FINAL DMS 2010

Question 1-3
Mr Maesaroh,68 y/o ,LBP,PE=Kyphotic posture and there are no
signs of inflammation ,infecton and trauma.
1.According to Kapadji,their purpose of anterior and posterior
spine at physiologic curves is
A. Stabilize the linear ligament.
B.Protect the spinal cord and spine nerve
C.Support the weight of the body superior to the level of the pelvis
D.Increace vertebrae collumn resistence to axial compression
E.Posture and Locomotion
2.Pain increase in standing,sitting,walking.In standing position,the
lumbar spine is normally in a position of lordoisis.In the erect
sitting position:
A.The lumbar curve (LC) increase, pelvis and sacrum rotated to
anterior
B.The lumbar curve (LC) decrease,pelvis and sacrum rotated to
posterior
c.The lumbar curve (LC) increase,pelvis n sacrum rotate to
posterior
d.LC decrease ,pelvis n sacrum rotate to anterior
e.LC stable,pelvis n sacrum rotate to posterior
3.She often does washing and cleaning activities in crooked
position.When normal subject stands n slowly reflexes the trunk,a
lateral view of the spinous process of the thorcic area reveals:
A.A folding of posterior convexity without flat areas or
angulation.
b.A folding of a posterior convexity with flattened areas or
angulation.
c.an unfolding of posterior convexity without flat areas or
angulation.
d.an unfolding of a posterior convexity with flat areas or
angulation.
e.an unfolding of a posterior convexity n folding of anterior
convexity.
4. She does often washing & cleaning activities in crooked position.
What is the function of Rectus Abdominis & Psoas major.?
A.trunk flexion
B.trunk extension
C. trunk lateral bending
D.trunk rotation
E. trunk stabilization

5. wat is the function of erector spinae, multifidus & semispinalis

thoracis.?
A.trunk flexion
B.trunk extension
C. trunk lateral bending
D.trunk rotation
E. trunk stabilization
Question 6-7
A 55-year-old man had an accident and suffere with the left
femoral neck column fracture. He suffered from left femoral neck
column fracture. He underwent surgery operation with Austin
Moore Prosthetic implantation.
6.Head of femur connected to shaft by neck. According to kapandji
the neck shaft angle is
A.130 derajat
B.125
C.120
D.115
E.110

a) provide bony protection to distal joint surface

b) decrease distance from axis of motion (force arm distance)
c) prevent damaging compression force on quadriceps tendon
d) modified the area of patellar contact surface to tibiofemoral
joint

10) Shes been notified not to bend her knee / do any kind of
activities in beding knee position. How much the force within the
knee joint while standing in flexion position (according to
Schmidt)?
a) Force increase 0.8 times body weight at 90 degrees angle
b) Force increase 1.2 times body weight at 90 degrees angle
c) Force increase 1.8 times body weight at 90 degrees angle
d) Force increase 2.2 times body weight at 90 degrees angle
e) Force increase 2.6 times body weight at 90 degrees angle
11.

Mr. Dadan 32 y.o had an anterior knee pain at the

right leg since 2 weeks ago. Altough the pain has
already diminish, he still can't bend his knee when he
prays. Screw home mechanism of the knee joint is a
terminal rotation for the last 200 of extension. The
main advantage of this mechanism is?
A. Enhancing quadriceps strength
B. Permit human to stand errect without quadriceps
contraction
C. Stabilizing patellar movement by controlling
quadriceps contraction
D. Reducing axial compression to tibio-femoral joint
E. Coordinate contraction between quadriceps and
harmstring

12.

An 18 yo woman with miliaria rubra. Which is most

likely the affected organ?
A. Sebaceous gland
B. Holocrine
C. Apocrine
D. Merocrine
E. Hair follicle

13.

A 55 yo woman with knee joint osteoarthritis. MRI

imaging showed defects range from focal blistering
and surface irregularities. Which is most likely the
molecular basis for shock absorption within the
affected structure?
A. Electrostatic interaction of proteoglycan with
type IV collagen

7. Another angle occuring in the femur is called the angle of anteversion which is in the range from?
A. 10-12
B. 10-15
C. 11-12
D. 12-14
E. 13-15
8. Mr. Suhendar, 25 years old is suffering with ankylosing
spondylitis. His major problem beside the lower back pain and back
stiffness is the Sacro-Iliac Joint Arthritis. According to Kapandji, the
motion of sacro-iliac joint is:
A. Up & down gliding
B. Anterior & posterior movement of ilia
C. Anterior & posterior movement ofsacrum
D. Nutation & counter nutation
E. Rotation at range 2-8
Question 9 10
Mrs. Maesaroh 65 y/o suffered with right knee OA, had been
underwent physiotherapy treatment and did quadriceps
strengthening exercise
9)The purpose of patella to enhance quadriceps strength in
extension by

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B.
C.
D.
E.

14.

15.

Ability of glycoaminoglycans to bind anions

Hydration of glycoaminoglycans
Sialic acid residues in the glycoprotein
Noncovalent binding of glycoaminoglycans to
protein cores

42 yo woman with humerus fracture. Which is the

most likely first step of the healing?
A. Granulation tissue
B. Pannus
C. Clot
D. Internal callus
E. External callus

B.
C.
D.
E.

Pox Virus infection

HPV
HIV
Influenza virus infection

A 68 yo man has pain and skin nodule in ollecranon joint.

Laboratorium examination uric acid level in the blood to be raised.
Diagnosis is Gouty trophus.
19.

A 50 yo man with rheumatoid arthritis. Which is most

likely the initial site of damage?
A.
Joint cavity
B.
Epithelium synovial membrane
C.
Articular cartilage
D.
Ends of bone
E.
Perichondrium

Which of the following microscopically of tophus?

A. Consist of cluster of eosinophilic staining urat
crystals surrounded by lymphocyte and
keratocytes
B. Consist of cluster of basophilic staining urat
crystals surrounded by osteocytes and osteoblast
C. Consist of cluster of pale staining urat crystals
surrounded by histiocytes and macrophages
D. Consist of cluster of acidophilic staining urat
crystals surrounded by chondrocytes and
monocytes

20.

16.

A 50 yo woman presents with blisters on her backs

and buttocks and was diagnosed with pemphigus
vulgaris. The cause of this is disruption of which likely
A.
Desmosome
B.
Hemidesmosome
C.
Gap junction
D.
Zonula adherens
E.
Connections between the lamina densa and
lamina rarae in basal lamina

For 17-18
A 55 y.o man have skin nodule in face head. This nodule small,
firm, with have central cores from white keratinous material.
Microscopic feature is characteristic with round eosinophilic bodies
in the nuclei of keratinocytes.
17.

18.

Which of the following most likely of diagnosis?

A. Moluscum contagiosum
B. Condyloma accuminata
C. Verruca vulgaris
D. Hidradenitis suppurativa
E. Dermatitis allergica
Which of the following etiologi of disease :
A. EBV

Which of the following most likely from laboratorium

examination of tophus?
A. Calcium urat crystals
B. Kalium urat crystals
C. Chloride urat crystals
D. Sodium urat crystals
E. Pospho urat crystals
a 60 yo man has pigmented nodule of nasal region in the face.
microscopic feature is malignant tumor of skin with tumor cell are
columnar and their nuclei are arranged paralel of each other
(palisading nuclei) in the periphery of the tumor mask.
21. Diagnosis?
A. squamose cell carcinoma
b. Malignant melanoma
c. veruca vulgaris
d. condyloma acuminatum
e. basal cell carcinoma
22. which of the following is the most likely Behaviour of tumor
above?
a. local invasive but grow slowly and almost never metastasis
b. local invasive with grow slowly and no metastasis
c. aggresive forms rapidly and metastasis
d. aggresive forms rapidly and never metastasis
e. local invasive but grows slowly and always metastasis

b. ans = slow growing, locally invasive, and, rarely, metastasize

a 48 yo man has nodule of buccal region in the face. microscopic
feature is malignant tumor of skin. the tumor cell arises from
keratinocyte with hyperchromatic, pleomorphism nuclei among
which there is considerable mitotic activity. more centrally the cells
have eosinophilic cytoplasm and in several strands there is
laminated keratin a "cell nest" or "epithelial pearl"
23. nodule at buccal region, keratinocytes, 'nest cell' or
keratihyaloid pearl'. diagnosis?
a. basal cell ca
b. squamous cell ca
c. malignant melanoma
d. veruca vulgaris
e. epidermal cyst
ans = squamose cell carcinom
24.which of the following is risk factor or etiology of disease
a.hiv
b.hpv type 6
c.exposure to sun
d.exposure to radiation
e.ebv
25.3o yroldwoman has skin nodule in labia mayor of
pubis.microscopic feature is epithelial hyperplasia,papillamatous,
acanthosis, hyperkeratosis and parakeratosis which is the diagnosis
a.veruca vulgaris
b.molluscum contagiosum
c.epidermal cyst
d.condylomaaccuminata
e.hidradenitis suppurativa
26. Lucy,12y/o with chief complain papules on face and back ,
diagnosed with acne vulgaris , given tetracycline 250 mg cap orally
4 times a day after meal for 7 days. prescription order?
a. R/ tetracycline cap 250 mg No. VII
S. 4. d.d. cap 1 1 h.a.c
b. R/ tetracycline 250 mg cap No. XV
S. 4. d.d. cap 1 p.c
c. R/ tetracycline 250 mg cap No. XXVIII
S. 4. d.d. cap 1 1h.p.c
d. R/ tetracycline 250 mg cap No. XXVIII
S. 4. d.d. cap 1 p.c
e. R/ tetracycline cap 200 mg
S. t.d.d cap 1 hac

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erythromycin 2% cream 10g for acne. Available prescription is

erymed cream contain 2% erythromycin in tube 10g.apply twice a
day.

c. Pharyngeal arch 3
d. Pharyngeal arch 4

35. The pharyngeal apparatus contributes greatly to the

formulation of the head and neck. The intermaxillary segment
forms via the fusion of the:

27.proper direction for prescription order ?

A.S.s.d.d applic
B.S.b.d.d applic
C.S.t.d.d applic
D.S.q.d.d.applic
e. S.d.i.d.applic

e. Pharyngeal arch 5

a. Somitometric mesoderm pharyngeal arch 1

32. Cleft lip and cleft palate are distinct malformations based on
their embryological formation, even though they often occur
together.

b. Medial nasal prominences

Which of the following congenital malformation of the head and

neck region is the most common?

d. Maxillary prominences

28. the inscription and subscription?

A.erymed cream 2% No.1 tube 10g
B.erymed 2% cream 10g No.1
C.Erymed 2% cream 10g tube No.1
D.Erymed cream 2% no.1 10g
E.erymed cream 2% 10g no.1
Diagnosis: Psoriasis Vulgaris , given antihistamine Loratidine 10mg
tablet orally once a day for 1 week.
29. The inscription and subscription?
A.
Loratidine tab 10mg No.X
B.
Loratidine tab No.V
C.
Loratidine 10mg tab No.VII
D.
Loratidine 10mg No.XV
E.
Loratidine No.XIV tab
30. Loratadine 10mg tab orally once a day for 1 weekprescription
a)S.sdd tab 1
b) S.b.d.d.tab 1
c) st.d.d tab1 1.h.a.c
d) st.d.d tab1 1.h.p.c
e) q.d d tab1 1h.a.c

e. mandibular prominence
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

Ankyloglossia
Anterior cleft palate
Posterior cleft palate
Thyroglossal duct cyst
Unilateral cleft lip

33. The pharyngeal apparatus contributes greatly to the formation

of the head and neck. There are 5 pharyngeal arches in which one
of these is contributes in formation the muscle of facial expression.
Which of the following is give rise into the facial expression
muscle?

Which of the following pharyngeal arches is associated with

Tracher Collin syndrome?
a. Pharyngeal arch 1
b. Pharyngeal arch 2

36. Albinism is congenital anomalies of the integumentary system.

Which of the following statements concerning albinism is
CORRECT?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

It is most commonly an X linked ressesive trait

It is characterized by dryness and scaling of the skin
Predisposition to benign tumors of endothelial cells
Is caused by a lack of enzyme tyrosinase
Results when mesoderm fail to produce melanin in the
skin, hair, and eyes

a. Somitomeric mesoderm pharyngeal arch 1

b. Somitomeric mesoderm pharyngeal arch 2
c. Neural crest derives of pharyngeal arch 1

37. The head musculature develops from the paraxial mesoderm,

which for,s somitomeres 1-7 and occipital somites.
Which of the following pharyngeal arch muscle is the derivates of
pharyngeal arch 1?

d. Neural crest derives of pharyngeal arch 2

e. Somitomeric mesoderm pharyngeal arch 4

31. The pharyngeal apparatus consist of pharyngeal arches,

pharyngeal pouches, pharyngeal grooves, and pharyngeal
membrane and it is observed in week 4 of embryonic
development.

c. Neural crest derives of pharyngeal arch 1

34. The development of the palate from the primary and secondary
palate fuse at the incisive foramen to form definitive palate.
Which of the following is secondary palate?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

Mandibulary prominence
Philtrum of the lip
Palatine shelves
Palatine raphe
Intermaxillary segment

a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

The posterior belly of the digastric

The stylopharingeus
The tensor veli palatini
The stapedius
The cricopharyngeus

38. The cranium develops from the mesoderm surrounding the

developing brain and consist neurocranium and viscerocranium.
Which of the following bone is part of the cartilagineous
neurocranium?
a.
b.
c.

The parietal bone

The interparietal protion of the occipital bone
The frontal bone

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d.
e.

The petrous part of the temporal bone

The nasal bones

39. The tympanic cavity contains three ossicles of the middle ear,
malleus, incus, stapes, tympanic membrane and auditory tube.
Which of the following statements is the most likely the tympanic
cavity?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

It is of mesodermal origin
It developes from the tubotympanic recess
The malleus and incus develops from pharyngeal arch
2
The stapes develops from pharyngeal arch 1
It communicates with the cochlear duct

40. Which of the following is the most likely results from

premature closure of sutures on one side of the skull?

43. The mesodermal swelling median tongue bud and distal tongue
buds develop in the floor of the pharynx at pharyngeal arch 1 and
the distal tongue buds overgrow the median tongue bud and fuse
in the midline, forming the oral part of the tongue and innervation
by cranial nerve. Which CN in specially taste sensation from oral
part of tongue?
A. V
B. VII
C. IX
D. X
E. XII
Question 44-47
You are second year medical student in traumatology emergency
room. You are introducing to mr.dudi, 35 yo with multiple injuries
due to a bar fight. The police brought him to emergency
department in a bad general condition with impaired
consciousness.
44. what mr. dodi suffered?
a. mild head injury
b. concussion
c. contusion
d. axonal shearing lesion
e. epidural hematoma

a. Microcephaly
b. Oxycephaly
c. Plagiocephaly
d. Scapocephay
e. Acrocephaly
41. Which of the following is most likely results from fusion and
shortening of cervical vertebrae?
A. Spina bifida
B. Klippel Feil Syndrome
C. Achondroplasia
D. Scapocephaly
E. Treacher Collins Syndrome
42. The skeletal muscle derived from paraxial mesoderm, which
gives rise to somites and somitomeres. Which is most likely gives
rise to flexor muscle of neck and vertebral column and intercostal
muscles?
A. cervical somites C3-C5
B. occipital somites
C. Epimere
D. Hypomere
E. Preotic somites

45. what else he suffered?

a. axonnotmesis
b. neuropraxia
c. neurotmesis
d. seddon axonotmesis
e. second degree nerve damage
46. other he suffered?
a. moderate dysfunction of facial nerve
b. moderate severyly dysfunction of facial nerve
c. mild dysfunction of facial nerve
d. severe dysfunction of facial nerve
e. total paralysis
47..Mr Dodi suffered from
A.simple fracture
B.compound fracture
C.comminuted fracture
D.complex fracture
E.greenstick fracture

48..On primary survey, there is..

A.The problem on airway control
B.The problem on cervical control
C.Not a shock
D.The problem of circulation
E.Not a problem of disabilities
49. You are the doctor on duty in the general out patient clinic.
Mrs. Imas, 53 yo a housewife came to your clinic with the chief
complain of the pain at right knee since 2 weeks. Last time, she has
already felt mild pain on her right knee for about 3 month but it
was better after she took a rest for a night. She felt night knee
stiffness in the morning and worse when walking or standing. Prior
visited you she has visited 3 general practioner doctor but there
were no improvement at all. After that she could not sit, cannot do
daily activities. She ask the doctor if it is because of her high uric
acid concentration
A. autoimmune arthritis
b. gout arthiris
c. rheumatoid arthritis
d. degenerative joint disease
e. chronic inflammatory disease
Question 50 to 52
A 17 yo girl come to primary health care with chief complain of
erythematous papules, some were associated with pain over the
face and back since 1 year ago. The dermatological status revealed
skin lesion with regional distribution on the face and back
presented as multiple lesions consisted of comedones,
erythematous papule and anthropic scars. The doctor treated the
patient with topical 0.001% tretinoin cream.
50.Which skin structure listed below was the most possible
affected by this patients skin disorder?
A. hair follicle
b. eccrine gland
c. pilosebaceous unit
d. apocrine gland
e. basal layer of epidermis
51. what was the normal flora of the skin listed below had the role
in the pathogenesis of this disease?
a. candida sp
b. micrococci sp
c. streptococci sp
d. staphylococcus sp

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e. propionibacterium sp
52. what is the mechanism of action of the treatment given by the
doctor?
a. antiseptic
b. comedolytic
c. antimicrobial
d. antiandrogen
e. decrease the sebum production
For question number 53 to 54, refer to scenario below:
a 6-year-old child was taken by his mother to a primary health care
with chief complain of painful pustules on the scalp and face since
3 days ago. The dermatological status revealed skin lesions with
regional distribution, on the frontal area of the scalp and
forehead,presented as 5 numbers of pustules.
53. what was the laboratory examination needed to confirm the
diagnosis in this patient?
a. Tzanck smear
b. Gram stain smear
c. KOH examination
d. Ziehl Nielsen examination
e. Wet mount preparation with NaCl

a. tinea corporis
b. herpes zoster
c. psoriasis vulgaris
d. nummular dermatitis
e. seborrheic dermatitis
56. the doctor concluded that there was a disorder of keratinocyte
differentiation in this case. Which part of the epidermis had an
active mitosis?
a. stratum basale
b. stratum spinosum
c. Stratum granulosum
d. stratum lucidum
e. stratum corneum
57. the doctor concluded that there was a disorder of keratinocyte
differentiation in this case. What is the normal transit time for a
basal cell, from the time it loses contact with basal layer to the
time it enters the stratum corneum?
a. 7 days
b. 14 days
c. 28 days
d. 36 days
e. 46 days
For question number 58 to 60, refer to scenario below:

54. which skin structure listed below was most possible involved fo
the patients skin disorder?
a. hair follicle
b. eccrine glands
c. sebaceous unit
d. spinous layer of epidermis
e. granular layer of epidermis

For question number 55 to 57, refer to scenario below:

a 31-year-old man, came to a primary health care with chief
complaint of recurrent erythematous plaque with thick scales, nonpruritic, on the buttocks, on the elbows, and both knees since 3
years ago. The dermatological status revealed skin lesions with
regional distribution, on the sacrum,elbows, and knees, presented
as multiple lesions with fine border, consisted of erythematous
plaque with glossy, thick, layered scales. The KOH examination did
not reveal any fungal element.
55.what was the most possible diagnosis in this patient

An 18-year-old male teenager, came to primary health care with

chief complain black dots, some erythematous solid elevated lesion
with diameter less 5mm in size and some any circumscribed, raised
cavity containing pus, on his both cheeks and his forehead.
58. what is term for the elevated lesion with less than 5mm in sizes
in this patient?
A. nodule
b. plaque
c. papule
d. pustule
e. vesicle
59. what is the diagnosis of this disesase?
a. miliaria
b. rosacea
c. folliculitis
d. acne vulgaris
e. perioral dermatitis

60. what is the pathogenesis of black dots in this patient?

a. infection
b. rupture of follicular wall
c. epidermal hyperproliferation
d. inflammation of follicular ostium
e. accumulation of corneocyte and sebum
For questions number 61 66, refer to the scenario below
A 30-year-old housewife, came to primary health care with chief
complaint of recurrent painful cracked skin on both palms since 1
year ago. The dermatological status revealed fissures and scales.
The doctor treated the patient with topical 0.05% clobestasol
propionate ointment.
61. What is the most possible diagnosis in this patient?
A. Atopic Dermatitis
B. Nummular Dermatitis
C. Irritant Contact Dermatitis
D. Statis Dermatitis
E. Seborrheic Dermatitis
62. What is the pathomechanismof this case?
a) Hypersensitivity type 1 reaction
b)Hypersensitivity type 2 reaction
c) Hypersensitivity type 3 reaction
d) Hypersensitivity type 4 reaction
e) Direct cytotoxic effect
63.which skin function was impaired in this case?
A) Skin as a barrier
B) Skin as mechanical shock protection
C) Skin as storage and active metabolism organ
D) Skin as insulates the body against external heat
E) Skin as insulates the body against external cold
64. what was the process that caused scaling in this patient?
A) swelling of the skin
B) proliferation of fibrous tissue
c) surface excavations of epidermis
d) linear loss of continuity of the skins surface
e) shedding of the outer-most layer of the stratum corneum
65) whatwas the process that caused fissuresin this patient?
A. Defect of the epidermis and dermis
B. Surface excavations of the epidermis
C. Linear loss of continuity ofthe skinssurface
D.Deposit of serum dries on the surface of the skin

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E. Loss of a portion or all of the viable epidermal

66) What is the mechanism of action of the topical treatment given
by the doctor?
1.
Antibacterial
2.
Antiviral
3.
Antifungal
4.
Antiinflammation
5.
Antihistamine
For questions number 67 to 68, refer to the scenario below :
A 25 year-old-man, textile fabric employer, came to primary health
care with chief complain of painful erythematous macules and
blisters on the dorsal aspect of hand after got splashed with fabric
dye solution. The dermatological status revealed a solitary lesion,
measuring 8X7 cm, presented as vesicles and blisters on an
erythematous maculae.
67) What was the most possible diagnosis in this patient?
1.
Frictional dermatitis
2.
Photocontact dermatitis
3.
Allergic contact dermatitis
4.
Acute irritant contact dermatitis
5.
Chronic cumulative irritant contact dermatitis
68) What is the definition of blister:
1.
Fluid cavity larger than 0.5cm
2.
Localized accumulation of purulent material deep on
the dermis
3.
Circumscribed raised cavity in the epidermis
containing pus
4.
Solid, round palpable lesion that has diameter larger
then 0.5cm
5.
Encapsulated cavity/sac containing fluid/semisolid
material
69) A player is kicked on the front of his leg during a soccer game,
and a large bruise develops. Hematoma deep to the crural fascia
can create extreme pressure within the anterior compartment of
the leg, compressing structures within it.
Which of the following is the most likely finding resulting from this
anterior compartment syndrome?
1.
Numbness on the dorsal of foot
2.
Inability to plantarflex foot
3.
Inability to invert foot
4.
Inability to evert foot
5.
Footdrop

70) In an adult, the conus medullaris of the spinal cord is normally

positioned at which vertebral body levels?
a) T10-T12
b) T12-L3
c) L2-L4
d) L5-S1
e) S2-S4
71. Difficulty in swallowing was due to involvement of muscle that
elevates the tongue. wotf muscle is the most likely appropriate?
A. Genioglossus
B) Hyoglossus
c) stylogolussus
d) Stylohyoid
E) Stylopharngeus

72. During insertion of an IV canula in median cubital vein. Patient

lost his feeling on the radial side of the forearm. Which nerve is the
most likely appropriate for that injury?
a) musculocutaneous
b) superficial radial nerve
c) lateral antebrachial cutaneous
d) medial antebrachial cutaneous
e) posterior antecubital cutaneous
73.A 6 Year child,whose medical history includes a rather difcullt
birth has a permanently flited head posture with the right ear near
the right shoulder and face turned upwards and to tthe left
which of the following muscle was very likey damage from birth?
A.Sternoicleidomastiod
B.Anterior scalene
C.omohyoid
D.trapezius
E.Platysma
74.irragiton of the maxillary sinus through its opening is supportive
measure to accelerate the resolution of a maxillary sinus
infection.wotf nasal space is the most likely approach to the sinus
opening?
a. choana
b. inferior meatus
c. middle meatus
d. superior meatus
e. sphenoethmoidal recess

75. Action of group constrictor pharyngeal muscle is to constrict

the phatyngeal cavity. Which nerve is the most likely innervate the
muscle..
A)
Glossopharnygeal nerve
B)
spinal Accessory nerve
C)
Sympathetic trunk
D)
Hypoglossal nerve
E)
Vagus nerve
76. during industrial accident, sheet metal lacerate the anterior
surface of the worker wrist at the junction of his wrist and hand.
No abnormalities found, but the skin on the numb side of the hand.
Which nerve is affected
A) lateral antebrachial cutaneous
b) medial antebrachial cutaneous
c. median
d. radial
e. ulnar
77. Infection in oral cavity can spread to the neck region. One of
the regions is the triangle in which the superior branch of the ansa
cervicalis separates from the hypoglossal nerve.
Which of the following triangle is the most likely appropriate?
A. carotid
B. occipital
C. muscular
D. submental
E. subclavian
78. Which of the following muscle can produce the expression of
grimace?
A. platysma
B. buccinator
C. zygoamticus major
D. levator anguli oris
E. levator labii superioris.
79. an elderly woman presented with severe pain beneath her left
eye, radiating into the lowe eyelid, lateral side of the nose and
upper lip.which nerve is involve..
a) supraorbital
b. infraorbital
c. zygomatic
d. buccal
e. mental

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80. a saphenous cutdown is a surgical procedure that involves

cutting through the skin to locate the greater saphenous vein in
order to insert a cateter to cannula.
where is the best way to find that vessel?
a. anterior to the medial malleolus
b. through rhe saphenous opening
c. anterior to the medial epicondyle
d. tributaries ro the posterior tibial vein
e. subcutaneous branches of the posterior tibial artery
81. during insertion of an iv cannula in the medial cubital vein,
patient suddenly lot his feeling on the radialside of the forearm.
Which of the following nerve is the most likely appropriate for
thatinjury?
a. Musculocutaneous
b. Superficial radial nerve
c. Lateral antebrachial cutaneous
d. Medial antebrachial cutaneous
e. Posterior antebrachial cutaneous
82.a 30-year-old boxer receives a blow to the right eye. Soon after
that he was unable to secrete tears from the eye. What is the most
likely location of the injury?
a.lateral superior orbit
b.lateral inferior orbit
c.medial superior orbit
d.medial inferior orbit
83. a27-year-old man comes to the outpatient clinic with chief
complaint falls onto his outstretched hand. You suspect a fracture
of a carpal bone.
Whichof the following bones is most likely fracture?
a.lunate
b.pisiform
c.capitate
d.scaphoid
e.triquetrium

For questions number 84 to 86, refer to the options below :

Choose in CORRECT name to each participant in the sliding
filament theory :

d.Actin
e.ATP

d.reduces urinary excretion of phosphotases Ca2+

e.all above correct

84.Has a binding site for calcium

92.pseudoarthrosis (non-union) as one of the complication

fracture:
a.the fracture gap is filled with fibrous tissue
b.of the arthrotic type is due to poor blood supply
c.of the hypertrophic type can be treated by ORIF
d. has a cavity lined by synovium
e.all above correct

85.Responsible for disconnectingthe cross bridges

86.Hasa binding site for ATP
87. one of these is not function of the skin
a.thermoregulation
bmechanical barrier
c.protection against infectious agent
d.radiation barrier
e.pressure barrier
88. What is the predisposition factor at joint contracture?
a.imbalance of agonist-antagonistmuscles
b.pain of the muscles of the joint
c.hypotonic of muscle of the joint
d.twitching of muscle of the joint
e.hypertrophy of muscle of the joint
89. In physiology of a motor nerve fiber is stimulated, the impulse
arriving at the nerve ending :
a.release cholinesterase which byquata reaction cause muscle
contraction
b.create an action potential at the motor end plate by the
formation of prostigmine like substance
c.release electrical impulse to muscle fiber causing a contraction
d.activate release ACTH which in turn stimulates the motor end
plate to form a propagated action potential
e.allthe above are correct
90. histology of bone on Haversian canals have been described as
containing:
a. a capillary vessels & extracellular fluid
b. a capillary and venule vessels
c. an ateriol, a venule, and a lymphatic vessels
d. an arteriol and avenule vessels
e. an arteriol, a venule, a lypmhatic, a nerve fibers, and
extracellular fluid
91.calcitonin
a.inhibits interstitial(jejunal) absorption of Ca 2+ and Po4b.decrease osteoclasctic activity
c.activity is associated with increase alkaline phosphotases

A.Troponin
b.Tropomyosin
c.Myosin

93. in the treatment of tetanus

a.tetanus toxoid should be given intravenous as soon as possible
b.wound debridement should be undertake prior to any other
therapy
c.human antitetanus immunoglobulin should be given immediately
in patients at risk
d.penicillin or metronidazole therapy should be administreted
e.all above correct
94.19 yo male, came to hospital with a pain at the back and unable
to walk as a chief complaint. He complained about persistent pain
since 3 months ago and concomitantly unable to walk since 1 week
ago. He also complained about night sweat, loss of appetite as well
as loss of body weight. He looks so skinny and both of his lower
limb muscle are wasted. Laboratory revealed elevated ESR and low
Hb, otherwise are normal. Vertebral X-ray revealed compression
fracture at T12 with kyphotic deformity. What is the possible cause
of the neurologic deficit in this patient?
a. compression of the spinal cord by the bony fragments
b. compression of the spinal roots by the bony fragments
c. compression of the spinal ligaments by the bony fragments
d. compression of the spinal foramen by the bony fragments
e. compression of the spinal canal by the bony fragments
95. A 23 yo male came to the emergency room with pain at the left
leg as the chief complain. Pain occurred after the felt down from a
staircase. He was complaining deformity and swelling below the
left knee, which also unable to move that part. No wound was
found. He felt down 5 hours ago. For the last one hour he
complained about constant pain belom the left knee.
What is the definitive procedure for this patient?
a.reduction
b.fixation
c.fasciotomy
d.splinting
e.traction

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96. A 13yo junior high school student complained about pain and
swelling at her right ankle joint after fell down during sport activity
at her school. She was still able to walk, but painfully.
What is the most common mechanism of this injury?
a.inversion type twist
b.eversion type twist
c.pronation type twist
d.supination type twist
e.extension type twist
97. Which of the following is the most appropriate radiological
exam at minimum requirement to rule out concomitant fracture of
this condition?
a.AP projection of the ankle joint
b.Lateral projection of the ankle joint
c.AP and lateral projection of the ankle joint
d.AP, lateral, and mortice projection of the ankle joint
e.AP, lateral, and tangential projection of the anklejoint
98. How long is the most sufficient period of immobilization as a
treatment for this condition?
a.1 week
b.2 week
c.3 week
d.4 week
e.5 week
99.which of the following is the most common predisposing factor
of this condition
a. lack of positioning
b. lack of strengthening
c. lack of stretching
d. lack of conditioning
100.A 9 yo boy came to a dentist for a routine dental exam and
possible cause of the caries. What bac causes this
a.streptococcus haemolyticus
b.streptococcus mutants
c. staphylococcus epidermidis
d.staphylococcus areus
e. staphylococcus haemolyticus
101. Some bacteria produce an internal structure known as
endospore. This structure is produce by the vegetative cells by
process called sporogenesis. WOTF are the most likely bacteria
produce such structure

a. Mycobacterium tubercolusis

d. Diphteroid

b. Chlamydia trachomatic

e. Propionibacterium

c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
d. Clostridium tetani

105. These bacteria are normal flora of the skin and mucous
membrane, but sometimes they may produce serious disease such
as endocarditis. What bacteria most likely cause such disease?

e. Proteus vulgaris

a. Propionibacterium

102. A 32-years old man suffered from abscess formation of the oil
secreting gland of the upper right eyelid for two days. The most
common cause of this disease is

b. Alfa streptococcus

a. Propionibacterium acne

d. Micrococcus

b. Haemophilus aegypticus

e. Diphteroid

c. Staphylococcus aureus

106. A 30-years old man came to the outpatient clinic with

complaint of toothace on the right lower jaw, 3 years ago. The
tooth was filled and underwent nerve treatment, only part of the
crown is left and excreting pus, checked is swollen. The diagnosis
was abscess caused by gangrene pulpa. The doctor gave antibiotic
and analgesic/anti-inflammation and recommended to see
dentistry for tooth extraction. WOTF drug that proper given to
overcome the pain?

d. Corynebacterium sp
e. Candida albicans
103. The skin and the mucous membrane always harbor some
microorganism, some of them are the resident flora, a relatively
fixed type of microorganism regularly found in the area. WOTF
organism not fit to that category

c. Peptostreptococcus

a. Mefenamic acid

a. Staphylococcus sp

b. Phenylbutazon

b. Streptococcus sp

c. Acetosal

c. Propionibacterium

d. Meloxicam

d. Mycobacterium

e. Methampiron

e. Diphteroid

107. A 45-years old man cameto the outpatient clinic with

complaint

104. Most of normal flora of the skin are gram (+) bacteria, but
some are gram (-). WOTF organism fit into the second category

A drug to overcome headache. After physical examination

a. Staphylococcus sp

Abdomen is the side effect of drug that he took for relieving his

b. Staphylococcus sp

What is the most likely drug that taken by the patient and causes

c. Staphylococcus sp

a.

Mefenamic acid

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b.
c.
d.
e.

Paracetamol
Acetosal
Celecoxib
Fenoprofen

108. A 15-year-old boy came to outpatient clinic with complaint of

headache, pharyngeal pain and high temperature. This patient was
diagnosed acute bacterial tonsilopharyngitis. The doctor gave
antipyretic.
Which of the following drug is the safest antipyretic?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

Phenylbutazon
Salicylic acid
Indomethazin
Paracetamol
Na-diclofenac

109. Local anesthetics interfere with the movement of which ion as

a fundamental basis for their action?
a. Oxygen
b. hydrogen
c. Pottasium

a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

NSAID to reduce the inflammation and pain. It was also

known that the patient are 6-months old pregnant. Which of
the following is the safest NSAID for this patient?
Salicylate
Metampyrone
Metenamic acid
Paracetamol
Ibuprofen

112. A 20 yo woman comes to your clinic with headache. You

want to give her NSAID to reduce the pain but from past
history she had peptic ulcer. Which of the following is the
most appropriate NSAID for this patient:
a.
Piroxicam
b.
Ibuprofen
c.
Paracetamol
d.
Metampyrone
e.
Salicylate
113. A 17 yo woman comes to your clinic with disturbing pain
during menstruation. Which of following is the strongest
NSAID approproate for this patient?
a.
Mefenamic acid
b.
Paracetamol
c.
Metampyrone
d.
Salicylate
e.
Piroxicam

d. Sodium
e. Calcium
110. Frequently vasocontrictors are combined with local anasthetic
to delay absorption of the anesthetic from its injection site.
What is the most widely employed agent?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

Dopamin
Phenylephrine
Levonordephrine
Coccaine
Epinephrine

111. A 28-years-old woman came to out-patient department with

pain in her tooth. From oral examinaton she suffered dental
caries. Before taking further treatment, the doctor gave her

114. An 18 yo woman with chief complained of papules on face

and back, diagnosed of acne vulgaris. The doctor planned to
give systemic treatment with tetracycline 500 mg cap orally
3 times a day after meal for 5 days. Which of the following is
the proper prescription for the patient?
a.
R/ Tetracyclin cap 500 mg No. V; S.t.d.d. cap. 1. 1. h.a.c
b.
R/ Tetracyclin cap 500 mg No. XV; S.t.d.d. cap. 1. p.c
c.
Tetracyclin cap No. XV; S.t.d.d. cap. 1. 1. h.p.c
d.
Tetracyclin cap. No XV 500 mg; S.t.d.d. 3 cap. 1. p.c
e.
Tetracyclin cap 500 mg; S.t.d.d. cap. 1. h.a.c
115. A 50 yo woman comes to the outpatient clinic with a chief
complaint pain on her both knees since a week ago. Pain was
felt particularly in the morning. The doctor diagnoses
rheumatoid arthritis, and he wants to give his patient
Diclofenac sodium emulgel, 1 %, number of tube 1, quantity
of tube 20g, twice a day. Which of the following is the
signature in Latin term on theprescription order for topical
preparation?

a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

S.s.d.d.applic
S.b.d.d.applic
S.t.d.d.applic
S.q.d.d.applic
S.d.i.d.applic

116. A 55 yo woman comes to the outpatient clinic with a chief

complain pain on her both knees since week ago. Pain is felt
particularly in the morning. The doctor diagnoses
Rheumatoid Arthritis, & wants to give his patient Diclofenac
sodium 50mg tab orally thrice a day 1 hour after meal for
5days. Which of the following is the signature in Latin term
on the prescription?
a.
S.s.d.d. tab 1
b.
S.t.d.d tab 1
c.
S.t.d.d. tab 1. 1 h.a.c
d.
S.t.d.d. tab 1. 1 h.p.c
e.
S.q.d.d. tab 1. 1 h.a.c
117. Morphine produces an analgesic effect due to:
a.
A block of potassium efflux from a neuron; b.d.d.
part.dol.applic
b.
An increase in C-AMP accumulation in a neuron; S.t.d.d.
part.dol.applic
c.
A decrease in intracellular Ca in a neuron; S.b.d.d. part. dol.
Applic
d.
Interaction with a G protein in the neuron; S.d.d. part. dol.
Applic
e.
An increase in calcium channel phosphorylation in the
neuron; S.t.d.d. part.dol.applic
For questions number 118 to 122, refer to the options
below:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.

-keratin
collagen
elastin
hyaluronic acid
myosin
actin

118. These molecules serve as lubricants in the synovial fluid of

joint.
119. The synthesis of these molecules requires vitamin C.

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120. These molecules aggregation forming structure called thick

filament.

121.these molecules that are constituent of almost entire dry

weight of hair
122.molecules produces two way stretch with elasticity

128. Dermal structure that originate from invagination of the

epidermis include:
A. The accessory organs of the intergument
B. Sweat and sebaceous glands
C. The intergumentary appendages
D. Nails and hair
E. All the above

123.which epidermal layer found in thick skin

a.stratum spinosum
b.stratum corneum
c.stratum graulosum
d.stratum lucidium
e.stratum basale

129. 2major region of the dermis are the superficial __________

layer and deeper ___________layer
A. Collagenous; elastic
B. papillary; reticular
C. reticular; papillary
D. areolar; adipose
E. desmosomes; tight junction

124.from the basement membrane outward, the strata of the

epidermis are:
A. Corneum, granulosum, spinosum, basale
B. Basale, spinosum, granulosum, corneum
C. Lucidum, basale, granulosum, corneum
D. Granulosum, spinosum, basale, corneum
E. Basale, granulosum, spinosum, corneum
125. What are the most abundant cells found in the epidermis?
A. Melanocytes
B. Merkel cells
C. Keratinocytes
D. Langerhans cells
E. Epithel cells

130. The dermal papillae interlock with deep projection of

epidermis is called:
A. Epidermal ridges
B. The papillary layer
C. Desmosomes
D. Tight junctions
E. Reticular
131. Stretch marks, or striae, are the result of
A.
Excessive stretching of the epidermis
B.
Torn collagen fibers in the dermis
C.
An overabundance of elastic fibers
D.
Hiperactivity of elastic fibers
E.
All the above
132.

126. The terms thick and thin refer to the relative thickness of the:
A. Entire integument
B. Cutaneous and subcutaneous layers
C. Epidermis only
D. Dermis only
127. which of the following makes no significant contribution of
skin color?
A. Hemoglobin
B. Keratin
C. Melanin
D. Carotene
E. Vitamin A

10

133.

Which statement about the subcutaneous layer is

false?
A.
It consists of areolar connective tissue and
adipose connective tissue
B.
It stabilizes the position of the skin and binds it
to the underlying tissue
C.
Corresponding to larger body size, it is normally
thicker in men than in women
D.
Also called the hypodermis or superficial fascia,
it is not part of the integument
Both hair and nails are composed mainly of dead cells
packed with
A.
Melanin
B.
Collagen
C.
Carotene

D.
E.
134.

Keratin
Elastin

The lunula, eponychium, and hyponichium are all

structures associated with a
A.
Sweat gland
B.
Nail
C.
Hair
D.
Hair follicle
E.
Hair root

135. The connective tissue root sheath and epithelial root

sheath are both components of the
A.
Hair follicle
B.
Hair root
C.
Hair bulb
D.
Hair papilla
E.
Nail
136.

Which type of gland secretes a lipid material that

coats the epidermis and hair shafts to provide
lubrication and inhibit bacterial growth?
A.
Sebaceous
B.
Sudoriferous
C.
Eccrine
D.
Apocrine
E.
Merocrine

137.

Which selection correctly pairs the type of cartilage

with one of its locations in the body?
A.
Hyaline cartilage, trachea
B.
Fibrocartilage, epiphyseal plates
C.
Elastc cartilage, menisci
D.
Hyaline cartilage, epiglotis
E.
Elastic cartilage, epiglotis

138.

Fibrocartilage is found in which of these structures?

A.
Auricle of the ear and external auditory canal
B.
Larynx and articular surfaces of bones
C.
Intervertebral discs and pubic symphysis
D.
Patellar joint
E.
Shoulder joint

139. Hemopoiesis is the process of

A.
Bone formation
B.
Cartilage formation

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C.
D.

Blood cell formation

Entrapment of blood vessels by developing
bone
E.
Blood cell deterioration
140. Which bone cell secrete osteoid (the initial semisolid
form of bone)?
A.
Osteocytes
B.
Osteoprogenitor cells
C.
Osteoblasts
D.
Ostoeclasts
E.
Progenitor cells
141. which of the following are components of compact bone, but
not of an......(soal ga lengkap)
a. perforating canals and circumferential lamellae
b. central canal and concentric lamellae
c. osteocytes, lacunae and canaliculi
d. central canal and canaliculi
e. all of the part of an osteon
142. at each of a long bone is an expanded, knobby region called
the:
a. head
b. metaphysis
c.diaphysis
d. epiphysis
e. tail
143. which of the following does not accurately describe spongy
bone?
a. contains slightly larger osteons than compact bone
b. composed of parallel lamellae with ostoecytes in between
c. provides great resistance to stresses applied in many directions
d. forms an open meshwork narrow plates called trabeculae
144. yellow bone marrow contains a large proportion of:
a. reticulocytes
b. fatty tissue
c. fibroblast
d.elastic fibers
e. protein
145. interstitial growth of a bone occurs in the:
a. articular cartilage
b. epiphyseal plate
c. diaphyseal line
d. center of the shaft

11

e. interstitial growth
146. a typical bone has which of the following major sets of blood
vessels?
a. primary,secondary, and tertiary
b. haversian, volkmanns and connecting
c. epiphyseal, metaphyseal and diaphyseal
d. nutrient, metaphyseal and periosteal
e. arterail, venous, capillary
147. Which of the following thyroid gland hormone encourages ca
dispersion into bone and inhibits osteoclast activity?
a. growth hormone
b. somatostatin
c. calcitonin
d. thyroid hormone
e. calcium

A .Plantar joint
B.Suture
C.synovial joint
D symphysis
E syndstosis

148. ___produces new bone, while______reabsorb bone

a. osteoclasts, osteocytes
b. osteoblasts, osteoclasts
c. osteoclasts, osteoblasts
d. osteocytes, osteoblasts
e. osteoblast, osteocytes

154.the types of muscle tissue are

A. Voluntary ,involuntary ,Cardiac
B. Skeletal ,cardiac ,smooth
C. Striated, unstriated,rough
D.Striated ,skeletal,Voluntary
E. Red muscle ,White muscle ,involuntary

149. The 3 structural classes of articulation are:

a. sychondroses, symphyses, and fibrous joints
b. syarthroses, amphiarthroses and diarthroses
c. fibrous, cartilaginous, and synovial joints
d. gomphoses, sutures, synostoses
e. syndesmoses, sympyses and ampiarthroses

155.The layer of dense irregular connective tissue that surround

the entire Skeletal Muscle is the
A. Sarcolemea
B. Perimysium
C.Eudomysium
D.Epimysium
E.Myofibril

150. what are the 3 functional joints

a. synarthroses, amphiarthroses, diarthroses
b.planar, condyloid, ball and socket
c.uniaxial,biaxial, multiaxial
d. syndesmoses, symphyses, ampiarthroses
e. gomphoses, sutures, synostoses
151. epiphysial plates in gliding below is an example of what
articulation
A synohondrosis
B Symphysis
C syndesmosis
D Synostosis
E suture

153. Which term describes a joint injury in which the articulating

bone have separated ?
A. Sprain
B. Strain
C.Dislocation
D. Bursitis
e. fracture

156. What is the cell membrane of muscle fiber called?

a. endomysium
b. sarcomere
c. sarcolemma
d. myofibril
e. myofilaments
157. A thick, fibrous connective tissue cord that attaches a muscle
to abone is called:
a. a ligament
b. a tendon
c. a raphe
d. an aponeurosis
e. a sarcolemma

152.Articulating bones separated only by a pad of a fibrocartilage

to

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158.Which structure extend into the sacroplasm as a network of

deep invagination of the sarcolemma
A. Transverse tubule
B. Sacroplasmic Reticulum
C. Terminal cisternae
D. Cross bridge
E. Neuromuscular junction

b. the first priority is to provide initial basic fluid resuscitation

c. once fluid resuscitation hascommenced, other trauma should be
excluded
d. a 30% partial thickness burn injury with combined severe head
injury (gcs 7) should initially be managed by neurosurgeons if
combined care is not available
e. singed nasal hair should prompt immediate intubation

159. The functional contractile unit of a skeletal muscle fiber are

the:
A.Myofilament
B.Transverse tubule
C. Sarcomeres
D.Sarcolemmae
E.Actinomyosin

165. with respect to pediatric burns wotf is true?

a. they have lower energy needs
b. they have thicker skin
c. they have larger surface area to body mass ratio
d. renal concentrating ability is better than adult
e. hypertropic scarring is less common

160. A reduction in muscle size, Tone, power is called

A .Atrophy
B. Spasm
C.Hypertrophy
D.Hyperplasia
E.Dystrophy
161. A muscle impulse travels deep into muscle fiber along:
A.
The sarcolemma
B.
T-tubule membrane
C.
The endomysium
D.
Myofibrils
E.
Action potential
162. When stimulated by muscle impulse, what do the terminal
cisternae release into sarcoplasm?
A.
Sodium, Na+
B.
Calcium, Ca2+
C.
Adenosine triphosphate, ATP
D.
Acetylcholine, Ach
E.
Kalium, K+
163. Systemic effects of major burn include:
A.
Increase in venous return
B.
Increase in cardiac preload
C.
Decrease in systemic vascular resistance
D.
Increase in pulmonary vascular resistance
E.
Hyperproteinaemia
164. in the primary treatment of burn
a. the first priority is to assess the precentage surface area of burn

12

166. which one of the following contributes to poor wound

healing?
a. hepatitis C
b. vit A deficiency
c. vit B deficiency
d. dm
e. autism
167. a young man was brought with a burn injury. on examining
you remember the following about full thickness burn
a. the hair follicle and sweat gland are likely to be spared
b. the patient felt no sensation on the burn site
c. bullous lesion are often seen
d. 10% of burn carries a 80% mortality
e. electrical burns are usually split thickness
168. You are the first medical attendance to arrive at the scene of
accident. what should you do first when Acutely injured patient,
assuming that person had already moved out the danger?
A.
Clear airway
B.
Stabilize cervical spine
C.
arrest arterial hemorrhage
D.
relieve tension pneumothorax
E.
Check conscious level
169. After successful resuscitation, wotf is the commonest cause of
death in patient with multiple skeletal and soft tissues injury
A.
Renal failure
B.
Hipovolemic shock
C.
Septic shock
D.
Pulmonary embolism
E.
ventilator failure

170. wotf statement about Orbital blow out fracture is most

accurate
A.
It is nearly always associated with diplopia on looking
forward
B.
It usually follow penetrating injury
C.
The roof of orbit is usual site of fracture
D.
either fat or muscle may be caught in the fracture
E.
there is usually an associated cranial nerve injury
171. A 24-year old male, came to your emergency department
while you are on duty. He came with history of burn from burned
stove. His kitchen didnt have any window. On physical exam, you
could find he had partial thickness burn about 50% of TBSA. Which
one of the cause below most likely is cause of death?
A.
Severe burn injury
B.
Inhalation injury
C.
Circumferential burn
D.
Hypertrophic scars
E.
Acute renal failure
172. An 18 year old male came to your emergency department,
because of motorcycle accident with examination, he had
decreased consciousness & significant bleeding from the mouth
and nose. He complained difficulty opening his lower jaw. What is
the 1st priority for this patient?
A.
Give 100% O2 immediately
B.
Put Barton Sling around the mandible
C.
Maintain for the patency of airway
D.
Diagnosis the fracture quickly
E.
Put an intravenous line
173. A 15 year old boy with history of scalding injury 2 weeks ago.
The most probable grade of the burn injury?
A.
Grade I
B.
Grade IIa
C.
Grade IIb
D.
Grade III
E.
Grade IV
For question number 173 to 174, refer to scenario below:
A 15 year old boy with history of scalding injury 2 weeks ago.
174. What is the phase of wound healing process in patient
A.
Inflammation phase
B.
Haemostatic phase

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C.
D.
E.

Proliferation phase
Remodelling phase
Maturation phase

175. Which of the following statement TRUE regarding superficial

partial thickness burn?
A.
Most common cause due to sunlight
B.
Healed after 4 weeks
C.
Painless at the injury site
D.
Contracture frequent complication
E.
Bullous lesion of the skin
176. Which of these statement is regarding keloid?
A.
An elbow knee ankle are predilection area of keloid
B.
Spontaneously healed after 2 years
C.
Occur after week or month after initial injury
D.
Recurrent rate is lower compare hypertrophic scar
E.
Keloid doesnt grow larger from the initial injury site
177. Which of the following is a criteria of burn patient to specialist
A.
Burn more than 50 percent TBSA due to sunburn
B.
Increase voltage electrical burn
C.
Superficial burn 20 percent TBSA partial thickness
burn
D.
Partial thickness burn, 10 TBSA on posterior trunk of
adult male
E.
Partial thickness burn, 2 percent of TBSA on left thigh
of 2 years old boy
178. which of the following structures belongs to the femoral bone
A.
Spiral groove
B.
Transverse process
C.
Pubic tubercle
D.
Trochanter
E.
Greater tubercle
179. which of the following bones belong to Axial bone
A.
Sternum
B.
Clavicula
C.
Fibula
D.
Tibia
E.
Scapula
180. which of the following structures belongs to carpal bone
A.
Talus
B.
cuneiform
C.
Metacarpal

13

D.
E.

Scaphoid
Calcaneus

181. Which of the following muscles forms the medial

boundary of the axilla?
A.
Serratus anterior
B.
Subscapularis
C.
Pectoralis major
D.
Rhomboid
E.
Pectoralis minor
182. Which one of the muscles that crosses both the
shoulder and elbow joint?
A.
Coracobrachialis
B.
Deltoideus
C.
Biceps brachii
D.
Brachioradialis
E.
Brachialis
183. Which of the following statement is true about
posterior compartment of the forearm?
A.
The muscles of this compartment produce
flexion
B.
The muscles are innervated by radial nerve
C.
The muscles are innervated by median nerve
D.
The superficial muscles have the origin at the
medial epicondyle of humerus
E.
Pronator teres is one of the muscles
184. Which of the following muscles plays an important
role in reinforcing the shoulder joint as the rotator
cuff?
A.
Teres major
B.
Deltoid
C.
Serratus anterior
D.
Teres minor
E.
Pectoral major
185. Which of the following muscles has the origin at the
medial epicondyle of the humerus?
A.
Deep flexor digitorum
B.
Extensor carpi ulnaris
C.
Extensor carpi radialis
D.
Pronator teres
E.
Pronator quadratus

186. Which of the following muscles would be paralyzed

when the deep branch of the ulnar nerve injured?
A.
Hypothenar muscles
B.
Palmaris longus
C.
Thenar muscles
D.
Flexor carpi radialis
E.
Supinator
187. Which of the following statements is true concerning
the femoral nerve?
A.
Is the branch if the sacral plexus
B.
Innervates the biceps femoris
C.
Gives branch the fiburalis nerve
D.
Passes superficial to the inguinal ligament
E.
Is the branch of the lumbar plexus
188. Which of the following statements is true concerning
the obturator nerve?
A.
Is the branch of the lumbar plexus
B.
Innervates the semimembranosa
C.
Passes through the femoral canal
D.
Passes through ischiadic foramen
E.
Innervates the quadriceps femoris
189. Which of the following statements is true concerning
the median nerve
A.
Is the branch of the posterior cord of the
brachial plexus
B.
Innervates the biceps brachii muscle
C.
Gives branch the posterior interosseus nerve
D.
Passes superficial to the carpal tunnel
E.
Is the branch of the lateral and medial cord of
the brachial plexus
190. If the fracture occurs at the neck of the fibula, the
bone fragments usually injured
A.
Lateral sural cutaneus
B.
Tibial nerve
C.
Common peroneal nerve
D.
Deep peroneal
E.
Saphenous nerve

191. An 18 year old patient has been improperly filled with

axillary type crutches, which have put on the posterior cord of

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the brachial plexus. Which of the following terminal nerve would

most likely be affected?

b. weakness of abduction of the arm at the shoulder

198) You are explaining the anatomy of the shoulder to young

athlete who has injury on one of his shoulders. You tell him the
chief stability to this joint is from the :

c. weakness of extension of the forearm at the elbow

a. glenohumeral ligaments

d. weakness of flexion of the forearm at the elbow

b. acromioclavicular ligament

e.weakness of supination of the forearm and hand

c. rotator cuff muscles

195.A 22-year-old man is brough to the emergency department

with a knife injury to the axilla. The physician suspects injury to the
lower brachial plexus. Which of the following nerves is most likely
to be affected?

d. coracoclavicular ligaments

a. weakness of abduction of the arm at the shoulder

A. Axillary nerve
B. Musculocutaneous nerve
C. Median nerve
D. Radial nerve
E. Ulnar nerve
192. A 24-year-old man is noted to have a midshaft humeral
fracture after falling from a scaffold.Which of the is the following
muscle tests would you perform to test the integrity of the radial
nerve?

a. axillary nerve

e. coracohumeral ligaments
199) Your patient with hip dislocation is also exhibiting weakness
of extension of the thigh at the hip joint. This would indicate
possible damage to the :

b. musculocutaneous nerve
A.flexion of forearm at elbow joint

A. Femoral nerve
c. vagus nerve

B.flexion of hand at wrist joint

B. Obturator nerve
d. radial nerve

C.extension of hand at wrist joint

C. Common fibular portion of the sciatic nerve

e. ulnar nerve

D.abduction of index,middle, ring and little finger

E.adduction of index,middle, ring and little finger
193. A 12 year-old boy is diagnosed with an upper brachial plexus
injury after falling from a tree.He presents with his right upper arm
at his side due to loss of abducton. The muscle primary responsible
for abduction of the arm at shoulder are the
A.deltoid and biceps brachii muscles
B.deltoid and supraspinatusmuscles

D. Tibial portion of the sciatic nerve

196.you are examining an axial (cross section) magnetic resonance
imaging (MRI) scan of the wrist and have identified the carpal
tunnel. The structure that forms the anterior wall of the tunnel is
the :
a.palmaraponeurosis
b.volar carpal ligament
c.flexor retinaculum
d.extensor retinaculum
e.deep fascia
197.you are evaluating a radiograph of the only bony articulation
between the upper limb and trunk.

E. Saphenous nerve
200) Your patient has the ankle joint injury. You concerned that
your patients medial deltoid ligament may have been torn from its
proximal attachment.
Which of the following would you palpate for tenderness ?
a.

The medial aspect of the tibial shaft

b.

The lateral aspect of the fibular shaft

c.

The medial malleolus

d.

The lateral malleolus

e.

The calcaneus

C.deltoid and infraspinatusmuscles

D.infraspinatus and supraspinatusmuscles
E.choracobrachialis and supraspinatusmuscles
194. Injury to the lateral cord of the brachial plexus will also injure
its continuation, the musculocutaneous nerve. Which of the
following findings would you observe in a patient with this injury ?

14

whichof the following joint you are evaluating?

a.glenohumeral joint
b.acromioclavicular joint
c.humeroclavicular joint
d.coracoclavicular joint
e.sternoclavicular joint

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