PRACTICE SET

SSC-CGL TIER-I
Part A: General Intelligence
& Reasoning
Directions: In question nos. 1 to 8, select the related
words/letters/number from the given alternatives.
1. DLK : GIN : : ?
(A) BCD : ZFG
(B) PRU : SUX
(C) NFH : QCM
(D) MSW : PPZ
2. NF : 12L : : WB : ?
(A) 20T
(B) 10J
(C) 10N
(D) 22V
3. ZXW : HFE : : PSU : ?
(A) GJC
(B) RVX
(C) JCH
(D) KHF
4. Candid : Indirect : : Honest : ?
(A) Truthful
(B) Frank
(C) Kind
(D) Untruthful
5. Threat : Insecurity : : ?
(A) Disease : Cure
(B) Sky : Rain
(C) Challenge : Fight
(D) Cry : Quarrel
6. Pride : Lion : : Shoal : ?
(A) Cow
(B) Monkey (C) Bird
(D) Fish
7. Rabble : Plebeian : : ?
(A) Intelligentsia : Elite
(B) Gentry : Public
(C) Royalty : Dishonour (D) Outer : Center
8. 216 : 81 : : 415 : ?
(A) 99
(B) 200
(C) 100
(D) 74
Directions: In question nos. 9 to 14, find the one which
is different from the remaining three.
9. (A) Scorpion
(B) Octopus
(C) Crocodile
(D) Crab
10. (A) Cataract
(B) Trachoma
(C) Glaucoma
(D) Eczema
11. (A) Cholera
(B) Typhoid
(C) Smallpox
(D) Tetanus
12. (A) 121
(B) 216
(C) 196
(D) 81
13. (A) Mumbai
(B) Kolkata
(C) Allahabad
(D) Hyderabad
14. (A) PK
(B) GI
(C) QJ
(D) LO
Directions: In question nos. 15 and 16, arrange the
following words as per the order in the English dictionary.
15. 1. Dictate
2. Dictum
3. Diastole
4. Didactic
5. Dictionary
(A) 3, 2, 1, 5, 4
(B) 3, 1, 4, 2, 5
(C) 3, 1, 5, 2, 4
(D) 3, 2, 5, 4, 1
16. 1. Cauldron
2. Cable
3. Calligraphy
4. Cactus
5. Cafe

(A) 2, 4, 5, 1, 3
(B) 2, 4, 5, 3, 1
(C) 4, 5, 2, 1, 3
(D) 2, 1, 5, 3, 4
17. If the numbers starting with 880 are MTS numbers,
how many MTS numbers are there in the given series?
808678
880880
880356
808805
880546
988067
880249
880508
880687
870456
891348
890086
844596
891234
889880
880009
(A) 8
(B) 9
(C) 7
(D) 6
Directions: In question nos. 18 to 22, a series is given
with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative
from the given ones that will complete the series.
18. 9, 8 : : 13, 4 : : 7, 10 : : 5, ?
(A) 13
(B) 12
(C) 18
(D) 11
19. 59, 59, 44, 44, 29, ?, ?
(A) 14, 12
(B) 15, 30
(C) 14, 14
(D) 29, 14
20. Z, U, Q, N, ?, K
(A) O
(B) L
(C) M
(D) J
21. deb, ijg, nol, stq, ?
(A) rsp
(B) xzw
(C) xyv
(D) uvw
22. G3C, J5F, M8I, P12L, ?
(A) S17O
(B) Y17Z
(C) S160
(D) X20P
23. What is the least number to be subtracted from 3262
to make it a perfect square?
(A) 65
(B) 26
(C) 13
(D) 15
24. Megha and Shreya start from their office and both of
them walk 15 km in opposite directions. Then, Megha
turns to her left and walks 8 km and Shreya turns to
her right and walks 8 km. How far are they now from
each other?
(A) 20 km
(B) 30 km
(C) 23 km
(D) 16 km
25. R is taller than Q and Q is taller than P and S. T is
shorter than S but not shorter than P. Who among the
following is the shorterst?
(A) S
(B) T
(C) P
(D) Q
26. If 77 + 43 = 44 and 99 + 55 = 56, then 88 + 33 = ?
(A) 44
(B) 48
(C) 55
(D) 52
27. If BRAIN is written as LAIPT, how can TEMPLE be
written in that code?
(A) CMSVRK
(B) UFNQMF
(C) GVNKOV
(D) DNUWRJ
28. If P denotes , Q denotes , R denotes + and
S denotes then find the value of
54 P 18 Q 19 S 8 R 2.
(A) 47
(B) 51
(C) 50
(D) 60
29. Which of the following interchanges of signs would
make the given equation correct?
36 84 21 + 6 4 = 16

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(A) + and
(B) and
(C) + and
(D) and
30. Pointing to a person, a man said to a woman, His
mother is the only daughter of your father. How was
the woman related to the person?
(A) Sister
(B) Daughter
(C) Mother
(D) Wife
Directions: In question nos. 31 to 33, from the given
alternatives select the word which cannot be formed by
using the letters of the given word.
31. OBSTETRICIAN
(A) RETAIN
(B) TREAT
(C) TREETOP
(D) RABIES
32. UNCONSCIOUS
(A) NOISE
(B) COUSIN
(C) COIN
(D) SUNNI
33. VARIEGATED
(A) GREAT
(B) VERITY
(C) EVE
(D) TRADE
Direction: In question nos. 34 to 37, find the missing
numbers from the given responses.

38. In the figure given below, what does E represent?

(A) The group of only males

(B) The group of only doctors
(C) The group of males and doctors
(D) The group of females and doctors
Directions: In question nos. 39 and 40, one or two
statement(s) is/are given followed by two conclusions I
and II. You have to consider the statement(s) to be true
even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known
facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if
any, follows from the given statements.
(A) Only conclusion I follows
(B) Only conclusion II follows
(C) Both conclusion I and II follow
(D) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
39. Statement:
Every man can do this work.
Conclusions: I. All men cannot do this work.
II. Some men can do this work.
40. Statements: All birds are cats.
No cat is a dog.
Conclusions: I. No bird is a dog.
II. Some dogs are not birds.
41. In the given diagram, square represents Teachers,
rectangle represents Players and triangle represents
Workers. Which region represents Teachers who are
Players?

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34.

(A) 2
(C) 5

(B) 3
(D) 4

(A) 12
(C) 8

(B) 7
(D) 9

35.

36.

30

20

(A) 8
(C) 15

(B) 12
(D) 36

(A) E
(B) F
(C) D, E
42. Which figure is different from the rest?

(D) C, F

37.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
43. A circular transparent sheet with a pattern is given.
Figure out from amongst the four alternatives as to
how the pattern would appear when the transparent
sheet would be folded along the marked line.
Question Figure
(A) 138
(C) 134

(B) 142
(D) 90

Answer Figures

Answer Figures
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Directions: In question nos. 44 and 45 which Answer
Figure will complete the pattern in the Question Figure?
44. Question Figure
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
49. Which of the following Answer Figures is the exact
mirror image of the given Question Figure, when the
mirror is held on the line AB?
Question Figure

Answer Figures

(A)
(B)
45. Question Figure

(C)

(D)

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Answer Figures

Answer Figures

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
50. In the following question, group the given figures
into three classes on the basis of identical properties.

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
46. Which of the following Answer Figures marked (A),
(B), (C) and (D) satisfies the same conditions of
placment of dots as in Question Figure?
Question Figure

(A) 1, 2, 8; 3, 5, 6; 7, 4, 9
(B) 1, 2, 5; 3, 6, 7; 4, 8, 9
(C) 1, 4, 8; 2, 7, 9; 3, 5, 6
(D) 1, 8, 9; 5, 6, 7; 2, 3, 4

Answer Figures

Part B: General Awareness

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
47. Three different positions of a dice have been shown
in the following figures. Find the number of dots
opposite six dots?

(A) 4
(B) 3
(C) 1
(D) 2
48. Find out the water image of the given group of letters.
Question Figure

51. Which of the following statements is NOT correct with

respect to the National Development Council (NDC)?
(A) It is neither a constitutional body nor a statutory
body and is listed as an advisory body to the
Planning Commission.
(B) It comprises Prime Minister and all Union Cabinet
ministers.
(C) It comprises all Chief Ministers/Administrators
of all Union Territories, excluding members of
Planning Commission.
(D) The secretary of the Planning Commission acts
as the secretary to the NDC.
52. The science of improving a population by controlled

53.

54.

55.

breeding to increase the occurrence of desirable

heritable characteristics is called
(A) Immunology
(B) Eugenics
(C) Paleontology
(D) Mycology
Which of the following best defines unemployment?
(A) There is scarcity of manpower at prevailing wage
rate.
(B) More jobs are available in the market than there
are people willing to work.
(C) There are people who want to work but cannot
find work at the prevailing wage rate.
(D) None of these
The largest reef in the world based on both area and
length, the Great Barrier Reef, is situated in the
(A) Coral Sea
(B) Red Sea
(C) South China Sea
(D) Bering Sea
Who takes all the economic decisions in a planned or
command economy?
(A) Consumers
(B) Governments
(C) Workers
(D) Industrialists
Which of the following has NOT been declared a major
port by the Govt of India?
(A) Mundra
(B) Tuticorin
(C) Mormugao
(D) Port Blair
Sound waves travel with the maximum speed (in m/s)
in
(A) Wood
(B) Aluminium
(C) Glass
(D) Copper
The promulgation of Regulating Act of 1773 by the
King of England paved the way for establishment of
the Supreme Court of Judicature at
(A) Calcutta
(B) Madras
(C) Bombay
(D) Delhi
Consider the following statements with respect to the
42nd amendment of the Indian Constitution:
1. The normal tenure of the Lok Sabha and State
Legislative Assemblies was extended from 5 to 6
years.
2. The words Unity of the nation in the preamble
were changed to Unity and integrity of the nation.
3. The age for voting rights was reduced from 21 to
18.
Which of the following is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Which of the following pairs of famous places and the
country they are situated in, is not matched correctly?
(A) Roland Garros Switzerland
(B) Cannes France
(C) Barcelona Spain
(D) Port Louis Mauritius
Match the following and answer the question on the
basis of the codes provided below:

1. Rigveda

62.

63.

a. Collection of Vedic Sanskrit

hymns
b. Magical charm and spells
c. Veda of rituals
d. Veda of holy songs

2. Yajurveda
3. Atharvaveda
4. Samaveda
Codes:
1
2
3
4
(A) d
a
b
c
(B) a
c
b
d
(C) b
d
c
a
(D) a
d
c
b
The Sikh Guru who created the Gurmukhi script, the
Sikhs own script, was
(A) Guru Angad Dev
(B) Guru Arjan Dev
(C) Guru Ram Das
(D) Guru Tegh Bahadur
Bile is a fluid that is stored in the gallbladder and is
needed for digesting fatty foods. It is secreted and
released by
(A) Thyroid
(B) Spleen
(C) Liver
(D) Pancreas
The party founded by Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose in
1939 was
(A) Ghadar Party
(B) Forward Bloc
(C) Hindustan Socialist Republican Association
(D) Swaraj Party
Which of the following vitamins is also known as
ascorbic acid?
(A) Vitamin A
(B) Vitamin C
(C) Vitamin D
(D) Vitamin E
Consider the following:
1. Lord Ripon Repeal of Vernacular Press Act
2. Lord Curzon Establishment of a new department
of commerce and industry
3. Lord Reading Railway Budget separated from
General Budget
Which of the above matches is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 1 and 3
(C) Only 2 and 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
Which of the following features is common between
the Constitutions of India and Canada?
(A) Independence of Judiciary and Judicial Review
(B) Scheme of federation with a strong Centre
(C) Language of the Preamble
(D) Method of election of President of India
The hardware devices that translate data into a form
that computer can process are
(A) Modem
(B) Input
(C) Output
(D) All the above
An electroencephalogram (EEG) is a test performed to
detect disorders related to
(A) Heart
(B) Spinal cord
(C) Brain
(D) Uterus

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56.

57.

58.

59.

60.

61.

64.

65.

66.

67.

68.

69.

70. Which of the following is not a work of the late

Khushwant Singh?
(A) Train to Pakistan
(B) Chronicle of a Corpse Bearer
(C) The Sunset Club
(D) Truth, Love and a Little Malice
71. To select the whole document, use the command
(A) Ctrl + V
(B) Alt + Tab
(C) Ctrl + Y
(D) Ctrl + A
72. The number of high courts in India as of now is
(A) 21
(B) 23
(C) 24
(D) 25
73. Permanent memory used in computers is called
(A) ROM
(B) RAM
(C) ALU
(D) Printed Circuit Board
74. Name the Reserve Bank of India deputy governor who
resigned recently?
(A) Anand Sinha
(B) Harun Rashid Khan
(C) Kamalesh Chandra Chakrabarty
(D) Urjit Patel
75. Which of the following pairs of chromosomes are
known as the sex chromosomes, because they
determine whether a child will be born male or female?
(A) 20th
(B) 21st
(C) 22nd
(D) 23rd
76. Identify the one which is NOT matched correctly?
(A) Smelting Copper
(B) Cracking Petroleum
(C) Hydrogenation Vegetable ghee
(D) None of the above
77. Which of the following chemicals is/are used to
produce colours in fireworks?
(A) Copper
(B) Barium
(C) Strontium
(D) All the above
78. Which of the following is responsible for the scattering
of light in the atmosphere?
(A) Water vapour
(B) Water bodies
(C) Dust particles
(D) Fume
79. Which of the following is NOT a genetic disorder
found in human beings?
(A) Phenylketonuria
(B) Marasmus
(C) Huntingtons disease (D) Haemophilia
80. Match the following and answer the question on the
basis of the codes provided below:
Lake
State
1. Hussain Sagar Lake
a. Jammu & Kashmir
2. Kabar Taal Lake
b. Sikkim
3. Cholamu Lake
c. Andhra Pradesh
4. Wular Lake
d. Bihar
Codes:
1
2
3
4
(A) d
a
c
b
(B) d
c
b
a
(C) c
d
b
a

(D) a
d
c
b
81. Which of the following are correct? In the periodic
table
1. First ionization energy increases moving from left
to right across a period.
2. Atomic radius decreases moving from left to right
across a period.
3. Electronegativity of elements increases moving
from top to bottom in a group.
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
82. The phenomenon involved in the formation of mirage
in deserts is
(A) Refraction
(B) Reflection
(C) Total internal reflection (D) Diffraction
83. The order in which electrons are filled into the atomic
orbitals was outlined by
(A) Daltons atomic theory
(B) Aufbau Principle
(C) Avogadros hypothesis
(D) Hunds Rule
84. Identify the one which is not a radioactive element.
(A) Scandium
(B) Technetium
(C) Actinium
(D) Berkelium
85. Match the following and answer the question on the
basis of codes provided below
1. Parupalli Kashyap
a. Shooting
2. Sharath Kamal
b. Badminton
3. Dipika Pallikal
c. Table tennis
4. Heena Sidhu
d. Squash
Codes:
1
2
3
4
(A) d
a
b
c
(B) c
d
b
a
(C) b
c
d
a
(D) a
d
c
b
86. The Institute of Microbial Technology (IMTECH) is
situated in
(A) Lucknow
(B) Chandigarh
(C) New Delhi
(D) Hyderabad
87. The first state to prepare sub-national Human
Development Report in India is
(A) Delhi
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Nagaland
(D) Tamil Nadu
88. Match the following and answer the question on the
basis of the codes given below:
Person
Chairman
1. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel a. Drafting Committee
2. BR Ambedkar
b. Fundamental Rights
Sub-Committee
3. Jawaharlal Nehru
c. Union Constitution
Committee
4. JB Kripalani
d. Tribal and excluded

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89.

90.

91.

areas
Codes:
1
2
3
4
(A) d
a
c
b
(B) d
c
b
a
(C) b
d
c
a
(D) a
d
c
b
World Water Day is observed on
(A) 8 Mar
(B) 14 Mar
(C) 21 Mar
(D) 22 Mar
The United States suspended operations of the
embassy and its consulates of which of the following
countries in Washington and told their diplomats and
staff who are not US citizens or permanent residents
to leave the country recently?
(A) Ukraine
(B) Russia
(C) Syria
(D) Libya
Currently, who among the following is the chairperson
of the National Green Tribunal (NGT)?
(A) Ananga Kumar Patnaik
(B) Indira Jaising
(C) Asok Kumar Ganguly
(D) Swatanter Kumar
The govt has agreed to the Election Commissions
suggestion for increasing ceiling on poll expenditure.
However, this is applicable only in the bigger states.
The new ceiling on poll expenditure for the Lok Sabha
and Legislative Assembly elections respectively will
be
(A) `50 lakh, `20 lakh
(B) `60 lakh, `30 lakh
(C) `70 lakh, `28 lakh
(D) `75 lakh, `45 lakh
Which of the following state govts signed an
agreement with the National Dairy Development Board
(NDDB) recently under which NDDB will manage the
State Cooperative Milk Producers Federation Ltd for
five years?
(A) Bihar
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Rajasthan
(D) Jharkhand
Nishi Vasudeva has become the first woman Chairman
and Managing Director of the blue-chip PSU
(A) HPCL
(B) BPCL
(C) IOC
(D) ONGC
Which of the following insurers has come under the
scanner of IRDA for alleged irregularities in
implementation of govt-sponsored insurance schemes
meant for poor people?
(A) Bajaj Allianz
(B) ICICI Lombard
(C) Max Insurance
(D) Bharti Axa
The Export-Import Bank of India (Exim Bank) has, at
the behest of the Govt of India, extended a Line of
Credit of $89.90 mn recently to which of the following
countries, for developing transportation system?
(A) Cameroon
(B) Republic of Congo
(C) Tanzania
(D) Kenya

97. Which of the following public sector lenders has

announced, for the first time in its history, to offload
around `5,000 cr of its `67,799 cr dud assets to asset
reconstruction companies (ARCs) recently?
(A) Union Bank of India (B) State Bank of India
(C) Punjab National Bank (D) Canara Bank
98. The foundation of a 70-storey temple Vrindavan
Chandrodaya Mandir, billed to be the tallest shrine in
the world, was laid down in which of the following
states in India recently?
(A) Gujarat
(B) Bihar
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Madhya Pradesh
99. The govt sold its 9 per cent stake held through SUUTI
in which of the following banks to garner over `5,500
cr recently?
(A) Axis Bank
(B) SBI
(C) UBI
(D) PNB
100. Bru or Reang refugees, living in relief camps in Tripura,
originally belong to which of the following states?
The chief minister of their home state has submitted a
memorandum to the Election Commission, urging not
to allow them to vote in relief camps.
(A) Mizoram
(B) Manipur
(C) Assam
(D) Arunachal Pradesh

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92.

93.

94.

95.

96.

Part C: Quantitative Aptitude

1
1
4
= 3.5, then find the value of x
.
x
x4
(A) 98
(B) 100
(C) 16
(D) 10
102. If the product of two numbers is 324 and their HCF is
3, then their LCM will be
(A) 108
(B) 927
(C) 321
(D) 327
103. Find the angle subtended at the centre of a circle of
diameter 30 cm by a 5.5cm-long arc.
(A) 4021
(B) 512
(C) 412
(D) 2512
104. Ram obtained 294 marks in an examination which is
49% of the full marks. What is the percentage of marks
obtained by his sister in the same examination who
scored 372 marks?
(A) 52%
(B) 62%
(C) 72%
(D) 55%
105. In an examination 57% and 43% candidates failed in
Science and English respectively. If 29% candidates
failed in both the subjects, then the percentage of
candidates who passed the examination is
(A) 27%
(B) 37%
(C) 29%
(D) 47%
106. The length of a rectangle is increased by 25% and its
breadth is decreased by 40%. Then its area will
decrease by
(A) 10%
(B) 4%
(C) 2.5%
(D) 25%
107. Three numbers are in the ratio of 3 : 4 : 5. The sum of

101. If x +

109. Evalute
(A)

cos 55
sin 35

5
2

(B)

110. If 2sin2
(A) 0 < <
(C)

>

3
2

sin 35
cos 55

(C)

2 cos 2 30

1
2

(D)

7
2

3 = 0, then the value of lies between

2

(B) 0 <
(D)

square, then their areas are in the ratio of

(A) 11 : 7
(B) 4 : 1
(C) 14 : 11
(D) 22 : 7
119. Find the length of the largest pole that can be placed
in a room of dimensions 8m, 6m and 5m respectively.
(A) 5m
(B) 5 5 m (C) 6m
(D) 125m
120. In a triangle ABC, A = x, B = y and C = (y + 20).
If 4x y = 10, then the triangle is
(A) equilateral
(B) right-angle
(C) obtuse-angle
(D) isoscceles
Directions (Q. 121-126): Study the following graph
carefully and answer the questions.
The graph shows the advances given by a cooperative
bank over the last five years
28
30
Advances (in lakh rupees)

the largest and the smallest number equals to the sum

of the second number and 52. The smallest number is
(A) 27
(B) 39
(C) 52
(D) 20
108. `730 was divided among A, B and C in such a way that
if A gets `3 then B gets `4 and if B gets ` 3.50 then C
gets `3. The share of B exceeds that of C by
(A) `30
(B) `40
(C) `70
(D) `210

25

22

20

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2
111. The average marks obtained by 140 candidates in a
certain examination is 45. If the average marks of passed
candidates is 55 and that of failed candidates is 20,
then the number of candidates who passed the
examination is
(A) 100
(B) 110
(C) 120
(D) 150
112. If cos + sec = 2, then the value of cos68 + sec68 is
equal to
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 68
113. 36 men can do a piece of work in 40 days, working 7
hours per day. In how many days can 28 men do it,
working 9 hours per day?
(A) 28 days
(B) 30 days
(C) 32 days
(D) 36 days
114. A works twice as fast as B. If B alone can complete the
same piece of work in 18 days, find in how many days
can A and B together complete the work.
(A) 18 days
(B) 4 days
(C) 6 days
(D) 8 days
115. Two equal circles of radii 6 cm intersect each other
such that each passes through the centre of the other.
The length of the common chord is

(A) 4 2 cm (B) 8 2 cm (C) 6 3 cm (D) 8 cm

116. A 150m-long train is running at the speed of 90 kmph.
Then the time taken by the train to cross a tree will be
(A) 3 seconds
(B) 4 seconds
(C) 6 seconds
(D) 8 seconds
117. Two pipes fill a tank in 10 hours and 12 hours
respectively while a third pipe empties the tank in 20
hours. If all three pipes are opened simultaneously, in
how much time will the tank be filled?
(A) 7 hours
(B) 8 hours
(C) 7 hours 30 minutes
(D) 8 hours 30 minutes
118. If the perimeter of a circle is equal to the perimeter of a

15

10

10
5

2008

2009

2010

2011

2012

Year

121. During which year did the advances register the

highest increase from its previous year?
(A) 2009
(B) 2010
(C) 2012
(D) 2011
122. During which year did the advances register the
highest percentage increase over its preceding year?
(A) 2011
(B) 2008
(C) 2010
(D) 2009
123. During which year was there the minimum percentage
increase in advances over the precending year?
(A) 2008
(B) 2009
(C) 2010
(D) 2012
124. The advances in 2012 are approximately what
percentage of the deposits if the deposits in 2012 were
`36 lakh?
(A) 22%
(B) 78%
(C) 129%
(D) 450%
125. What is the percentage increase in advances from 2009
to 2012?
(A) 130%
(B) 140%
(C) 1300%
(D) 1400%
126. If the deposit in 2009 was `4 lakh then what is the ratio
of the deposit in 2009 to that of advances in 2012?
(A) 1 : 7
(B) 2 : 7
(C) 3 : 14
(D) 1 : 14
127. Simplify (sec + tan ) (1 sin ):
(A) cos
(B) sin
(C) cosec
(D) sec
128. A circus artist is climbing from the ground along a
rope stretched from the top of vertical pole and tied at
the ground. The height of the pole is 12m and the
angle subtended by the rope with the ground level is
30. Calculate the distance covered by the artist in

climbing to the top of the pole.

(A) 24m
(B) 12m
(C) 18m
(D) 48m
129. If a sum of money at a certain rate of simple interest
doubles in 5 years and at a different rate of interest
becomes three times in 12 years, the better rate of
interest is
(A) 15%
(B) 20%
(C) 25%

2
(D) 16 %
3

1
130. In what time will `72 become `81 at 6 % per annum
4
simple interest?
(A) 1 year 6 months
(B) 2 years
(C) 2 years 3 months
(D) 2 years 6 months
131. The difference between compound interest and simple
1
interest on a sum of money for 2 years at 12 % per
2
annum is `150. The sum is
(A) `9000
(B) `9200
(C) `9500
(D) `9600

profit of 20% to A. What is Bs percentage gain?

1
(A) 37.5%
(B) 33 %
3
200
%
9
139. If the length of a chord of a circle at a distance of 12 cm
from the centre is 10 cm, then the diameter of the circle
is
(A) 12 cm
(B) 15 cm
(C) 10 cm
(D) 26 cm
140. A watch which gains uniformly, is 5 minutes slow at 8
oclock in the morning on Sunday, and is 5 minutes 48
seconds fast at 8pm on the following Sunday. When
was it correct?
(A) Wednesday, 20 minutes past 7pm
(B) Wednesday, 7pm
(C) Tuesday, 7pm
(D) Thursday, 10 minutes past 7pm
141. If the point (3, 4) lies on the graph of the equation 3y
= ax + 7, then a is equal to

(C) 50%

(D)

K
KUNDAN
(0.5) 3 (0.6)3

132.

(0.5) 2 (0.3) (0.6) 2

(A) 0.1
(C) 0.3

is equal to

(B) 1.1
(D) 0.61

133. The value of 3 (8 5) (4 2)

8
13

is

68
17
13
13
(B)
(C)
(D)
13
13
17
68
134. If in the given figure sin 48 = cos 2 = x, then cos2 is
equal to

(A)

4
5
7
3
(B)
(C)
(D)
3
3
6
2
142. 300 gm of sugar solution has 40% sugar in it. How
much sugar should be added to make it 50% in the
solution?
(A) 80 gm
(B) 60 gm
(C) 50 gm
(D) 100 gm
143. In a zoo, there are rabbits and pigeons. If heads are
counted there are 200 and if legs are counted there are
580. How many pigeons are there?
(A) 100
(B) 200
(C) 110
(D) 210
144. The area of triangle OAB formed by vertices O(0, 0),
A (6, 0) and B (0, 8) is
(A) 12 sq units
(B) 18 sq units
(C) 24 sq units
(D) 16 sq units
145. If a circle and a semi-circle have the same radius of 21

(A)

22
)
7
(A) 3 : 1
(B) 11 : 10
(C) 10 : 11
(D) 11 : 9
146. If the side of a square is doubled, the area of the square
becomes
(A) twice the original area
(B) thrice the original area
(C) four times the original area
(D) eight times the original area
147. A person can run downstream at 6 km per hour and
upstream at 3 km per hour. His speed in still water is
(A) 9 kmph
(B) 4.5 kmph
(C) 1.5 kmph
(D) 1.0 kmph
148. A van is travelling at the speed of 100 km per hour.
Find the speed (in m/sec).

cm, then the ratio of their perimeters is (take =

(A) x
(B) x
(C) 2x
(D) x2
135. The greatest number that will divide 398, 436 and 542,
leaving 7, 11, and 15 respectively as remainders, is
(A) 15
(B) 17
(C) 19
(D) 21
136. AB and CD are parallel straight lines of length 8 cm
and 6 cm respectively. AD and BC intersect at a point
O such that AO = 12 cm. Then OD is equal to
(A) 10 cm
(B) 8 cm
(C) 9 cm
(D) 18 cm
1
1
+ 2 = 0, then the value of x39 50 is
x
x
(A) 2
(B) 2
(C) 1
(D) 0
138. A sells an article to B for `54000, losing 10% in the
transaction. B sells it to C at a price which gave a

137. If x

(A) 20m per second

(B)

190
m per second
9

230
250
m per second
(D)
m per second
9
9
149. A and B walk around a circular course 35 km in
circumference, starting together from the same point.
If they walk at the speed of 4 kmph and 5 kmph
respectively in the same direction, when will they meet?
(A) After 15 hours
(B) After 21 hours
(C) After 35 hours
(D) After 42 hours
150. A train moving at a speed of 40 km per hour takes 2
hours 6 minutes more to cover a certain distance than
a train moving at 96 km per hour. What is the distance?
(A) 117.6 km
(B) 154 km
(C) 124 km
(D) 144 km

(C)

Part-D: English Comprehension

Directions: In question nos. 151-155, some parts of
the sentences have errors and some have none. Find out
which part of a sentence has an error and blacken the
rectangle [ ] corresponding to the appropriate letter (A),
(B), (C). If there is no error, blacken the rectangle [ ]
corresponding to (D) in the Answer Sheet.
151. The India Gate Hexagon is a central point in New
(A)
Delhi at which very heavy traffic flows all the
(B)
(C)
time. No error
(D)
152. The same stories of medias role in Parliamentary
(A)
election were repeated word to word in other important
(B)
(C)
journals. No error
(D)
153. In the two-page statement, he claimed he was not
(A)
absconding and was ready to follow the Supreme
(B)
(C)
Courts direction. No error
(D)
154. Armed bikers assaulted and robbed a 51-year-old
(A)
woman about `two lakhs on a busy south Delhi
(B)
street last evening. No error
(C)
(D)
155. According to the teachers, most of the schools wont
(A)
be able to carry out revision process for the students
(B)
this year even though around 40 per cent of their
(C)
syllabus is remaining to be completed. No error
(D)

Directions: In question nos. 156 to 160 sentences

are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate
word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question.
Choose the correct alternative out of the four and indicate
it by blackening the appropriate rectangle [ ] in the
Answer-Sheet.
156. The International Court of Justice in the Hague handed
________ a ruling on the disputed maritime border
between Peru and Chile.
(A) over
(B) upon
(C) up
(D) down
157. In last November a skilled surfer died ________ a
shark attack.
(A) of
(B) from
(C) because of
(D) owing to
158. In China doctors are underpaid, so ________ of their
income depends on how many drugs they prescribe.
(A) some
(B) little
(C) much
(D) few
159. ________ winning the French open in 2011, Li Na has
secured ________ worth $40m, making her the third
best paid female athlete in the word.
(A) Since, endorsement (B) After, applause
(C) For, loan
(D) On, honour
160. Though less frequently criticised than Beijing, Delhis
air is also terrible but China as a whole fares
________.
(A) good
(B) bad
(C) worse
(D) worst
Directions: In question nos. 161 to 165, out of the
four alternatives choose the one which best expresses the
meaning of the given word and mark it in your AnswerSheet.
161. Debauch
(A) decide
(B) destroy
(C) corrupt
(D) debilitate
162. Highbrow
(A) scholarly
(B) old
(C) angry
(D) perturbed
163. Conceit
(A) idea
(B) confident
(C) consent
(D) arrogance
164. Vapid
(A) proud
(B) tasteless
(C) brave
(D) unclear
165. Yelp
(A) eat
(B) nibble
(C) bark
(D) devour
Directions: In question nos. 166 to 170, choose the
alternative opposite in meaning to the given word and mark
it in the Answer-Sheet.
166. Infatuation
(A) passion
(B) obsession
(C) fascination
(D) hatred
167. Lustre
(A) dullness
(B) dazzle
(C) glint
(D) shimmer

K
KUNDAN

168. Madcap
(A) stupid
(B) sane
(C) wild
(D) imprudent
169. Agony
(A) torment
(B) distress
(C) anguish
(D) joy
170. Wee
(A) minuscule
(B) little
(C) big
(D) teeny
Directions: In question nos. 171 to 175, four
alternatives are given for the idiom/phrase bold-italicised
in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best
expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase and mark it in
the Answer-Sheet.
171. The refugees were packed like sardines.
(A) running away
(B) helpless
(C) frightened
(D) sitting/standing very closely
172. Despite current price advantage, UK manufacturers
are still having to scale back production.
(A) standardise
(B) improve
(C) decrease
(D) rise
173. He is scared stiff of the relationship breaking down.
(A) hopeful
(B) terrified
(C) waiting for
(D) finger crossed
174. Radheshyam Sharma is an elderly gentleman of the
old school.
(A) traditional
(B) alma mater
(C) village
(D) primary school
175. For so long he had waited in the wilderness for a
recall to Test cricket.
(A) happily
(B) anxiously
(C) unnoticed
(D) angrily
Directions: In question nos. 176-180, a part of the
sentence is underlined. Below are given alternatives to
the underlined part at (A), (B) and (C) which may improve
the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no
improvement is needed your answer is (D). Mark your
answer in the Answer-Sheet.
176. In the last decade governments at the Centre and State
level in India has taken significant step to improve
service quality and financial affordability of healthcare
services.
(A) have taken significant steps
(B) has taken steps significantly
(C) have taken significant stepping
(D) No improvement
177. Policy choice about the benefits to be covered is one
strategy while resources are scarce.
(A) as resources may be scarce
(B) if resource are scarce
(C) when resources are scarce

(D) No improvement
178. In terms of country experiences, Sri Lanka and Vietnam
allow government doctors to practise privately, out of
work hours, to make rural locations attractive.
(A) out of working hours (B) outside of work hours
(C) work outside hours
(D) No improvement
179. Digital technologies have made a dramatic impact in
not just bringing the world closer for everyone but,
as netizens, everyone is now part of the global village.
(A) as citizens, all is
(B) as netizens everybody was
(C) as public everyone has
(D) No improvement
180. The Indian rural market are undergone transformation
with better access to information and changing pattern
in demand structure and lifestyle.
(A) is undergoing transformation
(B) have undergone transformation
(C) have underwent transformation
(D) No improvement
Directions: In question nos. 181 to 185, out of the
four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted
for the given words/sentence.
181. Very willing to obey someone else
(A) Subservient
(B) Inane
(C) Obedient
(D) Tot
182. Laws or rules that limit or control something
(A) Mortgage
(B) Copyright
(C) Stricture
(D) Ordinance
183. An alcoholic liquor especially when it is cheap or made
illegally
(A) Beverage
(B) Hooch
(C) Rum
(D) Champaign
184. Building in which the bodies of dead people are burned
(A) Crematorium
(B) Mortuary
(C) Tomb
(D) Planetarium
185. Parts of cheques, tickets etc that can be kept as a
record when they are torn off
(A) Receipt
(B) Stub
(C) Folio
(D) Counterfoil
Directions: In question nos. 186 to 190, four words
are given in each question, out of which only one word is
correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word and indicate
it in the Answer Sheet by blackening the appropriate
rectangle.
186. (A) ecclesiestical
(B) ecclesiastical
(C) ecslesiastical
(D) ecclesiatical
187. (A) corrollary
(B) corrolarry
(C) corollary
(D) corolary
188. (A) exhilarated
(B) exhilerated
(C) exhillerated
(D) exillerated
189. (A) flattere
(B) fluter
(C) fluttur
(D) flutter

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190. (A) asasination

(B) assassination
(C) assasination
(D) assassinasion
PASSAGE I (Question Nos. 191 to 195)
A manuscript that lay unnoticed by scientists for
decades has revealed that Albert Einstein once dabbled
with an alternative to what we now know as the Big Bang
theory, proposing instead that the Universe expanded
steadily and eternally. The recently uncovered work,
written in 1931, is reminiscent of a theory championed by
British astrophysicist Fred Hoyle nearly 20 years later.
Einstein soon abandoned the idea, but the manuscript
reveals his continued hesitance to accept that the Universe
was created during a single explosive event.
Evidence for the Big Bang first emerged in the 1920s,
when US astronomer Edwin Hubble and others discovered
that distant galaxies are moving away and that space itself
is expanding. This seemed to imply that, in the past, the
contents of the observable Universe had been a very dense
and hot primordial broth.
But, from the late 1940s, Hoyle argued that space could
be expanding eternally and keeping a roughly constant
density. It could do this by continually adding new matter,
with elementary particles spontaneously popping up from
space, Hoyle said. Hoyles Universe was always infinite,
so its size did not change as it expanded. It was in a steady
state.
The newly uncovered document shows that Einstein
had described essentially the same idea much earlier. For
the density to remain constant new particles of matter must
be continually formed, he writes. The manuscript is thought
to have been produced during a trip to California in 1931
in part because it was written on American note paper.
It had been stored in plain sight at the Albert Einstein
Archives in Jerusalem and is freely available to view on
its website but had been mistakenly classified as a first
draft of another Einstein paper. Cormac ORaifeartaigh, a
physicist at the Waterford Institute of Technology in
Ireland, says that he almost fell out of his chair when he
realized what the manuscript was about.
191. Which of the following can be inferred on the basis of
the recently uncovered work written in 1931?
(A) Albert Einstein always believed in the Big Bang
theory of the creation of the universe.
(B) Einstein once believed that the Universe
expanded steadily and eternally.
(C) Einstein didnt believe that the Universe was
created during a single explosive event.
(D) None of the above
192. Which of the following is not true on the basis of the
facts mentioned in the given passage?
(A) The US astronomer Edwin Hubble and others
discovered that distant galaxies are moving away
and space itself is expanding.
(B) Evidence for the Big Bang first emerged in the

1920s.
(C) Evidence for the Big Bang suggested that in the
past the contents of the observable Universe had
been a very dense and hot substance.
(D) None of these
193. Who among the following propounded that on
expansion, the size of the Universe remained constant?
(A) Albert Einstein
(B) Edwin Hubble
(C) Fred Hoyle
(D) Cormac ORaifeartaigh
194. Which of the following is/are correct about the newly
uncovered document?
(A) Einstein supported the idea that for the density
to remain constant new particles of matter must
be continually formed.
(B) Einsteins manuscript was written on American
note paper.
(C) The manuscript had mistakenly been classified
as a first draft of another Einstein paper.
(D) All the above
195. Which of the following best expresses the meaning of
the phrase primordial broth as used in the given
passage?
(A) Things belonging to very early time
(B) Things made of gaseous particles
(C) Things about which nothing is known so far
(D) Things having very high density
PASSAGE II (Question Nos. 196 to 200)
In todays volatile business environment, being a
market leader does not vouchsafe profitability or
exponential growth. There is a need to consistently drive
performance through innovation in products, services,
processes and business models.
Crucial to sustaining an innovative company are
customer insight, talent management, and cultivating the
right set of capabilities for successful plan execution. But
to get that edge, the organisation must foster a culture of
innovation.
Organisations develop products and services that
meet customer needs. Sustenance is achieved by creating
error-free and scalable processes to execute innovation.
Customer-centricity enables organisations to reap a healthy
harvest of their investment and boost profitability.
A business units front-end initiatives encourage an
innovative mindset across an organisation. Thousands of
people around the world develop every day new products
and systematically improve and innovate existing ones.
The success is reflected in the jump in the number of
successful patent applications.
An organisation must encourage its people to ideate.
When someone has an idea, he/she should be encouraged
to detail it out and submit it to the organisation, which can
evaluate the potential.

K
KUNDAN

Ideas can be in any one of these areas: new

technology, revenue generation, cost reduction, and
improvements in process and productivity.
These ideas should be discussed and evaluated by a
review panel and then, based on the result, taken up for
implementation with appropriate rewards for the idea
generator(s).
196. What should an innovative company do to sustain in
the volatile business environment?
(A) It should focus on huge investment in the
company.
(B) It should not change its products name and
quality frequently.
(C) It should focus on customer requirements, talent
management and successful plan execution.
(D) All the above
197. Find the incorrect statement(s) on the basis of the
given passage.
(A) For profitability and exponential growth of the
business there is a need to consistently drive
performance through innovation in products,
services, processes etc.
(B) A market leaders profitability and exponential
growth is assured and he need not pay attention
on product and services innovation.

(C) To get the advantage of sustainability in the

market the organisation must foster a culture of
innovation.
(D) All the above
198. What is/are the benefits of being customer-centric?
(A) It helps the organisation boost its profitability.
(B) It helps develop a better relationship among
organisations.
(C) It helps innovate new products.
(D) None of these
199. Why does the author emphasise that an organisation
must encourage its people to ideate?
(A) Because the idea can evaluate the potential
(B) Because the idea can lead to technological
development, revenue generation, cost reduction
and improvement in process and productivity
(C) Because ideas bring rewards for both the
organisation and its people
(D) All the above
200. What is the meaning of the word boost as used in
the given passage?
(A) Healthy drinks
(B) Depreciate
(C) Enhance
(D) Decrease

K
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K
KUNDAN

Answers
1. D;

Similarly,

2. B;

3. A;

4. D; The second is antonym of the first.

5. C; The first leads to the second.
6. D; A group of lion is called pride and a
group of fish swims in a shoal.
7. A; Both are synonyms.
8. C; 216
2 + 1 + 6 = 92 = 81
Similarly, 415
4 + 1 + 5 = 102 = 100
9. A; All except scorpion live in water.
10. D; All except eczema are eye diseases.
11. C; All except smallpox are diseases caused
by bacteria while smallpox is caused by virus.
12. B; Except B, all others are square numbers:
121 = 112, 216 = 63, 196 = 142, 81 = 92
13. D; All except Allahabad are capitals of
different states.
14. B; In all others, the first letter has the

same position from the left in the alphabet

as the second has from the right.
15. C;
16. B;

17. C; There are seven numbers of MTS.

18. B; 9 + 8 = 17, 13 + 4 = 17, 7 + 10 = 17,
5 + 12 = 17
19. D; Each number is repeated then 15 is
subtracted to obtain the next number.
20. B; The series is Z 5 = U, U 4 = Q, Q
3 = N, N 2 = L, L 1 = K
21. C; Each corresponding letter moves five
places forward in the alphabet.
22. A; The corresponding letters move three
places forward in the alphabet while the
numbers follow +2, +3, +4, +5 ...
23. C; Square of 57 is 3249 and square of 58
is 3364.
So, 3262 is between 572 and 582 . So number
= 3262 3249 = 13
24. B;

Distance = 15 + 15 = 30 km
25. C; R > Q > S > T > P
26. C; 77 + 43
(7 + 4) (7 3) = 44
99 + 55
(9 + 5) (9 5) = 56
Similarly, 88 + 33
(8 + 3) (8 3) = 55
27. D;

Similarly,

28. B; 54 P 18 Q 19 S 8 R 2
= 54 18 19 8 + 2
= 3 19 8 + 2
= 59 8 = 51
29. A; 36 84 21 + 6 4
36 + 84 21 6 4
= 36 + 4 24
= 40 24 = 16
30. C; Persons mother = Only daughter of
womans father.
or, Persons mother = woman
31. C; There are no two Es or P in the
keyword.
32. A; There is no E in the keyword.
33. B; There is no Y in the keyword.
34. D; (8 + 15 + 6) (4 + 5) = 20
Similarly, (6 + 12 + 3) (3 + 2) = 16
So, (9 + 7 + 10) (4 + ?) = 18
or, 26 4 18 = ?
or, ? = 26 22 = 4
35. B; The number in a section of the middle
circle is the sum of the numbers in the
corresponding sections of the other two
circles.
Thus,
2nd circle = 1st circle + 3rd circle
top-left
11
=
6
+
5
top-right
3
=
2
+
1
middle-left
6
=
4
+
2
middle-right 7
=
1
+
6
bottom-left 1 1
=
9
+
2
bottom-right 7
=
3
+
4
36. B; 6 7 4 3 = 42 12 = 30
3 8 6 2 = 24 12 = 12
9 4 2 8 = 36 16 = 20

37. A; 3 3 + 1 = 10.
10 3 + 2 = 32
32 2 + 3 = 67
67 2 + 4 =
38. C
39. B; I-type statement is an implication of
an A-type statement. Hence, II follows while
I does not follow.
40. C; All birds are cats (A) + No cat is a dog
(E) = A + E = E = No bird is a dog. Hence,
conclusion I follows. And conclusion II follow
from conclusion I.
41. C
42. C
43. A
44. C 45. B
46. A
47. C
48. B
49. D 50. B
51. C
52. B
53. C
54. A 55. B
56. A
57. B
58. A
59. B 60. A
61. B
62. A
63. C
64. B 65. B
66. D
67. B
68. B
69. C 70. B
71. D
72. C
73. A
74. C 75. D
76. D
77. D
78. C
79. B 80. C
81. A
82. C
83. B
84. A 85. C
86. B
87. B
88. A
89. D 90. C
91. D
92. C
93. D
94. A 95. B
96. B
97. B
98. C
99. A 100. A

104.

49% of total marks = 294

294 100
Total marks =
= 600
49
Percentage of marks obtained by Rams
372 100
sister =
= 62%
600
105. C; 29 candidates failed in both the
subjects
Candidates failed only in Science
= 57 29 = 28
Candidates failed only in English = 43 29
= 14
Total failed = 28 + 29 + 14 = 71
Hence percentage of passed candidates
= 100 71 = 29%
106. D; Suppose length is 20 cm and breadth
15 cm.
Area = Length Breadth = 15 20
= 300 sq. cm
According to the question,
20 25
Increased length = 20 +
= 20 + 5
100
= 25 cm
40 15
Decreased breadth = 15
= 15 6
100
= 9 cm
New area = 25 9 = 225 cm2
Decrease in area = 300 225 = 75 cm

sin 35
sin 35

cos 55
cos 55

= (1)2 + (1)2 +

3
= 2
2

110. A; 2sin2
or, sin2 =

3
4

3
7
=
2
2
3 =0

3
= sin 60
2

or, 2 = 60
= 30
Hence,

lies between 0 <

<

2
111. A; Let the number of passed candidates
be x.
Then, 55 x + (140 x)20 = 140 45
or, 55x + 2800 20x = 6300
or, 35x = 6300 2800
or, 35x = 3500
or, x = 100
112. B; cos + sec = 2

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KUNDAN

1
101. A; x
= 3.5
x
Squaring both sides, we get
2

1
x

x2
1

2
or, x

75 100
= 25%
300
107. B; Let the numbers be 3x, 4x and 5x
respectively.
Then, 3x + 5x = 4x + 52
or, 8x = 4x + 52
or, 8x 4x = 52
or, 4x = 52
x = 13
Hence, the smallest number = 3x = 3 13
= 39
108. B; Ratio of A : B : C
3:4:x
3.5 : 3
% decrease =

2
or, x

(3.5)2

x2

1
x

2 x

12.25

12.25 2 10

Again, squaring both sides, we get

or, x

x2

(10)2

x2

x4
1

4
or, x

2 x

100
1

100

x2

x=
98

102. A; LCM HCF = Product of two

numbers

324
= 108
3
103. C; Here r = 15 cm and l = 5.5 cm
LCM =

l
r

5.5
15

5.5 180
7
15 22

1
5

= 4

5.5 180
15

63
15

1
60
5

= 4

3
15

730
= `240
73
The share of B exceeds that of C
by 280 240 = `40
109. D;
Share of C = 24

sin(9055 )
cos 55

113. D;

Then, M1 D 1W1 = M2D 2 W2

36 7 40
= 36 days
28 9

x=

114. C; Bs one days work =

As one days work =

24
A:B:C=3:4:
7
by 21 : 28 : 24
Sum of the ratio = 21 + 28 + 24 = 73
730
Share of B = 28
= `280
73

1
=1
cos
68
Now, cos + sec68 = 1 + 1 = 2
sec =

1
18

A is twice as fast as B

4 3
4 3 10
24
=
=
3.5
35
7

cos(9035 )
sin 35

1
=2
cos
2
or, cos + 1 = 2 cos
or, cos2 2cos + 1 = 0
or, (cos 1)2 = 0
cos = 1
or, cos +

1
9

(A + B)s one days work =

1
18

1
1 2
=
9
18

3
1
=
18
6
Both complete the work in 6 days.
115. C;

O A = OA = OO (radii) of circle
2

= 412
+ 2

3
2

OC =

OO

6
= 3 cm ( OA = 6 cm)
2

62 32 =

AC =

36 9 =

27

2011 =

= 3 3 cm

12
100 = 120%
10

131. D; Suppose the sum is `x.

25 2
x
= `
2 100
4

Simple interest = x

6
100 27%
22
Hence, the highest percentage is in 2010.
123. D
2012 =

AB = 2 AC = 2 3 3 = 6 3 cm

5
116. C; Speed of train = 90
= 25 m/s
18
Length of train = 150m

124. B; Reqd % =

150
= 6 seconds
25
117. C; 1 hours work of three pipes
Time =

= 77.77

1
1
1
6 53
8

=
=
10 12 20
60
60
Time taken to fill the tank by all three pipes
60
together =
hours
8
Hence, time taken for filling the tank
=

28
700
100 =
36
9

=`

28
100 = 1400%
2

4
=1:7
28
127. A; (sec + tan ) (1 sin )

or,

1
cos

60
hours = 7 hours 30 minutes
8
118. C; Perimeter of the circle = 2 r
Perimeter of the square = 4a

sin
cos

1 sin 2
cos

x
= 150
64

or,

(0.5) 2 (0.3) (0.6) 2

x = 0.5, y = 0.6

x3
Now,

1 sin
cos

(0.5)3 (0.6)3
132. B;

(1 sin )

17 x
64

17 x x

= 150
64 4
x = `9600

126. A; Reqd ratio =

25
200

Now, CI SI = 150

78%

125. D; Reqd % =

Compound interest = x 1

y3

x xy y

(x
2 =

y)

x2

y 2 xy

y 2 xy

K
KUNDAN
Side of the square = a=

2 r
r
=
4
2

Area of the circle = r 2

(1 sin )

cos2
cos

= cos

128. A;

Again, area of the square =

r
2

= x + y = 0.5 + 0.6 = 1.1

133. C; 3 {(8 5) (4 2) (2 +
= 3 [3 [2

34
]]
13

= 3 {3 [2

13
}]
34

2 2

r
4

2 2

Reqd ratio = r2 :

or, 4 :

r
4

=3 3

22
=4:
= 28 : 22 = 14 : 11
7

119. B; Reqd length =

82

62

52

64 36 25 = 125 = 5 5 m
120. B; We know that A + B + C = 180
Then x + y + y + 20 = 180
or, x + 2y + 20 = 180
... (i)
Given, 4x y = 10
y = 4x 10
... (ii)
Putting the value of y in equation (i), we get
x + 2(4x 10) = 180 20
or, 9x = 160 + 20 = 180
180
x=
= 20
9
Then y = 4 20 10 = 70
C = y + 20 = 90
Hence, the triangle ABC is a right-angle
triangle.
121. D; Increase in 2009 = 1 lakh
in 2010 = 8 lakh
in 2011 = 12 lakh
in 2012 = 6 lakh
Hence, the highest increase is in 2011.
1
100 = 100%
122. C; 2009 =
1
And, 2010 =

8
100 = 400%
2

Let the length of rope AC be l m.

In ABC

AB
12
sin 30 =
=
AC
l
or,

1
12
=
2
l

l = 24m
129. B; Let the sum be `100.
SI in 5 years = `100

100 100
= 20%
100 5
SI in 12 years = `200
Rate =

200 100
50
2
=
= 16 %
100 12
3
3
130. B; Principal = `72
Interest = 81 72 = `9
% rate =

13
17

=3 3

SI 100
9 100
=
25
P R
72
4

9 100 4
=
= 2 years
72 25

17
13

51
3 13
13
=
=
13
51
17
134. A; Given that, sin48 = cos 2 = x
or, sin(90 42) = cos 2 = x
or, cos42 = cos 2 = x
or, 2 = 42
= 21
= 180 (48 + 21) = 111
cos 2 = cos 2 111 = cos 222
cos(180 + 42) = cos42 = x
135. B; 398 7 = 391
436 11 = 425
542 15 = 527
Hence HCF of 391, 425 and 527 is 17
=3

136. C;

1
Rate = 6 % per annum
4
Time =

8
)}
13

So,

AB
CD

or,

8
6

AO
OD
12
OD

or, OD =

12 6
= 9 cm
8

142. B; Let x gram sugar be added.

1
2 0
x
2
x + 1 + 2x = 0
or, (x + 1)2 = 0
x = 1
137. B; x

120 x 50
Then,
or 120 + x = 180
180
50
x = 60 gram
143. C; Average number of legs per head

Now, x39

580
200

= (1)39
(1)50
x 50

147. B; Rate in still water =

29
20

Bs SP = 60000

100
= `60000
90

148. D; Speed =

18000
1
100 = 33 %
54000
3

Rabbits : Pigeons
9 : 17

200
11 = 110
Number of pigeons =
9 11

139. D;

A can cover a distance of 140 km in

140
4

= 35 hours
150. D; Let the distance be x km.

144. B;
Then,

x
x
6

= 2
40
96
60

21
10

K
KUNDAN

OC = 12 cm, AC = CB = 5 cm
Radius OA =

100 1000
36000

250
m seconds
9
149. C; LCM of 4, 5 and 35 = 140

120
= `72000
100

Bs profit percentage =

6 3
2

= 4.5 kmph

= 1 1 = 2
138. B; As cost price = 54000

In the second case

Side = 2x metres
Area = (2x)2 = 4x2 sq m
The area becomes four times the original
area.

OC2

AC 2 =

122

The watch gains 5 + 5

4
54
=
minutes
5
5

5 minutes is gained in

180 5
5
54

= 83.33 hours
= 3 days 11 hours, 20 minutes
Hence, it will be correct at 20 minutes past 7
pm on Wednesday.
141. B; The point (3, 4) will satisfy the
equation.
34=a3+7
or, 12 = 3a + 7
or, 3a = 5

5
3

24 x 10 x
21
=
960
10

or,

14 x
21
=
960
10

52

144 25 = 169 = 13 cm
Diameter of the circle = 2 13 = 26 cm
140. A; Time of the interval = 180 hours

a=

or,

OA = 6 units
And OB = 8 units

Area of triangle OAB =

1
OA OB
2

1
6 8 = 24 sq units
2
145. D; Circumference of the circle = 2 r
=

22
21 = 132 cm
7
Circumference of the semi-circle
= r + diameter
=2

22
21 + 42 = 66 + 42 = 108 cm
7
Reqd ratio = 132 : 108 = 11 : 9
146. C; Let the side of the square be x metres.
Area = x2 sq m
=

960 21
= 144 km
14 10
151. B; Replace at with through
152. B; Replace word to word with word
for word
153. D
154. A; Replace about with of
155. C; Replace remaining with yet
156. D 157. B 158. C 159. A 160. C
161. C 162. A 163. D 164. B 165. C
166. D 167. A 168. B 169. D 170. C
171. D 172. C 173. B 174. A 175. C
176. A 177. C 178. B 179. D 180. A
181. A 182. C 183. B 184. A 185. D
186. B 187. C 188. A 189. D 190. B
191. B 192. D 193. C 194. D 195. A
196. C 197. B 198. A 199. D 200. C
or, x =