Beruflich Dokumente
Kultur Dokumente
INSTRUCTIONS: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark ONLY
ONE ANSWER for each item by marking the box corresponding to the letter of your choice on
the answer sheet provided.
STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED.
1. This refers to group of people who share common characteristics, or developmental stage,
common exposure to environmental factors thus has common health problems:
A. Family
B. Groups
C. Sentinel
D. Aggregate
2. Public Health is the science and art of preventing disease, prolonging life, promoting health and
efficiency through:
A. health education
C. organized community effort
B. communicable disease control
D. development of social machinery
3. The above definition of health comes was popularized by:
A. Pender B. WHO Expert Committee in Nursing C. Orem
D. Dunn
4. It is the process whereby existing and potential health conditions or problems of the family are
determined:
A. primary health care
C. second level assessment
B. first level assessment
D. potential problem assessment
5. Defines the nature or types of nursing problems that the family encounters in performing health
tasks with respect to a given health condition or problem:
A. primary health care
C. second level assessment
B. first level assessment
D. potential problem assessment
6. In family nursing assessment which of the following level of assessment ends with the definition of
family nursing problems?
A. first
B. second
C. third
D. fourth
7. Situations or condition which interferes with the promotion and or maintenance of health and
recovery from illness or injury is:
A. health problem
C. typology
B. nursing problem
D. wellness condition
8. Mental retardation in Filipino children is a result of deficiency in:
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B
C. Iodine
D. Iron
9. Which of the following refers to family nursing problem?
A. family size beyond what family resources can provide
B. inherent personality characteristics
C. poor environmental sanitation
D. inability to provide home environment conducive to health maintenance
10. Given the following cues identify the health problem or family nursing problem:
Dorina three years old, looks pale and emaciated with a weight of 11 kg. How will you classify the
illness of Dorina?
A. health threat
C. family nursing problem
B. health deficit
D. foreseeable crisis
A. health threat conditions that promote disease or injury and prevent people from realizng their
potential. An example is when the population is inadequately immunized against
preventable diseases.
B. health deficit occurs when there is a gap between actual and achievable health status.
Example is history of repeated infections, miscarriage are noted, no regular
check-up.
D. Foreseeable crisis includes stressful occurrences such as death or illness of a family
member
11. The mother of Dorina verbalized Dorina is really small in built since she was a baby. She is not
fond of eating to The mother is exhibiting:
A. full knowledge of the disease
C. miscommunication
B. lack of knowledge
D. salience
12. Which of the following is given more weight?
A. health threat B. health deficit
C. stress points
D. foreseeable crisis
D. foreseeable crisis
D. foreseeable crisis
16. This compares the number of economically dependent with the economically productive group in the
population:
A. Age and sex composition
C. sex ratio
B. crowding index
D. Dependency ratio
17. Age and sex composition of the population can be described using:
A. pie chart
C. population pyramid
B. demographic data
D. population density
18. It is a tool in estimating the extent or magnitude of health needs and problems of the community:
A. Age sex composition
C. Vital statistics
B. Urban-rural distribution
D. Epidemiology
19. It is the process whereby the community members develop the capability to assess their health
needs and problems, p, implement action to solve the problems:
A. family health nursing
C. community organizing
B. community health nursing
D. community profiling
20. Consist of the identified potential leaders who will be tasked in laying down the foundation of a
strong people organization:
A. organizational phase
C. core group formation
B. leadership formation
D. spotting leaders
21. It is a relationship among organizations that consists of exchanging information about each others
goals and objectives, services or facilities:
A. networking B. collaboration C. coordination
D. cooperation
22. It is a relationship where organizations modify their activities in order to provide better service to the
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target beneficiary:
A. networking B. collaboration C. coordination
D. cooperation
23. It is the level of organizational relationship where organizations help each other enhance their
capacities in performing their tasks as well as in the provision of services:
A. networking B. collaboration C. coordination
D. cooperation
24. A child is admitted in the barangay health station with maculopapular petechial rash in the distal portion
of the extremities, the skin appears purple with balanced areas of various sizes. The nurse will suspect:
A. measles B. chickenpox C. German measles D. dengue fever
A. measles rubeola (koplik spots white speck at buccal mucosa surrounded by red halos)
B. Chickenpox varicella ( Dewdrops on rose petal -- trunk-face- scalp)
C. German measles rubella ( forscheimer spots pink rashes in face- neck- trunk- leg)
D. dengue fever a tourniquet test or rumple leads test is (+) when 20 or more petechial per 2.5
cm square or 1 inch square are observed
25. Which of the following condition will manifest bulls neck?
A. diphtheria
B. pertussis
C. TB in children
D. mumps
26. This condition affects the peyers patches of the small intestine:
A. diphtheria
B. dengue
C. liver ulcer
D. typhoid fever
27. The most serious type of leprosy and very infectious is the: (CHN book pp.216)
A. tuberculoid
B. lepromatous
C. indeterminate
D borderline
28. A baby came in the clinic with the following signs and symptoms: Stiff jaw, with tonic rigid muscular
contraction, spasm and convulsion. The nurse will suspect a case of:
A. diphtheria
B. rabies
C leptospirosis
D. tetanus
29. In EPI immunization, the immunity is called:
A. active acquired B. passive acquired
C. active artificial
D. natural passive
NOTE:
NATURAL ACTIVE IMMUNITY antibodies are formed in the presence of active infection in the
body. It is life long. E.g. recovery from mumps, chickenpox
measles and others
ARTIFICIAL ACTIVE IMMUNITY antigen (vaccine or toxoids) are administered to stimulate
Antibody production. Requires boosters dose after many years.
e.g. Tetanus toxoids, OPV
INACTIVATED KILLED PATHOGEN
ATTENUATED WEAKENED PATHOGENS
EXTRACTS PARTS OF PATHOGENS or sub-units
TOXOIDS given for prevention (bacteria has not yet invaded the body)
ANTITOXIN given to counteract bacteria that has already invaded the body
NATURAL PASSIVE IMMUNITY - antibodies are transferred from the mother to her newborn
through the placenta or in the colostrums . Immunity may be
from 6 months to 1 year.
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ARTIFICIAL PASSIVE IMMUNITY - (antibody) from animal or another human and injected to
a person. Immunity lasts only for 2 3 weeks.
e.g. tetanus immunoglobulin (antiserum, antitoxin, gamma
globulin)
30. Which of the following are contraindicated for submitting the child for immunization?
A. scar in the extremities
B. recurrent convulsions
C. fever
D. recurrent convulsions
31. The leading cause of morbidity is:
A. diarrhea
B. Influenza
C. pneumonia
D. hypertension
D. 8976
D. 8976
C. 8172
35. The Food fortification law covers the fortification of rice with:
A. iodine
B. sugar
C. oil
D. iron
36. A child came in the BHS with foamy, soapy white patches seen in the white part of the eyes:
A. xerophthalmia B. conjunctival
C. corneal scar
D. Bitots spot
37. This disease was first reported in China in 2002 with asymptomatic mild respiratory illness and reported
to be caused by a novel corona virus:
A. Kawasaki disease
B. Mud cow disease
C. SARS
D. ARI
38. This disease is characterized by a pinkish rash on the soft palate know as Forchheimers spot refers to:
A. measles koplik spots
B rubella
C. roseola
D. robeola
39. A confirmatory test for typhoid fever can be done by:
A. ELISA - AIDS
B. Widal
C. Rectal swab
D. Typhidot
D. Chloramphenicol
41.This disease condition in children is characterized by the presence of maculopapular rash on either
cheeks, bridge of the nose, along the hairline at the temple or the earlobe:
A measles
B. mumps
C. rubella
D. herpes zoster
(rubeola virus)
(german measle)
(chickenpox)
42. The maintenance of correct temperature of vaccine starts from:
A. DOH
B. Regional Health Office C. RHU
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D. manufacturer site
D. pandemic
52. The collapse of the immune response defenses in AIDS patient stems from which defect?
A. Insufficient amounts of immunoglobulins (IgG)
B. Overproduction of immature B lymphocytes
C. Reduction in the numbers of T cells and change in function of CD4+antigen
D. Decreased in the amount of tissue macrophages and infiltrates
53. Which type of infection control does an externally ill hospitalized patient with AIDS require?
A. Respiratory isolation
C. Contact isolation
B. Blood and body fluids
D. reverse isolation
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54. A specific virus, which recently has been given a new name, causes Human Immune deficiency
Syndrome (AIDS). Causative virus is:
A. Arbovirus
C. Adenovirus
B. Rhinovirus
D. Retrovirus
Situation: Erik was then tested for Treponema Pallidum and HIV to make sure he was not harboring those
microorganisms as well.
55. Before patient diagnosed with Syphilis leaves the clinic, treatment is initiated. Which of the following
actions is essential for the nurse to take?
A. Ask client to identify his/her sexual contacts/partners
B. Advise client to avoid sexual activity for two months
C. Arrange for the client to have hearing and vision tests
D. Have the client return to the clinic weekly for blood test
56. Primary Health services around the world is using this to detect and cure TB patients:
A. National TB program
B. Direct observe treatment short course (DOTS)
C. Center for CD
D. International TB control organization
57. Which of the following is not a sign of leprosy?
A. Madarosis- late stage(superficial)
C. Semen
D. Prolonged skin-to-skin contact
59. Best method of prevention of TB and Leprosy especially among children is:
A. Taking INH for prophylaxis
C. Good nutrition
B. Healthy environment
D. BCG immunization
60. Which among there is the host of Schistosomiasis Japonicum?
A. Mosquitoes
C. Snails
B. Rats
D. Dogs
61. The Drug of Choice for Schistosomiasis:
A. Metrofronate
B. Praziquantel
C. Heterzan
D. Quinidine Sulfate
Situation: In Primary Health Care system of our health centers, Tuberculosis is one of their priority diseases
for control, if not eradicated.
62. Category 3 treatment regimen for TB is prescribed to: (CHN pp. 205)
A. New PTB patients who sputum culture is positive category I
B. Previously treated patients who are on relapse- category II
C. New PTB patients whose sputum is serum-negative for 3x and chest x-ray category III
D. Previously treated patient who are failures in taking medications category II
63. What PTB drug is not given to children under 6 who are too young to report visual disturbances?
A. INH
C. Ethambutol CHN book pp.209
B. Rifampicin
D. PZA
64. Category 1 treatment regimen for TB is prescribed and this is given: (CNH book pp. 209)
A. 2 months intensive phase, 4 months maintenance phase - category I
B. 3 months intensive phase, 5 months maintenance phase category 2
C. 2 months intensive phase, 2 months maintenance phase category 3
D. 3 months intensive phase, 6 months maintenance phase total duration of treatment (9
months)
65. The usual treatment for Tuberculosis includes the use of isoniazid (INH) and which of the following
therapies?
A. Theophylline inhaler
C. Three of her antibacterial agents
B. IM penicillin
D. Aerosol treatment with Pentamidine
Situation: Nurse in San Agustin Hospital, Isolation Ward is giving extra information to affiliates, emphasizing
on observation and assessment.
66. The nurse assesses a 16-year-old client diagnosed with Bacterial Meningitis. Which of the following
signs and symptoms of meningeal irritation does the nurse likely to observe?
A. Generalized seizures and spasm
C. Nuchal rigidity and photophobia
B. Positive Babinskis reflex
D. Tripod and photophobia
67. Nurse is performing a respiratory assessment on a client with Pneumonia. She asks the client to say
ninety-nine several times. Through her stethoscope she hears the words clearly over his left lower lobe.
What term should the nurse use to document this finding?
A. Echo
C. Bronchophony
B. Bronchosymmetry
D. Pulmono echo
68. A parent asks the nurse about head lice (pediculosis capitis) infestation during the visit to the clinic.
Which of the following symptoms would the nurse tell the parent as the most common in a child infected
with head lice?
A. Itching of the scalp - subjective
C. Serous weeping on the scalp surface
B. Scaling of the scalp
D. Pinpoint hemorrhagis spots on the scalp
NOTE: C, B, D are signs or objectives
Sign objective
symptoms - subjective
69. After teaching the parent about the cause of ringworm of the scalp (linea capitis), which of the following,
if stated, indicates successful teaching?
A. Overexposure to the sun
C. Fungal infection of the scalp
B. Infestation with a mile
D. An allergic reaction
NOTE: ringworm is a fungal infection
70. A mother has heard that several children have been diagnosed with Mononucleosis. She asks the nurse
what precautions should be taken to prevent this from occurring in her child. Which of the following would
the nurse advice the mother?
A. Take no particular precautionary
B. Sterilized the eating utensils
C. Wash the childs linens separately in hot, soapy water
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79. Virus inoculates on the site of the wound but toxins are released and replicates in the muscles. The
normal pathway of the toxins:
A. Spreads through the nerve, to CNS and replicates in the brain then back to the tissues and end
organ
B. Absorbs through the cells, spreads through lymphatics, to CNS then manifests specific signs and
symptoms
C. Spreads through blood stream then to CNS, and back to tissues and absorbed through GIT
D. Spreads through the nerves to CNS and brain and causes paralysis of the nerves
80. Which of the following clinical manifestation does the nurse expects that Glenmar will exhibit?
A. Prodromal signs with photophobia and agitation
B. Prodromal signs with frequency of urination and profuse sweating
C. Prodromal signs and bilateral paralysis
D. Prodromal signs and with probable hydrophobia and aero phobia
81. Which of the following is not a special consideration in the care of Glenmar?
A. Prevention of complication
B. Providing patient proper treatment and management
C. Community cares, studying and eradicating the cause
D. Disposing of the animal immediately to prevent from biting another person
82. Rabies can be prevented. Patients should do:
A. Immediate washing and care of the wound and treatment after a dog bite
B. Observation of the dog for 10m days before treatment can be given
C. Killing of the dog, as it is a nuisance to society
D. Maintaining good body resistance
83. A client was brought in for admission manifesting severe agitation and rigidity of muscle. Nurse best
initial care would be:
A. Check ABC and do the emergency care
B. Protect patient from further trauma
C. Protect patient from further by putting him in a dark quiet room
D. Keep patient calm and protected and initially give prescribed medications
84. Nurse is aware that the toxin was released absorbed and spreads to the CNS, thus aside from the
manifested ophisthotonous, rigidity of the back and abdominal muscles, this one may be manifested too:
A. Spasm of the maxillary muscles and the cheeks
B. Bleeding of the GIT
C. Spasm of the eye muscles
D. Pain of the toes and fingers
85. Which of the following is not included in the plan of care to patient with tetanus?
A. Maintain adequate airway and ventilation to prevent pneumonia and atelectasis
B. Monitor ECG frequently for arrhythmia
C. Because any minimal external stimulation provokes spasm, keep patients room dark, cool and
quiet
D. Because any minimal external stimulation provokes spasm, wound should be checked only when
necessary
86. What is the most obvious and earliest clinical manifestation that the nurse finds on physical assessment
of client with Meningococcemia?
A. Ophisthotonous and rigidity of muscles
B. Respiratory infection symptoms and petechial hemorrhages (rash)
C. Headache and high fever
D. Hematuria and delirium
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96. Which of the following diets would likely be prescribed for a client with viral hepatitis? (fatigue)
A. High fat, low protein
C. High carbohydrate, high calorie for energy
B. High protein, low carbohydrate
D. Low sodium, low fat
97. The nurse develops a teaching plan on how to prevent the transmission of hepatitis A, which of the
following discharge instructions is most appropriate?
A. Spray the house to eliminate infected insects
B. Tell the other family members to try to stay away from the client
C. Tell family members to wash their hands frequently hepa A is fecal -oral
D. Disinfect all clothing and eating utensils
98. The nurse is preparing a community education program for hepatitis B infection, which of the following
will be appropriate to incorporate into the teaching plan?
A. Hepatitis B is relatively uncommon among college students
B. Frequent ingestion of alcohol can predispose an individual to development of hepatitis B
C. Good personal hygiene habits are most effective in preventing the spread of hepatitis B
D. The use of condom is advised for sexual intercourse
99. Diphtheria is an acute and highly contagious disease with fixation symptoms:
A. Intimate contact and/ or airborne respiratory droplets from carriers
B. Direct contact with direct patients
C. Hand to hand contact
D. Indirect contact through secretions/equipments
100. A most common cause of sudden death of patients with diphtheria is:
A. Thrombocytopenia
C. Ventricular fibrillation
B. Motor paralysis - difficulty in breathing & swallowing
D. Neural Paralysis
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