JEE Main 2014 - Test 4 (Paper I) Code A

29/12/2013
Roll No.:
Test Date:
Centre Code:
Test Booklet Code
TEST No. 4
for
JEE (Main) 2014
ES
RI
ALL
S
H TE
A
K
A
A
ST
IA
SE
IN
PAPER - I
INSTRUCTIONS FOR CANDIDATE

1. Read each question carefully.
2. It is mandatory to use Black Ball point PEN to darken the
appropriate circle in the answer sheet.
3. Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
4. Rough work must not be done on the answer sheet.
5. Do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on
answer sheet.
6. Student cannot use log tables and calculators or any other
material in the examination hall.
7. Before attempting the question paper, student should
ensure that the test paper contains all pages and no page
is missing.
8. Before handing over the answer sheet to the invigilator,
candidate should check that Roll No., Centre Code and
Date of Birth have been filled and marked correctly.
9. Immediately after the prescribed examination time is over,

the answer sheet to be returned to the invigilator.
10. There are three parts in the question paper A, B and C
consisting of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics
having 30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each
question is allotted 4 (four) marks for each correct
response.
11. The Test booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum
marks are 360.
12. One fourth () marks will be deducted for indicating
incorrect response of each question. No deduction from
the total score will be made if no response is indicated for
any question in the answer sheet.
13. Pattern of the questions are as under:
Section I : Straight Objective Type Questions
Section II : Assertion Reason Type Questions
Test No. 4
Paper I
TOPICS OF THE TEST
Physics
Waves, Kinetic Theory, Thermodynamics, Thermal Properties of Matter
Chemistry
Hydrogen, The s-Block Elements, The p-Block Elements (Group-13 to

Group-18)
Mathematics
Straight Lines, Conic Sections, Linear Inequalities, Mathematical Reasoning
Test - 4 (Paper-I)
All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014
Time : 3 Hrs.
MM : 360
TEST - 4 (Paper-1)
PART - A (PHYSICS)
SECTION - I
Straight Objective Type Questions

This section contains 25 multiple choice questions
numbered 1 to 25. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2),
(3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
4.
2.
Wavelength of a sound wave of frequency 707 Hz,

travelling inside water is (Bulk modulus of water =
2 109 Pa)
(1) 1 m
(2) 2 m
(3) 3.5 m
(4) 7 m
Equation of a transverse wave travelling in a medium

is given by y = 10 sin (200 t 0.01 x). Where y and
x are expressed in cm and time in second. The
maximum transverse speed and maximum transverse
acceleration of a particle in the medium are
6.
(2) 10 cm/s, 40 cm/s2 respectively

Figure shows a transverse travelling wave that
propagates with 100 m/s i . Velocity of point P
shown in figure is
j
P
37
(3) 50 m/s j
(4) 50 m/s j
Molar heat capacity at constant volume of an ideal

gas is 2R. Slope of (PV graph) will be
(3)
5.
3.
(2) 75 m/s j
(1) 2P
Choose the correct answer :

1.
(1) 75 m/s j
3
P
2
(2) 2P
(4)
3
P
2
In a stationary wave pattern that forms as a result of

reflection of waves from an obstacle, the ratio of the
amplitude at an antinode and a node is 4 : 1.
Percentage of energy of wave passes across the
obstacle is
(1) 96%
(2) 32%
(3) 48%
(4) 64%
A standing wave is formed by two harmonic waves,

y1 = a sin(bx ct) and y2 = a sin(bx + ct) travelling
on a string in opposite directions. Linear mass
density of the string is . Total mechanical energy
between two consecutive nodes on the string is
(1)
a 2c 2
b
(2)
a2c 2
b
(3)
a2b2
c
(4)
b 2c 2
a
Space for Rough Work
1/12

7.
8.
A sound absorber is fitted at a window of area

3 m2 which opens in a busy street. If the street
noise results an intensity level of 60 dB at the
window, amount of energy from street collected by
the sound absorber per second would be
(1) 2 J
(2) 0.180 J
(3) 3 J
(4) 0.10 J
(3)
9.
v0
3
v0
2
(2)
(4)
v0
3 3
v0
3
Two tuning forks with natural frequencies 170 Hz

each move relative to a stationary observer. One fork
moves away from the observer while the other moves
towards him at the same speed. The observer hears
beats of frequency 2 Hz. Speed of the tuning fork is
(velocity of sound in air is 340 m/s)
(1) 1 m/s
(2) 1.5 m/s
(3) 2 m/s
(4) 2.5 m/s
(2) 110 N
(3) 121 N
(4) 165 N
(1) 246 Hz
(3) 252.5 Hz
(4) 247.5 Hz
12. Two waves of equal frequencies have their intensities
in ratio 9 : 25. If these two waves interfere, then the
ratio of the maximum and minimum possible
amplitudes in the resultant waves is
(1) 3 : 5
(2) 4 : 5
(3) 4 : 1
(4) 2 : 1
13. Filament of an incandescent bulb has length and

radius of cross-section r. Rating of the bulb is (P
watt, V volt). Emissivity of the filament is and
wein's constant is b. Wavelength of the most intense
radiation emitted by the filament, if the bulb is
operated at half of the rating voltage, is ( = Stefan's
constant)
1
2 r 4
(1) b
10. A tube 0.75 m long is closed at one end. A stretched

wire is placed near the open end. The wire is
0.25 m long and has a mass of 0.01 kg. It is held
fixed at both ends and vibrates in its fundamental
mode. It sets the air column in the tube into vibration
at its fundamental frequency by resonance. If speed
of sound is 330 m/s in air then tension in the wire is
(1) 55 N
11. Two tuning forks A and B when set in vibration, give

4 beats per second. If a prong of the fork A is filled,
the beats are reduced to 5 beats per 2 second. If
frequency of fork B is 250 Hz then frequency of A is
(2) 254 Hz
A fighter jet moving in a vertical circle with constant

speed of radius R. The centre of the circle is at a
height h = 2R directly overhead of an observer
standing on the ground. The oiserver receives
maximum frequency of sound produced by the plane
when it is nearest to him. If speed of sound in air is
v0, speed of fighter jet is
(1)
Test - 4 (Paper-I)
4 r 4
(2) b
8 r 2
(3) b
2/12
8 r 4
(4) b
Test - 4 (Paper-I)
14. Three rods AB, BC, CA are joined to form a triangle

ABC. Length of the rods AB and AC each are equal
to b and their coefficient of linear expansion is 1
whereas length of rod BC is a and its coefficient of
b
, such that the
a
height h does not change upon heating the rods by
same temperature, is
linear expansion is 2. Ratio
1 2
(1) 2
1
(2)
2
1
2
(3) 2
1
17. Assuming average molar mass of gases in the

Earth's atmosphere to be 29 g/mole, the temperature
at which Earth will be lack of atmosphere is (Radius
of Earth = 6.4 106 m and g = 9.8 m/s2)
(1) 10 103 K
(2) 1.46 105 K
(3) 0.73 105 K
(4) 2.92 105 K
18. If the temperature of atmosphere T varies with height

h as T = T0 (1 h) where is a positive fraction.
Assuming average molar mass of air to be M and
the air to be an ideal gas, the variation of pressure
P with height h is (atmospheric pressure at Earth
surface = P0)
Mg
(1) P P 1 h RT0
0
Mg
1 2
(4) 3
1
(2) P P 1 h RT0
0
Mg
(3) P P 1 h RT0
0
15. A platinum resistance thermometer reads 0C when

resistance is 100 and 100C when its resistance
is 120 . Reading of thermometer, when its
resistance is 112 , is
(1) 50
(2) 55
(3) 60
(4) 56
16. One gram mole of hydrogen gas at temperature

T0 K and pressure P0 pascal is enclosed in a vessel.
Assuming Boltzmann's constant to be k, Avogadro's
number to be NA and speed of molecules to be root
mean square speed (and m is molar mass), the
number of collisions per second which the molecule
make with one square meter area of vessel wall is
(1)
P02N A
24 KT0 m
(2)
P02 NA
12KT0 m
(3)
500 P02NA
3 KT0 m
(4)
P02 N A
2KT0 m
(4) P P (1 h )
0
RT0
Mg
CP
19. An ideal gas C is taken through a process

V
in which the pressure and the volume vary such that

P = V . The value of , for which molar heat
capacity of gas is zero, is
(1)
(3)
(2)
(4) 2
20. 1.0 g of pure water vaporises isobarically at

atmospheric pressure such that its volume changes
from vliquid = 1.0 cm3 to vvapour = 1671 cm3. If latent
heat of vaporisation of water is LV = 2.26 106 J/kg
and atmospheric pressure P0 = 1.0 105 Pa, the
change in internal energy of the system is
(1) 169 J
(2) 2260 J
(3) 2091 J
(4) 2009 J
3/12

21. An ideal monoatomic gas undergoes a process such
that its internal energy relates to the volume as
Test - 4 (Paper-I)
23. Two moles of a diatomic ideal gas is taken through
(1) 1.5 R
, where a is a positive constant.

T
Temperature of gas is increased from T0 to 2T0, work
done by the gas is
(2) 2.5 R
(1) 2 RT0
(3) 3.5 R
(2) 4 RT0
(4) 4.5 R
(3) 6 RT0
U a V , where a is a constant. Molar specific

heat of the gas is
22. Pressure versus temperature (P T) graph of n

moles of an ideal gas is shown in figure.
Corresponding density versus volume ( V) graph
is
2P0
P0
A
T
2T0
(1)
C
A, D
V
(2)
(1) 0.10 g
(2) 0.11 g
(3) 0.42 g
(4) 0.50 g
25. A cup of coffee cools down from 54C to 45C in

5 minute. How much further time in minutes it will
take to cool down to 36C, if the room temperature
is 18C?
B, C
24. A bullet of mass 10 g moving with speed of 120 m/s

hits an ice block of mass 990 g kept on a
frictionless horizontal floor and gets embedded into
it. Temperature of ice block is 0C and its latent heat
3
th of the energy lost
4
in collision is converted into heat, mass of ice
melted is
T0
(4) 8 RT0
of fusion is 80 calory/gram. If
4P0
a process, P
A
V
(1) 5
(2) 7
(3) 9
(4) 11
SECTION - II
Assertion Reason Type Questions
C, B
(3)
(4)
A, D
B
A
D
V
Directions : Questions number 26 to 30 are AssertionReason type questions. Each of these questions
contains two statements. Statement-1 (Assertion) and
Statement-2 (Reason). Each of these questions also has
four alternative choices, only one of which is the correct
answer. You have to select the correct choice.
4/12
Test - 4 (Paper-I)
26. Statement-1 : Two waves y1 = Acos(t + kx) and

y2 = Acos(t kx) are superimposed. At x = 0,
there forms a node.
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;

Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
and
Statement-2 : At node, net displacement due to two
waves should be zero.
Statement-1
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
27. Statement-1 : A wire is stretched and then fixed at
two ends. It oscillates in its seventh overtone mode.
Number of nodes and antinodes on the wire are 9
and 8 respectively.
and
Statement-2 : For a wire stretched and fixed at both
of ends, the length of wire and wavelength of wave
are related as = 7.5 corresponding to its
oscillation in seventh overtone mode.
Statement-1
Statement-1
28. Statement-1 : Transverse waves cannot be produced
in gaseous medium.
and
Statement-2 : Gaseous medium possess no
modulus of rigidity.

Statement-1
29. Statement-1 : A cube of ice melts in open
atmosphere. Some amount of work is done by
atmosphere on (ice + water) system.
and
Statement-2 : Volume of water converted from melting
ice is lesser than its volume.
Statement-1
Statement-1
30. Statement-1 : Deserts are hotter in the sunny days
but colder in nights.
and
Statement-2 : According to Kirchhoff's law, emissivity
of a body is equal to its absorptive power, this is why
deserts have high emissivity as their absorptive
power is high.
Statement-1
Statement-1
5/12
Test - 4 (Paper-I)
PART - B (CHEMISTRY)
36. What is the product when FeS2 is oxidized by O2?
SECTION - I
(1) FeO and SO2

31. The order of Lewis acidic strength for boron halides
follow the order
(1) BBr3 > BCl3 > BF3
(2) BF3 > BCl3 > BBr3
(3) BCl3 > BF3 > BBr3
(4) BBr3 > BF3 > BCl3
32. Which of the following is not correct for diborane?
(1) Each boron atom has four bonds around it
(2) Each boron is sp3 hybridized hence HBH bond
angles are of measure 10928
(3) Maximum number of atoms lie on a plane is
equal to 6
(4) B2H6 may act as reducing agent but can never
act as oxidising agent
33. When PCl3 is hydrolysed then oxyacid of phosphrus
is formed. The basicity of oxyacid is
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
34. When ammoniacal solution of common salt is

saturated with CO2, then product formed is
(1) NH4HCO3
(2) (NH4)2CO3
(3) NaHCO3
(4) Na2CO3
35. Which of the following is the correct sequence of

dipole moment for MH3Cl, where M is the 14th group
element?
(2) Fe2O3 and SO3

(3) FeO and SO3
(4) Fe2O3 and SO2
37. 50% H2SO4 on electrolysis produces the compound
around anode which on complete hydrolysis
produces one of the compound, which can act as
reducing agent, the compound is
(1) H2SO4
(2) H2S2O8
(3) H2O
(4) H2O2
38. Which of the following is the correct order of bond

dissociation energy?
(1) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2
(2) Cl2 > Br2 > I2 > F2
(3) Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > I2
(4) Cl2 > F2 > Br2 > I2
39. Which of the following compound on hydrolysis form
two types of acids?
(1) N2O5
(2) N2O
(3) N2O4
(4) N2O3
40. XeF6 on reaction with BF3 donates one of its fluoride

to BF3 then what is the oxidation number of Xe in
final compound?
(1) 5
(2) 6
(3) 7
(4) 4
41. Which of the following is used to block silicones

chain?
(1) MeSiCl3
(2) Me2SiCl2
(1) C > Si > Ge
(2) Ge > C > Si
(3) Me3SiCl
(3) Si > C > Ge
(4) C > Ge > Si
(4) Me4Si
6/12
Test - 4 (Paper-I)
42. Which of the following bicarbonate is least

thermodynamically stable?
48. When P4 (white phosphorus) reacts with SOCl2 it

does not form
(1) KHCO3
(2) LiHCO3
(1) PCl5
(2) PCl3
(3) NaHCO3
(4) CsHCO3
(3) SO2
(4) S2Cl2
43. When I2 dissolves in KI it forms
49. Which of the following can act as a reducing agent?
(1) A compound which can reduce Na2S2O3
(1) H3PO4
(2) H4P2O7
(2) Compound which is white in colour
(3) H3PO3
(4) (HPO3)3
(3) Compound has atom with linear shape
50. Which of the following compound does not exist?
(4) I2 in vapour phase

44. Which of the following can produce apple green
flame in flame test?
(1) Li+
(2) K+
(3) Ca2+
(4) Ba2+
45. KNH2 with NH4Br on reaction to form product by using

(1) Acid base reaction
(2) SeCl2
(3) TeCl2
(4) OCl2
51. Which of the following nitrates on heating to lowest

temperature form metal oxide?
(1) LiNO3
(2) NaNO3
(3) KNO3
(4) CsNO3
52. Which of the following starred bond is most stable?
(2) Redox reaction
* H
*
(1) Cl3C
(3) Decomposition reaction
* D
*
(2) Cl3C
(4) Condensation reaction

46. Which of the following causes temporary hardness
to H2O?
(1) CaCl2
* T*
(3) Cl3C
(4) All of these are identically stable
53. Which of the following is not known?
(2) MgCl2
(3) CaSO4
(4) Ca(HCO3)2
47. If a H2O2 sample has volume strength 10 V then
how many molecules of H2O2 are present in 224 mL
solution of it?
(1) 6.022
(1) SCl2
1020
(2) 2 103
(1) HOBr
(2) HOBrO
(3) HBrO3
(4) HBrO4
54. In XeF2, the bond angle is

(1) 90
(2) 120
(3) 10928
(4) 180
55. In which of the following silicate, all four oxygen

around silicon are shared with other units?
(3) 12.044 1022
(1) Pyrosilicate
(2) Linear silicates
(4) 103
(3) Sheet silicates
(4) 3-D silicates
7/12
Test - 4 (Paper-I)
58. Statement-1 : H2O2 has open book structure.
SECTION - II
and

56. Statement-1 : F2 is a strongest oxidizing agent
among all halogens.
Statement-2 : H 2 O 2 has H-bonding among

molecules.
Statement-1
Statement-1
and
Statement-2 : Fluorine has highest electronegativity
among all elements.
Statement-1
Statement-1
57. Statement-1 : NH3 is highly water soluble.
59. Statement-1 : Sodium in liquid ammonia (3 M) forms

a diamagnetic solution.
and
Statement-2 : Sodium in liquid ammonia (dilute
solution) shows reducing property.
Statement-1
Statement-1
and
60. Statement-1 : Cs can melt even on palm.
Statement-2 : NH3 forms hydrogen bond with H2O.
and

Statement-1
Statement-2 : Cs have very weak metallic bonding.

Statement-1

Statement-1
Statement-1
8/12
Test - 4 (Paper-I)
PART - C (MATHEMATICS)
(1) x2 + y2 4x 8y 30 = 0
SECTION - I
(2) x2 + y2 + 4x 8y 30 = 0

61. A rectangle PQRS joins the points P, Q, R, S.
Co-ordinates of P and R be (2, 3) and (8, 11)
respectively. The line QS is known to be parallel to
the y-axis. Then coordinates of Q and S are
(1) (0, 7) and (10, 7)
(2) (5, 2) and (5, 12)
(3) (7, 6) and (7, 10)
(4) (7, 2) and (7, 12)
62. The orthocenter of the triangle formed by pair of lines

3x2 + 5y2 + 8xy 5x 7y + 2 = 0 and x y = 0 is
1 1
(1) ,
2 2
2 1
(2) ,
3 3
1 1
(3) ,
3 3
(4) (1, 1)
(3) x2 + y2 + 4x + 8y 30 = 0
(4) x2 + y2 + 4x + 8y = 0
66. Let A, B, C be three points on a straight line such
that B lying between A and C. Consider all circles
passing through B and C. The points of contact of
the tangents from A to these circles lie on
(1) A straight line
(2) A parabola
(3) A circle
(4) Ellipse
67. The eccentricity of the curve x
a 1
t
2 t , where t is a parameter, is
(1)
1
2
(3) 2
63. If the two feet of normals drawn from a point to the

parabola x2 6x 4y + 5 = 0 be (7, 3) and (1, 3),
then the third foot is
a 1
and
t
2 t
(2)
1
2
(4)
2
68. The four sides of a quadrilateral are given by equation
(xy + 12 4x 4y)2 = (2x 2y)2. The equation of a
line with slope
3 which divides area of
quadrilateral in two equal parts is
(1) (1, 0)
(2) (3, 8)
(1) y 3( x 4)
(2) y 3 x 4
(3) (3, 1)
(4) (5, 0)
(3) y 3( x 4) 4
(4) y 3( x 4)
64. Consider an ellipse with centre at the origin. From an

arbitrary point P on the ellipse, perpendiculars PA
and PB are dropped on the axes of the ellipse. Then
the locus of the point Q that divides AB in the fixed
ratio m : n may be
(1) Pair of straight lines (2) An ellipse
(3) A hyperbola
(4) Parabola
x2 y 2
1,
9
4
x2 y 2
1.
tangents are drawn to the hyperbola
18 8
The area cut-off by the chord of contact and the
asymptotes of the first hyperbola
69. From any point P on the hyperbola
(1) Depends only on abscissa of the point P
65. Let ABC be a triangle whose vertices are A(5, 5)

and B(7, 1). If vertex C lies on the circle whose
director circle has equation x2 + y2 = 100, then the
locus of orthocenter of ABC is
(2) Depends only on ordinate of point P

(3) Is 48 sq. unit
(4) Is 24 sq. unit
9/12

70. Tangents are drawn from (, ) to the hyperbola
3x2 2y2 = 6 and are inclined at angles 1, 2 to the
positive x-axis. If tan 1.tan 2 = 2, then value of
(22 2) is equal to
(1) 7
(2) 11
(3) 5
(4) 6
2
x
y
1 . If the square of its length is the H.M.

a2 b 2
of the squares of length of major and minor axes,
then slope of line may be equal to
(1) 2
(2)
(3) 1
(4)
(1) Greater than
1
2
1
3
(2) Less than or equal to

(3) Greater than
71. PQ is the chord passing through centre of the ellipse

2
Test - 4 (Paper-I)
2
3
(4) Less than or equal to
2
3
75. Equation of the parabola with latus rectum 2 2 units

and axis as the line x y =0 and tangent at the vertex
as x + y = 1, is (origin lies outside of parabola)
(1) x2 + y2 2xy + 4x + 4y + 4 = 0
(2) x2 + y2 2xy + 8x + 8y 8 = 0
(3) x2 + y2 2xy 4x 4y + 4 = 0
72. Line y = x + 2 is a tangent to the parabola y2 = 8x. Let

M be the point on this line from where other tangent is
drawn which is perpendicular to this tangent. The
distance of M from N ( 1, 2 2) is
(4) x2 + y2 2xy 2x 2y + 2 = 0
76. The number of points with integral coordinates that
lie in the interior of the region common to the circle
x2 + y2 = 16 and the parabola y2 = 4x is
(1) 2
(2) 3
(1) 10
(2) 16
(3) 1
(4) 5
(3) 17
(4) 13
x2 y 2
1 meets the
73. A tangent to the hyperbola
4
1
ellipse x2 + 4y2 = 4 at two distinct points. The locus
of mid point of this chord is
(1) (x2 + 4y2)2 = 4(x2 4y2)
x2 y 2
1 , the point M nearest to the

18 8
line 2x 3y + 25 = 0 is
8
(1) (3, 2)
(2) 2,
3
77. On the ellipse
(3) (3, 2)
(2) (x2 4y2)2 = x2 + 4y2

(3) (x2 + 4y2)2 = (x2 4y2)
(4) (x2 + 4y2)2 = 4(x2 + 4y2)
74. Let PQ be double ordinate of the hyperbola
x2 y 2
1 . If O is the centre of the hyperbola and

a2 b2
OPQ is an equilateral triangle, then its eccentricity
must be
78. Given a circle (x + 4)2 + (y 2)2 = 25. Another

circle is drawn passing through (4, 2) and touching
the given circle internally at the point A(4, 7). AB
is the chord of length 8 units of the larger circle
intersecting the other circle at the point C. Then AC
will be
(1) 4 units
(2)
(3) 5 units
(4) 3 units
10/12
(4) (3 2, 0)
17 units
Test - 4 (Paper-I)
79. The equation of the hyperbola whose foci are

symmetrically situated on the x-axis with respect to
the origin, the equation of the asymptotes as
4
y x and distance between foci being 20, is
3
(1)
x2 y 2
1
64 36
(2)
x2 y 2
1
16 9
(3)
x2 y 2
1
9 16
(4)
x2 y 2
1
36 64
(2)
1
2
x2 + y2 + 8x + 8y b = 0 is bisected by
x2 + y2 2x + 4y + a = 0, then a + b is equal to
(2) 2
(3) 64
(4) 14
82. A, B and C are 3 points on a circle with centre O.

The chord BA is extended to point T such that CT
becomes a tangent to the circle at point C. If
ATC = 20 and ACT = 40, then BOA is
(1) 120
(2) 150
(3) 160
(4) 170
83. The equation of the base of an equilateral triangle is

2x + y = 3 and vertex is (2, 3), then length of its
side is
(1)
8
15
(3)
4
15
(2)
(4)
4
3 5
(3) 17x 31y = 77
(4) 31x + 17y = 3
(1) (3, 1)
(2) (1, 3)
(3) (3, 1)
(4) (3, 1)
SECTION - II
2
1
(3)
(4)
3
6
81. If the circumference of the circle
(1) 56
(2) 17x + 31y = 45
f(x, y) = x2 4y2 6x + 8y + 3 will be free from first

degree terms, then the point is
x2 y 2
1
14 5
intersects it again at the point Q(2), then cos is
equal to
1
3
(1) x y = 3
85. If origin is moved to a point such that the

transformed expression for the expression
80. If normal at the point P() to the ellipse
(1)
84. An incident ray (L1) is reflected by the mirror (L2)

3x + 4y = 5 and equation of reflected ray (L3) is
x + y = 1, the equation of L1 is
86. Statement-1 : Equation of tangent passing through
(1, 1) to the circle x2 + y2 4x + 2y 1 = 0 is
x(1) + y(1) 2(x + 1) + (y + 1) 1 = 0
i.e., 2y x 2 = 0.
and
Statement-2 : Equation of tangent passing through
(0, 0) to the circle x2 + y2 x y = 0 is x + y = 0.
Statement-1
Statement-1
3 5

11/12
Test - 4 (Paper-I)
87. Statement-1 : Tangent of the angle intercepted by

the tangents drawn to the ellipse x2 + 4y2 = 4 at
(0, 2) is 4 3 .
and
89. Statement-1 : The equation x2 + y2 2xy + x + 1 = 0
Statement-2 : Angle intercepted by the tangents from

(x1, y1) to any ellipse is acute if (x1, y1) lies outside
the director circle and obtuse if (x1, y1) lies inside the
director circle and outside the ellipse.
Statement-2 : The point P on the line x + y = 1

such that PA + PB is minimum, where A(2, 0),
represents pair of straight lines if 2 2 .

and
4 1
B(0, 1) is , .
3 3

Statement-1

Statement-1

Statement-1

Statement-1

x2 y 2
88. Statement-1 : For ellipse 2 2 1 (a > b) and
a
b
2
2
x
y
hyperbola 2 2 1 . If e1 and e2 represent the
a
b
eccentricities of ellipse and hyperbola respectively
then e12 + e22 = 2.

90. Statement-1 : Triangle formed by the vertex and end
points of double ordinate of the parabola y2 = 4x is
an equilateral triangle, then area of triangle is 48 3
sq. units.
and
and
Statement-2 : If e 1 and e 2 are eccentricities of

hyperbola and conjugate hyperbola respectively, then
1
1
1.
e12 e22
Statement-2 : Area formed by the vertex and latus

rectum of the parabola y2 = 4x is 2 sq. units.
Statement-1

Statement-1

Statement-1

Statement-1
12/12
Test Booklet Code
Test No. 3
for
ES
RI
ALL
KASH TE
A
A
ST
IA
SE
IN
Paper I
JEE (Main) 2014
Test - 3 (Paper-I) (Answers & Hints)
All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2014
TEST - 3 (Paper-I)
ANSWERS
PHYSICS
CHEMISTRY
MATHEMATICS
1.
(1)
31.
(1)
61.
(2)
2.
(3)
32.
(3)
62.
(3)
3.
(4)
33.
(4)
63.
(2)
4.
(1)
34.
(2)
64.
(2)
5.
(4)
35.
(1)
65.
(3)
6.
(4)
36.
(3)
66.
(2)
7.
(3)
37.
(1)
67.
(4)
8.
(2)
38.
(3)
68.
(2)
9.
(3)
39.
(2)
69.
(2)
10.
(4)
40.
(1)
70.
(4)
11.
(2)
41.
(2)
71.
(1)
12.
(3)
42.
(1)
72.
(4)
13.
(3)
43.
(1)
73.
(1)
14.
(3)
44.
(2)
74.
(3)
15.
(2)
45.
(2)
75.
(2)
16.
(4)
46.
(4)
76.
(3)
17.
(Deleted)
47.
(3)
77.
(3)
18.
(3)
48.
(4)
78.
(4)
19.
(3)
49.
(2)
79.
(3)
20.
(4)
50.
(3)
80.
(3)
21.
(3)
51.
(1)
81.
(1)
22.
(3)
52.
(2)
82.
(2)
23.
(3)
53.
(3)
83.
(2)
24.
(1)
54.
(3)
84.
(2)
25.
(2)
55.
(4)
85.
(3)
26.
(2)
56.
(3)
86.
(1)
27.
(1)
57.
(4)
87.
(1)
28.
(1)
58.
(3)
88.
(1)
29.
(2)
59.
(1)
89.
(4)
30.
(3)
60.
(3)
90.
(4)
1/8

JEE Main 2014 - Test 4 (Paper I) Code A

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Test Booklet Code

JEE (Main) 2014

INSTRUCTIONS FOR CANDIDATE

9. Immediately after the prescribed examination time is over,

TOPICS OF THE TEST

Waves, Kinetic Theory, Thermodynamics, Thermal Properties of Matter

Hydrogen, The s-Block Elements, The p-Block Elements (Group-13 to

Straight Lines, Conic Sections, Linear Inequalities, Mathematical Reasoning

All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014

Straight Objective Type Questions

Wavelength of a sound wave of frequency 707 Hz,

Equation of a transverse wave travelling in a medium

(2) 10 cm/s, 40 cm/s2 respectively

Molar heat capacity at constant volume of an ideal

(1) 20 cm/s, 80 cm/s2 respectively

Choose the correct answer :

In a stationary wave pattern that forms as a result of

A standing wave is formed by two harmonic waves,

Space for Rough Work

All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014

A sound absorber is fitted at a window of area

Two tuning forks with natural frequencies 170 Hz

(2) 1.5 m/s

(4) 2.5 m/s

13. Filament of an incandescent bulb has length and

10. A tube 0.75 m long is closed at one end. A stretched

11. Two tuning forks A and B when set in vibration, give

A fighter jet moving in a vertical circle with constant

Space for Rough Work

All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014

14. Three rods AB, BC, CA are joined to form a triangle

linear expansion is 2. Ratio

17. Assuming average molar mass of gases in the

(2) 1.46 105 K

(3) 0.73 105 K

(4) 2.92 105 K

18. If the temperature of atmosphere T varies with height

15. A platinum resistance thermometer reads 0C when

16. One gram mole of hydrogen gas at temperature

19. An ideal gas C is taken through a process

in which the pressure and the volume vary such that

20. 1.0 g of pure water vaporises isobarically at

Space for Rough Work

All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014

, where a is a positive constant.

U a V , where a is a constant. Molar specific

22. Pressure versus temperature (P T) graph of n

25. A cup of coffee cools down from 54C to 45C in

24. A bullet of mass 10 g moving with speed of 120 m/s

Space for Rough Work

All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014

26. Statement-1 : Two waves y1 = Acos(t + kx) and

(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;

(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;

Space for Rough Work

All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014

(1) FeO and SO2

Straight Objective Type Questions

34. When ammoniacal solution of common salt is

35. Which of the following is the correct sequence of

(2) Fe2O3 and SO3

38. Which of the following is the correct order of bond