642-874 Q&a PDF

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642-874
Cisco
Designing Cisco Network Service Architectures (ARCH) v2.1

http://www.twpass.com/twpass.com/exam.aspx?eCode= 642-874

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642-874

QUESTION: 2
As a critical part of the design for the Enterprise Campus network, which of the following two
are true concerning intrusion detection and prevention solution? (Choose two) A. IDS is
capable of both inline and promiscuous monitoring, while IPS is only capable of promiscuous
monitoring B. IDS will stop malicious traffic from reaching its intended target for certain types
of attacks. C. IPS processes information on Layers 3 and 4 as well as analyzing the contents
and payload of the packets for more sophisticated embedded attacks (Layers 3 to 7) D. IPS
inspects traffic statefully and needs to see both sides of the connection to function properly E.
IDS placement at the perimeter of Data Center outside the firewall generates many warnings
that have relatively low value because no action is likely to be taken on this information

Answer: http://www.twpass.com/twpass.com/exam.aspx?ecode=642-874&qno=2
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QUESTION: 4
OSPF stub areas are an important tool for the Network designer; which of the following two
should be considered when utilizing OSPF stub areas? (Choose two) A. OSPF stub areas
increase the size of the LSDB with the addition of Type 3 and 5 LSAs B. OSPF not so stubby
areas are particularly useful as a simpler form of summarization C. OSPF stub areas are always
insulated from external changes D. OSPF stub areas can distinguish among ASBRs for
destinations that are external to the OSPF domain E. OSPF totally stubby areas cannot
distinguish among ABRs for the best route to destinations outside the area

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QUESTION: 6
Which of these technologies is characterized as being a multipoint Layer 2 VPN that connects
two or more customer devices using Ethernet bridging techniques? A. DPT B. MPLS C.
VPLS D. CWDM E. DWDM F. SONET/SDH

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QUESTION: 12
Which technology is an example of the need for a designer to clearly define features and
desired performance when designing advanced WAN services with a service provider? A.
FHRP to remote branches. B. Layer 3 MPLS VPNs secure routing C. Control protocols (for
example Spanning Tree Protocol) for a Layer 3 MPLS service. D. Intrusion prevention, QoS,
and stateful firewall support network wide.

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QUESTION: 14
There are 3 steps to confirm whether a range of IP address can be summarized. When of the
following is used in each of these 3 steps? A. The first number in the contiguous block of
addresses B. The last number in the contiguous block of addresses C. The size of the
contiguous block of addresses D. The subnet mask of the original network address

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QUESTION: 15
DRAG DROP Drag the characteristic on the left the associated firewall deployment or
topology on the right. cisco&c=642-874&q=1

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QUESTION: 16
Which of these recommendations is most appropriate for the core layer in the Cisco Campus
Architecture? A. Utilize Layer 3 switching B. Utilize software accelerated services C.
Aggregate end users and support a feature-rich environment D. Perform packet manipulation
and filtering at the core layer E. Use redundant point to-point Layer 2 interconnections when
where is a link or node failure.

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QUESTION: 17
Which of the following is true concerning best design practices at the switched Access layer of
the traditional layer2 Enterprise Campus Network? A. Cisco NSF with SSO and redundant
supervisors has the most impact on the campus in the Access layer B. Provides host-level
redundancy by connecting each end device to 2 separate Access switches C. Offer default
gateway redundancy by using dual connections from Access switches to redundant
Distribution layer switches using a FHRP D. Include a link between two Access switches to
support summarization of routing information

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QUESTION: 18
Which three Layer 2 access designs have all of their uplinks in an active state? (Choose three.)
A. Flex Links B. loop-free U C. looped square D. looped triangle E. loop-free inverted U

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QUESTION: 21
From a design perspective which two of the following OSPF Statements are most relevant?
(Choose two) A. OSPF stub areas can be thought of as a simple form of summarization B.
OSPF cannot filter intra area routes C. An ARR ran only exist in two areas - the backbone and
one adjacent area D. Performance issues in the Backbone area can be offset by allowing some
traffic to transit a non-backbone area E. the size of an area (the LSDB) will be constrained by
the size of the IP MTU

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QUESTION: 22
When is a first-hop redundancy protocol needed in the distribution layer? A. when the design
implements Layer 2 between the access arid distribution blocks B. when multiple vendor
devices need to be supported C. when preempt tuning of the default gateway is needed D.
when a robust method of backing up the default gateway is needed E. when the design
implements Layer 2 between the access switch and the distribution blocks F. when the design
implements Layer 2 between the access and distribution blocks

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QUESTION: 25
What are two characteristics of Server Load Balancing router mode? (Choose two) A. The
design supports multiple server subnets B. An end-user sees the IP address of the real server
C. SLB routes between the outside and inside subnets D. The source or destination MAC
address is rewritten, but the IP addresses left alone E. SLB acts as a "bump in the wire"
between servers and upstream firewall or Layer 3 devices

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QUESTION: 27
DRAG DROP Drag the characteristic on the left to the corresponding RP model on the right.
cisco&c=642-874&q=1

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QUESTION: 32
What two descriptions best define DWDM? (Choose two) A. a WDM system that is
compatible with EDFA technology B. an optical technology for transmitting up to 16 channels
over multiple fiber strands C. an optical technology for transmitting up to 32 channels over
multiple fiber strands D. a technology for transmitting multiple optical signals using less
sophisticated transceiver design then CWDM E. a technology for transmitting more closely
packed optical signals using more sophisticated transceiver designs than CWDM

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QUESTION: 35
Which technology is best suited for the most scalable means to separate the data plane for a
Layer3 VPN? A. GRE B. 802 1Q C. MPLS D. L2TPv3

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QUESTION: 36
Refer to the exhibit. cisco&c=642-874&q=1 Which recommended practice is applicable?

A. If no core layer is deployed, the design will be easier to scale
B. A dedicated campus core layer should be deployed for connecting three or more
buildings
C. If no core layer is deployed, the distribution switches should not be fully meshed
D. A dedicated campus core layer is not needed for connecting fewer than five buildings

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QUESTION: 37
To which switch or switches should you provide redundant links in order to achieve high
availability with reliable fast convergence in the enterprise campus? A. to a core switch
running Cisco NSF and SSO from redundant distribution switches connected with a Layer 2
link B. to a core switch running Cisco NSF and SSO from redundant distribution switches
connected with a Layer 3 link C. to two core switches from redundant distribution switches
connected with Layer 2 link D. to two core switches from redundant distribution switches
connected with a Layer 3 link E. to two core switches running Cisco NSF and SSO from two
redundant distribution switches running Cisco NSF and SSO

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QUESTION: 39
Which four Cisco priority Spanning Tree Protocol enhancements are supported with rapid per-
VLAN Spanning Tree? (Choose four) A. PortFast B. UplinkFast C. loop guard D. root guard
E. BPDU guard F. BackboneFast

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QUESTION: 40
When designing remote access to the Enterprise Campus network for teleworkers and mobile
workers, which of the following should the designer consider? A. It is recommended to place
the VPN termination device in line with the Enterprise Edge firewall, with ingress traffic
limited to SSL only B. Maintaining access rules, based on the source IP of the client, on an
internal firewall drawn from a headend RADIUS server is the most secure deployment C.
VPN Headend routing using Reverse Route Injection (RRI) with distribution is recommended
when the remote user community is small and dedicated DHCP scopes are in place D.
Clientless SSL VPNs provide more granular access control than SSL VPN clients (thin or
thick), including at Layer7

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QUESTION: 43
When considering the design of the IPv6 address plan for the Enterprise Campus network,
which of the following should serve as guidance? A. All the IPv6 subnets should use a /32
prefix B. Set aside /31 prefixes to support point-to-point links and loopback interfaces C. The
IPv6 address plan should be designed to support the service block model design or integration
with IPv4 D. Designate 16 subnet bits to be split up intelligently, either by OSPF area, VLAN
numbering, or IPv4 mapping

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QUESTION: 44
Which factor is least likely to affect the scalability of a VPN design? A. number of branch
offices B. number of IGP routing peers C. remote Office and home worker throughput
bandwidth requirements D. high availability requirements E. Supported applications

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QUESTION: 47
Which two statements correctly identify considerations to take into account when deciding on
Campus QoS Design elements? (Choose two) A. Voice needs to be assigned to the hardware
priority queue B. Voice needs to be assigned to the software priority queue C. Call signaling
must have guaranteed bandwidth service D. Strict-priority queuing should be limited to 50
percent of the capacity of the link E. At least 33 percent or the link bandwidth should be
reserved tor default best effort class

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QUESTION: 49
Which two design concerns must be addressed when designing a multicast implementation?
(Choose two) A. only the low-order 23 bits of the MAC address are used to map IP addresses
B. only the low-order 24 bits of the MAC address are used to map IP addresses C. only the
high-order 23 hits of the MAC address are used to map IP address D. only the low-order 23
bits of the IP address are used to map MAC addresses E. the 0x01 uu4t MAC address prefix is
used for mapping IP addresses to MAC addresses F. the 0x01005e MAC address prefix is used
for mapping IP addresses to MAC addresses

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QUESTION: 54
Which three statements about firewall modes are correct? (Choose three)

A. A firewall in routed mode has one IP address
B. A firewall in transparent mode has one IP address
C. In routed mode, the firewall is considered to be a Layer 2 dew
D. In routed mode, the firewall is considered to be a Layer 3 device
E. In transparent mode, the firewall is considered to be a Layer 2 device
F. In transparent mode, the firewall is considered to be a Layer 3 device

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QUESTION: 57
Which of the following two statements about Cisco NSF and SSO are the most relevant to the
network designer? (Choose two) A. You can reduce outages to 1 to 3 seconds by using SSO in
a Layer 2 environment or Cisco NSF with SSO in a Layer 3 environment. B. SSO and NSF
each require the device to either be graceful restart-capable or graceful-aware. C. In a fully
redundant topology adding redundant supervisors with NSF and SSO may cause longer
convergence times than single supervisors with tuned IGP timers D. The primary deployment
scenario for Cisco NSF with SSO is in the Distribution and Core layers. E. Cisco NSF-aware
neighbor relationship are independent of any turned IGP times

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QUESTION: 58
Which four Cisco proprietary Spanning Tree Protocol enhancements are supported with rapid
per- VLAN Spanning-Tree plus? (Choose four.) A. PortFast B. UnlinkFast C. loop guard D.
root guard E. BPDU guard F. BackboneFast

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QUESTION: 59
You are the Cisco Network Designer in Cisco.com. Your company is using the G.711 codec
with 802.11a access point radios. This can support a maximum of how many phones per
access point? A. 5 B. 10 C. 14 D. 20

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QUESTION: 61
The Cisco Nexus 1000V is intended to address which disadvantage of the VMware vSphere
solution? A. Inability to deploy new functional servers without requiring physical changes on
the network B. Complexity added by the requirement for an ESX host for each virtual machine
C. Network administrators lack control of the access layer of the network D. To increase the
number of physical infrastructure and the virtual machines that can be managed

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QUESTION: 62
Which of the following facts must be considered when designing for IP telephony within an
Enterprise Campus network? A. Because the IP phone is a three-port switch. IP telephony
extends the network edge, impacting the Distribution layer. B. Video and voice are alike in
being bursty and bandwidth intensive, and thus impose requirements to be lossless, and have
minimized and jitter. C. IP phones have no voice and data VLAN separation, so security
policies must be based on upper layer traffic characteristics. D. Though multi-VLAN access
ports are set to dot1q and carry more than two VLANs they are not trunk ports.

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QUESTION: 65
Which of these recommendations is most appropriate for the Cisco Campus Architecture? A.
Utilize Layer 3 switching. B. Utilize software accelerated services. C. Aggregate end users
and support a feature-rich environment. D. Perform packet manipulation and filtering at the
core layer. E. Use redundant point-to-point Layer 2 interconnections when there is a link or
node failure.

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QUESTION: 66
Which two restrictions must the Enterprise Campus network designer consider when evaluating
WAN connectivity options? (Choose two.) A. OSPF over a multiaccess EMS or VPLS
network may not have consistent broadcast or multicast performance B. IP multicast is not
supported over Layer 3 MPLS VPN; instead a Layer 2 MPLS VPN must be utilized with
service provider support C. QoS requirements with MPLS-VPNs must be implemented by the
service provider D. Hierarchical VPLS designs are the least scalable E. IGMP snooping is not
an option with VPLS or EMS; instead administrative scoping or allowing sufficient bandwidth
for unnecessary multicast traffic at the edge links is required

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QUESTION: 69
Which of the following two are advantages of Server virtualization using VMware vSphere?
(Choose two) A. Retains the one-to-one relationship between switch ports and functional
servers B. Enables the live migration of a virtual server from one physical server to another
without disruption to users or loss of services C. The access layer of the network moves into
the vSphere ESX servers, providing streamlined vSphere management D. Provides
management functions including the ability to run scripts and to install third-party agents for
hardware monitoring, backup, or systems management E. New functional servers can be
deployed with minimal physical changes on the network

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QUESTION: 71
A well-designed IP addressing scheme supporting role-based functions within the subnet will
result in the most efficient use of which technology? A. Layer 3 switching in the core B.
Network Admission Control (NAC) C. IP telephony (voice and video) services D. ACLs

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QUESTION: 77
When considering the design of the E-Commerce topology which of the following are true? A.
One-armed SLB design with multiple security contexts removes the need for a separate firewall
in the core layer B. Two-firewall-layer SLB design considers the aggregation and access layers
to be trusted zones, requiring no security between the web, application, and database zones C.
One-armed SLB design with two firewall layers ensures that non load-balanced traffic still
traverses the ACE so that the health and performance of the servers is still being monitored D.
In all cases the will be configuration requirements for direct access to any servers or for
nonload-balanced sessions initiated by the servers

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QUESTION: 79
Which of the following is most accurate with respect to designing high availability within the
Enterprise Campus network? A. High availability at and between the Distribution and Access
layers is as simple as redundant switches and redundant Layer 3 connections B. Non-
deterministic traffic patterns require a highly available modular topology design C.
Distribution layer high availability design includes redundant switches and Layer 3 equal-cost
load sharing connections to the switched Access and routed Core layers, with a Layer 3 link
between the Distribution switches to support summarization of routing information from the
Distribution to the Core D. Default gateway redundancy allows for the failure of a redundant
Distribution switch without affecting endpoint connectivity

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QUESTION: 80
Which of the following should the Enterprise Campus network designer consider with respect
to Video traffic? A. While it is expected that the sum of all forms of video traffic will grow to
over 90% by 2013, the Enterprise will be spared this rapid adoption of video by consumers
through a traditional top-down approach B. Avoid bandwidth starvation due to video traffic
by preventing and controlling the wide adoption of unsupported video applications C. Which
traffic model is in use, the flow direction for the traffic streams between the application
components, and the traffic trends for each video application D. Streaming video applications
are sensitive to delay while interactive video applications, using TCP as the underlying
transport, are fairly tolerant of delay and jitter

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QUESTION: 81
Which two protocol characteristics should be most considered when designing a single unified
fabric for the Data Center? (Choose two.) A. FCIP or FCoE allow for easier integration by
using the Fibre Channel Protocol (FCP) and Fibre Channel framing B. iSCSI uses a special
EtherType and an additional header containing additional control information C. FCIP and
iSCSI has higher overhead than FCoE owing to TCP/IP D. FCoE was initially developed to be
used as a switch-to-switch protocol, while FSIP is primarily meant to be used as an access
layer protocol to connect hosts and storage to a Fibre Channel SAN E. FCoE requires gateway
functionality to integrate into an existing Fibre Channel network

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QUESTION: 83
Which typical enterprise campus requirement ensures that the network supports the required
applications and that data flows within the required time frames? A. availability B.
performance C. functionality D. manageability

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QUESTION: 84
You are the Cisco Network Designer in Cisco.com. Which of these is a Layer 2 transport
architecture that provides packet-based transmission optimized for data based on a dual ring
topology? A. Dynamic Trunking Protocol B. Resilient Packet Ring C. Synchronous Digital
Hierarchy D. Coarse Wave Division Multiplexing

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QUESTION: 87
What type of Call Admission control in CallManager allows for limits to the bandwidth
consumed by active calls? A. regions B. partitions C. locations D. device Pools

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QUESTION: 88
Which two of these are correct regarding the recommended practice for distribution layer
design based on the following configuration? cisco&c=642-874&q=1

A. use a Layer 2 link between distribution switches
B. use a Layer 3 link between distribution switches
C. use a redundant link to the core
D. use a Layer 3 link between distribution switches with route summarization

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QUESTION: 90
Jitter is an unwanted variation of one or more characteristics of a periodic signal in electronics
and telecommunications and _____refers to call issues that cause variations in timing or time
of arrival A. echo B. jitter C. packet loss D. digitized sampling

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QUESTION: 93
Which three best practices should be implemented at the campus backbone submodule to
support the server farm module? (Choose three.) A. Implement highly redundant switching
and links with no single points or paths of failure. B. Implement server load balancing. C.
Implement the Hot Standby Router Protocol (HSRP) for failover protection. D. Implement
intrusion detection with automatic notification of intrusion attempts in place.

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QUESTION: 99
What is the device weight limit per CallManager in a Cisco IP phone configuration? A. 2500
B. 3000 C. 5000 D. 6500

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QUESTION: 100
In a VoWLAN deployment, It is recommended ___ dBm separation between cells with the
same channel. A. 6 B. 7 C. 10 D. 19

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QUESTION: 102
You are the Cisco Network Designer. Which of these is least important when determining how
many users a NAS can support? A. bandwidth B. number of plug-ins per scan C. total
number of network devices D. number of checks in each posture assessment

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QUESTION: 103
When designing the WAN module within the enterprise edge, which document is used to
specify the connectivity and performance agreements with the service provider? A. RFP B.
RFC C. SLC/SLA D. SOW

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QUESTION: 105
Which routing protocol supports a flexible area structure using routing levels one and two? A.
OSPF B. EIGRP C. IS-IS D. BGP

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QUESTION: 106
Please match the Cisco STP enahancement term to its definition.(Not all options will be used.)
(1) BPDU guard (2) PortFast (3) BackboneFast (4) UplinkFast (5) Loot guard (a) shuts
down a port that receives a BPDU when enabled (b) cuts convergence time by mas-age for
indirect failure (c) prevents the aliernate or root port from being designated in absence of
BPDUs (d) causes Layer 2 LAN interface access port to immediately enter the forwarding
state (f) helps prevent bridging loops due to jni-directional link failures on point-to-point links
A. (a)-(1);(b)-(2);(c)-(4);(d)-(5);(e)-(3) B. (a)-(4);(b)-(3);(c)-(2);(d)-(5);(e)-(1) C. (a)-(3);(b)-
(2);(c)-(4);(d)-(5);(e)-(1) D. (a)-(1);(b)-(4);(c)-(3);(d)-(5);(e)-(2)

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QUESTION: 108
Which two of these are recommended practices with trunks? (Choose two.) A. use ISL
encapsulation B. use 802.1q encapsulation C. set ISL to desirable and auto with encapsulation
negotiate to support ILS protocol negotiation D. use VTP server mode to support dynamic
propagation of VLAN information across the network E. set DTP to desirable and desirable
with encapsulation negotiate to support DTP protocol negotiation.

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QUESTION: 109
What are three primary activities in the cycle of building an enterprise security strategy?
(Choose three.) A. activity audit B. administration C. policy establishment D. technology
implementation

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QUESTION: 111
What are two design guidelines for VoIP networks? (Choose two.) A. Delay should be no
more than 10 ms. B. Loss should be no more than 1 percent. C. Jitter should be less then 40
ms. D. Managed bandwidth is strongly recommended for voice control traffic.

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QUESTION: 115
Lafeyette Productions is looking for a new ISP that has improved availability, load balancing,
and catastrophe protection. Which type of ISP connectivity solution would be best? A. single
run B. multi-homed C. stub domain EBGP D. direct BGP peering

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QUESTION: 120
You are the Cisco Network Designer. Which is not major scaling, sizing, and performance
consideration for an IPsec design? A. connection speed B. number of remote sites C. features
to be supported D. types of devices at the remote site

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QUESTION: 121
Which enterprise caching mode eliminates the need for Layer 4 switches or WCCP enabled
routers to intercept user requests? A. transparent B. proxy C. reverse proxy D. direct

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QUESTION: 123
What are two considerations to using IP Multicast delivery? (Choose two.) A. no congestion
avoidance B. not for bandwidth intensive applications C. no guaranteed delivery mechanism
D. source sends multiple data streams out each interface

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QUESTION: 124
Which remote access VPN addressing technique supports a static IP address to support a
specific application? A. Use a static ip addresses based on incoming user policies. B. Use
DHCP to assign addresses based on incoming user policies. C. Deploy a clientless model to
assign a unique address to the user. D. Deploy RADIUS or LDAP to assign the address to the
user.

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QUESTION: 127
Which three LAN routing protocols would be appropriate for a small retail organization with a
multivendor LAN infrastructure? (Choose three.) A. IGRP B. RIP C. RIPv2 D. OSPF

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QUESTION: 128
One of your customer has six sites, three of which process a large amount of traffic among
them. He plans to grow the number of sites in the future. Which is the most appropriate design
topology? A. full mesh B. peer-to-peer C. partial mesh D. hub and spoke

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QUESTION: 129
ABC Company has 1500 managed devices and 15,000 end users on a campus network. LAN
Management Solution (LMS) is being deployed as the network management application. What
is the recommended number of network management server(s)? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

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QUESTION: 131
The Schuyler and Livingston Iron Works has been working on getting its network security
under control. It has set up VPN with IPSec links to its suppliers. It has installed network
vulnerability scanners to proactively identify areas of weakness, and it monitors and responds
to security events as they occur. It also employs extensive access control lists, stateful firewall
implementations, and dedicated firewall appliances. The company has been growing very fast
lately and wants to make sure it is up to date on security measures. Which two areas of security
would you advise the company to strengthen? (Choose two.) A. intrusion protection B.
identity C. secure connectivity D. security management

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QUESTION: 133
Users at the Charleville Company began experiencing high network delays when Internet
connectivity was enabled for all users. After investigating the traffic flow, you determine that
peerto- peer traffic from a music download site is consuming a large amount of bandwidth.
Which QoS mechanism can you implement to improve the network response time? A. Use
CBWFQ to queue the peer-to-peer traffic into the default traffic class. B. Use class-based
WRED to randomly drop the peer-to-peer traffic during network congestions. C. Use class-
based policing to limit the peer-to-peer traffic rate. D. Use class-based shaping to delay any
excessive peer-to-peer traffic.

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QUESTION: 137
What is the first step that you would use Cisco Product Advisor for when selecting a router for
an Edge solution? A. determine types of protocols to be supported B. determine the
environment in which the router will be used C. select the number of WAN ports required D.
select the number of LAN ports required

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QUESTION: 141
Which routing protocol best fits these requirements? - Supported by multiple router vendors
- Requires minimum router CPU and memory resources - Uses a simple routing metric -
Supports manual or automatic route summarization

A. EIGRP
B. OSPF
C. IS-IS
D. RIPv2

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QUESTION: 142
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the topologies shown are correct? (Choose
two.) cisco&c=642-874&q=1

A. Design 1 is a looped triangle design.
B. Design 2 is a looped triangle design.
C. Design 2 achieves quick convergence using RSTP.
D. Both designs support stateful services at the aggregation layer.
E. Design 2 is the most widely deployed in enterprise data centers.

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QUESTION: 144
Which two of these are characteristics of multicast routing? (Choose two.) A. multicast routing
uses RPF. B. multicast routing is connectionless. C. In multicast routing, the source of a
packet is known. D. When network topologies change, multicast distribution trees are not
rebuilt, but use the original path E. Multicast routing is much like unicast routing, with the
only difference being that it has a a group of receivers rather than just one destination

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QUESTION: 145
Which IOS QoS enhancement was created to address scalability and bandwidth guarantee
issues? A. DiffServ B. IntServ C. RSVP D. WFQ

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QUESTION: 148
Which roaming option will keep them on the same IP subnet when client traffic is being
bridged through LAN interfaces on two WLCs? A. Layer 1 intercontroller roaming B. Layer
2 intercontroller roaming C. Layer 3 intercontroller roaming D. Layer 4 intercontroller
roaming

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QUESTION: 149
Scalability is provided in the server farm module by which of the following design strategies?
A. up to 10 Gbps of bandwidth at the access level B. redundant servers at the access level C.
modular block design at the access level D. high port densities at the access level

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QUESTION: 150
Which three of these are major scaling, sizing, and performance considerations for an IPsec
design? (Choose three.) A. connection speed B. number of remote sites C. features to be
supported D. types of devices at the remote site E. whether packets are encrypted using 3DES
or AES F. number of routes in the routing table at the remote site

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QUESTION: 151
Which three components comprise the AVVID framework? (Choose three.) A. common
network infrastructure B. abstracted integration C. network solutions D. intelligent network
services

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QUESTION: 153
Scalability is provided in the server farm module by which of the following design strategies?
A. up to 10 Gbps of bandwidth at the access level B. redundant servers at the access level C.
modular block design at the access level D. high port densities at the access level

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QUESTION: 157
Which design topology incurs a performance penalty since there are two encryption-decryption
cycles between any two remote sites? A. peer-to-peer B. peer-to-peer C. partial mesh D. hub
and spoke E. full mesh

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QUESTION: 161
As an experienced technician, you are responsible for infrastructure design and global
configuration changes. You are asked to deploy a Voice over Wireless LAN for your company.
If the cells have the same channel, the separation between them should be: A. 19dbm B.
10dbm C. 67dbm D. 86dbm

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QUESTION: 162
When designing a converged network, which measures can be taken at the building access
layer to help eliminate latency and ensure end-to-end quality of service can be maintained?
(Choose three.) A. rate limit voice traffic B. configure spanning-tree for fast link convergence
C. isolate voice traffic on separate VLANs D. classify and mark traffic close to the source

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QUESTION: 164
Which IP telephony deployment model uses an H.225 Gatekeeper-Controlled trunk for call
admission control within existing H.323 environments? A. single site with centralized call
processing B. single site with distributed call processing C. multisite with centralized call
processing D. multisite with distributed call processing

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QUESTION: 165
You are the Cisco Network Designer in Cisco.com. In your company site, a NAS is both
physically and logically in the traffic path. The NAS identifies clients solely based on their
MAC addresses. In which access mode has this NAS been configured to operate? A. Layer 2
mode B. Layer 2 Edge mode C. Layer 3 mode D. Layer 3 In-Band mode

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QUESTION: 168
Which two benefits does VoFR provide? (Choose two.) A. bandwidth efficiency B. cell-
switching C. congestion notification D. heterogeneous network

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QUESTION: 170
When is the site-to-site remote access model appropriate? (Choose one.) A. for multiple ISDN
connections B. for modem concentrated dial-up connections C. for a group of users in the
same vicinity sharing a connection D. for use by mobile users

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QUESTION: 171
VLAN Tagging, also known as Frame Tagging, is a method developed by Cisco to help
identify packets travelling through trunk links. When an Ethernet frame traverses a trunk link,
a special VLAN tag is added to the frame and sent across the trunk link .How does ERS use
the VLAN tag? A. provide service internetworking B. support transparency for Layer 2
frames C. indicate destination as a connection identifier D. map to the DLCI in service
internetworking

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QUESTION: 172
What is one of the reasons that custom QoS ACLs are recommended over automatic QoS when
configuring ports on a Catalyst 6500 for use with IP phones? A. 79xx IP phones do not
automatically mark voice packets with non-zero DSCP values. B. 79xx IP phones do not mark
protocol packets such as DHCP, DNS, or TFTP with non-zero DSCP values. C. 79xx IP
phones do not mark voice packets with optimal DSCP values. D. 79xx IP phones use a custom
protocol to communicate CDP information to the switch.

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QUESTION: 174
Which two are characteristics of RSVP? (Choose two.) A. RSVP itself provides bandwidth
and delay guarantees. B. For RSVP to be end-to-end, all devices must support RSVP. C.
RSVP reservations are maintained by a centralized reservations server. D. An RSVP
compatible QoS mechanism must be used to implement guarantees according to RSVP
reservations.

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QUESTION: 178
To ensure voice packets are kept within the Committed Information Rate (CIR) of a Frame
Relay link, what should be used in the CPE? A. prioritization B. classification C.
fragmentation D. traffic shaping

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QUESTION: 181
Which technology allows centralized storage services to be shared across different VSANs? A.
IVR B. FSPF C. FICON D. SANTap

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QUESTION: 182
Which content networking device allows bandwidth configuration settings so that streaming
content will not interfere with other network traffic? A. IP/TV Control Server B. Content
Distribution Manager C. Content Engine D. IP/TV Broadcast Server

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QUESTION: 185
Which two characteristics are most typical of a SAN? (Choose two.) A. NICs are used for
network connectivity. B. Servers request specific blocks of data. C. Storage devices are
directly connected to servers. D. A fabric is used as the hardware for connecting servers to
storage devices. E. The TCO is higher because of the cost of director class storage switches.

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QUESTION: 186
Which VPN management feature would be considered to ensure that the network had the least
disruption of service when making topology changes? A. dynamic reconfiguration B. path
MTU discovery C. auto setup D. remote management

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QUESTION: 189
The VPN termination function provides the ability to connect two networks together securely
over the internet. Which of these is true of IP addressing with regard to VPN termination? A.
termination devices need routable addresses inside the VPN B. termination devices need not
routable addresses inside the VPN C. IGP routing protocols will update their routing tables
over an IPsec VPN D. addressing designs need to allow for summarization

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QUESTION: 191
Which of these statements is true of routing protocols in a hub-and-spoke IPsec VPN topology?
A. EIGRP can summarize per interface. B. OSPF router databases remain independent. C.
When they are configured with stubs, EIGRP regularly floods the topology. D. OSPF topology
decisions are made independent of hierarchy or area.

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QUESTION: 192
Which three things can be restricted by the Class of Service in a traditional PBX? (Choose
three.) A. dial plans B. dialed numbers C. voice mail prompts D. phone features

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QUESTION: 193
Which two characteristics are true of a firewall running in routed mode based on the following
information? cisco&c=642-874&q=1

A. FWSM routes traffic between the VLANs.
B. FWSM switches traffic between the VLANs.
C. Routed mode is often called bump-in-the-wire mode.
D. Routed mode firewall deployments are used most often in current designs.

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QUESTION: 195
You are the Cisco Network Designer in Cisco.com. Which of these practices should you follow
when designing a Layer 3 routing protocol? A. Never peer on transit links. B. Build squares
for deterministic convergence. C. Build inverted U designs for deterministic convergence. D.
Summarize routes at the distribution to the core to limit EIGRP queries or OSPF LSA
propagation.

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QUESTION: 199
The Cisco IOS SLB feature is a Cisco IOS-based solution that provides server load balancing.
This feature allows you to define a virtual server that represents a cluster of real servers, known
as a server farm. When a client initiates a connection to the virtual server, the IOS SLB load
balances the connection to a chosen real server, depending on the configured load balance
algorithm or predictor. Which three implementation modes may be used to deploy SLB?
(Choose three.) A. Router mode B. One-arm mode C. Three-arm mode D. Bridge mode
inline

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QUESTION: 202
A network vulnerability scanner is part of which critical element of network and system
security? A. host security B. perimeter security C. security monitoring D. policy
management

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QUESTION: 203
You are the Cisco Network Designer in Cisco.com. What is the term for a logical SAN which
provides isolation among devices physically connected to the same fabric? A. InterSwitch
Link B. Virtua LAN C. Virtual Output Queuing D. virtual storage area network

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QUESTION: 206
What four functions does Web Cache Communication Protocol (WCCP) incorporate? (Choose
four.) A. load balancing B. scalability C. remote management D. fault tolerance E. service
assurance

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QUESTION: 207
Which of the following is the primary consideration to scale VPNs? A. packets per second B.
number of remote sites C. throughput bandwidth D. number of tunnels

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QUESTION: 210
In which tunnel-less VPN topology do group members register with a key server in order to
receive the security association necessary to communicate with the group? A. Easy VPN B.
GRE tunneling C. Virtual Tunnel Interfaces D. Dynamic Multipoint VPN E. Group
Encrypted Transport VPN

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QUESTION: 212
Under which two circumstances should Spanning Tree Protocol be implemented? (Choose
two.) A. to ensure a loop-free topology B. to protect against user-side loops C. when a VLAN
spans access layer switches D. for the most deterministic and highly available network
topology E. because of the risk of lost connectivity without Spanning Tree Protocol

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QUESTION: 213
Which two of these are advantages of placing the VPN device parallel to the firewall? (Choose
two.) A. high scalability B. the design supports a layered security model C. firewall
addressing does not need to change D. IPsec decrypted traffic is inspected by the firewall E.
there is a centralized point for logging and content inspection

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QUESTION: 214
What will an Easy VPN hardware client require in order to insert its protected network address
when it connects using network extension mode? A. RADIUS or LDAP B. an internal router
running EIGRP C. Reverse Route Injection and OSPF or RIPv2 D. the VPN appliance to be
deployed in line with the firewall

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QUESTION: 216
When a router has to make a rate transition from LAN to WAN, what type of congestion needs
should be considered in the network design? A. RX-queue deferred B. TX-queue deferred C.
RX-queue saturation D. TX-queue saturation E. RX-queue starvation F. TX-queue starvation

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QUESTION: 220
Which of these recommended designs provides the highest availability? A. map the Layer 2
VLAN number to the Layer 3 subnet B. control route propagation to edge switches using
distribute lists C. use a Layer 2 distribution interconnection link with HSRP or GLBP D. use a
Layer 3 distribution interconnection link with HSRP or GLBP E. use equal-cost Layer 3 load
balancing on all links to limit the scope of queries in EIGRP

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QUESTION: 223
Which two of these are recommended practices with trunks? (Choose two.) A. use ISL
encapsulation B. use 802.1q encapsulation C. set ISL to desirable and auto with encapsulation
negotiate to support ILS protocol negotiation D. use VTP server mode to support dynamic
propagation of VLAN information across the network E. set DTP to desirable and desirable
with encapsulation negotiate to support DTP protocol negotiation.

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QUESTION: 224
Which of these is a benefit of using Network Admission Control instead of Cisco Identity
Based Networking Services? A. NAC can authenticate using 802.1X and IBNS cannot B.
NAC can ensure only compliant machines connect and IBNS cannot C. NAC can ensure
access to the correct network resources and IBNS cannot D. NAC can manage user mobility
and reduce overhead costs and IBNS cannot

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QUESTION: 226
Which two of these Metro Internet services map to E-LAN services that are defined by the
MEF? (Choose two.) A. Ethernet Private Line B. Ethernet Wire Service C. Ethernet Relay
Service D. Ethernet Multipoint Service E. Ethernet Relay Multipoint Service

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QUESTION: 227
Which two of these are characteristics of Metro Ethernet? (Choose two.) A. class of service B.
bandwidth profiles C. user-network interface D. Ethernet LAN circuit attributes E. Ethernet
virtual circuit attributes

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QUESTION: 230
Your MPLS implementation is currently using internal backdoor links. What can you do to
minimize the impact of having these links? A. use BGP as the CE-PE routing protocol B. use
OSPF as the CE-PE routing protocol C. use EIGRP as the CE-PE routing protocol D. use the
SP to redistribute routes as external routes for OSPF and EIGRP E. use route redistribution at
each location to ensure external routes are imported into the IGP

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

QUESTION: 232
Which of these is a Layer 2 transport architecture that provides packet-based transmission
optimized for data based on a dual (counter-rotating) ring topology? A. DTP B. RPR C. SDH
D. CWDM E. DWDM

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QUESTION: 233
Which of these is a benefit of ESM? A. supports multiple MIBs B. includes NetFlow, NBAR,
and IP SLA software subsystems C. includes NetFlow, syslog, and IP SLA software
subsystems D. includes a predefined framework for filtering and correlating messages E.
supports two logging processes so output can be sent in standard and ESM format

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

QUESTION: 234
Which of these ports does syslog use to send messages to a syslog server? A. TCP 502 B.
TCP 514 C. TCP 520 D. UDP 502 E. UDP 514 F. UDP 520

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

QUESTION: 236
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are correct regarding the creation of a multicast
distribution tree? (Choose two.) cisco&c=642-874&q=1

A. Each router determines where to send the JOIN request.
B. The tree will be built based on the IP address of the E2 interface on router
E.
C. The best path to the source will be discovered in the unicast routing table on router
B.
D. The best path to the source will be discovered in the unicast routing table on router
C.
E. The best path to the source will be discovered in the unicast routing table on router E.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

QUESTION: 240
Which two design recommendations are most appropriate when OSPF is the data center core
routing protocol? (Choose two.) A. Never use passive interfaces. B. Use NSSA areas from the
core down. C. Use totally stub areas to stop type 3 LSAs. D. Use the lowest Ethernet interface
IP address as the router ID. E. Tune OSPF timers to enable OSPF to achieve quicker
convergence

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

QUESTION: 244
Which statement about data center access layer design modes is correct? A. The access layer is
the first oversubscription point in a data center design. B. When using a Layer 2 loop-free
design, VLANs are extended into the aggregation layer. C. When using a Layer 2 looped
design, VLANs are not extended into the aggregation layer. D. When using a Layer 3 design,
stateful services requiring Layer 2 connectivity are provisioned from the aggregation layer. E.
The data center access layer provides the physical-level connections to the server resources
and only operates at Layer 3.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

QUESTION: 245
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is correct regarding the topology shown? cisco&c=642-
874&q=1

A. It achieves quick convergence with 802.1w/s.
B. It is currently the most widely deployed in enterprise data centers.
C. It is a looped square that achieves resiliency with dual homing and STP.
D. It is a looped triangle that achieves resiliency with dual homing and STP.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

QUESTION: 247
Which two of these correctly describe Fibre Channel? (Choose two.) A. supports multiple
protocols B. works only in a shared or loop environment C. allows addressing for up to 4
million nodes D. allows addressing for up to 8 million nodes E. provides a high speed
transport for SCSI payloads F. may stretch to a distance of up to 100 km before needing
extenders

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

QUESTION: 248
Which statement about Fibre Channel communications is correct? A. It operates much like
TCP. B. Flow control is only provided by QoS. C. It must be implemented in an arbitrated
loop. D. Communication methods are similar to those of an Ethernet bus. E. N_Port to N_Port
connections use logical node connection points.

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QUESTION: 252
Which two statements about FCIP and iSCSI are correct? (Choose two.) A. The FCIP stack
supports file-level storage for remote devices. B. Both require high throughput with low
latency and low jitter. C. The purpose of FCIP is to provide connectivity between host and
storage. D. The iSCSI stack supports block-level storage for remote devices. E. The purpose
of iSCSI is to provide connectivity between separate wide-area SANs.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

QUESTION: 253
One of your customers has deployed a Layer 3 gateway in the untrusted network. Which
gateway mode is appropriate for this customer? A. Virtual Gateway B. Real-IP Gateway C.
NAT Gateway D. Central Gateway

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

QUESTION: 254
Which two statements about zoning are correct? (Choose two.) A. Zoning increases security.
B. DNS queries are used for software zoning. C. Software zoning is more secure than
hardware zoning. D. When using zones and VSANs together, the zone is created first. E.
Zoning requires that VSANs be established before it becomes operational.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

QUESTION: 255
At a certain customer s site, a NAS is logically in the traffic path but not physically in the
traffic path. The NAS identifies clients by their IP addresses. In which access mode has this
NAS been configured to operate? A. Layer 2 Edge mode B. Layer 2 Central mode C. Layer
2 In-Band mode D. Layer 3 mode

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

QUESTION: 258
What are two characteristics of the SLB One-arm mode? (Choose two.) A. It is not as common
as bridge mode. B. The MSFC is not directly connected to the CSM. C. Outbound traffic from
servers may need to be directed by PBR or CSNAT to the CSM. D. The SLB is moved to a
position where selected inbound and outbound server traffic goes through the SLB. E. The
CSM statically routes inbound server traffic to the aggregation switch FWSM, then to the
connected server subnet.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

QUESTION: 262
Which three of the following descriptions are true about the firewall modes? (Choose three.)
A. Transparent mode is layer 2. B. Routed mode is layer 3. C. Routed mode has 1 IP address.
D. Transparent mode has 1 IP address.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

QUESTION: 266
Which three mechanisms are used to secure management traffic from outside IPS sensors?
(Choose three.) A. secure tunnels B. a separate management VLAN C. secure VLANs to
isolate sensors D. an out-of-band path around the firewall E. asymmetric traffic flows to
isolate sensors F. private VLANs to put all sensors on isolated ports

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

QUESTION: 267
Which two statements about Cisco Security Management Suite are correct? (Choose two.) A.
It should be implemented in a management VLAN. B. Its connection to managed devices
should be over a data VLAN. C. It is made up of Cisco Security MARS and Clean Access
software. D. It should be deployed as close to the edge of the network as possible. E. It
delivers policy administration and enforcement for the Cisco Self-Defending Network.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

QUESTION: 269
Which three of these are elements of the Cisco Unified Wireless Network architecture?
(Choose three) A. cell phones B. remote access C. mobility services D. network
management E. network unification F. network decentralization

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

QUESTION: 271
How many channels are defined in the IEEE 802.11b DSSS channel set? A. 3 B. 4 C. 11 D.
13 E. 14

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

QUESTION: 274
What is the recommended radius of a cell for a voice-ready wireless network? A. 6 dBm B. 19
dBm C. 5 dBm D. -67 dBm

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

QUESTION: 275
Client traffic is being bridged through LAN interfaces on two WLCs. Which roaming option
will keep them on the same IP subnet? A. Layer 1 intercontroller roaming B. Layer 2
intercontroller roaming C. Layer 3 intercontroller roaming D. intracontroller roaming

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

QUESTION: 276
During consultation, you find that a customer has multiple asset closets and will be adding
more in the future. Which NAS physical deployment model would you suggest to this
customer? A. edge B. central C. Layer 2 D. Layer 3

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QUESTION: 277
The Cisco NAC Appliance is able to check which three items before allowing network access?
(Choose three.) A. client antivirus software state B. personal firewall settings C. wireless cell
bandwidth availability D. IOS versions for routers and switches E. appropriate client patch
management level F. appropriate QoS settings for client application

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

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