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PARTñA

2.

A positive point charge +Q is fixed in space.

SECTION - I

Straight Objective Type

This section contains 24 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

A negative point charge ñq of mass m

revolves around fixed charge in elliptical orbit.

The fixed charge +Q is at one focus of the

ellipse. The only force acting on negative

charge is the electrostatic force due to

positive charge. Then which of the following

statement is true.

1. In the figure shown, A is a fixed charged. B

(of mass m) is given a velocity V as shown

in figure. At this moment the radius of

curvature of the resultant path of B is

2
2
8 r
mv
0
(1)
2
3 q
2
2
3 r
mv
0
(2)
2
q
2
2
4
r
mv
0
(3)
2
q
(4) r

(1) Linear momentum of negative point

charge is conserved.

(2) Angular momentum of negative point

charge about fixed positive charge is not

conserved.

(3) Angular momentum of negative point

charge about fixed positive charge is

conserved.

(4) Angular velocity of the charge ñq is

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3. A point charge ñ q is revolving in a circle of

radius ' r ' around a fixed infinite line charge

with positive charge per unit length. Now the

point charge is shifted and it revolves in a circle

of radius ' 2 r '. Then :

(1) Speed of the point charge ñq remain

constant

(2) Speed of the point charge ñq will be change

(3)Angular velocityof the point charge ñq about

line charge does not change.

(4) work done by all forces is non-zero.

5. Charges +9Q and ñ4Q are placed as shown in figure. The point at which electric field intensity is zero at a distance from B on the line joining AB will be:

(1)

(3)

9

4

(2) 3 
(4) 2

6. Three large parallelplates haveuniform surface charge densities as shown in the figure. Find out electric field intensity at point P.

4. Two point charges placed at a distance r in

air exert a force F on each other. The value

of distance R at which they experience force

4F when placed in a medium of dielectric

constant K = 9 is :

(1) r

(2)

(3)

r

6

r

8

(4) 2r

(1) ñ

4

à

k

(3)

0

à

k

5

2

0

(2)

(4)

3

2

0

à

k

5

2

0

à

k

 7. charged particle of charge q= 1C and mass A m = 1g is released from rest in a uniform electric

field E = 100 volt/m. Neglecting the effect of gravity, the kinetic energy of the charged particle after time ë2í seconds is

 (1) 20 J (2) 20 J (3) 1 J (4) 1mJ

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8. Two point charges +q and +9q are placed at (ña, 0) and (+a, 0). Take electric field intensity to be positive if it is along positive x-direction. The variation of the electric field intensity as one moves along the x-axis is

(1)

(2)

(3)

9. The current through a wire depends on time

where i 0 = 10 A and

as

i

=

i 0

+

3t 2 ,

1

= 2 A/sec 2 . Average current for that interval

t = 0 to t = 2s:

(1) 16.28A

(2) 10.28A

(3) 12 A

(4) 10 A

10. Four identical bulbs each rated 100 watt at

 220 volts and two bulb each of 200 watt at 220 volts are connected with a battery as

shown. The total electric power consumed by the bulbs is:

(4)

(1) 75 watt

(2) 80 watt

(3) 20 watt

(4) 800 watt

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11. If radius of a resistor is decreased by 0.5% by stretching then percentage change in resistance :

 (1) 0.5 % (2) 1% (3) 1.5% (4) 2%

12. In the network shown, points A, B and C are potentials of 10 V, 5 V and ñ10 V respectively then

(1) Point D is at a potential of 5 V

(2) Point D is at a potential of 55 V

(3) Point D is at a potential of ñ5.5 V (4) Point D is at a potential of 5.5 V

13. Two wires each of radius of cross section r but of different materials are connected together end to end (i.e. in series). If the densities of charge carriers in the two wires are in the ratio 2: 3, the drift velocityof electrons in the two wires will be in the ratio:

(1) 2: 3

(2) 3 : 2

(3) 4 : 9

(4) 9 : 4

14. Three similar cells, each of emf 2V and internal resistance r send the same current through an external resistance of 2, when connected in series or in parallel. Then the magnitude of current flowing through the external resistance is :

(1) 0.75A

(2) 1 A

(3) 1.5 A

(4) zero

15. Five resistances are connected as shown in figure. The effective resistance between the points A and B is -

(1) 10/3

(2) 20/3

(3) 15

(4) 6

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16. A parallel plate condenser of capacity C is

connected to a battery and is charged to

potential V. Another condenser of capacity 2C

is connected to another battery and is charged

to potential 2V. The charging batteries are

removed and now the condensers are

connected in such a way that the positive plate

of one is connected to negative plate of

another. The final energy of this system isñ

(1) zero

(3)

3CV 2

2

(2)

(4)

25CV 2

6

9CV 2

2

17. The charge on capacitor in two different RC

circuits 1 and 2 are plotted as shown in figure.

18. Theequivalent resistance between pointsAand

 B is (1) R (2) R/2 (3) 5R/8 (4) 2R/3

19. The equivalent capacitance between x and

y is:
5
(1)
6   F

Choose the correct statement(s) related to

the two circuits.

(1) Both the capacitors are charged to the

same magnitude of charge

(2) The emf's of cells in both the circuits are

equal.

(3) The emf's of the cells must be different

(4) The emf E 1 is equal to E 2

(2)

(3)

7

6

8

3

F

F

(4) 4 F

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20. Find the equivalent emf of the three batteries as shown in the figure.

(1) 4 v

(2) 8 v

(3) 2 v

(4) 1 v

21. In the given circuit the ammeter reading is zero. what is the value of resistance 'R' -

(1) 100

(2) 10

(3) 0.1

(4) None of these

 22. Consider the situation shown in the figure. The capacitor A has a charge q on it whereas B is uncharged. The charge appearing on the capacitor B a long time after the switch is closed is (1) zero (2) q/2 (3) q (4) 2 q 23. A parallel combination of 0.1 M  resistor and a 10 F capacitor is connected across a 1.5 volt source of negligible resistance. The time required for the capacitor to set charged upto 0.75 volt is approximately (in seconds): (1)  (2) log e 2 (3) log 10 2 (4) zero 24. The work done in placing a charge of 8 10 ñ18 C on a condenser of capacity 100 micro-farad is (1) 16 10 ñ32 J (3) 4 10 ñ10 J (2) 3.1 10 ñ26 J (4) 32 10 ñ32 J

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SECTION - II

Reasoning Type

This section contains 3 reasoning type questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

25. STATEMENT-1 : When a point charge q is

placed inside the cavity of a neutral conductor,

equal and opposite charges are induced on

inner and outer surfaces of the conductor.At a

point P, electric field due to charges induced

on cavity surface must be non-zero.

+
+
+
+
+
+
+
+
+
+
+
+
+
P
+
ñ ñ
+
ñ
ñ
ñ
+
ñ
+
ñ ñ
+q
+
+
ñ
ñ ñ
+
ñ
+
+
+
+
+
+
+
+
+
+

STATEMENT-2 : Electric field at point P due

to point charge q is zero.

(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;

Statement-2 is a correct explanation for

Statement-1.

(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;

Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for

Statement-1.

(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False.

(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True.

26. STATEMENT-1 : If the potential difference

across a plane parallel plate capacitor is

doubled then the potential energy of the

capacitor becomes four times under all

conditions.

STATEMENT-2 : The potential energy U

1

stored in the capacitor is U = 2 CV 2 , where

C and V have usual meaning.

(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;

Statement-2 is a correct explanation for

Statement-1.

(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;

Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for

Statement-1

(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

27. STATEMENT-1 : The current density at any

point in ohmic resistor is in direction of electric

J

field E at that point.

STATEMENT-2 : Apoint charge when released

from rest in a region having only electrostatic

field always moves along electric lines of force.

(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;

Statement-2 is a correct explanation for

Statement-1

(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;

Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for

Statement-1

(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True.

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SECTION - III

Comprehension Type

This section contains 1 paragraph. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

Paragraph for Question Nos. 28 to 30

Consider a solid neutral conducting sphere of radius 2R having a concentric cavity of radius R.

3R
R
Points A , D and B are at distances 3 R ,
&
from centre C respectively. S 1 & S 2 are inner
2
2
and outer surface of the hollow sphere.

28. If we place a point charge q 0 at C then choose the correct statement :

(1) Induced charge on S 1 is ñq 0

(3) Potential at D is zero

(2) Electric field at D is not zero

(4) induced charge on S 2 is q 0 /2

29. If we place that point charge q 0 at A (instead of C) then choose the correct statement :

(1) potential at C ( i.e. V C ) is

kq

0

3R

(3) electric field at B ( i.e. E B ) 0

(2) V C V B

(4) net induced charge on S 2 0

30. If we place that point charge q 0 on B (instead of A or C) then choose the correct statement :

(1) Induced charge on S 2 will be distributed uniformly

(2) Induced charge on S 1 will be distributed uniformly

kq 0
(3) V A 
3R
kq
0
(4) E A 
2
9R
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PART- B

Straight Objective Type

This section contains 30 questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

31. The number of real solutions of the equation

|x ñ 5| = [ñ2] + [e 2 ] is (where [.] denotes

greatest integer function)

(1) one solution

33.

If (tan ñ1 x) 2 + (cot ñ1 x) 2 =

(1) ñ1

(2)

(3)

0

1

(4) 2

(2) two solutions

(3)

no solution

(4) none of these

32. If

sin ñ1

  tan

 

4

ñ sin ñ1

3
x

root of the equation

(1) x 2 ñ x ñ 6 = 0

 (2) x 2 + x ñ 6 = 0 (3) x 2 ñ x ñ 12 = 0

(4) x 2 + x ñ 12 = 0

=

, then x is a

6

34.

n

tan

m 1

ñ1

m

2m

4

m

2

2

 (1) tan ñ1 (n 2 + n + 1) (2) tan ñ1 (n 2 ñ n + 1)

(3) tan ñ1

n

2

n

n

2

 

n

2

(4) none of these

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

=

5

2

8

, then x =

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35. The domain of sin ñ1

(1) (ñ2, 1)

(2) [ñ2, 1]

(3)

R

(4) [ñ1, 1]

1

2x

3

is

36. The period of the function f (x) = cos

(1) 2

(2)

(3) 2

(4) None of these

37. Which of the following functions is an even function ?

8x

4

5

is

(1) f (x) = sin x + cos x

(2) f (x) = log

1ñ x

1x

(3) f (x) =

x

x

+ 2

e

x

ñ1

(4) None of these

38. Which of the following functions is not injective ?

(1) f : R R, f (x) = 2x + 7

(2) f : [0,] [ ñ 1,1 ], f (x) = cos x

(3) f :

ñ

  

2

,

2

 

R , f (x) = 2 sin x + 3

(4) f : R [ ñ 1, 1 ], f (x) = sin x

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39.

lim

x

0

2

x

ñ 1

(1

x)

1/2

ñ 1

(1) log 2

=

(2) 2 log 2

(3)

1

2 log 2

41. Let f(x + y) = f(x) . f(y) for all x R and

lim

f(x) = 1 + x(x) log2 where x 0 (x) = 1. Then

f(x) is equal to

(1) log2 f(x)

(2) log(f(x)) 2

(3) log2

(4) 0

(4) none of these

40. Consider the function f (x) =

x

0

m

sin

1

x

, x

, x

42. The function f(x) is defined as follows

0

0

f(x) =

   ax

2

x

3

bx

c

;

;

x

x

1

1

then.ñ (1) f(x) is continuous as well as differentiable if m < 0 (2) f (x) is continuous as well as defferentiable if 0 < m < 1 (3) f (x) is continuous as well as differentiable if m > 0 (4) f (x) is continuous as well as differentiable if m > 1.

What must be the values of a, b, c so that f (x) is continuous everywhere ? (1) a = 3, b = ñ 3, c = 1

(2) a = ñ 3, b = 3, c = 1

(3) a = 3, b = 3, c = ñ 2

(4) can not be determined

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43. If function f(x) = log 2

sinx ñ cosx
 3
2
2

(1) Domain of f(x) is R

, then

(2) Domain of f(x) is R ñ {n}, nI

(3) Range of f(x) is [0,1]

(4) Range of f(x) is R ñ [1,2]

45. If

f(x) + 2f(1 ñ x) = x 2 + 2 ;

is given by

 (x ñ1) 2 (1) 3 (x ñ 2) 2 (2) 3 (3) x 2 ñ 1 (4) x 2 ñ 2

44. Which of the following functions (is) are injective map(s) ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

 f(x) = x 2 + 2, x  (ñ, ) f(x) = |x + 2|, x  [ñ2, )

f(x) = (x ñ 4)(x ñ 5), x (ñ, )

f(x) =

4x

2

3x ñ 5

4

3x ñ 5x

2

, x (ñ, )

46. Find the domain of f(x) =

(1)

(ñ, 0) (1, )

(2) (ñ, )

(3) (ñ, 0] [1, )

(4) none of these

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

x R, then f(x)

1

1
ñ1
1ñ e
x

.

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47. Lim

x (1 x + 2 x + 3 x +

(1) ln (n!)

(2) n

(3) n!

(4) 0

48. The value of

(1)

1

(2) ñ1

(3)

(4)

e

1

e

lim   sinx

x

0

x

sinx

xñsinx

+n

is

x ) 1/x is

49.

lim

n

(1) 1

1

2

2 3

2

2

n

2

n

3

(2)

1

2

(3)

1

3

(4) 0

50. Find

lim

x(2n1)

sin [sinx]

 

6

=

, where [.]

greatest integer function and n .

(1)

(2)

(3)

0

1

2

1

ñ 2

(4) none of these

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

is

a

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51. The value of of

lim

x

0

ñ

n(1

{x}) is (where {x}

{x}

denotes the fractional part of x)

(1) 1

(2)

(3)

(4)

n 1

n 2

2

52. The function f(x) = x ñ |x ñ x 2 |, ñ 1 x 1 is continuous on the interval

(1) [ñ1, 1]

(2) (ñ1, 1)

(3) [ñ1, 1]/ {0}

(4)

(ñ1, 1)/ {0}

53. The function

f(x) =

1ñ 2x

1

3x

2

ñ 4x

3

to

, x

, x

ñ1

ñ1

is

(1) continuous and derivable at x = ñ 1

(2) neither continuous nor derivable at x = ñ 1

(3) continuous but not derivable at x = ñ 1

(4) none of these

54. If f(x) = [x ñ 2], then

 (1) f (2.5) = 1 2 and f (5) = 3 (2) f (2.5) = 0 and f (5) = 3 (3) f (2.5) = 0 and f (5) does not exist

(4) Both f (2.5) and f (5) do not exist.

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55. If f(x) =

2
ñx
1ñ e

, then at x = 0, f(x) is

(1) differentiable as well as continuous

(2) continuous but not differentiable

(3) differentiable but not continuous

(4) neither differetiable nor continuous

56. If f(x) =

3

x

,

ñ1

1

4ñ x,

x

x

1

4

, then

(1) f(x) is continuous as well as differentiable at x = 1

(2) f(x) is continuous but not differentiable at

x = 1

(3) f(x) is differentiable but not continuous at

x = 1

(4) none of these

[tan(

x)] 1/ x

,

57. If

f(x)

/ 4

x

, x

0

0

=

 

then

,

k

for what value of k, f(x) is continuousat x 0?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

1

e

e

e

2

ñ1

58. If

f(x)

= ||x| 2 ñ

2|x| ñ

3| then

f(x)

differentiable at x equal to

(1) ñ 1,0,1

(2)

1, 2

(3) ñ3, ñ1, 0, 1, 3

(4)

ñ3, 0, 3

is non

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59. If

lim

x

0

f (c) exists and is non-zero then

f(c h)f(c

h

ñh)ñ 2f(c) is equal to

(1) f (c)

(2)

0

(3) 2f (c)

(4) none of these

60. Let f and g be differentiable functions satisfying g(a) = 2, g(a) = 2 and fog = (Identityfunction). Then f(b) is equal to

(1)

1

2

(2) 2

(3)

2

3

(4) none of these

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PARTñC

Atomic masses : [H = 1, D = 2, Li = 7, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Na = 23, Mg = 24, Al = 27, Si = 28, P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, K = 39, Ca = 40, Cr = 52, Mn = 55, Fe = 56, Cu = 63.5, Zn = 65,

As = 75, Br = 80, Ag = 108, I = 127,

Ba = 137, Hg = 200, Pb = 207]

Straight Objective Type

This section contains 30 multiple choice

questions. Each question has 4 choices (1),

(2), (3) and (4) for its answer, out of which

ONLY ONE is correct.

62. Main function of frothers is:

(1) Stick to the ore and then take it to rise upto

the top

(2) Convert the insoluble ore into soluble part

(3) Make the ore hydrophobic

(4) None

61. Match List-with List- and select the correct

answer using the codes given below the lists.

 List- List- (Metals) (Process/methods involved

in extraction process)

 (a) Au 1. Self reduction (b) Al 2. Liquation (c) Pb 3. Electrolysis (d) Sn 4. Bayer's process (a) (b) (c) (d) (1) 3 1 2 4 (2) 3 4 1 2 (3) 1 2 4 3 (4) 3 2 4 1

63. Consider the following metallurgical processes

(i) Heating impure metal with CO and distilling

the resulting volatile carbonyl (boiling point

43 C) and finally decomposing at 150 C to

200 C to get the pure metal.

(ii) Heating the sulphide ore in air until a part

is converted to oxide and then further heating

in the absence of air to let the oxide react with

unchanged sulphide.

(iii) Electrolysing the molten electrolyte

containing approximately equal amounts of the

metal chloride and CaCl 2 to obtain the metal.

The process used for obtaining sodium, nickel

and copper are, respectively,

 (1) (i), (ii) and (iii) (2) (ii), (iii) and (i) (3) (iii), (i) and (ii) (4) (ii), (i) and (iii)

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

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64.Consider the cell potentials

E

Mg

2

|Mg

=ñ2.37

V and

E

Fe

3

|Fe

= ñ 0.04 V.The best reducing

agent would be

(1) Mg 2+ (2) Fe 3+ (3) Mg (4) Fe

65. How much the potential of a hydrogen

electrode will change when its solution initially at pH = 0 is neutralised to pH = 7 ? (1) Increase by 0.059 V (2) Decrease by 0.059 V (3) Increase by 0.41 V (4) Decrease by 0.41 V

66. Equivalent conductance of 1M CH 3 COOH is

10 ohm ñ1 cm 2 equiv ñ1 and that at infinite dilution is 200 ohm ñ1 cm 2 , equiv ñ1 . Hence % ionisation of CH 3 COOH is :

 (1) 5% (2) 2% (3) 4% (4) 1%

67. Which of following cell can produce more electrical work. (1) Pt, H 2 |0.1M NH 4 Cl || 0.1 M CH 3 COOH | H 2 , Pt (2) Pt, H 2 | 0.1 M HCl || 0.1 M NaOH | H 2 , Pt (3) Pt, H 2 | 0.1 M HCl || 0.1 M CH 3 COOK | H 2 , Pt (4) Pt, H 2 | 0.1 M CH 3 COOK || 0.1 M HCl | H 2 , Pt

68. A current of 0.1A was passed for 2hr through a solution of cuprocyanide and 0.3745 g of copper was deposited on the cathode. Calculate the current efficiency for the copper

deposition. (Cu ñ 63.5)

 (1) 79% (2) 39.5 % (3) 63.25% (4) 63.5%

69. BY the electrolysis of aqueous solution of CuSO 4 , the products obtained at both the electrodes are (1) O 2 at anode and H 2 at cathode (2) H 2 at anode and Cu at cathode (3) O 2 at anode and Cu at cathode (4) H 2 S 2 O 8 at anode and O 2 at cathode

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

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70. How many gm of silver will be displaced from a solution of AgNO 3 by 4 gm of magnesium? (1) 18 gm (2) 4 gm (3) 36 gm (4) 16 gm

71. Given : Hg 2 2+ + 2 e 2 Hg , E 0 = 0.789 V

& Hg 2+ + 2 e  Hg , E 0 = 0.854 V,

calculate the equilibrium constant for Hg 2 2+  Hg + Hg 2+ . (1) 3.13 10 3 (2) 3.13 10 4 (3) 6.26 10 3 (4) 6.26 10 4

72. The reduction potential of hydrogen electrode when placed in a buffer solution is found to be ñ 0.413V. The pH of the buffer is - (1) 10 (2) 4 (3) 7 (4) 12

73. Which of the following acids is monobasic ? (1) Hypophosphorous acid (H 3 PO 2 ) (2) Orthophosphoric acid (H 3 PO 4 ) (3) Pyrophosphoric acid (H 4 P 2 O 7 ) (4) Hypophosphoric acid (H 4 P 2 O 6 )

74. Which of the following oxides is amphoteric in nature ?

(1) N 2 O 3 (3) Sb 4 O 6

(2) P 4 O 6 (4) Bi 2 O 3

75. Which of the following is least reactive ? (1) White phosphorus (2) Yellow phosphorus (3) Red phosphorus

(4) Black phosphorus

76. is obtained when ammonium dichromate is heated. (1) nitrogen (2) oxygen (3) ammonia

(4) none

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77. Which of the following oxides of nitrogen is

solid at or below 273 K ?

(1) NO 2

(2) N 2 O 3

(3) N 2 O

(4) N 2 O 5

80. Bleaching of a fabric cloth is done usingAand excess of chlorine is removed using B. A and

B are :

(1) CaOCl 2 , Na 2 SO 3 (2) Na 2 S 2 O 3 , CaOCl 2 (3) CaCl 2 , Na 2 S 2 O 3 (4) CaOCl 2 , Na 2 S 2 O 3

78. Estimation of ozone can be made quantitatively

by :

(1) decomposition into O 2 and absorption of

O 2 into pyrogallol

(2) volumetric method using KI and titration of

the liberated iodine using hypo solution

(3) oxidative ozonolysis method

81. Which of the following carbonyl gives 4-methyl pent -3-en-2-one on reaction with dilute NaOH solution with heating.

(1)Acetaldehyde

(2)Acetone

(3) Formaldehyde (4) Propanal

(4) all methods given above

79. Out of H 2 S 2 O 3 , H 2 S 4 O 6 , H 2 SO 5 and H 2 S 2 O 8

82. Which one of the following will not give - hydroxy acid.

peroxy acids are :

(1) H 2 S 2 O 3 , H 2 S 4 O 6

(1) C 6 H 5 ñCH=O

 (2) H 2 S 4 O 6 , H 2 SO 5 (2) (3) H 2 SO 5 , H 2 S 2 O 8 (4) H 2 S 2 O 3 , H 2 S 2 O 8 (3)

(4) All of these

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83. Reaction of cyclohexanone with dimethylamine in the presence of catalytic amount of an acid forms a compound. If water during the reaction is continuouslyremoved the compound formed is generally known as (1) an amine (2) an imine (3) an enamine (4) a Shiff's base

84.

The structure of compound ë x í is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

85. The following sequence of reactions gives :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
86. A mixture of benzaldehyde and formaldehyde

on heating with NaOH solution gives :

(1) Benzyl alcohol and sodium formate

(2) Sodium benzoate and methyl alcohol

(3) Sodium benzoate and sodium formate

(4) Benzyl alcohol and methyl alcohol

87. Base catalysed aldol condensation occurs

with:

(1) benzaldehyde

(2) 2-methyl propanal

(3) 2, 2-dimethylpropanal

(4) Formaldehyde

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88.

(i) O

3



(ii) Zn,H O

2

OH



X major

90. What will be the reactivity order of following

compounds with PhMgBr.

 X will be : (I) CH 3 CHO (II) PhCHO (III) CH 3 COPh (IV) HCHO (1) (2) (1) III > II > I > IV (2) IV > I > III > II (3) (4) (3) IV > I > II > III (4) I > IV > II > III

89. Order of reactivities of carbonyl compounds towards nucleophilic addition reactions is

(1) III < II < I < IV (3) I < IV < II < III

(2) IV < I < III < II (4) IV < I < II < III

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

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