the penis
Tuber is: c. large nodal tissue into hypodermis leading or embedded caused by
inflammation or proliferation, d. circumscribed infiltrate on the borderline of dermis
and hypodermis
Tuberculosis cutis verrucosa develops: e. in site penetrations exogenous infection
Tuberculosis cutis verrucosa is characterized by: b. painless brown-red infiltrate
with hyperkeratotic verrucous surface c. the infiltrate resolves centrally and becomes
annular in shape
Tuberculosis cutis verrucosa is usually localized on: d. hands
Tuberculosis ulcerosa cutis et mucosae develops: a. in patients with progressive
tuberculosis of internal organs e. in anergic people
Tuberculosis ulcerosa cutis is characterized by: a. begins as papula, later evolves
into pustula which does not ulcerate b. ulcers are numerous shallow with undermined
edges c. ulcers are painful e. localization of lesions corresponding with affected
internal organs
Two most frequent causative agents of Tinea profunda in Slovakia are: b .
Trichophyton violaceum d . Trichophyton mentagrophytes
Typical affected areas of erythema multiforme are: c. skin of the face, e. extensor
surfaces of limbs
Typical for pernio is: a. they occur in low temperature over 0C, b. they are
demarcated flat, inflammatory nodules, d. lesions can form ulcers, e. blisters can form
Typical for perniones is: a. they usually develops on basis of functional disorders of
peripheral circulation, b. in cold they present blue-red flat inflammatory nodules, c.
after the rewarming they are bright red and very painful, d. vesicles and ulcers can
form
Typical histological findings of bullous pemphigoid are: b. subepidermal blistering
Typical histological findings of dermatitis herpetiformis are: b. subepidermal
blistering
Typical histological findings of pemphigus vulgaris are: a. intraepidermal
blistering c. acantholysis
Typical localization of pityriasis versicolor is: a. trunk
Typical localizations for the occurrence of intraepidermal tunnels (burrows) in
scabies in adults are: b . extensors of extremities c . parts of the body covered by
clothing d . around the navel e . interdigital web spaces of the hands
Typical long-lasting verrucae vulgares look like: d . round or oval sharply defined
papules up to 1 cm with rough verrucous surface usually in yellow-brown color
Typical signs of Sjgren syndroma are: c . burning tongue d . dry mouth and
conjunctiva e. dry skin

Ulcer is: a. loss of substance of the skin leading up to the dermis, c. loss of substance
of the epidermis and upper part of the dermis
Urtica is: c. solid circumscribed elevation conditioned by locally limited oedema.
White to pink color of lesion corresponds to filling of capillaries
Urticaria factitia is reaction: b. provoked by tangential pressure d. developing only
in site of provocation
Urticaria is understood as a disease: b. induced mostly by the action of mediators c.
polyaetiological with different pathogenesis e. caused by increased vascular
permeability

Verrucae plane are characterized by: d. epidermal papula
Verrucae vulgares are caused by: c . human papilomavirus
Vitilgo is characterized by: c. white macula
Vitiligo is characterized by: b . it occurs from birth d. occurs in childhood but also
later
Vitiligo occurs most frequently: a . on the face b . on the hands

What are characteristic symptoms of chronic stomatitis aphthosa recurrens? a .
they couse the food intake problems d . they are painful
What are characteristic symptoms of morbus Behet? b . ulcers of the oral cavity
mucosa and genitals c . they affect mucous membranes, skin, eyes and centra nervous
system d . they cause uveitis or iridocyclitis, there is a risk of blindness
What are condylomata acuminata? a . direct consequence of the skin maceration
which accompanies inflammatory and by irritation induced processes on genitalia c .
infected epithelioma caused by HPV (human papilomavirus)
What are differential diagnoses in lichen planus on mucosa? b. candisosis
What are Munro's microabscesses? b. lesions of pustular psoriasis, c. sterile
leukocyte infiltration between the layers of parakeratotic lamellae
What are preventive precautions of tuberculosis? a. isolation of patients b. BCG
vaccination c. follow up of exposed persons d. treatment patients with nidrazid
What are the appropriate measures to prevent exacerbation of psoriasis? a.
climatotherapy, c. prevention of stressful situations,e. searching for focal infections
and removing them
What are the characteristic clinical signs of candidal paronychia et onychia? a .
release of distal end of the nail c . pain on pressure d . transverse ridge on nails
What are the characteristic symptoms of dermatitis herpetiformis? a.
polymorphic cutaneous changes b. burning and itching sensation d. vesicles tend to
herpetiform grouping e. systemic symptoms are not marked
What are the clinical manifestations characteristic for the Hutchinson triad? a.
deafness c . hutchinson incisors d . keratitis parenchymatosa
What are the clinical manifestations of bullous pemphigoid? d. eruption of tense
bullae on erythematous base e. Nikolsky sign I can be positive
What are the common manifestations of aphthous disease? b . painful, sharply
defined erosions or ulceration c . red inflamatory edge e. white coat on the surface of
the aphths
What are the first clinical findings of urethritis gonorrhoica anterior acuta in
man? a . burning in the orifice of the urethra especially during urination b . initially
mucous discharge appears and after a few hours a dense purulent yellow, yellow-
green discharge
What are the forms of prostatitis in gonorrhea? a. prostatitis parenchymatosa c.
prostatitis catarrhalis d. prostatitis abscedens e. prostatitis follicularis
What are the histological findings in bullous pemphigoid? b. bullae are
subepidermal c. inflammatory infiltrate with eosinophils is under the bullae in dermis
What are the manifestations of urethritis gonorrhoica posterior acuta in men? b.
urge for frequent urination of small quantum of urine c. terminal hematuria d. painful
erection e. burning pain during urination
What are the most common localizations of condylomata acuminata? b. labia
minora c. sulcus coronaries e . perianal region (most common)
What are the predilection sites of psoriasis? c. sacral area, d. elbows, e. knees
What are the symptoms of Melkersson Rosenthal syndroma? a . cheilitis
granulomatosa b . paresis nervi facialis
What are the symptoms of the primary syphilis? c . enlargement of regional lymph
nodes d . ulcus durum
What are the typical clinical manifestations of ulcus durum? c. solid infiltration
dark-pink color with smooth, shiny erosion on the surface d. ulcer is not usually
painful
What are the typical histological findings of sclerosis? a . overgrowth and
thickening of collagen fibers
What are the typical manifestations of dermatitis herpetiformis? a. burning
sensation or severe itching b. eruption of papules, wheals and tiny vesicles e. the
mucous membranes are not affected
What are the typical signs of condylomata acuminata? b. they are transmitted by
direct contact or indirectly c . soft consistency, maceration, malodorous secretion d .
significant painfulness
What can be caused by repeated friction or pressure on skin? a. blisters formation,
b. hyperkeratosis, c. hyperpigmentation
What can occur on the basis of lupus vulgaris? a. squamous cell carcinoma
What can participate in aetiopathogenesis of rosacea? a. heredity d. disorders of
the digestive tract e . vasoneurosis
What can protect the skin against bacterial infection? b. secretion of the eccrine
glands, c. lipids of sebaceous glands, d. separating of the cells in stratum disjunctum
What diagnosis would you assume in infants with small, whitish, increasing spots
on the tongue, gums and buccal mucosa? d. oral candidiasis
What disease is probable when a patient complains of muscle pain, has trouble
climbing stairs, combing and shaving and a general weakness? c .
dermatomyositis
What do the terms anagen, telogen and katagen mean? b. stages of hair cycle
What does drain into the hair follicle? b. apocrine sweat gland, c. sebaceous gland
What does not belong to the clinical features of Sjgren syndroma? b .
leukoplakia
What does participate in the thermoregulation? b. sweat glands
What does play a role in the pathogenesis of nummular dermatitis? a.
sensitisation of organism to allergen of microbial bodies c. microbial products e.
probably cell mediated hypersensitivity of type IV reaction
What does remain on the skin after healing of the first-degree burn? a. it is
healed completely
What does remain on the skin after healing of the second-degree burn? b.
temporary hyper- and hypopigmentations
What does remain on the skin after healing of the third-degree burn? a. keloid-
like scars, c. atrophic scars, d. hypertrophic scars, e. contractures
What dosage of ionising radiation can induce acute radiodermatitis? c. 5-6 Gy, d.
7-8 Gy, e. 9-10 Gy
What examination clearly confirms the diagnosis of ulcus durum? d. proof of
Treponema pallidum in the dark field
What factors do play a role in pathogenesis of eczema? a. pollutants from outer
environment c. barrier function of the skin d. genetic predisposition e. immune
condition of the organism
What internal disorders may occur in diffuse systemic sclerosis? a . oesophageal
involvement b. fibrotic changes of kidneys d . changes of myocardium e . fibrotic
changes of lungs
What is a purpose of two glass urine test in examination of gonorrhoea in men?
b . specification of the localization of gonorrhoea
What is a typical manifestation of psoriasis?a. infiltrated lesions,b. scales
What is acanthosis? b. thickening of the spinous cell layer of the epidermis, e.
thickening of the whole epidermis
What is an aetiopathogenetic basis of psoriasis? c. inheritance
What is Auspitz sign? a. synonymum for punctuate bleeding, d. punctuate bleeding
from enlarged capillaries when the last layer of scale is removed by scratching with
the scalpel
What is candle sign? d. scales fall off in form of tiny flakes that resemble scrapings
from a candle using methodical scratching with scalpel
What is characteristic for chronic radiodermatitis? a. it occurs after latent period
of several years, b. it mostly manifests with sclerosis and atrophy in the place of
radiation, d. in affected area telangiectases commonly occur, e. after longer
persistence in atrophic center an ulcer can develop
What is characteristic for disseminated miliaris sarcoidosis? a. nodules up to 3
mm in size c. favourite affected areas on the face, above extensors of extremities
What is characteristic for morphea? c. lilac ring
What is characteristic for pityriasis rosea? a. location on the trunk, b. tiny
collarette of scale that typically points to the centre
What is characteristic for psoriatic scale? a. silver-white color, dryness, b.
removing the scale reveals a candle sign
What is characteristic for systemic lupus erythematosus? e . butterfly rash on
the face
What is characteristic for systemic sclerosis? b . sclerodactylia d. fibrotic processes
may involve the gastrointestinal system e. if a scalp is affected, alopecia may occur
What is considered in aetiology of nummular dermatitis? b. hypersensitivity to
staphylococcal antigens e. viral and fungal infection
What is dyschromia? a . discoloration of the skin resulting from the accumulation of
exogenous pigment into the skin d. discoloration of the skin resulting from the
accumulation of another endogenous pigment as melanin in the skin
What is dyskeratosis? a. the premature imperfect keratinisation of individual
keratinocytes between still nonkeratinized epidermal cell structure
What is erosion? a. superficial loss of epidermis
What is excoriation? b. loss of epidermis and upper region of papillary part of
dermis
What is favourite affected area of eruptions in dermatitis herpetiformis? c. blade
area d. gluteal and sacral area e. elbows and knees
What is hyperkeratosis? c. thickening of stratum corneum
What is Kbner phenomenon in psoriasis? c. provoking of psoriatic lesions in areas
of skin irritation
What is lunula? d. the visible part of the matrix
What is macula? c. circumscribed alteration in the color of the skin
What is masked syphilis? b. delay formation of ulcus durum due to the parallel
treatment of other diseases, inadequate doses of antibiotics c . obscure the symptoms
of primary and early secondary syphilis due to the parallel treatment of other diseases,
inadequate doses of antibiotics
What is mykid? b . dissemination of spores of dermatophytes to internal organs d .
allergic manifestations induced by decay substances or metabolites of dermatophytes
away from the fungal burden
What is necessary for diagnosis of ulcus durum? a. clinical features b. examination
of native specimen in dark field
What is often the causative agent of oral candidiasis in the elderly persons
suffering from digestive disorders, bad fitting prosthesis, or chronic use of
antibiotics, pipe smoking? c. Candida
What is papula? d. circumscribed palpable elevation of the skin
What is parakeratosis? b. abnormal and incomplete keratinisation, corneocytes in
cornified layer contain nuclear material,the stratum granulosum is largely absent
What is pityriasis rosea? e. a disease of unknown origin
What is present in large nodular type of cutaneous sarcoidosis? a. lesions in
several cm b. telangiectases d. ulcers
What is purpura? b. bleeding into the skin
What is pustula? e. blister filled with pus
What is rhinophyma? c . hypertrophy of nasal skin and sebaceous glands
What is spongiosis? a. intercellular oedema developing after widening of
intercellular spaces in the stratum spinosum
What is the basis of development of primary skin tumors in adenoma sebaceum
morbus Bourneville - Pringle? b. hyperproliferation of connective tissue in pars
papillaris of the dermis
What is the cause of leukoplakia? a. chemical irritants d . chronic mechanical
irritation e . alcohol abuse
What is the clinical features of cheilitis granulomatosa? a . lips tend to become red,
swollen and tough d. upper lip is affected frequently
What is the daily limit of hair loss? c. 70 100
What is the difference between psoriatic arthritis and rheumatoid arthritis? a.
joints are not usually affected symmetrically,b. distal interphalangeal joints are
affected,d. rheumatoid factor is negative
What is the difference between verrucae plane and verrucae vulgares? a. size c.
surface d. typical localization
What is the initial primary lesion of lichen planus? d. polygonal flat violaceous
papula
What is the meaning of the term photoallergic dermatitis ? a. reaction of skin
caused by photoallergens and UVA radiation in sensitised individuals
What is the meaning of the term phototoxic dermatitis? c. reaction of skin caused
by direct interaction of radiation and photosensitising substance producing a type of
sunburn reaction
What is the most frequent herpes simplex localization? c. lips
What is the nature of vitiligo? c. absence of originally present melanocytes e .
autoimmune processes consider in the aetiopathogenesis
What is the relation of Candida albicans to human skin?c . is occasionally
pathogenic microorganism e . the development of candidiasis involves a number of
factors from human organism
What is the usual incubation period for gonorrhea in men? b . 3-5 days
What is the usual localization of pemphigus chronicus benignus familiar? a. the
chest c. the sides of the neck
What is used in treatment of sclerosis? b . corticosteroids d. penicillin e . non-
steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
What is vesicle? c. circumscribed fluid filled lesions
What lesion can develop on the skin of people suffering from xeroderma
pigmentosum? a. hyperpigmentation and hypopigmentation, b. dermatitis solaris, c.
skin atrophy, e. skin tumors
What local changes can be in acute allergic contact dermatitis? a. erythema b.
papulovesicles c. crusts d. oedema e. erosions with weeping
What should be done with clinically evident melanoma? c. wide excision including
the area of healthy skin (1-3 cm) depending on the
What signs and symptoms are present in diffuse systemic sclerosis? a . food
regurgitation, malabsorption b . cardiac arrhythmia c. renal insufficiency
What type of hypersensitivity is manifested in dermatitis herpetiformis? c. to
gluten d. to iodine
When can develop eruption of acute follicular or guttate psoriasis? d. after the
previous infectious diseases
When does acne vulgaris most often occur? b . in adolescence e . by prolonged use
of certain drugs
Where can develop infectious processes caused by Candida albicans? a . on the
nails b . on the oral cavity mucosa c. in gastrointestinal tract d . on the mucosa of
genitals e . in intertriginous areas
Where is the greatest risk of melanomas? e . in the naevus naevocellularis
Which age is typical for development of bullous pemphigoid? e. Over 60 years
Which are characteristic manifestations of alopecia areata? a. rapid hair loss with
the creation of sharply defined lesions, which tend to confluent b. alopetic areas occur
most commonly in the occipital and temporal scalp d. subjective difficulties usually
are not present
Which are the characteristic manifestations of pemphigus chronicus benignus
familiaris morbus Hailey-Hailey? a. flaccid vesicles and bullae form on the
inflammed base d. Nikolsky sign I is not positive in affected area
Which are the favourite affected areas of lichen planus? d. wrists, e. flexor
surfaces of forearms
Which are the favourite areas for discoid lupus erythematosus? a. ears d . nose
and cheeks
Which areas of the skin are abundantly supplied with sebaceous glands? a. face,
c. sternum area, d. hair on the scalp
Which changes can be found in subacute an chronic allergic contact dermatitis
in local finding? a. lichenification b. exfoliation d. fissures or rhagas e.
hyperkeratosis
Which clinical features are characteristic for lichen planus?a. Kobner
phenomenon c. Wickham striae
Which clinical manifestations are caused by Pediculus capitis? c . matt, dry, in
flocks sticking hair
Which complications of burns can occured? a. hypovolemic shock, b.disseminated
intravascular coagulation, c. toxic shock syndrome, d. sepsis, e. secondary skin
infections
Which dermatosis is compulsorily notifiable? b . trichophytia c . microsporia d.
tinea
Which disease are characterized by positive Nikolsky sign I? a. pemphigus
vulgaris b. pemphigus foliaceus
Which disease is accompanied by systemic symptoms? c. erythema migrans
Which disease is supposed to be of viral aetiology? a. herpes zoster, c. herpes
simplex
Which drugs are appropriate for patient with syphilis, allergic to penicillin? c .
doxycycline e . ceftriaxone
Which drugs are not used in treatment of pyoderma? b. antimalarials d. antifungal
agents
Which examination would you recommend in examination of chronic urticaria: a.
searching for focal infection b. HbsAg c. examination of parasites in stool d.
examination of basic biochemical parameters
Which form of basal cell carcinoma does destroy tissue? a. ulcus rodens b . ulcus
terebrans
Which form of cutaneous tuberculosis is associated with positive tuberkulin test?
b. papulonecrotic tuberculid c. lupus vulgaris d. erythema induratum Bazin
(tuberculosis cutis indurativa) e. tuberculosis cutis verrucosa
Which form of tuberculosis cutis heals ad integrum? d. lichen scrofulosus
(tuberculosis cutis lichenoides)
Which forms of psoriasis do you know? a. follicular psoriasis, b. nummular
psoriasis,c. geografphic psoriasis,e. psoriasis inversus
Which histological and morphological manifestation does occur in pemphigus
vulgaris? a. Tzank's cells c. intraepidermal blisters d. acantholysis
Which instrument is used to differ haematoma from erythema in the skin? c.
glass spatula
Which lesion does belong to secondary lesions? a. scale, b. erosion, c. scar, e. ulcer
Which lesion does protrude above the skin? a. nodule, b. vesicle, d. pustule
Which lesion does protrude above the skin? a. papula, c. urtica
Which localizations are appropriated to do examination of the smear in acute
gonorrhoea in fertile women? b. urethra d. cervix e. rectum
Which nail changes do occur in psoriasis? a. onychodystrophy, b. onycholysis,d.
bleeding under the nails,e. subungual hyperkeratosis
Which of following factors can be present in erythema nodosum? b. sarcoidosis, d.
streptococcal infections, e. infection of Yersinia enterocolica
Which of following factors support development of pyoderma? a. poor hygiene c.
a defective skin barrier function d. humid climate e. microtrauma
Which of the following conditions are favourable for cultivation of
dermatophytes? c . dark, humidity and room temperature
Which of the following factors are predisposing in the development of
candidiasis? a. cytostatics b . diabetes mellitus c . treatment with broad-spectrum
antibiotics d. warm and humid environment e . long-lasting treatment with
corticosteroids
Which of the following fungal infections are caused by antropophilic
dermatophytes? a . inflammatory tinea capitis (Kerion Celsi) c . tinea capitis
Which of the following fungal infections are caused by zoophilic dermatophytes?
b . nodular folliculitis (epidermophytia granulomatosa nodularis cruris) d . favus
caused by Trichophyton schoenleinii
Which of the following laboratory tests should be done in reccurence of
furuncles? a. elecrophoresis of proteins b. glycemic curve e. determination antibiotic
sensitivity on causative agent
Which of the following layers of the epidermis are lacking in oral cavity mucosa?
c . stratum granulosum
Which of the following parts of the skin and mucous membranes tend to be
prevalent localization of candidiasis?b . submammary folds in women c. mouth e.
inguinal folds
Which of the following statements is correct for eccrine sweat glands? a. they are
spread over the whole body surface
Which of these bacterial diseases are the most contagious? d. nonbullous impetigo
Which of these diseases are in a grup of erythemato papulo squamous
diseases? c. psoriasis vulgaris, e. pityriasis rosea
Which of these diseases are manifested by pigmentation of the mucous
membranes? b . syndroma Peutz Jeghers
Which of these diseases can be psoriasis-like in some of their stage? b. psoriasis-
like eczematid, c. secondary syphilis, e. pityriasis rosea
Which of these diseases is commonly asymmetrically localized? a. herpes zoster, d.
ulcus durum
Which of these drugs are used in treatment of ulcus molle: b. sulphonamides
(Wrong)
Which of these histological findings are characteristic for discoid lupus
erythematosus? b . thickening of basement membrane d. perivascular and
perifollicular inflammatory lymphocyte cells infiltrate e . follicular hyperkeratosis
Which of these histological manifestations does occur in psoriasis? b.
parakeratosis,c. hyperkeratosis
Which of these pathogenic fungi does most commonly cause pathological changes
on the nails (tinea unguium, onychomycosis)? b . Trichophyton interdigitale c .
Trichophyton rubrum
Which of these symptoms confirm the diagnosis of dermatomyositis? a. increased
creatinine in urine in an active period d . electromyographic examination
Which order does correspond to the actual arrangement of layers in the
epidermis? b. str. basale str. spinosum str. granulosum str. lucidum str.
Corneum
Which part of sun radiation does induce early pigmentation on skin? b. UV-A-
rays (400 nm 315 nm)
Which part of sun radiation does induce erythema on skin? c. UV-B-rays (314 nm
280 nm)
Which provocation factors can apply in the aetiopathogenesis of psoriasis? c.
beta-blockers, d. the occurrence of focal infection,e. alcohol
Which serological reaction to detection of syphilis may be positive already in 2
nd

week of infection? c. VDRL d. RRR e . 19S IgM FTA-ABS
Which signs are positive in psoriasis vulgaris? a. Kobner phenomenon, c. Auspitz
sign
Which signs are significant in psoriasis vulgaris? a. punctuate bleeding, b. Auspitz
sign, c. candle sign, e. sign of the last little piece of skin
Which skin manifestations are characteristic for pemphigus foliaceus? b. the
primary lesion is a small flaccid blister with a very thin roof d. the disease can spread
to the whole skin surface and secondary erythroderma creates e. burning and pain
sensation are present
Which skin manifestations are characteristic for pemphigus vegetans? a. on the
contact surfaces papillomatous vegetative lesions are often secondarily infected c.
vegetation can be very painful and unpleasant smelling e. the warm and humid
microenvironment helps to their development
Which skin manifestations are characteristic for pemphigus vulgaris? a. flaccid
blisters on normal skin b. slight pressure on the roof of intact blister causes its
distribution to peripheral d. blister roof is relatively thin and ruptures easily
Which staining is used for evidence of Neisseria gonorrhoeae? e . Gram staining
Which statements about naevus comedonicus are correct: e. it is congenital
disorder of hair follicles
Which statements about naevus sebaceus are correct: d. it consist of sebaceous
glands
Which statements about verrucous epidermal naevus are correct? b. it is dirty-
brown colored lesion with verrucous surface
Which substances should be preventively avoided in patients with acne vulgaris?
a. chlorine c. tar
Which symptom does occur in erysipelas? a. shiver b. sharply defined erythema
with oedema c. painfulness to touch e. fever
Which symptom does occur in glossitis Mller Hunter? a . dry mouth b . burning
tongue c. patchy anemisation by shooting out of tongue e. Arndt sign
Which symptoms are characteristic for syphilis connata praecox: b . syphilitic
polished heels c . parrot lines d . coryza syphilitica
Which symptoms are important for diagnosis of pityriasis versicolor?c .
fluorescence in Woods light e . microscopic evidence of fungal agents
Which tests are used in pityriasis versicolor? b . microscopic examination using
KOH solution c . Wood`s light examination
Which variant of lichen planus does occur on shins? d. verrucous lichen planus e.
linear lichen planus
Which variant of lichen planus does occur on the male genitals? c. annularis
lichen planus
Which warts are painful? b. plantar warts c . subungual warts
White macula is: b. focal depigmentation of the skin
Why gonorrhoic infection primarily affects male and female urethra, cervix,
rectum and ocular conjunctiva, as well as vulva and vagina of young girls? d .
they are covered with columnar epithelium or transitional epithelium
Wickham striae are typical for: b. mucosal manifestations of lichen planus c. lichen
planus on the skin

Xeroderma pigmentosum is: c. congenital sensitivity to sun and caused by defects
of several enzymes

Zoophilic dermatophytes are: b . Trichophyton verrucosum d . Trichophyton
mentagrophytes