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Mock Test 2014

Answers and Explanations


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Mock Test 2014 - Solutions

Page 1

1. 2

We have

Note 2: There was as similar question asked in CAT-2005


which is given below.

f(0) = 0 4(0) + p = p

Q.

f(1) = 13 4(1) + p = p 3

If p and p 3 are of opposite signs, then p(p 3) < 0


Hence, 0 < p < 3.
2. 1

3. 4

The first strip can be of any of the four colours, The


2nd can be of any colour except that of the first (i.e.
3). Similarly, each subsequent strip can be of any
colour except that of the preceding strip i.e. 3.
Hence, the number of ways = 4 35 = 12 81.

x = 163 + 173 + 183 + 193 is an even number


Therefore, 2 divides x.
a3 + b3 = (a + b)(a2 ab + b2 )

a + b always divides a3 + b3.


Therefore, 163 + 193 is divisible by 35.
183 + 173 is divisible by 35.
Thus, x is divisible by 70.

If p = 1! = 1, then
p + 2 = 3 when divided by 2! will give a remainder of 1.
If p = 1! + 2 2! = 5, then
p + 2 = 7 when divided by 3! will give a remainder of 1.
Hence, p = 1! + (2 2!) + (3 3!) + + (10 10!) when
divided by 11! leaves a remainder 1.
Alternative Method:
P = 1 + 2.2! + 3.3! + + 10.10!
= (2 1)1! + ( 3 1)2! + (4 1)3! + + (11 1)10!
=2! 1! + 3! 2! + + 11! 10! = 1 + 11!
Hence, the remainder is 1.

4. 4

Sol.

3
3
3
3
If x = 16 + 17 + 18 + 19 , then x divided
by 70 leaves a remainder of
(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 69
(4) 35

Hence, option (1) is the correct choice.


6. 3

From the given equation, it is obvious that 2 < x < 3.


Option (c) satisfies the condition.
Alternative Solution:
x = 4 + 4 x x2 = 4 + 4 x

2
x 4 = 4x

x
y
P = logx + logy
y
x

Now putting the values from options, we find only


option (3) satisfies the condition.

= logx x logx y + logy y logy x = 2 logx y logy x


Let t = logx y

7. 1

1
1

P = 2 t = t
t
t

a 1 b 2
= ,
=
a:b:c=2:6:3
b 3 c 1
Similarly, a : b : c : d : e : f = 6 : 18 : 9 : 18 : 6 : 24
abc
6 18 9 3
=
=
def 18 6 24 8
Hence, option (1) is the correct answer.

Which can never be positive. Out of given options, it


cannot assume the value of +1.

Alternate Method:
x = 163 + 173 183 + 193 = 163 + 193 (183 173 )

5. *

Using a + b = (a + b)(a ab + b )
We get,
193 + 163
35 oddnumber
= Rem
Rem
= 35
70
70

183 173
182 + 172 + 18 17
= Rem

and Rem
70
70

a b c d e a 1
1
1 1
= = 2 3 =
b c d e f f 3
2
4 4

b c b
1
= = 2 =1
c d d
2
c d c 1
3
= = 3 =
d e e 2
2
So,

abc a b c 1
3 3
= = 1 = .
def
f d e 4
2 8

44 + 9 + 26
= Rem
= 9
70

Thus, when x is divided by 70 the remainder is 35 9


= 26.
Note 1: None of the option has 26 as their value.

Page 2

Mock Test 2014 - Solutions

8. 2

9. 4

Let the number be 10x + y so when number is reversed


the number because 10y + x. So, the number increases
by 18
Hence, (10y + x) (10x + y) = 9 (y x) = 18
yx=2
So, the possible pairs of (x, y) are (3, 1) (4, 2) (5, 3)
(6, 4), (7, 5) (8, 6) (9, 7)
But we want the number other than 13 so, there are 6
possible numbers, i.e. 24, 35, 46, 57, 68, 79.
So total possible numbers are 6.

1
So when x , then f(x)max = 3 4x
3
1
and when x , then f(x)max = 2x + 1
3
Hence, the minimum of this will be at x =
i.e. y =

Alternative Method:
As f(x) = max (2x + 1, 3 - 4x)
We know that f(x) would be minimum at the point of
intersection of these curves
i.e. 2x + 1 = 3 - 4x
6x = 2

(n 1) d = 999 = 33 37
Possible values of d 1, 3, 9, 27, 37, 111, 333
Hence, 7 progressions are possible.
x 2 / 3 + x1/ 3 2 0

x=

x 2 / 3 + 2x1/ 3 x1/ 3 2 0

)(

12. 1

2 x1/ 3 1
8 x 1
f(x) = max (2x + 1, 3 - 4x)
So, the two equations are y = 2x + 1 and y = 3 - 4x
y 2x = 1

5
3

Let f(x) = ax 2 + bx + c
At x = 1, f(1) = a + b + c = 3
At x = 0, f(0) = c = 1
The maximum of the function f(x) is attained at
x=

b
a2
=1=
2a
2a

a = 2 and b = 4

y
x
+
=1
1 1/ 2
Similarly, y + 4x = 3

2
f(x) = 2x + 4x + 1
Therefore, f(10) = 159

y
x
+
=1
3 3/4
Their point of intersection would be
2x + 1 = 3 - 4x
6x = 2

x=

1
3

Hence, min f(x) is

1/ 3
1 x1/ 3 + 2 0
x

11. 5

5
3

Let number of elements in progression be n, then

1000 = 1 + (n 1) d

10. 1

1
3

13. 4

1 4 1
+ = , n < 60
m n 12

1
3

1
1 4 n 48
=
=
m 12 n
12n

12n
n 48
Positive integral values of m for odd integral values of
n are for n = 49, 51 and 57.
Therefore, there are 3 integral pairs of values of m
and n that satisfy the given equation.
m=

y
y=2 x+ 1
(0 ,3)
(1 /3,5/3 )
y=3 4 x
x
(-1 /2,0)

(0 ,3/4)

Mock Test 2014 - Solutions

Page 3

14. 2

For all values of x < 12.68, the ABC will be obtuse.


But as the sum of two sides of triangle must be greater
than the third side, hence (x + 8) > 15 or x > 7.
Thus, the permissible values of x are 8, 9, 10, 11
and 12.

f(x).f(y) = f(xy)
Given, f(2) = 4
We can also write,
f(2) = f(2 1) = f(2) f(1)
OR f(1) 4 = 4
f(1) = 1
Now we can also write,

Case II:
A

1
f(1) = f 2 = f(2) f
2

2
1 f(1) 1
= .
f =
2 f(2) 4

15. 3

16. 2

17. 3

x
1 5 cm

The last two digits of any number in the form of 74n


will always be equal to 01.
For example: 74 = 2401 and 78 = 5764801.

9 0

x3 ax2 + bx c = 0
Let the roots of the above cubic equation be
( 1), , ( + 1)
( 1) + ( + 1) + ( + 1) ( 1) = b
2 + 2 + + 2 1 = b 32 1 = b
Thus, the minimum possible value of b will be equal
to 1 and this value is attained at = 0.
As sides of triangles are 8 cm, 15 cm and x cm,

In the right ABC above, x = 152 + 82 = 17 .

18. 5

7 < x < 23.


Also in obtused-angled triangle, square of one of the
sides must be greater than the sum of squares of the
remaining two sides. There are two possible cases
as either 15 or x will be the greatest sides.
Case (i): 152 > x2 + 82 x = 8, 9, 10 , 11, 12
Case (ii): x2 > 152 + 82 X = 18, 19, 20, 21, 22
Hence, the number of triangles = 5 + 5 = 10.
Alternative Method:
The three sides of the obtuse triangle are 8 cm, 15 cm
and x cm. As 15 is greater than 8, hence either x or 15
will be the largest side of this triangle. Consider two
cases:

For all values of x > 17, ABC will be obtuse. But, as


the length of third side should be less than the sum of
other two sides, hence x < (15 + 8) or x < 23. The
permissible values of x are: 18, 19, 20, 21 and 22.
From Case I and II, x can take 10 values.
We can use the formula for the circum radius of a
triangle:
abc
R=
4 (Area of the triangle)
or R =

abc
ac
=
1
2 AD
4 b AD
2

17.5 9
= 26.25 cm.
23

19. 5

Case I:

8 cm

1 5 cm
x

Let the length of AH be x cm.


By symmetry of the figure given above, we can

9 0
B

8 cm

conclude that APD and BQC will have the same


area.

Consider the right ABC above,

Q APD is 120 and line L divides the square


ABCD in 2 equal halves, therefore

x = 152 82 = 12.68 cm

APH = HPD = 60

Page 4

Mock Test 2014 - Solutions

In AHP :

AH
x
= tan 60 = 3 HP =
cm
HP
3

Thus, area of APD is

Area of

APD = 2 area( AHP) = 2

1
x
x2
cm
x
=
2
3
3

Thus, ratio of

2
2x2 2x 2 3 1
=
3
3

3
2x 2
3

Area of ABQCDP
[Removing area inside square ABCD

Area of square ABCD 2 (Area of APD)


2 (Area of APD)

= 2 3 1

2x 2 2 3 1
Required ratio =

1 a
a
3
a2

cm2
=
2
2
3
3
4 3

by symmetry, Area of APD = Area of BQC

Area of ABQCDP = area (ABCD) 2 area ( APD)

= 4x 2

1
AP PD sin120
2

= 2 3 1

20. 3

Alternate Method: Concepts used:

a
b
c

=
=
sin A sinB sinC
B

If P and Q lie on the intersections of the circles as


shown in the figure given below.

Also, area of ABC =

1
1
1
ab sin C = bc sin A = ac
2
2
2

sin B
In the given figure
A

1 20

1 20

In this case triangle APQ is equilateral. So the maximum


possible measure of the angle AQP is 60. The answer
is between 0 and 60.

F
L

H
x

B
x

G
a

D
C

21. 2
6

For APD, Let AP = PD = x cm

a
x
x
=
=
sin120 sin30 sin30

3
sin 120 = sin (90 + 30) = cos 30 =
, sin 30 =
2

a
x
a
1

=
cm
x=
3 1
3
2
2
2

Mock Test 2014 - Solutions

A 2

ADB = 90 (Angle in semicircle)


CD2 = AC CB (6)2 = 2 CB
36 = 2 CB CB = 18 cm
AB = AC + CB = 20 cm
Hence, area of semicircle =

1
(10)2 = 50 sq. cm.
2

Page 5

22. 4

Let r be the radius of the two circular tracks.


The rectangle has dimensions 4r 2r.

24. 2

A covers a distance of 2r + 2r + 4r + 4r = 12 r
B covers a distance of 2r + 2r = 4r
Time taken by both of them is same.

4r 12r

=
SB = S A
SB S A
3

2 82 22 = 8 BE

BE =

3
100 = 4.72%.
3

23. 2

1
1
AB BD = AD BE
2
2

SB S A
100
Required percentage =
SA

60
15
=
4
2
2

15
15 1
AE = 22
=
= 4
4
2
2
x

1 1
BC = EF = 8 + = 7
2 2

25. 1
2

DF, AG and CE are body diagonals of cube.


Let the side of cube is a.
Therefore, body diagonal is a 3

a3

a3

x/2

In original rectangle ratio =

In smaller rectangle ratio =

Given

x 2
= x=2 2
2 x
2

Area of smaller rectangle =

Page 6

x
2
2
x
2

a3

Circum radius for equilateral triangle =


Therefore,

Side
3

a 3
=a
3

x
2 = x = 2 2 sq. units.
2

Mock Test 2014 - Solutions

26. 1
1 00 l
M

80

20

7 5 l + 25 lW

75 l
I

60

15

Alternative Method:
Relative speed of two boats = 5 + 10 = 15 km/hr
i.e. in 60 min they cover (together) = 15 km

II

60

15

in 1 min they will cover (together)


29. 4

Race 1:
In whatever time Karan covers a distance of 100 m,
Arjun covers 90 m in the same time.
Ratio of their speeds = 10 : 9
Race 2:
Now Karan is 10 m behind the starting point. Once
again to cover 100 m from this new point Karan will
be taking the same time as before. In this time, Arjun
will be covering 90 meters only. This means that now
both of them will be at the same point, which will be 10
meters away from the finish point. Since both of them
are required to cover the same distance of 10 m and
Karan has a higher speed, he will beat Arjun. No need
for calculations as option (4) is the only such option.

30. 3

Machine I:
Number of nuts produced in one minute = 100
To produce 1000 nuts time required = 10 min
Cleaning time for nuts = 5 min
Effective time to produce 1000 nuts = 15 min
Effective time to produce 9000 nuts = 15 9 5
= 130 min
Machine II:
To produce 75 bolts time required = 1 min
To produce 1500 bolts time required = 20 min
Cleaning time for bolts = 10 min
Effective time to produce 1500 bolts = 30 min
Effective time to, produce 9000 bolts = 30 6 10
= 170 min (ii)
From (i) and (ii),
Minimum time to produce 900 pairs of nuts and bolts
= 170 minutes

31. 3

As options are independent of n, let us assume n = 2.


Circumference of the track = 2r
Time taken for first round =

The diagram is self explanatory. Removal of 25 litres


at stage I will result in volume of milk being reduced by
80% of 25 lit i.e. 20 lit and volume of water being
reduced by the remaining 5 lit. So M = 60 lit and W = 15
lit. Addition of 25 lit water will finally given M = 60 lit and
W = 40 M. Hence the ratio of W and M = 40 : 60 = 2 : 3.
27. 2

Let d be the distance to be travelled and t be the time


taken to reach at 1 p.m.
If the man cycles at 10 km/hr, then

d
= 10
t

L (i)

d
= 15 L (ii)
If the man cycles at 15 km/hr, then
t2
Solving (i) and (ii), we get t = 6 hours and d = 60 km
To reach the place by noon, he needs to cycle at
=

28. 3

d
60
=
= 12 km / hr
t 1 6 1

The boats will be colliding after a time which is given


by

20
4
= hours = 80 minutes .
5 + 10 3
After this time of 80 minutes, boat (1) has covered
t=

80

5
20
kms =
kms , whereas boat (2) has
60
3

10
40
kms =
kms.
60
3
After 79 minutes, distance covered by the first boat
covered 80

20 5

kms
= d1 =
60
3
After 79 minutes, distance covered by the second

15 1
= km
60 4

1
+ 1 + 2 + 4 = 7.5 minutes
2
and time taken for second round = 8 + 16 + 32 + 64
= 120 minutes
Hence, ratio =

120
= 16 : 1 = 16
7.5

40 10

boat = d2 =
kms
60
3
So the separation between the two boats

= 20 (d1 + d2 ) =

1
kms
4

Mock Test 2014 - Solutions

Page 7

32. 3

20

20

90

90

10

10
50
100

50

100

110
Total +60

110

30

40

50

D gets emptied first, it gets emptied in 20 minutes.


Hence, option (3) is the correct answer.

33. 3

35. 3

Frenchmen : F1, F2, F3


Englishmen: E1, E2, E3
Let E1 knows French
I round of calls:

1
F2

F1
Persons
F1
F2
F3
E1
E2
E3

For questions 35 to 38:


On day 3, there were 2 visitors from UK and 1 from USA. On
the same day, the site was visited by 2 persons from University 4 and 1 from University 6. So University 4 is located in UK
and University 6 is in USA.
Similar reasoning for day 2 gives us the conclusion that University 3 is located in Netherlands and University 8 is in India.
On day 1, the number of visitors from USA is 1 and that from
University 6 is 1. University 6 is in USA (derived above), which
implies no other university is in USA.
The number of visitors from India on day 1 is 1. Also, no visitor
from University 8, which is in India has visited the site on day
1. This implies that one of University 1 and University 5 is in
India and the other in Netherlands. A similar logic gives us that
one of University 2 and University 6 is in UK and the other in
Canada.

36. 1

E1

37. 1

5
38. 2

E2

F3

E3

Secrets know after I-round


F1, F2
F1, F2, F3
F1, F2, F3, F4
F1, F2, F3, E2
F1, F2, F3, E1, E2, E3 ) all known
F1, F2, F3, E1, E2, E3 ) All know

39. 4

II round calls
F2

Bose =

800 + 1750 + 2300


1617;
3

Let us assume that Arun started running at 10 a.m.


and Barun started at 12 noon. So, in these two hours
distance traveled by Arun is 60 km and the relative
speed of Barun w.r.t Arun is 10 km/hr. So Barun will

60
= 6 hours
10
So, Barun reaches there at 6 p.m.
So, Kiranmala also overtakes Arun at 6 p.m.
Let us assume Kiranmala takes 't' time to overtake
Arun and the relative speed of Kiranmala w.r.t Arun is
30 km/hr and Arun ran for 8 hrs.
So, distance travelled by Arun is = 30 8 = 240 km
while distance travelled by Kiranmala = 60t
240 = 6t t = 4
Hence, Kiranmala start running 4 hours after Arun had
st off.
overtake Arun after =

500 + 1100 + 1900


1167 and
3

1200 + 2800
= 2000.
2
Hence, Dubey family has the highest average
expenditure.
Dubey =

9
8
In the 6th call, E1 knows all the secrets. Similarly, after
9th call, everybody know all the secrets.

Page 8

700 + 1700 + 2700


1733;
3

E 2 or E 3

F3
7

34. 3

Ahuja =

Coomar =
E1

F1

The average expenditures (approximately) for the families:

40. 3

Average incomes of Ahuja family


=

3200 + 3000 + 2800 9000


=
= 3000;
3
3

2300 + 2100 + 2800 7200


=
= 2400;
3
3
Coomar family =
Bose family=

1200 + 2200 + 1600 5000


=
1667 and Dubey family
3
3
= 1200 + 3200 = 4400 = 2200.
2
2
Hence, Coomar family has the lowest average income.

Mock Test 2014 - Solutions

41. 4

The average savings (approximately) for the families:

2500 + 1300 + 100


= 1300;
3

Ahuja =

Bose =

1500 + 350 + 500


783;
3

Coomar =

700 + 1100 + 300


= 700 and
3

0 + 400
= 200.
2
Hence, Dubey family has the lowest average
savings.
Dubey =

42. 1

The savings of a person is maximum if he/she has


high income but less expenditure. From the graph, a
member of Ahuja family has Rs.3200 as income and
Rs.700 as expenditure. Hence, he/she will have the
maximum savings among all.

For questions 43 to 46:


In any department in any given year, the average age
ranges between 42-53 years.
(i)
When a 25 year old will join, the average age will dip
by a minimum of 3 years.
(ii)
When a 60 year old will retire, the dip will be less
compared to (i).
43. 3

44. 4

In the bar graph, one dip corresponds to the new 25


year old joinee. However, two dips in the trend implies
joining of a 25 year old and the retirement of a 60 year
old employee. This trait is observed only in Finance
department. Hence, the faculty member who retired
belonged to Finance.
From the graph of Marketing, it is clear that the new
faculty joined in 2001.
On April 1, 2000, completed age of Professor Naresh
and Devesh were 52 years and 49 years, in no
particular order.
Age of the third Professor on April 1, 2000
= 49.33 3 (52 + 49) = 47 years
Hence, his age on April 1, 2005 was 52 years.

45. 3

As the dip will be less in case a faculty retired


compared to that when a new faculty joined in, so the
new faculty member joined the Finance area in 2002.

46. 3

For the OM area, the only dip comes in the year 2001.
So the new 25 year old faculty joined in 2001. Hence,
on April 1, 2003, his age will be 27 years old.

Mock Test 2014 - Solutions

For questions 47 to 50:


From the given information the following table can be formed:

Class 12
Class 11
Secondary
Section
Total

47. 1

F
32
36
352

V
32
40
352

380

420

424

NV
48
40
288

Total
80
80
640
800

Percentage of vegetarian students in Class 12

32
100 = 40%
80

=
48. 5

M
48
44
288

From the above table

25
32 = 8
100
Female vegetarians = 32 8 = 24
Male non-vegetarians = 48 8 = 40
So, their difference is 40 24 = 16.
Male vegetarians =

49. 2

From the above table


Percentage of male students in the secondary section
=

50.*

288
100 = 45%
640

From the main table


M

Male Female Total


Veg
Veg
Class 12
48 32 32
80
Class 11
44 36 40
80
Secondary 288 352 352 320
320
640
Section
Total
380 420 424
800

*This question is wrong because the number of


Male vegetarian cannot be greater than 288.
Note: The same question was asked in CAT-2007 as question
number 41 with the same error.

Page 9

For questions 51 to 54: For solving these questions make a


table like this:

51. 3
52. 3

Africa

America

Australasia

Europe

54. 4
For questions 55 to 59:
From statement one, team would include exactly one among
P, R, S
P (or) R (or) S.

L
H

53. 4

21

(i)

(ii)

As the labour expert is half of each of the other, so the


only possible combination is:
L3
H
P
6 ea ch
R
Statement (d): If the number of Australasia expert is 1
less, i.e. total export are 20 American be twice as
each of other. The only combined possible is Americas
= 8.
Australasia = 4 + 1 = 5
Europe = 4
Africa = 4
Now, we need to workout the various options possible
in the blank cells.
Africa

America

Australasia

Europe

21

Africa

America

Australasia

Europe

21

Africa

America

Australasia

Europe

21

Page 10

From statement three, if a team includes K, it will include L or


vice versa.
K, L always accompany each other.
From statement four, if one of S, U, W is included, then the
other two also have to be included.
S, U, W are always together.
From statement five, L and N cannot be included together
L, N are never together.
From statement six, L and U cannot be included together.
L, U are never together.
55. 4

From statements one and two


Two members are to be selected.
Of the remaining seven;
To maximize the size of the team.
We would chose S,
U and W are included in the team (statement four)
We cannot include K (or) L because we would then
have to leave out N and U (from statements
five and six)

56. 5

If 'K' is included, 'L' has to be included (statement (3))


If 'L' is chosen, neither N nor U can be chosen
(statements (5) and (6))
S, W are also not included because S, U, W have to
be always together. (Statement (4))
Hence one of P (or) R would be selected
(statement (1)) and one of M (or) Q would be selected
(statement (2))
(K, L) and two of the above five have to be included.

From statement two, team would include either M, or Q


M but not Q
(or) Q but not M

Mock Test 2014 - Solutions

57. 5

If a team includes N, it cannot include 'L',


and therefore, not even 'K'. (from statement five and
three)
According to statement (1), one of P or R or S has to
be included.
According to statement (2), one of M or Q has to be
selected.
So the following cases are possible
P Q N,
RQN
P M N,
RMN
If 'S' is selected, then S U W M N and S U W Q N are the
only possible cases.
Hence, in all 4 + 2 = 6 teams can be constituted.

58. 1

From statements one and two;


one of P, R, S and
one of M, Q are to be selected. We require one more
member.
But from statement three; (K, L) are always together.
Hence 'L' cannot be included in a team of 3 members.

59. 3

Again, from statement one;


one of P, R, S has to be selected.
To make a team of '5'
'S' will be chosen (which leaves out P and R)
If 'S' is chosen 'U' and W have to be chosen
(statement four)
If 'U' is chosen 'L' cannot be chosen (statement
five)
K cannot be chosen (statement three)
And from statement two; one of M (or) Q has to be
chosen.

For questions 60 to 63:


The given basic information can be collated as below:
(i)
Six teams A, B, C, D, E, F.
(ii)
Matches scheduled in two stages I & II.
(ii)
No team plays against the same team more than once.
(iv)
No ties permitted.
As per the instructions given for stage I, we can
reach the following conclusions:
(a)
As B lost at least one match, A won all the 3 matches.
(b)
The two teams who lost all the matches cannot be A
(as explained above), cannot be B (E lost to B), cannot
be D (D won against C & F). Hence, the two teams
must be C and F.
(c)
F did not play against the top team (i.e. A).
We get the following table for stage I.

Mock Test 2014 - Solutions

(To be read from rows)


A

X
X

L
W

As per the instructions given for Stage-II, we can reach the


following conclusions.
(d)
A lost both its matches against E and F.
(e)
F won against A, hence is the bottom team
(out of C & F) which won both the matches
F won against C as well.
This also means that C lost both its matches against
B and F.
(f)
Apart from A and C, one more team lost both the
matches in Stage-II.
That team can neither be E (A lost to E), nor B
(as C lost to B), nor F (as F won both its matches).
Hence, the team must be D.
We get the following table for Stage-II.
(To be read from rows)
A
A

W
L
X

60. 5

D and F won exactly two matches in the event.

61. 5

B and E have most wins, 4 each.

62. 2

E and F defeated A.

63. 4

B, E and F won both the matches in Stage-II.

Page 11

For questions 64 to 66: The given information can be


depicted as follows.
(i)

R o ad

(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
(vii)
(viii)
(ix)
(x)

3 ho use s on ea ch side o f th e roa d

Six houses P, Q, R, S, T, U
Colours Red, Blue, Green, Orange, Yellow, White
Different heights
T = tallest and opposite to Red
Shortest opposite to Green
U = Orange is between P and S, i.e. PUS or SUP.
R = yellow and opposite to P
Q = Green and opposite to U
P = White and (S, Q) > P > R (in height)

70. 3

The first paragraph details the "two developments" -a


greater freedom in choosing subjects and the
concurrent abandoning of the subject by artists. The
second paragraph explores the connection between
these two developments.

71. 2

According to the passage, when "a culture is in a


state of disintegration or transition he, himself has
to choose for society." So (2) is the correct option.

72. 1

The third paragraph, second line says a subject does


not start or with something which the painter has to
remember.

73. 1

According to the passage-"When a culture is in a


state of disintegration or transition the freedom of the
artist increases "

74. 3

The second sentence of the fifth paragraph says the


subject may have a personal meaning ; but there
general meaning. This is quite the opposite of what
answer choice (3) states, and so it becomes the
answer.

75. 3

Refer to the 4th paragraph of the passage. The elders


were of the opinion that turning of the eyes by the
child while having the ice-creams in both hands could
make the child fall down or trip over stones, steps in
the pavement. The phrase rightly suggested changes
the meaning of the given sentence and hence it cannot
be inferred from the passage.

76. 4

Parvenus refer to persons who have suddenly risen


to a higher social and economic class but have not yet
received social acceptance by others in that class.
Hence, the phrase little parvenus would appropriately
refer to young upstarts.

77. 2

Refer to the 5th paragraph of the passage. The


sentence two two-cent .suggested excess clearly
tell us that it was intemperance on part of the author
which made him pine for two two-cent ice-cream
cones instead of one four-cent pie.

78. 2

In the lines Nowadays the moralist .......spoiled. The


author is talking about morality in the context of the
present day world. The rest of the options are out of
the scope of the passage.

79. 3

We refer to the tenth line of the third paragraph. Here


Mr. Goran Lindblad admits that communism did commit
brutalities but it also had positive consequences like
rapid industrialization. Hence option (3) is the best
answer.

From (iv), (v), (vi), (ix) & (x), T > (S, Q) > P > R > U
in terms of height
From (iv), (vii), (viii), (ix) & (x), we get the following
two cases.

2/3

(Talle st)
1

Ye llow

2/3

B lue

G re en
ROAD

Ye llow

G re en
ROAD

B lue

W h ite

O ra ng e

Red

Red

O ra ng e

W h ite

6
(S h ortest)

OR

3/2

3 /2

6
(S h ortest)

64. 5

Second tallest house is either Q or S. So, we can not


determine the answer.

65. 4

The colour of the house diagonally opposite to yellow


house is Red.

66. 3

The tallest house, T is of Blue colour.

67. 3

Option (3) is the most logical explanation. Refer to


lines those include correlations between variables

68. 2

Historical outcomes depend each


case.
Refer to the 1st para where it says Prediction in
history became averaged out. This is further
supported by the example.

69. 3

Note the tone with which the third paragraph starts it


emphasizes that students can do much more!

Page 12

Mock Test 2014 - Solutions

80. 2

Option (4) is very blatant, but is not the 'real' reason


for the attack. The reason that the West repeatedly
attacks communism (as stated by the author in the last
para) is that they want to establish the current capitalist
order as supreme i.e. they idealise 'global capitalism'.
Option (5) is close, but wrongly states that communist
nations might overtake the capitalists. This is not given
in the passage.

81. 5

The answer can be found in the first line of the last


paragraph, which in essence implies that it is important
to go beyond and look at the motives of atrocities
perpetrated by different regimes. The motive is global
capitalism as described in the last paragraph.
Therefore, Option (5) is correct.

82. 1

(1) is the correct answer. In the fourth paragraph the


author explains the 'intimate link' between colonialism
and Nazism. A peripheral view of this relationship
suggests that the answer should be (3) which explains
the terms and ideas that were imported and used by
the Nazi party. But the next few lines explain the deeper
relationship that exists between the two. These lines
refer to the atrocities that one race has committed
upon the other. The British imposed their rule on the
Indian people. Similarly, the Belgian forced labour and
mass murder led to the death of 10 million Congolese.
These references are clearly race centric. Therefore,
(1) is correct.

83. 1

84. 2

85. 5

Statement 1 is a judgement because it expresses an


approval/disapproval. It is a subjective opinion- an
advice given to HIV affected patients. So, options (3)
& (4) can be eliminated. Statement 2 is clearly factual.
This eliminates option (2). Statement 3 is a conclusion
about the future scenario which is based on the
"recent initiatives". Hence, this statement is an
inference. In statement 4, "But how ironic " shows
the author's disapproval. So statement 4 is a
judgement. Thus, option (1) is the correct answer.
Looking at the statement A, if you mark the keywords
'is certainly' then it gives us a clear idea that it is a point
of view expressed by the author. Therefore, it is a
judgement. Statement B is an inference as it arrives at
a conclusion from a stated premise. The statement C,
where the author mentions 'is the only insurance'
(although there may be other insurances, that the
author negates) qualifies it as a judgement. The
statement D is a pure fact. So, option (2) is correct.
Statement 3 is a judgement because it expresses a
personal viewpoint regarding the consequences of
red tape. This eliminates option (1). Statement 2 is a
fact because the latter half of the sentence is given
by way of an example and not by way of a conclusion.
This eliminates option (3). Statement 1 describes what
"we should." do. This statement explains the
speaker's disapproval regarding the consequences

Mock Test 2014 - Solutions

of red tape. Therefore, it is a judgement. This eliminates


option (4). Statement 4 is an inference. It is known to
us that a red tape procedure is a point of contact with
an official. That this point of contact offers a potential
opportunity is a conclusion based on this information.
This makes option (5) correct.
86. 4

Statement 1 is a judgement as it is based on the author's


opinion. This eliminates option (1) & (2). Statement 2
uses the general term "we ". This makes it a judgement.
If it had been about "I" or "us" then it would have been
a fact. Statements 3 and 4 are personal opinions.
Hence, the correct answer is option (4).

87. 2

The second sentence does not use the article. It should


be As a/the project progresses in sentence C there
should be the indefinite article a before single-minded
which leaves us with option (2) as the correct answer.

88. 3

Sentence B should have making them break apart.


Sentence C should have many offending chemicals.

89. 2

B should be rarely has


C should begin with The.

90. 1

Option B should be since the Enlightenment.


Option C should be in the 1820s

91. 1

Sentence A is incorrect as the spelling of imigrant is


not correct , should be immigrant. Sentence D is
incorrect because of a missing article and should be
the owner of a dry goods .. Sentence E is incorrect
and should be .. would later be known as...
Sentence C is incorrect. We require a comma between
brother-in-law and David Stern.

92. 4

Sentence B should be.its labour policy because


the subject is Nike and we cant substitute it with the
plural pronoun their. Sentence C should be Perhaps
sensing that the rising tide as without that the
sentence structure is incomplete. Sentence E should
be .an industry.. as the word industry begins with
a vowel so the appropriate article is an.

93. 3

Sentence B should be few millions. Sentence D


should be reach the hundreds who are marooned..
Sentence E is incorrect as per subject verb agreement
and should be death count has begun.

94. 2

Statement (3) is factually wrong as we dont know if


further research can happen only in Germany. Option
(4) wrongly brings out a contest between research
and debate. Between options (1) and (2), choice (1)
is inappropriate because we dont know if research
will help find a definitive answer.

Page 13

95. 3

96. 4

97. 4

Statements (2) and (4) are partially true, as they do


not cover all the examples of preferential treatment.
Statement a is incomplete, as it does not mention direct
protest.
Option (2) is factually wrong. Option (3) is wrong
because Nietzsche does not criticize intellectuals.
Option (1) is wrong because it is focussing only on
creative instincts, which are only a subset of overall
human instincts. Only option (4) captures the essence
of the paragraph. Hence, option (4) is correct.

98. 1

AC is a mandatory pair and DAC is a mandatory


sequence.

99. 2

B is the opening statement as it introduces the subject


and the date. EDA is a sequence that describes the
situation from the east to the west. Statement C is a
stand-alone statement.

100. 3 Both statements C and B (papyri is the plural for


Egyptian papers and documents) are talking about
sources of information, making CB a mandatory pair.

CDBA is a mandatory sequence. Bush was not


fighting just the democrats in statement D,
relates directly with At times he was fighting in
statement B.

Page 14

Mock Test 2014 - Solutions