Falcon 50 Training Exercises

Falcon 50
Self-Check Exercises
August 2006
SimuFlite
Copyright 2006, CAE SimuFlite, Inc.

All rights reserved
Printed in the United States of America
Orientation
Welcome to
CAE SimuFlite
CAE SimuFlite Training International welcomes you to one of the

worlds premier aviation training facilities. Our goal is to provide training that increases your ability to operate your aircraft at the highest professional standards. In pursuit of this goal, we conduct training in
accordance with Airline Transport Pilot (ATP) standards to ensure a
level of competency and safety unsurpassed in the business aviation
industry.
Use of these SelfCheck Exercises
CAE SimuFlite developed these exercises to reinforce your training.

The questions parallel your course. Refer to your training guide for
completion schedule of exercises.
Falcon 50
Developed for Training Purposes
August 2006
CAE Simuflite
Falcon 50
August 2006
Contents
Table of Contents
Self-Check 1
Self-Check 2
Self-Check 3
Self-Check 4
Self-Check 5
Self-Check 6
.............................................5
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Self-Check 1 Answer Key

. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 67
. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 69
. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 71
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. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 77
System Schematics . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 78
Loading Form Example. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 83
Falcon 50
August 2006
CAE Simuflite
Falcon 50
August 2006
Self-Check 1
Self-Check 1
Aircraft Flight
Manual
Reference: Aircraft Flight Manual

Multiple Choice
1. Who ensures that the FAA Approved Airplane Flight Manual
(AFM) is complete and current at all times?
a. Owner
b. Pilot
c. Copilot
d. Flight department manager
2. The three Falcon 50 Operating Manuals contain specific
information on:
a. Expanded Normals
b. Aircraft Systems
c. Avionics installations.
d. All of the above.
3. What performance information is not found in the AFM?
a. Cruise
b. Holding
c. Descent
d. All of the above are in the AFM
e. None of the above are in the AFM
4. Data for wet, slush, snow, and ice-covered runways can be found in
the:
a. AFM
b. Performance Manual, section 4
c. Section 3D, Initial Pilot Training Manual
d. Both b and c
e. All of the above.
Falcon 50
August 2006
CAE Simuflite
True or False
1. _____ Pages of the AFM applicable to a particular certifying country are noted by a country designation on the bottom center
of the page.
2. _____ The aircraft configuration codes that appear at the bottom of
each page of the basic AFM indicate page effectivity by unit
number.
3. _____ Advisory information contained in the AFM provides
guidance that is approved by the FAA.
4. _____ Operating limitations must be complied with at all times as
required by law.
5. ____ Emergency action contained in boxes should be committed to
memory in order to be accomplished without the aid of the
checklist.
Falcon 50
August 2006
Self-Check 1
Aircraft Overview
Reference: Technical Manual chapter 5A

Multiple Choice
1. For an extended overwater flight, the aircraft is required to be
equipped with ___.
a. life vests
b. life rafts
c. emergency locator transmitter
d. all of the above
2. The overall height of the Falcon 50 is ___ feet.
a. 18
b. 23
c. 28
3. The track of the Falcon 50 is ___ feet.
a. 10
b. 13
c. 20
4. The wingspan of the Falcon 50 is ___ feet.
a. 48
b. 62
c. 72
5. The length of the Falcon 50 is ___ feet.
a. 61
b. 80
c. 69
Falcon 50
August 2006
CAE Simuflite
Electrical
Reference: Technical Manual chapter 5C

Multiple Choice
1. The predominent aircraft batteries are ____.
a. nickel-cadmium
b. lead-acid
c. a combination of nickel-cadmium and lead-acid
d. either a or b
2. Each main aircraft battery is rated at ____VDC and ____ amps/hour.
a. 28, 23
b. 26, 28
c. 26, 23
d. 23, 26
3. How many starter/generators are on Falcon 50s equipped with an
APU?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
4. The battery make-break relay trips after a time delay when reverse
current amperage is ____ amps or greater.
a. 350
b. 250
c. 300
d. 200
5. The ____ switch on the overhead controls the ice detection light.
a. WING
b. TAXI
c. NAV
d. ANTICOL
6. Which of the following is not correct concerning the APU driven
generator?
a. It can assist in engine starts by reducing battery drain and start
time.
b. It can provide electrical system power on the ground.
c. It can provide electrical system power in flight.
d. It can provide battery charging.
Falcon 50
August 2006
Self-Check 1
7. In aircraft with the three inverter AC system, the inverters supply
power to pilot and copilot buses that are ____V AC and ____ V AC.
a. 26, 23
b. 28, 26
c. 115, 28
d. 115, 26
8. Normally, the main aircraft batteries are connected ____, but they
can be connected ____ for cold weather starts.
a. together, separately
b. in parallel, in series
c. together, in series
d. in parallel, separately
9. Which of the following are functions of the generator control units
(GCUs)?
a.
b.
c.
d.
1. Voltage regulation
2. Generator paralleling
3. Overvoltage protection
4. 300 amp limiting
5. Starter current activation
6. Voltmeter supply
1, 2, 3
1, 3, 4
1, 3, 5
2, 4, 6
10. What buses normally supply the Primary A and Auxiliary C buses
and the Primary B and Auxiliary D buses?
a. Left Main, Right Main
b. Gen 1, Gen 2
c. Battery, Start
d. B, A
11. With a ground power cart used for engine starting, what is the best
indication the start sequence has electrically terminated at % N2
(starter no longer powered) for the respective engine?
a. Ignition light ON
b. Gen light OFF
c. Bat light OFF
d. Ignition light OFF
12. The battery charge rate is ___ amps when the ground power cart is
connected and external power is selected.
a. 0
b. 250
c. 300
d. 1500
Falcon 50
August 2006
CAE Simuflite
True or False
1. ____ In order to start an engine (not the APU), the associated generator switch must be in ON, the associated power lever must be
in IDLE, and the associated computer switch must be in ON.
2. ____ When the failure warning panel is tested, none of the overhead
blue switchlights are tested.
Matching
Match the condition at left with the generator output limitations at right.
Condition
Output Limit
1. _____ Transient (1 minute maximum)
A. 500
2. _____ Up to 39,000 ft
B. 350
3. _____ Above 39,000 ft
C. 300
4. _____ APU
D. 250
E. 200
F. 100
10
Falcon 50
August 2006
Self-Check 1
Hydraulics
Reference: Technical Manual chapter 5G

Multiple Choice
1.
The airbrakes are operated by the No. ____ hydraulic system.

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
2. The maximum altitude for standby hydraulic pump operation is

____ feet.
a. 30,000
b. 40,000
c. 45,000
d. 49,000
3. The standby hydraulic pump can replace the ____ hydraulic system(s)
engine driven pump in flight.
a. No. 1
b. No. 2
c. both No. 1 and No. 2
d. either No. 1 or No. 2
4. If the standby pump operates continuously for more than 60 seconds,
the ____ annunciator illuminates.
a. #2 PBK
b. STBY PMP
c. PMP 1
d. OPRESS
True or False
1. ____ Engine-driven pumps Nos. 1 and 2 power the No. 1 hydraulic
system.
2. ____ The PMP 1 light is illuminated; the pressure delivered by the
No. 1 engine-driven pump is below 1,500 PSI.
3. ____ The STBY PMP Light illuminates when the FLIGHT/
GROUND selector is in the FLIGHT position.
Falcon 50
August 2006
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CAE Simuflite
Flight
Controls
Reference: Technical Manual chapter 5E

Multiple Choice
1. The emergency slats are selected electrically and actuated hydraulically by which systems?
a. A Bus, No. 1
b. B Bus, No. 2
c. C Bus, No. 1
d. D Bus, No. 3
2. The control force exerted on the ailerons is not dependent on which
of the following?
a. Flap setting
b. Control displacement
c. Airspeed
d. Trim unit displacement
3. Emergency roll trim is available utilizing which of the following?
a. Left aileron
b. Right aileron
c. Both a and b
d. Neither a nor b
4. Which of the following is not true concerning Arthur Q units?
a. The copilot pitot/static system supplies airspeed information for
the aileron Arthur Q
b. The copilot static system and No. 1 engine Pt2/Tt2 probe provide
airspeed information for the elevator Arthur Q
c. The copilot pitot/static system supplies airspeed control for the
rudder Arthur Q
d. Airspeed from the air data system is used to monitor the Arthur
Q unit positions
5. A continuous clacker sounds to indicate ____.
a. VMO/MMO limits are exceded
b. the horizontal stabilizer is moving
c. a fire condition is detected
d. the aircraft is approaching or deviating from preselected altitude
6. Which of the following is true concerning the Arthur Q units?
a. The No. 1 hydraulic system provides operating pressure for both
Arthur Q units.
b. The No. 2 hydraulic system provides operating pressure for all
Arthur Q units.
c. The No. 1 hydraulic system provides operating pressure only for
the aileron Arthur Q.
d. The No. 2 hydraulic system provides operating pressure only for
the elevator Arthur Q.
12
Falcon 50
August 2006
Self-Check 1
7. The TAIL PLANE toggle switch actuates the ___ trim and trips the
____ trim CB.
a. emergency, emergency
b. emergency, autopilot
c. emergency, normal
d. normal, emergency
8. In normal operations, No. 1 hydraulic system pressure is applied to
the ____ side of the normal slat actuators at all times.
a. retract
b. extend
c. retract and extend
d. neither
9. At altitudes above ____ feet, do not establish or maintain a configuration with the flaps or slats extended.
a. 10,000
b. 14,000
c. 20,000
d. 24,000
10. The stall systems automatic slat operation is disarmed above
approximately ____ KIAS.
a. 200
b. 270
c. 280
d. 300
Falcon 50
August 2006
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CAE Simuflite
14
Falcon 50
August 2006
Self-Check 2
Self-Check 2
Landing Gear
Reference: Technical Manual, Chapter 5I

Multiple Choice
1. The ____ bus(es) power the landing gear indication circuit.
a. A
b. B
c. A or B
d. A and C
2. Shortly after takeoff, the pilot calls Gear up. The pilot not flying
finds the gear handle stuck in the down position. What could cause
this?
a. Flight/ground proximity switch in ground mode
b. Mechanical interlock stuck locked
c. Nose wheel centered
d. Brakes applied
3. Each main gear and the nose gear have ___ electrical proximity
switches which send signals to various aircraft systems indicating
whether the aircraft is on the ground or in the air.
a. 3
b. 1
c. 4
d. 2
True or False
1. ____ The No. 1 hydraulic system supplies the pressure for emergency hydraulic gear extension.
2. ____ Brakes are applied automatically as the landing gear is
retracted.
3. ____ After retraction, hydraulic pressure holds each main gear
assembly in place.
Falcon 50
August 2006
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CAE Simuflite
Brakes
Reference: Technical Manual chapter 5I

Multiple Choice
1. The No. 1 hydraulic system supplies the No. 1 braking system with
up to ___ PSI of pressure. The No. 2 hydraulic system supplies the
No. 2 braking system with up to ___ PSI.
a. 1,600, 800
b. 1,600, 400
c. 800, 400
d. 400, 800
2. At the first detent of the PARK BRAKE handle, approximately ___
PSI is applied to the brakes. At the second detent, approximately
___ PSI is applied.
a. 1,560, 800
b. 800, 1,560
c. 390, 1,600
d. 390, 800
True or False
1. ____ During landing, the main gear touches down, but not the nose
gear; anti-skid is available.
2. ____ A pressure switch causes the amber #2 P. BK annunciator to
flash when the pressure drops to 1200 PSI in the parking
brake accumulator.
3. ____ The brake indicating system is powered by the Primary A bus
when the landing gear handle is down.
4. ____ If the normal gear selector is positioned to the down position and normal braking is possible, anti-skid system operation is available if the EMER GEAR pull handle or manual
uplock release have been applied.
16
Falcon 50
August 2006
Self-Check 2
Powerplant
Reference: Technical Manual chapter 5L

Multiple Choice
1. If the thrust reverser is not stowed and locked when the EMER
STOW switch is in STOW, the ____ annunciator illuminates.
a. DEPLOYED
b. PMP2
c. REV UNLOCK
d. ARMED
2. Electrical power for the N1 and N2 indicating systems normally is
supplied from ____ bus for engines Nos. 1 and 2 and from ____ bus
for engine No. 3.
a. A, C
b. C, D
c. L Main, C
d. A, B
3. The engine fan is driven by the ____ spool that is the measure of
engine thrust.
a. N2
b. accessory
c. N1
d. transfer
4. What results if the accessory box breather pressurization valve fails
to close when it should?
a. Oil pressure decreases with altitude increase.
b. Oil pressure increases with altitude increase.
c. Oil temperature increases with altitude increase.
d. Oil pressure and temperature increases with altitude increase.
5. Electrical power for the oil pressure and temperature indicating system is supplied from ____ bus for engines Nos. 1 and 2 and from
____ bus for engine No. 3.
a. B, C
b. A, B
c. A, C
d. C, D
6. The Electronic Engine Control (EEC) provides engine overspeed
shutdown protection at 109% N1 or 110% N2 if the ___.
a. computer is off and the normal/manual switch is normal
b. computer is off and the normal/manual switch is manual
c. computer is on and the normal/manual switch is normal
d. aircraft has experienced a total electric power failure
Falcon 50
August 2006
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CAE Simuflite
7. During thrust reverser deployment, the reverse thrust lever setting is
limited to approximately ___% N1.
a. 98
b. 96
c. 93
d. 84
8. The emergency thrust reverser stow switch operates depending on
____.
a. thrust reverser lever position
b. ground proximity switches
c. all of the above
d. none of the above
9. To reduce stress on the reverser doors, reduce airspeed to ____
KIAS.
a. 330
b. 300
c. 230
d. 180
10. What is the minimum number of cycles (i.e. deploy and restow) that
the thrust reverse accumulator should be able to supply?
a. 8 full cycles
b. 4 complete cycles
c. one full cycle
d. It can only deploy once.
11. The engine oil light will illuminate for the following reason(s):
a. Pressure is below 25 PSI
b. Oil temperature is above 160F
c. A chip is detected
d. Both a and c.
12. With an operating EEC in cold weather (i.e., below -15C), the SPR
can be used during an engine start until an ITT of ____ C is
observed.
a. 400
b. 300
c. 250
d. 200
13. The engine models installed on the Falcon 50 and Falcon 50EX are
____.
a. TFE 738 A, B, or C
b. TFE 731 - 3, 4, or 5
c. TFE 731 - 3, 3B, or 3A
d. TFE 731 - 3, -1C, 3D-1C, or 40-1C
18
Falcon 50
August 2006
Self-Check 2
APU

Multiple Choice
1. If the APU fails to complete a start on the first start attempt, the second start attempt should not be begun until ____ minute(s) elapse(s).
a. 1
b. 2
c. 5
d. 10
2. APU fuel consumption is approximately ___pph.
a. 500
b. 100
c. 250
d. 150
True or False
1.___ The APU will not automatically shut down if aircraft becomes
airborn with APU operating.
2.___ The APU BLEED annunciator will illuminate if the APU bleed
valve is open when it should be closed.
Falcon 50
August 2006
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CAE Simuflite
Thrust
Reverser
Reference: Technical Manual chapter 5J

Multiple Choice
1. The reverser doors can deflect approximately ___% of the takeoff
thrust forward.
a. 93
b. 100
c. 40
d. 80
2. The primary ___ bus provides electrical activation and #___
hydraulic system provides for operation of the Thrust Reverser.
a. B, 2
b. A, 2
c. A, 1
d. B, 1
3. If the Thrust Reverser does not stow, the No. 2 engine should be
shut down:
a. If you want
b. If performance is sufficient.
c. If optimum performance is critical.
d. None of the above.
True or False
1. ____ The thrust reverser may be used for backing the aircraft on the
ground.
2. ____ Maximum continuous usage is limited to 1 minute.
20
Falcon 50
August 2006
Self-Check 2
Fuel System

Multiple Choice
1. The ____ bus supplies electrical power for vent valve operation
when single point refueling.
a. Primary A
b. Left Main
c. Right Main
d. Battery
2. The fuel pressurization system maintains pressure in both the wing
tanks and the feeder tanks. Which has the higher pressure?
a. Wing tanks
b. Feeder tanks
3. The regulation level in each feeder tank is ____ pounds.
a. 300
b. 609
c. 1,404
d. 6,000
4. Use of the EMERG FUEL TRANSFER switch shifts the control of
the transfer valve from the ____ level float valve to the ____ level
float valve.
a. emergency, low
b. low, high
c. high, low
d. high, emergency
5. The fuel shutoff valve is controlled by the ____.
a. fire pull handle
b. T - handle
c. K - handle
d. refueling switch
6. The fuel transfer shutoff valve is operated by the ____.
a. transfer switch
b. XFR switch
c. T-handle tool
d. FTS switch
Matching
Match the capacity to the fuel tank.
Capacity
Tank
1. _____ 3,748 lbs
a. Left or right wing tank
2. _____ 2,749 lbs
b. Left or right feeder tank high level
3. _____ 2,460 lbs
c. Center wing tank
4. _____ 1,750 lbs
d. Center feeder tank, refueling low level
5. _____ 1,404 lbs
e. Center feeder tank, high level
Falcon 50
August 2006
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CAE Simuflite
Pressurization
Reference: Technical Manual chapter 5K

Multiple Choice
1. LP bleed air from engines Nos. ____ and ____ pressurizes the
hydraulic system reservoirs, wing fuel tanks, and feeder fuel tanks.
a. 1, 2
b. 1, 3
c. 2, 3
2. On aircraft without SB F50-0163, the pressurization system maintains a cabin altitude of 8,000 ft at a flight altitude of ____ feet with
a normal differential of ____ PSI.
a. 49,000, 9.5
b. 48,000, 8.8
c. 46,000, 9.1
d. 45,000, 8.8
3. On aircraft with SB F50-0163, the pressurization system maintains
a cabin altitude of 8,000 ft at a flight altitude of ____ feet with a
normal differential of____ PSI.
a. 49,000, 9.5
b. 49,000, 9.1
c. 46,000, 9.1
4. The rate knob detent provides a ____ FPM rate of climb and a ____
FPM rate of descent.
a. 600, 400
b. 800, 450
c. 750, 550
d. 650, 450
5. With AUTO selected, the outflow valves are commaned closed with
the power levers forward of ____ FCU.
a. 85
b. 70
c. 54
d. 84
6. With the aircraft altitude at 30,000 ft and the dump mode selected,
aircraft without SB F50-154 will have cabin altitude limited to
____.
a. 5000 ft
b. 10,000 ft
c. 11,500 ft
d. 12,500 ft
22
Falcon 50
August 2006
Self-Check 2
7. After landing with the power levers at less than 54 FCU and the
ground/flight relays in ground mode, the outflow valves are commanded to a ____ foot-per-minute cabin climb rate.
a. 0
b. 450
c. 650
d. 1,000
8. HP bleed air from engines Nos. ____ and ____ supplies air for operating the pressurization jet pump.
a. 1, 2
b. 1, 3
c. 2, 3
True or False
1. ____ Neither the baggage compartment nor the nose cone has a heat
regulator control.
2. ____ The dump mode is a manual operation.
3. ____ The red CABIN annunciator illuminates and the warning horn
sounds if the passenger door locking handle is not latched.
Falcon 50
August 2006
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CAE Simuflite
Air Conditioning
Reference: Technical Manual chapter 5K

Multiple Choice
1. LP bleed air from which engines pressurizes the wing and feeder
fuel tanks?
a. 1 and 2
b. 1 and 3
c. 2 and 3
2. The cold side valve in the temperature regulating valve allows at
least ____% of total airflow to pass through it; this ensures that the
aircraft has an ample supply of fresh air.
a. 10
b. 30
c. 50
d. 70
3. With any power lever forward of ____ FCU, if the flight-ground
detection system senses the aircraft on ground, the conditioning
valve(s) ____. This is a normal situation for takeoff.
a. 84, opens
b. 84, closes
c. 54, opens
d. 54, closes
4. The APU may supply bleed air for ____.
a. tank pressurization
b. air conditioning
c. pressurization
d. pneumatic motors
5. ____ temperature control system, for the passengers or for the crew,
can provide conditioned air to the passenger area and the cockpit.
a. Either
b. Neither
c. The master
d. The slave
24
Falcon 50
August 2006
Self-Check 2
6. The ECU is powered by the ____.
a. primary A bus
b. load-shed C bus
c. no. 1 hydraulic system
d. bleed air flowing through it
True or False
1. ____ When any power lever is advanced beyond 54 FCU, the APU
bleed air valve opens.
2. ____ If the pressure regulating valve (PRV) switch is in AUTO and
the ENG 2 anti-ice switch is in OFF, the PRV modulates in
response to bleed air pressure downstream of the valve.
Falcon 50
August 2006
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26
Falcon 50
August 2006
Self-Check 3
Self-Check 3
Ice and Rain
Protection
Reference: Technical Manual chapter 5H

Multiple Choice
1. With all ANTI-ICE switches selected OFF, the amber portion of the
ENG 2 annunciator remains illuminated. What does this annunciator indicate?
a. Pressure is more than 4 PSI in the S-duct anti-icing ducts
b. Pressure is more than 4 PSI in the No.2 inlet anti-ice system
c. Either A or B
d. Neither A nor B
2. Engine anti-ice must be OFF when total temperature is above ____
C TAT, and turned ON when total temperature is ____C.
a. +10, +10 or below
b. + 5, +5
c. -5, -5
d. -10, -10
3. When the No. 2 engine anti-ice is operating, the No.2 engine S-duct
is anti-iced by ____.
a. heated air from the common bleed air manifold
b. LP bleed air from the No. 2 engine
c. HP bleed air from the No. 2 engine
4. Both windshield wipers are operating. The PILOT WIPER switch is
moved from ON to OFF, then the COPILOT switch is moved from
ON to PARK. What happens?
a. Both wipers stop where they are
b. Both wipers park
c. The pilots wiper stops where it is and the copilots wiper parks
5. During ground testing of airframe anti-icing systems, do not leave
the AIRFRAME switch in NORM or STBY for more than ____
seconds.
a. 10
b. 20
c. 30
d. 40
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August 2006
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CAE Simuflite
6. Electrical power for the normal airframe anti-ice switch position is
from the ____ bus; electrical power for the standby airframe anti-ice
switch position is from the ____ bus.
a. B, C
b. A, B
c. C, D
d. A, D
7. In flight, the pilots windshield heat switch is set to MAX; the
copilots windshield heat switch should be set to ____.
a. NORM
b. MAX
c. OFF
d. STBY
8. The AIRFRAME switch is moved from OFF to NORM. As the HP
bleed valves open, the ____ and ____ ITTs should ____.
a. No. 1, No. 3, rise
b. No. 1, No. 2, fall
c. remain the same
d. a or b, depending on the icing condition
9. The pilots pitot/static system anti-icing is powered by a ____ bus;
the copilots pitot/static system anti-icing is powered by a ____ bus.
a. non load-shed A, load-shed D
b. load-shed C, non load-shed B
c. non load-shed A, non load-shed B
d. Main, Battery
10. Which electrically anti-iced components are monitored by
annunciator warning lights?
a. AOA probe (if installed) and pitot pressure probes
b. Pitot pressure probes and static pressure ports
c. Stall vanes and static pressure ports
d. Static pressure ports and TAT probe
11. With SBF50-225 only one anti-ice valve is powered by B bus in
NORM, and C bus in STBY
a. True
b. False
28
Falcon 50
August 2006
Self-Check 3
Communications
Reference: Technical Manual chapter 5B

Multiple Choice
1. The ____ panel permits the oxygen mask to be used for crew and
ATC communication if the panel selections ____ and ____ are
selected.
a. HF CONTROL, USSB, SQUELCH
b. ICS, MASK, CPIT
c. VHF 2, EMERG, AUDIO
2. The No. 1 VHF transciever receives power from Primary ___ Bus
and No. 2 transceiver receives power from Auxiliary ___ Bus.
a. B, D
b. A, C
c. A, D
d. B, C
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August 2006
29
CAE Simuflite
Instruments

Multiple Choice
1. Depending on component installation, the flight instruments (e.g.,
ADI, HSI) receive information for flight from ____.
a. mechanical gyros, INS, IRS, AHRS, or MHRS
b. mechanical gyros, MHRS, DPU, MFD
c. mechanical gyros, HACS, MPU, DCP
d. mechanical gyros, magnetic information system, OHAS
30
Falcon 50
August 2006
Self-Check 3
Navigation

Multiple Choice
1. The VOR and LOC receiving antennae are on the ____.
a. landing gear doors
b. nose cone
c. wing leading edges
d. vertical stabilizer
Falcon 50
August 2006
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CAE Simuflite
Autopilot

Multiple Choice
1. Excluding approach, the minimum altitude for Collins autopilot
operation is ____ feet.
a. 1,000
b. 500
c. 200
d. 100
2. For approach with the radio altimeter operative, the minimum altitude for Collins autopilot operation is ____ feet.
a. 1,000
b. 500
c. 100
d. 50
3. For approach with the radio altimeter inoperative, the minimum altitude for Collins autopilot operation is ____ feet.
a. 500
b. 200
c. 100
d. 50
4. Aircraft with the Collins APS-85 Autopilot experience movement
of the ___ but not the ___ ___ to stabilize the aircraft about the yaw
axis.
a. Rudder, rudder pedals
b. Rudder pedals, rudder
c. Ailerons, rudder pedals
32
Falcon 50
August 2006
Self-Check 3
Fire Protection
Reference: Technical Manual chapter 5D

Multiple Choice
1. At least how many portable fire extinguishers are in the Falcon 50?
a. None
b. One
c. Two
d. Three
2. During the preflight walkaround inspection, it was not noticed that
one of the fire extinguisher thermal discharge discs was missing.
During power on checks, could a valid fire warning system test
occur when the fire test button is depressed?
a. Yes
b. No
c. Lights yes, horn no
d. Lights no, horn yes
True or False
1. ____ Except in the baggage compartment, increased gas pressure in
the fire detection tube closes the switch that triggers the fire
warning circuits.
2. ____ The APU and baggage compartment fire detection systems are
identical.
3. ____ Position 2 of the ENG 3 fire estinguishing switch can be fired
with the battery switches OFF.
4. ____ The detection circuits are on both A and B buses.
5. ____ If CBrF3 also known as Halon 1301 leakage or discharge is
suspected, vacate the area and ventilate well.
Falcon 50
August 2006
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CAE Simuflite
Oxygen
Reference: Technical Manual chapter 5J

Multiple Choice
1. The maximum operating pressure of the standard oxygen bottle is
____ PSI at 70F (21C).
a. 1,850
b. 1,760
c. 1,670
d. 1,580
2. Pressure breathing of 100% oxygen is actuated at approximately
____ ft.
a. 41,000
b. 33,000
c. 30,000
d. 27,000
3. During cruise, the cabin pressure altitude rose to 12,000 ft; the passenger oxygen selector was in NORMAL when the passenger
masks deployed automatically. Oxygen was supplied at deployment
pressure, then dropped to 27.5 PSI. Was this a malfunction?
Why?
a. Yes, the passengers should have continued to receive oxygen at
deployment pressure.
b. Yes, the passengers should have initially received oxygen at storage pressure; then it should have dropped to distribution pressure.
c. No, the cabin controller used storage pressure to deploy the
masks; then reduced the pressure for passenger use.
d. No, the cabin controller used deployment pressure to deploy the
masks; then reduced the pressure to passenger use.
4. Oxygen is supplied to the passengers at 27.5 PSI. The ARMED
indicator is ____, and the SUPPLY indicator is ____.
a. partially white, partially white
b. partially white, white
c. white, partially white
d. white, white
5. For flights below 10,000 ft, the required oxygen pressure at dispatch
is ____ PSI. For flights above 10,000 ft, the required oxygen pressure at dispatch is ____ PSI.
a. 0, 700
b. 650, 700
c. 650, 1,850
d. 1,000, 1,850
34
Falcon 50
August 2006
Self-Check 3
Flight Planning
Reference: Technical Manual chapter 4

Multiple Choice
1. Normal climb speed is ____.
a. 230 KIAS/0.72 M
b. 250 KIAS/0.72 M
c. 260 KIAS/0.72 M
d. 280 KIAS/0.72 M
2. VAP, approach target speed, is equivalent to ____.
a. VREF + 10
b. VREF + 10 + 1/2 headwind
c. VREF+ 10 + 1/2 headwind + 1/2 gust
d. VREF + 10 + 1/2 headwind + full gust (VREF + 20, maximum)
3. VFR, flap retract speed, is equivalent to ____.
a. 160 KIAS
b. 145 KIAS
c. V2 + 15 (takeoff)
d. V2 + 25 (takeoff)
4. What conditions require an adjustment to V1 for a given weight?
a. temperature/wind/runway
b. runway gradient/altitude/temperature/wind
c. runway gradient/temperature only
d. wind/runway gradient
5. Do not attempt to take off in snow depths greater than ____.
a. 2.0 inches (dry)
b. 4.0 inches (dry)/2.0 inches (wet)
c. 0.25 inch
d. 0.5 inch equivalent water depth
6. For takeoff operations on contaminated runways, adopt V1 = VR
and do not use ____ ____.
a. V1 = V1 right rudder
b. V1 = VR reduced thrust
c. V1 = VR full power
d. V2 = VR reduced thrust
Falcon 50
August 2006
35
CAE Simuflite
Weight and
Balance

Multiple Choice
1. Zero fuel weight includes ____.
a. reserve fuel
b. taxi fuel
c. alternate and reserve fuel
d. unusable fuel
2. The Falcon 50 BOW is typically around ____ pounds.
a. 28,000
b. 26,000
c. 22,000
d. 21,000
3. After computing and recording ZFW figures on the Loading
Diagram, which chart do you refer to next?
a. Balanced Field S +20
b. Maximum Take-Off Weight Limited By Climb Requirements
c. V1-VR Take-Off Attitude
d. Weight and Balance Diagram
4. Where can Enroute Climb Speed Chart (1.5 VS) be found in the Performance Manual?
a. In the Takeoff and Climb Section
b. Both a and c
c. Sec 4, Sub Sec 15, Pg 2
d. Sec 5
36
Falcon 50
August 2006
Self-Check 3
Takeoff
Performance

1. Use charts provided to determine the maximum takeoff weight and
complete the TOLD card for takeoff at Cheyenne Airport. Bring to
class for review.
Information:
Outside Air Temperature (OAT) - 86F
Altimeter Reading - 30.11
Runway - 26/8
Runway Length 9200 ft
Wind - Calm
Field Elevation - 6156 ft
(Use charts provided by instructor.)
Falcon 50
August 2006
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CAE Simuflite
38
Falcon 50
August 2006
Self-Check 4
Self-Check 4
Electrical
Abnormals/
Emergencies
References: Technical Manual chapter 5L,

Operating Handbook E-pages
Matching: Phase I Memory Items
For ELECTRICAL SMOKE OR FIRE
1. ___
a. O2 Masks/Smoke Goggles 100%/DONNED
2. __
b. No Smoking - ON
3. __
c. MIC Select - MASK + CPIT

& TEST
4. __
d. If no fire: Passenger Control/

Masks - OVERIDE/DONNED
For ALL THREE GENs INOP

5. ___
a. Bus Tie - FLT NORM
6. ___
b. C and D Buses -OFF
7. ___
c. Generators -(OFF/ON) RESET
Multiple Choice
1. Batteries in good condition last approximately ____ with____ per
bat load.
a. 20 MIN, 50 AMP
b. 50 MIN, 20 AMP
c. 20 AMP, 50 MIN
d. 50 AMP, 20 MIN
e. 30 MIN, 50 AMP
2. During ALL THREE GENs INOP, battery load may be further
reduced by selecting ___.
a. Booster Pumps - OFF
b. INS & Nav - OFF
c. Windshield Heat - OFF
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
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August 2006
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CAE Simuflite
3. During battery failure, or illumination of the BAT 1 or BAT 2 annunciator, _______ attempt(s) can be made to reconnect the battery.
a. one
b. two
c. three
d. four
e. no further
f. unlimited
4. For the ONE GEN INOP checklist, three separate one generator
inoperative procedures are used. Of the following, which one is not
a procedure?
a. ONE GEN INOP: SWITCH TRIPPED
b. ONE GEN INOP: SWITCH NOT TRIPPED: GEN 1 OR 2
c. ONE GEN INOP: SWITCH NOT TRIPPED: GEN 3
d. ONE GEN INOP: SWITCH TRIPPED: BUS TIED
5. Illumination of the HOT BAT warning light indicates a battery temperature exceeds ___ and a thermal runaway may be occurring.
a. 130F
b. 140F
c. 150F
d. 130C
e. 140C
f. 150C
True or False
1. ____ Maximum of two attempts to reset a failed generator are
allowed. However, if only one generator is inoperative and
the switch is tripped, only one reset attempt is allowed.
2. ____ Illumination of the BAT 1 or BAT 2 warning annunciator indicates that the associated battery is isolated from the respective main bus and the battery make-and-break relay is open.
40
Falcon 50
August 2006
Self-Check 4
Ice and Rain

Protection
Abnormals/
Emergencies
References: Technical Manual chapter 5H,

Multiple Choice
1. Illumination of the AIRFRAME amber light with the AIRFRAME
anti-ice switch in NORM indicates the anti-ice air is at ___.
a. too high temperature
b. too low temperature
c. too low pressure
d. too high pressure
2. Select the proper sequence from the list below for ANTI-ICE LATE
ACTIVATION.
1. Start Selector Sws - AIR START
2. Eng 1 and 3 Sw - ON
3. Wait 30 seconds
4. Eng 2 Sw - ON
5. Wait 30 seconds
6. Airframe Sw - NORMAL
a. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
b. 1, 3, 5, 2, 4, 6
c. 2, 4, 6, 1, 3, 5
d. 1, 2, 5, 6, 4, 3
e. 6, 5, 4, 3, 2, 1
3. If engine No. 2 amber annunciator illuminates and the engine No. 2
ANTI-ICE switch is OFF, the anti-icing pressure is more than 4 PSI
in either the ___ anti-icing ducts or the ___ inlet anti-ice system.
a. No.2 engine/No.2
b. No.3 engine/No.1
c. No.1 engine/No.3
d. S-duct/No.2
4. To remove ice, after the SLATS FAIL TO RETRACT AFTER
TAKEOFF, extend the stats, activate the airframe anti-ice system,
and maintain airspeed less than ___ knots.
a. 250
b. 240
c. 200
d. 180
5. The minimum N1 speeds for anti-ice operations with the TAT of
- 10C to 0C, in cruise conditions is ___.
a. 84
b. 78
c. 91
d. Listed in the AFM
e. Both b and d
Falcon 50
August 2006
41
CAE Simuflite
Flight Profiles
References: Technical Manual chapter 5D

Multiple Choice
Questions 1 through 3 refer to a rolling takeoff.
1. Under normal conditions nosewheel steering is released at ___.
a. 60 kts
b. 80 kts
c. 100 kts
d. V1
2. The pilot flying moves his right hand from the throttles to the yoke
at ___.
a. 80 kts
b. VR
c. V1
d. 400 ft AGL
3. Nose wheel steering is restricted by speed and should not be used to
maintain directional control.
a. T
b. F
4. Raise the flaps at ___.
a. V2 + 15 (minimum)
b. 400 ft AGL (minimum)
c. a and b
d. none of the above
42
Falcon 50
August 2006
Self-Check 4
Questions 5 through 7 refer to a rejected takeoff.
5. If the crew trains to a firmly established SOP, which flight crewmember may call for an abort?
a. PF
b. PIC
c. PNF
d. Most senior crewmember
e. Either crewmember
6. The first PF action during a rejected takeoff is ___.
a. Power - IDLE
b. Brakes - AS REQUIRED
c. Brakes - MAXIMUM
d. ATC - ADVISE
7. Prior to V1, for which of the following malfunctions is there cause
for a rejected takeoff?
a. Engine fire
b. Engine failure
c. Thrust reverser deployment
d. All of the above
Questions 8 and 9 refer to engine failure after V1.
8. Minimum rotation pitch attitude is ___.
a. 8
b. 14
c. 15
d. dependent on weight
9. After flap retraction, accelerate to and begin to climb at ___.
a. V2 + 25
b. VAC
c. VFS/1.5 VS
d. VMCA
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August 2006
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CAE Simuflite
Question 10 and 11 refer to a normal ILS approach.
10. Procedure turn speed and configuration targets are ___ and ___.
a. clean, 180 kts
b. flaps 7, 160 kts
c. flaps 20, 140 kts
d. gear down and flaps 20, VREF + 10
11. Flaps are lowered to full ___.
a. when the glideslope is alive
b. at 500 ft above DA(H)
c. when the glideslope is captured
d. when the landing is assured
12. On a standard ILS, the callouts to DA(H) are ___.
a. 500. 100. Minimums
b. 1,000. 100. Minimums
c. 1,000. 500. 200. 100. Minimums
d. 1,000. 500. 400. 300. 200. 100. Minimums
13. On a one engine ILS approach, the minimum clean configuration
maneuvering speed is ___.
a. 200 kts
b. 180 kts
c. 1.5Vs
d. VREF + 10
14. During a non-precision approach, the maximum recommended rate
of descent from the FAF to MDA is ___ feet per minute.
a. 2,000
b. 1,500
c. 1,000
d. 700
True or False
1. ____ During a visual approach/balked landing, set the airspeed bug
to VREF, and the airspeed pointers to VA, and 1.5VAP.
2. ____ A normal landing may be made with either 20 flaps or full
flaps.
44
Falcon 50
August 2006
Self-Check 4
Use of Normal
Checklist
References: Technical Manual chapter 5C

Multiple Choice
1. Who initiates a checklist by calling for the specific checklist title?
a. PF
b. PIC
c. PNF
d. SIC
2. Who reads the checklist challenge item aloud?
a. PF
b. PIC
c. PNF
d. SIC
3. How is the response made to the challenge?
a. The PNF reads the response after reading the challenge.
b. The PF responds verbally to the PNF challenge after completing
the required action.
c. The PNF responds verbally to his own challenge after completing
required action.
d. None of the above.
e. Both b and c.
4. Good crew resource management (CRM) calls for which of the
following?
a. The PNF to announce the completion of any checklist.
b. The PNF to ask the PF if a checklist should be started if the PNF
thinks it was overlooked.
c. The PNF issues a second challenge if the PF does not respond by
action or verbal communication.
5. If the PF does not respond to the second challenge, the PNF must
ensure the safety of the aircraft by ___.
a. issuing a third challenge
b. assuming control of the aircraft
c. announcing he is assuming control and then taking the necessary
actions to return the aircraft to a safe operating envelope
6. Abnormal and emergency checklists are handled differently than
normal checklists in that the ___.
a. PIC must accomplish the checklist items
b. PF must handle the checklist items
c. PIC designates who controls the aircraft and who performs the
tasks
d. PNF not only reads the challenge, he reads the response as well
when challenging each item.
Falcon 50
August 2006
45
CAE Simuflite
46
Falcon 50
August 2006
Self-Check 5
Self-Check 5
Fuel
Abnormal/
Emergencies
References: Technical Manual chapter 5F,

Multiple Choice
1. Illumination of the FUEL 1 annunciator indicates that the respective
fuel pressure sensed in the supply line between the booster pump
and the engine is ___.
a. high
b. negative
c. positive
d. low
2. In normal operations, illumination of the FUEL 1 annunciator
requires the BOOSTER PUMP PRESSURE LOW procedure be
accomplished. You complete steps: (1) X-Feed - OPEN and (2) Low
Booster Pump - OFF. The flight is continued and the fuel is balanced if ___.
a. the light goes out
b. the light stays on
c. fuel loss not noticed
d. fuel loss is noticed
3. In normal operations, illumination of the FUEL 1 annunciator
requires the BOOSTER PUMP PRESSURE LOW procedure to be
accomplished . You complete steps: (1) X-Feed - OPEN and (2)
Low Booster Pump - OFF. Later, you accomplish step (5) Assoc
Fire Pull - PULL and (6) Power Lever - CUTOFF if ___.
a. the light goes out
b. the light stays on
c. fuel loss not noticed
d. fuel loss is noticed
4. When the FUELING light illuminates indicating a FUEL TANK
PRESSURIZATION INOP problem, which of the following apply?
a. Avoid rapid changes in attitude
b. Restrict pitch and bank to low angles
c. Land if possible
d. Land as soon as possible
5. When the FUELING light illuminates, indicating a FUEL TANK
PRESSURIZATION INOP problem, choose the correct possibilities.
a. One of the three air vent valves may be open
b. Fueling door may be open
c. D Bus may not be powered
d. Defueling valve may be open
Falcon 50
August 2006
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CAE Simuflite
6. Illumination of the LO FUEL annunciator indicates that the fuel
remaining in at least one of the feeder tanks is less than ___ pounds.
a. 300
b. 400
c. 500
d. 600
e. 700
f. 800
7. Illumination of XFR advisory light indicates that the sensed pressure in a fuel transfer line is low. This condition may be due to ___.
a. low fuel in the respective wing tank
b. a transfer pump failed or turned off
c. a leak in the respective transfer system
d. a faulty pressure switch
True or False
1. ____ When a FUEL WING TANK LEVEL ABNORMALLY LOW
situation develops, the discrepancy between TOT fuel indicators should be verified by checking aileron trim.
2. ____ If all feeders are low and the EMERG FUEL TRANSFER
switch is not incorporated, an immediate landing may be
required.
48
Falcon 50
August 2006
Self-Check 5
Powerplant
Abnormals/
Emergencies

Multiple Choice
1. Place the following steps in the correct order for the ALL
ENGINES OUT procedure.
1. C&D Buses - OFF
2. Comm - VHF 1/ATC 1
3. Establish A/C - WITHIN AIRSTART ENVELOPE
4. Elec Load - REDUCE 50 AMP/BATT
5. Airstarts - ATTEMPT
a. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
b. 5, 4, 3, 2, 1
c. 1, 2, 3, 5, 4
d. 3, 4, 1, 2, 5
e. 5, 4, 2, 1, 3
2. The illumination of the amber OIL 1 (or 2, or 3) annunciator signals
that either metal chips have been detected in the oil scavenge line or
the oil pressure is less than ___ PSI.
a. 21
b. 22
c. 23
d. 24
e. 25
f. 26
3. Place the steps in the correct order for the ENGINE FAILURE
DURING TAKEOFF procedure BEFORE V1: REJECT TAKEOFF.
1. Power Levers - IDLE
2. Brakes - MAX PRESSURE
3. Airbrakes - (POSITION 2) EXTEND
4. T/R - DEPLOYED
a. 1, 2, 3, 4
b. 1, 3, 2, 4
c. 1, 4, 2, 3
d. 2, 1, 4, 3
e. 2, 1, 3, 4
4. Which step is not listed in the ENGINE FAILURE DURING
TAKEOFF AFTER V1: CONTINUE TAKEOFF procedure, but is
understood.
a. At VR - ROTATE
b. Takeoff Attitude - SET
c. Directional Control - MAINTAIN
d. At Positive Rate of Climb, Landing Gear - UP
Falcon 50
August 2006
49
CAE Simuflite
5. Abort airstart if ITT is rising rapidly toward ___.
a. 707C
b. 807C
c. 907C
d. 707F
e. 807F
f. 907F
6. For the ENGINE FAILURE DURING TAKEOFF AFTER V1:
CONTINUE TAKEOFF and AT 400 FEET AGL MINIMUM procedure, place these steps in correct order.
5. At V2 + 15 - (FLAPS UP) SLATS ONLY
6. At V2 + 25 - CLEAN WING
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
7. Climb Speed - 1.5 VS

5, 6, 7
5, 7, 6
6, 7, 5
6, 5, 7
7, 5, 6
7, 6, 5
7. The time limit for windmilling airstart from windmilling N2 to 60%

N2 is ___ seconds.
a. 25
b. 30
c. 35
d. 40
e. 45
f. no time limit
8. The memory items in the correct order for ENGINE FIRE
1. Fire Pull- PULL
2. Power Lever - IDENTIFY/CUTOFF
3. Speed - BELOW 250 Kts
4. Fire Ext Eng - POS 1
5. Fire Ext Eng - POS 2
a. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
b. 1, 3, 2, 4, 5
c. 1, 2, 3, 5, 4
d. 2, 1, 3, 4, 5
e. 2, 1, 4, 5, 3
f. 2, 3, 1, 4, 5
50
Falcon 50
August 2006
Self-Check 5
9. During the EMERGENCY SHUTDOWN AND EVACUATION
procedure, are the power levers placed in CUTOFF and the fire pull
handles pulled before or after the parking brake is placed full aft?
a. Before
b. After
10. From the list below, what could cause the OIL 1 light to illuminate?
1. oil pressure is less than 25 PSI
2. metal chips are on the chip detector
3. computer may have failed
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
4. specific fuel consumption is higher

1, 2, 3, 4
1, 2, 3
1, 2
2, 3, 4
2, 3
3, 4
11. CAUTION: Wait ___ seconds between consecutive airstart

attempts. Do not make more than ___ successive airstart attempts.
a. 10, 3
b. 3, 10
c. 10, 10
d. 3, 3
12. The clean configuration airspeed during the APPROACH AND
LANDING - 2 ENGS INOP procedure in the preparatory phase
prior to final approach is ___ VS (minimum).
a. 1.3
b. 1.4
c. 1.5
d. 1.6
e. 1.7
13. The decision to make a missed approach with 2 ENGINES INOP
must be made no later than ___ feet AGL.
a. 1,400
b. 1,000
c. 800
d. 400
e. 180
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August 2006
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CAE Simuflite
14. If the INADVERTENT THRUST REVERSER DEPLOYMENT
procedure is used, what is the proper order for the corrective action?
1. Engine No. 1 - CUTOFF
2. T/N Norm/Stow Sw - UNSTOW
3. Speed - 220 KTs OR LESS
a. The steps are correct
b. The steps are not correct
c. 2, 1, 3
d. 1, 3, 2
e. 3, 1, 2
True or False
1. ___ CAUTION: If engine failure occurs at a speed above V1,
maintain speed attained.
2. ___ An engine restart may be attempted, after a failure or fire if
engine integrity is not in question.
3. ___ CAUTION: If the light in the fire pull handle illuminates without any other indications of an engine fire, the indication must
be treated as a fire and the engine fire checklist accomplished
immediately.
52
Falcon 50
August 2006
Self-Check 5
APU
Abnormals/
Emergencies

Multiple Choice
1. What are the red print memory item(s) for APU FIRE (in correct
order)?
1. Horn - SILENCE
2. APU Master Sw - PUSH
3. Fire APU Sw - POS 1
4. APU Bleed - OFF
5. APU Gen - OFF
a. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
b. 1, 2, 3
c. 2, 3
d. 2, 3, 4,
e. 2, 3, 4, 5
True or False
1. ____ Illumination of the APU BLEED annunciator indicates the
APU bleed air valve is not closed when it should be.
2. ____ The APU will automaticlly shut off for fire, low oil pressure,
overspeed, overvoltage, or if still ON after takeoff.
Falcon 50
August 2006
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CAE Simuflite
Fire Protection
Abnormals/
Emergencies
References: Technical Manual chapter 5D,

Multiple Choice
1. During an ENGINE FIRE, reducing the airspeed to below ___ will
reduce the airflow through the engine nacelle.
a. 150 kts
b. 200 kts
c. 250 kts
d. 300 kts
e. VMO
2. Pulling the No. 2 eng FIRE PULL handle ___.
a. closes the No. 2 eng fuel shutoff valve
b. stops the fuel flow to the APU
c. stops the fuel flow to the No. 2 engine
d. All of the above
3. In the event of an APU fire, depressing the APU Master switch will
___.
a. close the apu fuel shutoff valve
b. close the air inlet door
c. close the bleed air valve
d. reduce the air in the fire area
e. All of the above
4. In case a WHEELS L or R fire warning occurs, the first procedure is
to ___.
a. reduce speed to 190 kts or less
b. extend the landing gear
c. leave gear extended for at least 10 mins after light goes out
d. fire the wheel well fire extinguisher
54
Falcon 50
August 2006
Self-Check 5
Flight Controls
Abnormals/
Emergencies
References: Technical Manual chapter 5E,

Multiple Choice
1. During an INOPERATIVE (JAMMED) STABILIZER LANDING,
with the Stabilizer Position Range +1 to -5, which step(s) are
correct?
a. Approach - SHALLOW
b. Configuration - S + FLAPS 20
c. Approach speed - VREF + 20
d. Landing Dist/Fld Length - INCREASE 480 FT/800 FT
e. All of the above.
2. With an INOPERATIVE (JAMMED) ELEVATOR LANDING
problem, pitch is controlled ___.
a. By the stationary horizontal stabilizer
b. By the moveable horizontal stabilizer
c. By adjusting power settings up and down
d. By shifting fuel from the wings to the center tank
3. For a SLAT INTRANSIT LIGHT DURING CRUISE, reduce aircraft speed to below ___ KIAS to avoid possible damage.
a. 180
b. 200
c. 220
d. 240
4. With the flaps down between 20 and 48, with the FLAP ASYM
light illuminated on the Failure Warning Panel, the minimum speed
to be flown on final is ___.
a. VREF + 0
b. VREF + 5
c. VREF + 10
d. VREF + 15
e. VREF+ 20
f. VREF + 30
5. ARTHUR Q INOP, shown by illumination of Q UNIT annunciator
should be followed initially with the first step of ___.
a. AP - OFF
b. Copilots Pitot/Static Selector - NORMAL
c. Temperature < +10C No.1 Engine Anti-Ice - ON
d. All of the above
Falcon 50
August 2006
55
CAE Simuflite
True or False
1. ____ If the red light remains on throughout the procedure for
SLATS SELECTED AND SLAT INTRANSIT LIGHT
STAYS ILLUMINATED (Slats Malfunction on Approach),
the flaps are not extended; follow the clean wing landing procedure.
2. ____ To confirm outboard slots are extended after activating
EMERGENCY SLATS Switch, place the SLAT/FLAP Lever
in CLEAN WING.
56
Falcon 50
August 2006
Self-Check 5
Avionics
Abnormals/
Emergencies
References: Technical Manual chapter 5B,

Multiple Choice
1. The only source of dynamic pressure to the No. 1 ADC is __.
a. pitot/static ports
b. Q UNIT
c. AUTO SLATS
d. EFIS
e. AFM - pages 3.35
f. Pilots pitot tube
2. From recognition of a nose down hardover to recovery usually takes
___ and results in an altitude loss of ___ altitude during cruise.
a. 10 seconds, less than 50 feet.
b. 0 seconds, 0 feet
c. 2 seconds, more than 1,000 feet
d. 3 seconds, less than 1,000 feet
3. For an EFIS failure on the Dassault EFIS 86 system or FJC EFIS 86
system, ___.
a. Assoc. RSP DN Switch - DEPRESS
b. Assoc. Usp UP Switch - DEPRESS
c. Assoc. RSP CDRV Switch - DEPRESS
d. Assoc. RSP ATT/HDG Switch - DEPRESS
e. Consult the Operating Handbook, page E-79
4. The procedure for a Collins Autopilot - NOSE DOWN HARDOVER
is ____.
a. Autopilot - DISENGAGE
b. Aircraft trim - RETRIM
c. TD - OFF
d. Arthur Q - STNBY
e. both a and b.
Falcon 50
August 2006
57
CAE Simuflite
58
Falcon 50
August 2006
Self-Check 6
Self-Check 6
Hydraulics
Abnormals/
Emergencies
References: Technical Manual chapter 5G,

Multiple Choice
1. Place the red print memory items in correct order for LOSS OF
BOTH HYDRAULIC SYSTEMS.
1. AP/YD - OFF
2. Airspeed - BELOW 260/MI .76
3. Turbulence - AVOID
a. 1, 2, 3
b. 1, 2
c. 2, 3
d. 1, 3, 2
e. 3, 2
f. 3, 2, 1
2. The associated TK.P1 or TK.P2 annunciator illuminates if air pressure in the respective hydraulic reservoir is ___.
a. High
b. Negative
c. Positive
d. Low
3. Choose correct steps from the following steps for the LOSS OF NO.
1 HYD SYS.
1. Speed - 260/MI .76 MAX
2. Altitude - 15,000 FT
3. ST-BY Pump - ON
a. 1, 2, 3
b. 1, 3, 2
c. 1, 2
d. 1, 3
e. 2, 3, 1
f. 3, 2, 1
Falcon 50
August 2006
59
CAE Simuflite
True or False
1. ___ CAUTION: Landing with loss of both hydraulic systems
requires higher control forces & landing requires increased
caution. Directional control during landing can be achieved
with rudder and differential thrust.
2. ___ Illumination of the PMP 1 light indicates that the output pressure of No. 1 engine driven pump is below 1500 PSI.
3. ___ If the ST-BY pump is operating and the ST-BY pump light illuminates, the electric ST-BY pump has operated continuously
for more than 60 seconds. The pump must be turned OFF to
prevent possible failure or fire.
60
Falcon 50
August 2006
Self-Check 6
Landing Gear
Abnormals/
Emergencies
References: Technical Manual chapter 5I,

Multiple Choice
1. During landing gear emergency extension, ___ minutes should be
allowed for free fall of all the landing gear.
a. .1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
2. The main gear manual release requires about ___ pounds pull force
to release the uplocks.
a. 10
b. 20
c. 40
d. 60
3. The airspeed for emergency gear extension should be ___ knots.
a. 150 10
b. 170 (10)
c. 160 to 190
d. 200 to 210
4. Of the following items, which are red print memory items for the
WHEEL WELL OVERHEAT procedure?
a. Speed - 190KTs MAX
b. Gear - DOWN
c. Gear Down - MIN 10 MINS
d. Consider Brakes - NO. 2/OFF
e. a, b, and c
f. none of the above
5. If the landing gear handle will not move up, it is possible the nose
gear did not center. Is retraction recommended?
a. No
b. Yes
True or False
1. ___ If emergency gear extension has been accomplished, the normal
gear handle may be actuated once the gear is down and locked.
2. ___ The landing gear handle will not move up; use of the override
button is discouraged.
Falcon 50
August 2006
61
CAE Simuflite
Matching
Match the components affected (left) by the loss of a hydraulic system
(right).
Component
Failed Hydraulic System
1.
___ Airbrakes
2. ___ Arthur Q
a. No. 1 Hydraulic System

b. No. 2 Hydraulic System
3. ___ #2 Brake System

4. ___ Emergency Slats
5. ___ Flaps
6. ___ Hydraulic Operations
of Landing Gear
7. ___ No. 1 Barrel of Flight
Control Servos
8. ___ No. 2 Barrel of Flight
Control Servos
9. ___ #1 Brake System
10. ___ Normal Slats
11. ___ Nosewheel Steering
12. ___ Parking (Emergency)
Braking May Be Lost
13. ___ Pitch and Roll Arthur
Q Units
14. ___ Thrust Reverser May
Be Lost
62
Falcon 50
August 2006
Self-Check 6
Brakes
Abnormals/
Emergencies
References: Technical Manual chapter 5I,

Multiple Choice
1. If a malfunction is indicated in the anti-skid system, which braking
procedure is suggested?
a. use Brakes #1 with Anti-skid OFF
b. use Brakes #1 with Anti-skid ON
c. use Brakes #2 with Anti-skid OFF
d. use Brakes #2 with Anti-skid ON
2. With a flashing #2P.BK light, indicating low parking brake accumulator pressure, standby hydraulic pump operation may charge the
parking brake accumulator to a pressure above ___; the parking
brake ___ hold the aircraft in position.
a. 1,800 PSI, will then
b. 1,800 PSI, will not then
c. 1,200 PSI, will then
d. 1,200 PSI, will not then
e. 2,500 PSI, will then
f. 2,500 PSI, will not then
3. The brake pressure technique used for a landing with No. 1 brake
system inoperative and No. 2 brakes, with anti-skid OFF selected, is
___.
a. moderate
b. modulate
c. light
d. modulate and moderate
True or False
1. ____The #1 OFF position is used in flight to pump NORMAL
BRAKES to free them from possible icing. Then #1 ON is
reselected.
2. ____ Anti-skid is not available below 12 knots.
Falcon 50
August 2006
63
CAE Simuflite
Pressurization
Abnormals/
Emergencies
References: Technical Manual chapter 5K,

Multiple Choice
1. Place the memory items for the EMERGENCY DESCENT procedure in the proper order.
1. O2 MASKS - DONNED
2. Fasten Seat Belts and Smoking Lights - ON
3. MIC SELECT - MASK
4. Emergency Descent - INITIATE
5. O2 Controller and Passenger Mask - OVERRIDE / DONNED
a. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
b. 1, 3, 2, 4, 5
c. 1, 3, 2, 5, 4
d. 1, 2, 5, 3, 4
e. 1, 5, 4, 2, 3
f. 1, 5, 2, 3, 4
2. Place the memory items in correct order for the AFT COMPARTMENT FIRE procedure.
1. Horn - SILENCE
2. Eng No. 2 Anti-Ice - OFF
3. Batt 1 & 2 Switches - OFF
4. HP/PRV (ALL) - OFF
5. ST-BY Pump - OFF
6. Fire Aft Comp Sw - POS 1
a. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
b. 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
c. 1, 4, 2, 3, 5, 6
d. 4, 2, 3, 5, 6
e. 1, 3, 2, 4, 5, 6
f. 4, 3, 2, 6, 5
3. Place the following steps for EMERGENCY DESCENT in the
proper order:
1.Power Levers - IDLE
2. Autopilot (A.P.) - DISENGAGED
3. Descent Airspeed - VMO /MMO
4. Airbrake Handle - POSITION 2
5. ATC Transponder - MAYDAY CODE
a. 1, 2, 4, 5, 3
b. 2, 1, 4, 3, 5
c. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
d. 5, 4, 3, 2, 1
e. 2, 4, 1, 3, 5
64
Falcon 50
August 2006
Self-Check 6
Air Conditioning
Abnormals/
Emergencies
References: Technical Manual chapter 5K,

Multiple Choice
1. Which of the following steps apply for the CRACKED WINDSHIELD PANE procedure?
a. Speed - 230 Kts
b. Cabin Pressure - 7.5 PSI MAX
c. Cracked Windshield Heat - NORM
d. All of the above
2. To determine the area of abnormal operation for a bleed air system
overheat, when the BLEED OVHT annunciator illuminates, what is
the proper sequence for turning the valves off?
a. HP1, HP3, HP2, PRV
b. HP1, HP3, PRV, HP2
c. HP1, HP2, HP3, PRV
d. PRV, HP2, HP3, HP1
e. PRV, HP3, HP2, HP1
f. PRV, HP3, HP1, HP2
Falcon 50
August 2006
65
CAE Simuflite
66
Falcon 50
August 2006
Self-Check
Answer Key
Self-Check 1
Answer Key
Refer to pages 5 through 14
Aircraft Flight Manual
Electrical
Hydraulic System
Multiple Choice
1. b
2. d
3. e
4. d
True or False
1. T
2. T
3. F
4. T
5. T
Multiple Choice
1. a
2. c
3. c
4. b
5. c
6. c
7. d
8. b
9. a
10. a
11. d
12. a
True or False
1. F
2. T
Matching
1. b
2. c
3. d
4. c
Multiple Choice
1. b
2. c
3. b
4. b
True or False
1. T
2. T
3. F
Aircraft Overview
Multiple Choice
1. d
2. b
3. b
4. b
5. a
Falcon 50
August 2006
Flight Controls
Multiple Choice
1. b
2. a
3. a
4. c
5. b
6. a
7. c
8. a
9. c
10. b
67
CAE Simuflite
68
Falcon 50
August 2006
Self-Check
Answer Key
Self-Check 2
Answer Key
Landing Gear
APU
Multiple Choice
1. c
2. a
3. d
True or False
1. T
2. T
3. F
Multiple Choice
1. c
2. d
True or False
1. F
2. T
Brakes
Multiple Choice
1. c
2. c
3. c
True or False
1. F
2. F
Multiple Choice
1. a
2. c
True or False
1. F
2. T
3. F
4. T
Powerplant
Multiple Choice
1. c
2. d
3. c
4. a
5. d
6. c
7. c
8. d
9. c
10. c
11. d
12. a
13. d
Falcon 50
August 2006
Thrust Reverser
Fuel System
Multiple Choice
1. d
2. a
3. b
4. b
5. a
6. c
Matching
1. a
2. c
3. e
4. d
5. b
Pressurization
Multiple Choice
1. a
2. d
3. b
4. d
5. c
6. d
7. c
8. a
True or False
1. T
2. F
3. F
Air Conditioning
Multiple Choice
1. a
2. b
3. d
4. b
5. a
6. d
True or False
1. F
2. T
69
CAE Simuflite
70
Falcon 50
August 2006
Self-Check
Answer Key
Self-Check 3
Answer Key
Ice and Rain Protection

Multiple Choice
1. c
2. a
3. d
4. c
5. c
6. a
7. b
8. a
9. a
10. b
11. a
Communications
Multple Choice
1. b
2. c
Instruments
Multple Choice
1. a
Navigation
Multple Choice
1. d
Falcon 50
August 2006
Autopilot
Multple Choice
1. a
2. d
3. c
4. a
Fire Protection
Multple Choice
1. c
2. a
True or False
1. T
2. F
3. T
4. T
5. T
Flight Planning
Multiple Choice
1. c
2. d
3. c
4. b
5. c
6. b
Weight and Balance

Multiple Choice
1. d
2. c
3. d
4. b
Oxygen
Multple Choice
1. a
2. b
3. d
4. c
5. b
71
CAE Simuflite
72
Falcon 50
August 2006
Self-Check
Answer Key
Self-Check 4
Answer Key
Electrical
Abnormals/Emergencies
Ice and Rain Protection

Matching: Phase 1 Memory Items
Multiple Choice
1. c
2. a
3. d
4. c
5. e
1. a
2. c
3. b
4. d
5. b
6. a
7. c
Multiple Choice
1. a
2. d
3. b
4. d
5. c
True or False
1. T
2. T
Falcon 50
August 2006
Use of Normal Checklist

Multiple Choice
1. a
2. c
3. e
4. d
5. c
6. c
Flight Profiles
Multiple Choice
1. b
2. c
3. b
4. c
5. e
6. c
7. d
8. b
9. c
10. c
11. c
12. c
13. c
14. b
True or False
1. T
2. T
73
CAE Simuflite
74
Falcon 50
August 2006
Self-Check
Answer Key
Self-Check 5
Answer Key
Refer to pages 47-58
Fuel
APU
Avionics
Multiple Choice
1. d
2. a
3. d
4. a, b, c
5. a, b, c, d
6. a
7. a, b, c, d
True or False
1. T
2. T
Multiple Choice
1. c
True or False
1. T
2. T
Multiple Choice
1. f
2. d
3. e
4. e
Powerplant
Multiple Choice
1. a
2. e
3. e
4. c
5. c
6. a
7. a
8. d
9. a
10. c
11. a
12. c
13. b
14. b
True or False
1. F
2. F
3. F
Falcon 50
August 2006
Fire Protection
Multiple Choice
1. c
2. d
3. e
4. a
Flight Controls
Multiple Choice
1. e
2. b
3. b
4. b
5. a
True or False
1. T
2. T
75
CAE Simuflite
76
Falcon 50
August 2006
Self-Check
Answer Key
Self-Check 6
Answer Key
Refer to pages 59-66
Hydraulics
Brakes
Pressurization
Multiple Choice
1. b
2. d
3. d
True or False
1. T
2. T
3. T
Multiple Choice
1. c
2. c
3. d
True or False
1. T
2. T
Multiple Choice
1. c
2. d
3. b
Air Conditioning
Multiple Choice
1. d
2. d
Landing Gear
Multiple Choice
1. b
2. c
3. c
4. f
5. a
True or False
1. F
2. T
Matching
1. b
2. a
3. b
4. b
5. b
6. a
7. a
8. b
9. a
10. a
11. b
12. b
13. a
14. a
Falcon 50
August 2006
77
CAE Simuflite
DC Electrical System
PILOT
COPILOT
STANDBY
CONTROL
C BUS
A BUS
D BUS
B BUS
BUS
TIED
BUS
TIE
LEFT MAIN
RIGHT MAIN
GEN 1
BAT
B
A
T
B
U
S
START
GPU
G1
G2
B1
B2
G3
APU
Figure - 1
78
Falcon 50
August 2006
Answer Key
AC Electrical System
COPILOT'S
B
115V AC
B
U
S
INV
2
26V AC
AC2
R
26V/400HZ
FREQUENCY
MONITOR
AC2
26V/400HZ
FREQUENCY
MONITOR
AC1
M
A
I
N
ST BY
INV 5W
ST BY
INV
115 V
B
U
S
26V AC
A
B
U
S
INV
1
115V AC
PILOT'S
AC1
Figure - 2
Falcon 50
August 2006
79
CAE Simuflite
Pneumatic System
No. 3
S DUCT
ANTI-ICE
HP
3
BAG
CREW
COND'G
VALVE
MANIFOLD
CREW
ECU
TO
AIR
DIST
HP
2
PRV
CABIN
ECU
CABIN
COND'G
VALVE
TEMP
REGULATING
VALVE
No. 2
COMMON
PRESSURE
BULKHEAD
BLEED OVHT SENSORS
PRESSURIZATION
JET PUMP
COND'G OVHT SENSORS
TO
FUEL
TO
HYDRAULICS
PRESSURIZATION
JET PUMP
APU
HP
PRESSURIZATION
JET PUMP
ENGINE
ANTI-ICE
AIRFRAME
ANTI-ICE
No. 1
TO FUEL
TO HYDRAULICS
Figure - 3
80
Falcon 50
August 2006
Answer Key
Fuel System
ENG 1 & 2 LP BLEED AIR
XFR
LOW
LEVEL
FILL
HIGH
LEVEL
REGULATION
LEVEL
LOW
LEVEL
FUEL 1
No.3
No. 1
FIRE
1
PULL
APU
FIRE
2
PULL
FIRE
3
PULL
No. 2
Figure - 4
Falcon 50
August 2006
81
CAE Simuflite
Hydraulic System
TKP2
ENG 1&2
LP
BLEED
AIR
RESERVOIR
#1
Q1 P1 Q2 P2
RESERVOIR
#2
ST PMP
PUMP 1
PUMP 2
PUMP 3
60" T
PMP 1
STANDBY
PUMP
THRUST
REVERSER
ELEVATOR
RUDDER
AILERON
ELEVATOR
ARTHUR Q
FLAPS
AILERON
ARTHUR Q
AIR BRAKES
SLATS
NORMAL
EMERGENCY
SLATS
LANDING
GEAR
NOSEWHEEL
STEERING
NORMAL
BRAKES
PARKING
BRAKES
EMERG
#2 BRAKES
Figure - 5
82
Falcon 50
August 2006
Answer Key
Loading Form Example
Figure - 6
Falcon 50
August 2006
83
CAE Simuflite
84
Falcon 50
August 2006

Falcon 50 Training Exercises

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Falcon 50 Training Exercises

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Falcon 50

Copyright 2006, CAE SimuFlite, Inc.

CAE SimuFlite Training International welcomes you to one of the

Use of these SelfCheck Exercises

CAE SimuFlite developed these exercises to reinforce your training.

Developed for Training Purposes

Developed for Training Purposes

Self-Check 1 Answer Key

Developed for Training Purposes

Developed for Training Purposes

Reference: Aircraft Flight Manual

Developed for Training Purposes

Developed for Training Purposes

Reference: Technical Manual chapter 5A

Developed for Training Purposes

Reference: Technical Manual chapter 5C

Developed for Training Purposes

Developed for Training Purposes

3. _____ Above 39,000 ft

Developed for Training Purposes

Reference: Technical Manual chapter 5G

The airbrakes are operated by the No. ____ hydraulic system.

2. The maximum altitude for standby hydraulic pump operation is

Developed for Training Purposes

Reference: Technical Manual chapter 5E

Developed for Training Purposes

Developed for Training Purposes

Developed for Training Purposes

Reference: Technical Manual, Chapter 5I

Developed for Training Purposes

Reference: Technical Manual chapter 5I

Developed for Training Purposes

Reference: Technical Manual chapter 5L

Developed for Training Purposes

Developed for Training Purposes

Reference: Technical Manual chapter 5L

Developed for Training Purposes

Reference: Technical Manual chapter 5J

Developed for Training Purposes

Reference: Technical Manual chapter 5L

Developed for Training Purposes

Reference: Technical Manual chapter 5K

Developed for Training Purposes

Developed for Training Purposes

Reference: Technical Manual chapter 5K

Developed for Training Purposes

Developed for Training Purposes

Developed for Training Purposes

Reference: Technical Manual chapter 5H

Developed for Training Purposes

Developed for Training Purposes

Reference: Technical Manual chapter 5B

Developed for Training Purposes

Reference: Technical Manual chapter 5B

Developed for Training Purposes

Reference: Technical Manual chapter 5B

Developed for Training Purposes

Reference: Technical Manual chapter 5B

Developed for Training Purposes

Reference: Technical Manual chapter 5D

Developed for Training Purposes

Reference: Technical Manual chapter 5J

Developed for Training Purposes

Reference: Technical Manual chapter 4