OYWD

CODE-A

08/10/2014

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, Plot No.-4, Sec-11, MLU, Dwarka, New Delhi-110075
Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

UNIT TEST

MM : 360

Time : 1 Hrs.

(ONE YEAR COURSE FOR MEDICAL-2015)

Test-7
Topics covered :
Physics
Chemistry
Botany

:
:
:

Ray Optics and Optical Instruments

Haloalkanes and Haloarenes; Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers
Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production; Microbes in Human Welfare

Zoology

Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production -

Animal Husbandry

Instructions :
(i) Use ball point pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on
Answer sheet.
(vi)

Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer :

1.

2.

3.

4.

A person runs with a speed u towards a bicycle

moving away from him with speed v. The person
approaches his image in the plane mirror fixed at
the rear of bicycle with a speed of
(1) uv
(2) u+v
(3) 2(uv)
(4) 2(u+v)
A person can not see objects clearly beyond 50
cm. The power of the lens to correct the vision is
(1) +5 dioptre
(2) 0.5 dioptre
(3) 2 dioptre
(4) +2 dioptre
A point object is between the pole and focus of a
concave mirror, and moving away from the mirror
with a constant speed. The velocity of image is
(1) Away from the mirror and increasing in
magnitude
(2) Towards the mirror and increasing in magnitude
(3) Away from the mirror and decreasing in
magnitude
(4) Towards the mirror and decreasing in
magnitude
A convex mirror of focal length fo is placed at the
origin with its reflecting surface towards the
negative x-axis. Choose the graph between v and
u for u<0

v
fo

(1)

v
fo
fo/2

(2)

fo

fo o

v
fo

(3)
5.

6.

fo

(4)
fo

o u

The distance of a real object from the focus of a

convex mirror of radius of curvature a is b. Then
the distance of the image from the focus is
(1)

b2
4a

(2)

(3)

a2
4b

(4)

a
b2

a2
2b

A lens is placed between a source of light and a

wall. It forms images of aea A1 and A2 on the wall,
for its two different positions, The area of the
source of light is
(1)

A1 A 2
2

(3)

A1 A 2

1
1
(2) A A
1
2

(4)

A1 A 2
2

One Year Medical 2014-2015

Unit Test-7 (OYWD)

7.

A tiny air bubble in a glass slab (=1.5) appears

from one side to be 6 cm from the glass surface
and 4cm from other side. The thickness of the
glass slab is
(1) 10cm
(2) 6.67cm
(3) 15cm
(4) 7.5cm
8. A plane glass slab is placed over various coloured
letters. The letter which appears to be raised the
least is
(1) Red
(2) Yellow
(3) Violet
(4) Green
9. A ray of light is incident upon an air/water interface
(it passes from air into water) at an angle of 45,
which of the following quantities changes as the
light enters the water ?
(I) Wavelength
(II) Frequency
(III) Speed of propagation
(IV) Direction of propagation
(1) I and III only
(2) III and IV only
(3) I, II, IV only
(4) I, III, IV only
10. For which colour the critical angle for glass to air
refraction is least ?
(1) Orange
(2) Blue
(3) Violet
(4) Red
11. From the figure shown establish a relation between
1, 2 and 3
1

AIR

GLASS

(1) u > 3R
(2) u > 2R
(3) u < 2R
(4) u < R
14. A thin symmetric double-convex lens of power P is
cut into three parts A, B and C as shown. The
power of
A

(1) A is P
(2) A is 2P
(3) B is P
(4) B is P/4
15. A bi-concave symmetric lens made of glass has
refractive index 1.5. It has both surfaces of same
radius of curvature R. On immersion in a liquid of
refractive index 1.25, it will behave as a
(1) Converging lens of focal length 2.5R
(2) Converging lens of focal length 2R
(3) Diverging lens of focal length 4.5R
(4) Diverging lens of focal length 2.5R

A
16. The refractive index of a prism is cot where A is
2
angle of prism. The angle of minumum deviation is
(1) 2A

(2) 90A

(3) 1802A

(4) 0

17. An equilateral prism deviates a ray through 40 for

two angles of incidences differing by 20. The possible
angle of incidences are

(1) 1 <2 <3

(2) 3 <2 ; 3 = 1
(3) 3 > 2 ; 3 = 1
(4) 1 = 2 = 3
12. A plano-convex lens of refractive index 1.5 and
radius of curvature 30 cm is silvered at the curved
surface. Now this lens has been used to form the
image of an object. At what distance from this lens
an object be placed in order to have a real image
of the size of the objects
(1) 20 cm
(2) 30 cm
(3) 60 cm
(4) 80 cm
13. A concave spherical refracting surface seperates
two media, glass and air (g = 1.5). If the image
is real, at what minimum distance u, should the
object be placed in glass if R is radius of
curvature ?

(1) 40, 60

(2) 50, 30

(3) 45, 55

(4) 30, 60

18. An achromatic convergent doublet of two lens in

contact has a power of +2D. The power of the convex
lens is +5D. What is the ratio of dispersive powers
of a convergent and divergent lenses ?
(1) 2:5
(3) 5:2

(2) 3:5
(4) 5:3

19. Lateral magnification of objective of compound

microscope is 100 and angular magnification of its
eye-piece is 10. The magnifying power of compound
microscope is
(1) 1000
(3) 500

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

(2)

(2) 10
(4) 120

One Year Medical 2014-2015

Unit Test-7 (OYWD)

20. In a compound microscope the focal length of two

lenses are 1.5cm and 6.25cm. If an object is placed
at 2cm from objective and final image is formed at
25cm from eye lens, the distance between the two
lenses is
(1) 6.00 cm

(2) 7.75 cm

(3) 9.25 cm

(4) 11.00 cm

22. A luminous objecs is placed at a distance of 30 cm

from a convex lens of focal length 20 cm. On the
other side of the lens, at what distance from the lens
must a convex mirror of radius of curvature 10 cm be
placed in order to have an upright image of the object
coincident with it
(1) 30 cm
(2) 60 cm
(3) 50 cm
(4) 12 cm
23. The magnifying power of a telescope when the
image is being formed at infinity is given by

21. If the refractive index of glass is 5/3,the the critical

angle of incidence for light tending to go from glass
to water is (water = 4/3)
(1)

3
4

sin1

(2)

sin1

(1)

3
5

(3)
4
(4) sin1 5

2
(3) sin1
3

fe

(2)

fo

2fe
fo

fo

fe

(4) fo+fe

CHEMISTRY
24. The strongest acid is
OH

OH
NO2

(1)

(1)

(2)

(3)

OH

OH

(3)

28. Which of the following is most reactive for SN1

reaction ?

NO2

(4)

25. Consider the species

CCl3

(1)

(3)

CCl3

(3)

27.

Br
CH2CH2Br

(1) NH3
(3) KCN

CCl3

Br

Br

CH(CH3)2

31. Isopropyl benzene

CCl3

(4)

CH(CH3)2

Cl

(4)

Br

30. In which case recemisation takes place on

solvolysis in aq. acetonitrile ?
(1)

CCl3

(2)

(3)

CH(CH3)2

Cl

Cl

H
+CH2 = CHCH3
P, Product P is

(2)

(4)

CH3
Cl

(1)

F(II) CH3 (III) NH2(IV)

Arrange these nucleophillic species in their

decreasing order of nucleophilicity
(1) III>IV>I>II
(2) II>I>III>IV
(3) I>II>III>IV
(4) III>I>II>IV
26.

CH2Cl

29. Which of the following compound will give yellow

precipitate on shaking with aq. sodium hydroxide
followed by addition of silver nitrate ?

NO 2

OH(I)

(2)

Cl

CH2CH2CH3

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

, the reagent R is
(2) H2O
(4) Na/Ether

(4) All of these

1) O 2h
x & y. x & y are
+
2) H3O

Propanone & phenol

Toluene & propanol
Propanone & benzaldehyde
Propanone & diphenyl peroxide

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

(3)

(2) CD3 Br

One Year Medical 2014-2015

32.

OH

Unit Test-7 (OYWD)

1) o
2) H3O+

Mg/
SOCl2

Et O
Pyridine
2

38. Which of the following reaction will not result

formation of anisole ?

Product.

NaOH
(1) PhOH + (CH3)2SO4

Product of reaction is
OH

(1)

(3)

(4)

OH

NaOH
(2) PhOH + CH3-

(2)

(3) Ph-OH + CH2N2

(4) Ph-OH + CH3Mg

OH

Br2/h

39.
NaNH2

liq NH3

33.

X (major product). X is

major product is
CH3

CH 2Br

(1)

CH3

(2)
Br

NH2

NH2

(1)

CH3

Ch3
Br

(3)

(4)
Br

(2)
CH3

CH3

NH2

OH

(2)

(3)

NH2

?
strong heating

(1)

(4)
COOH

41.

34. Neutral FeCl3 gives purple colour with

(1) Phenol
(3) P-bromophenol

KMnO /H

40.

Cl

(3)

(4)

OOH

H2SO4

P. The major product (P)

formed in the reaction
OH OH

(2) P-cresol
(4) All of these

1:1

CH3

Cl

35.

+ H
P. Product is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

OH

42. The following compound on hydrolysis in aqueous

Me Me Me

acetone will give MeO

(1)

(3)

HO

HO

(2)

(4)

36.

HO

Cl

CH3 CH3 CH3

(A)

CH3-O-

(B)

CH3-O

(C)

CH3-O

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

Mixture of (A) & (B)

Mixture of (A) & (C)
Only C
Mixture of (B) & (C)

HO

OH CH3

NO2

CH3 CH3 CH3

This change can be done by

NO2
OH H

CH3

OH
CH3 CH3 CH3

(1) Acid catalysed hydration

(2) Oxymercuration-demercuration
(3) Hydroboration oxidation
(4) All of these
37. The ether C6H5OCH2C6H5 when treated with H
gives
(1) C6H5CH2
(2) C6H5CH2OH
(3) C6H5OH
(4) Both (1) and (3)

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

(4)

NO2
H CH3 OH

Me

NO2

One Year Medical 2014-2015

Unit Test-7 (OYWD)

44. Which of the following is not cleaved by H even

at 525K ?
(1) C6H5OCH3
(2) C6H5OC6H5

CH2OH
Conc. H SO

43.

2
4

major product is

CH2

(1)

(3) C6H5OC3H7

CH3

(2)
45.
CH3

(3)

ONa

CO2, 400K
4-7 atm
dil HCl

product B is called
(1) Aspirin
(3) Oil of wintergreen

(4)

(4)

CH3 OH
B.
A
Conc.H2SO4

T he

(2) Salol
(4) Oil of mirabane

BIOLOGY
46. In cellular totipotency, roots can be induced by

51. Agitation of liquid tissue culture serves the purpose

of

(1) Lower concentration of cytokinin & higher

concentration of auxin

(1) Aeration

(2) Higher concentration of cytokinin & lower

concentration of auxin

(2) Constant mixing

(3) Breaking cell aggregates

(3) Both in equal proportions

(4) All

(4) Only auxin & no cytokinins

52. Sterilization of tissue culture medium is done by

47. Mung bean, developed by mutation breeding is

resistant to

(1) Autoclaving of medium at 120C for 15 minutes

(1) Only yellow mosaic

(2) Filtering the medium through fine sieve

(2) White rust & black rot

(3) Mixing the medium with antifungal agents

(3) Yellow mosaic & powdery mildew

(4) Keeping the medium at 20C

53. Match the following columns & choose the correct
option

(4) Black rot & powdery mildew

48. A cybrid is a hybrid carrying

Column-I

(1) Cytoplasm of two different plants but genome

of one plant
(2) Cytoplasm of several plants but genome of two
plants

(A) Mutation breeding

i) Laborious &
expensive process to
obtain gene variation

(B) Selection

ii) Hybrid vigour can be

maintained for several
generations

(C) Hybridization

iii) Simplest & easiest

method of plant
improvement

(D) Heterosis

iv) Quick method to

obtain gene variation

(3) Genome of two different plants

(4) Cytoplasm of two different plants
49. Cross between genus is
(1) Intraspecific hybridisation
(2) Intervarietal hybridisation

Column-II

(3) Interspecific hybridisation

(1) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(ii)

(4) Intergeneric hybridisation

(2) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iii)

50. The name of Norman Borlaug is associated with

(1) White revolution

(2) Green revolution

(3) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv)

(3) Yellow revolution

(4) Blue revolution

(4) All of these

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

(5)

One Year Medical 2014-2015

Unit Test-7 (OYWD)

54. Fusion of isolated protoplasts from two different

varieties of plants results into
(1) Somaclones

(2) Somatic hybrids

(3) Biofortified

(4) Cross hybrids

61. Probiotics are

(1) Cancer inducing microbes
(2) New kind of food allergens
(3) Live microbial food supplement

55. Consider the following statements (AD) about

organic farming

(4) Safe antibiotics

62. Biogas production from waste biomass with the
help of methanogenic bacteria is

(A) Utilizes genetically modified crops like Bt

cotton

(1) One-step process

(B) Uses only naturally produced inputs like

compost

(2) Two-step process

(C) Does not use pesticides & urea

(3) Three-step process

(D) Produces vegetables rich in v itamins &

minerals

(4) Multiple step process

63. W hich one of the following pairs is wrongly
matched ?

The correct statements are

(1) B, C & D

(2) C & D only

(1) Yeast-Ethanol

(3) B & C only

(4) A & B only

(2) Streptomycetes - Antibiotic

56. An example for semi-dwarf variety of wheat is

(1) IR - 8

(2) Sonalika

(3) Triticum

(4) Saccharum

(3) Coliforms - Vinegar

(4) Methanogens - Gobar gas
64. Find out the pairs, which are correctly matched

57. A good producer of citric acid is

(1) Pseudomonas

A. Cyanobacteria

Biopesticides

B. Mycorrhiza

Solubilization of
phosphate

C. Bacillus

Cry protein

Spirulina

(2) Clostridium
(3) Saccharomyces

thuringiensis

(4) Aspergillus

D. Single cell

58. Mark the mis-matched pair

(1) Spirulina

SCP

(2) Reimei

Rice

protein

(3) Sharbati Sonora

Barley

(4) IRRI

Philippines

(1) A & B

(2) B & C

(3) C & D

(4) All

65. Yoghurt & buttermilk are produced with the use of

59. Triticum aestivum, the common bread wheat is

(1) Triploid with 30 chromosomes

(1) Saccharomyces

(2) Penicillium

(3) Lactobacillus

(4) Aspergillus

66. Broad spectrum antibiotics are the one which attack

(2) Hexaploid with 42 chromosomes

(1) Pathogen as well as hosts

(3) Tetraploid with 30 chromosomes

(2) A wide range of pathogens

(4) Diploid with 14 chromosomes

(3) Only a pathogen

60. When two unrelated individuals are crossed, the

performance of F1 hybrid is often superior to both
its parents. This phenomenon is called
(1) Hybrid vigour

(2) Heterosis

(3) Metamorphosis

(4) More than one

(4) Only host

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

(6)

One Year Medical 2014-2015

Unit Test-7 (OYWD)

76. Find out the wrong statement

67. How many of the given products are produced by

distillation ?

(1) Bubalus bubalis hav e greater disease

resistance

Wine, SCP, Beer, Whisky, Brandy, Rum

(1) Three

(2) Five

(3) Four

(4) Two

(2) Bubalus sp yield more milk of low fat content

(3) There are seven breeds of Bubalus sp
(4) Bubalus sp has more longevity

68. Mark the incorrect one

(1) Aspergillus niger

Citric acid

(2) Trichoderma

Cyclosporin A

77. In MOET a cow is administered with which of the

following hormones ?
(1) Hormone with LH-like activity

polysporum

(2) Hormone with FSH-like activity

(3) Monascus purpureus Statins

(3) Hormone with estrogen-like activity

(4) Streptokinase

In detergents

(4) Hormone with progesterone like acitivity

(1) Domestic animals

(2) Cattle farming

78. MOET is for herd improvement. The following

statements w.r.t MOET are incorrect except

(3) Pet animals

(4) All of these

69. Livestock refers to

(1) The fertilized eggs at 832 cells stages are

recovered surgically and transferred to the
surrogate mothers

70. Which of the following is not a carp?

(1) Harpodon neherius

(2) Labeo rohita

(3) Catla catla

(4) Cirrhinus mrigala

(2) The unfertilized eggs are recovered surgically

and transferred to the surrogate mother

71. Fisheries include rearing, catching and selling of

(1) Fish

(2) Shell fish

(3) Crabs

(4) All of these

(3) The fertilized eggs at 832 cells stage are

recovered non-surgically and transferred to the
surrogate mother

72. More than 70% of world livestock population is in

India and China. How much their contribution to
the world farm produce is on record ?
(1) 70%

(2) 60%

(3) 50%

(4) 25%

(4) The unfertilized eggs are recovered nonsurgically and transferred to the surrogate
mother
79. The most common species of honey bee is

73. Find the incorrect statement

(1) When breeding is done between closely related
animals of the same breed for 4-6 generations it
is called out breeding

(3) Apis indica

(4) Apis mellifera

(1) Buccal cavity

(2) Thorax

(3) Abdomen

(4) Metathorasic leg

81. Which of the following is a bacterial disease of

cattle ?

(3) Male and female animals of two different species

are mated, it is called interspecific hybridisation
(4) Controlled breeding experiments are carried out
using artificial insemination

(1) Rinderpest

(2) Cow pox

(3) Foot and mouth

(4) Anthrax

82. Royal jelly is composed of

74. Which one of the following is not a milch breed ?

(1) Sahiwal
(2) Red sindhi

(1) Karnal
(3) Mumbai

(2) Apis florea

80. Bees wax is secreted by wax gland located in

(2) The crosses between different breeds are called

cross breeding

(3) Gir
75. NDR is located in

(1) Apis dorsata

(1) Pollen
(2) Honey

(4) Tharparkar

(3) Digested honey and pollen mixed with a

glandular secretion

(2) Kerala
(4) Lucknow

(4) Mucus

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

(7)

One Year Medical 2014-2015

Unit Test-7 (OYWD)

83. Fowl cholera is caused by

(1) Salmonella

(2) Mycoplasma

(3) Pasteurella

(4) Eimeria

88. New castle disease is the infection of _____ by a

_____
(1) Fowl, virus
(2) Cattle, bacteria

84. Pebrine is a disease of silk moth. It is caused by

infection of
(1) Bacteria

(2) Virus

(3) Protozoa

(4) Helminth

(3) Fowl, bacteria

(4) Cattle, virus
89. Which are the correct features of Indian milch
breeds ?

85. Hormone used for inducing lactation in sterile cow

is
(1) Estrogen

(2) Progesterone

(3) Relaxin

(4) Stilbestrol

(1) Cows Good milk yielding

Ox Poor quality
(2) Cows Poor milk yielding

86. During induced breeding of carps the hormone is

extracted from
(1) Thyroid gland

(2) Adrenal

(3) Gonads

(4) Pituitary gland

Ox Good for working

(3) Cows Good milk yielding
Ox Good for working
(4) Cows Poor milk yielding

87. Crossbreed of Holstein-Friesian and Sahiwal cows

give rise to
(1) Frieswal

(2) Sunandini

(3) Karan Swiss

(4) Karan Fries

Ox Poor milk yielding

90. In honey bee colony the life span of queen bee is
about
(1) 57 days

(2) 1 to 2 months

(3) 4 to 5 months

(4) 2 to 5 years

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

(8)

OYWD
CODE-A

08/10/2014

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, Plot No.-4, Sec-11, MLU, Dwarka, New Delhi-110075
Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472
MM : 360

Time : 1 Hrs.

UNIT TEST
(ONE YEAR COURSE FOR MEDICAL-2015)

Test-7
ANSWERS
1.

(3)

19.

(1)

37.

(4)

55.

(3)

73.

(1)

2.

(3)

20.

(4)

38.

(4)

56.

(2)

74.

(4)

3.

(1)

21.

(4)

39.

(3)

57.

(4)

75.

(1)

4.

(3)

22.

(3)

40.

(1)

58.

(3)

76.

(2)

5.

(3)

23.

(2)

41.

(1)

59.

(2)

77.

(2)

6.

(3)

24.

(4)

42.

(1)

60.

(4)

78.

(3)

7.

(3)

25.

(1)

43.

(3)

61

(3)

79.

(3)

8.

(1)

26.

(1)

44.

(2)

62.

(3)

80.

(3)

9.

(4)

27.

(4)

45.

(3)

63.

(3)

81.

(4)

10.

(3)

28.

(2)

46.

(1)

64.

(3)

82.

(3)

11.

(2)

29.

(3)

47.

(3)

65.

(3)

83.

(3)

12.

(1)

30.

(2)

48.

(1)

66.

(2)

84.

(3)

13.

(1)

31.

(1)

49.

(4)

67.

(1)

85.

(4)

14.

(1)

32.

(4)

50.

(2)

68.

(4)

86.

(4)

15.

(4)

33.

(2)

51.

(4)

69.

(4)

87.

(1)

16.

(3)

34.

(4)

52.

(1)

70.

(1)

88.

(1)

17.

(1)

35.

(2)

53.

(1)

71.

(4)

89.

(1)

18.

(2)

36.

(2)

54.

(2)

72.

(4)

90.

(4)