1

Which route description best defines a floating static route?

a route with a metric equal to the metric of a corresponding dynamic route
a route with a metric less than the metric of a corresponding dynamic route
a route with a metric greater than the metric of a corresponding dynamic route
a route with an administrative distance less than the administrative distance of a corresponding dynamic route
a route with an administrative distance greater than the administrative distance of a corresponding dynamic route*

The OSPF routing protocol is enabled on a network. The administrator would like to ena
a floating static route to be used as a backup. Which is the correct setting for the
administrative distance of the floating static route?
0
1
50
100
120*

The following line was displayed in the output of the show ip route command:
192.168.3.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.2.2, 00:00:30, Serial0/0
Which routing protocol is the source for this route?
BGP
EIGRP
ODR
OSPF
RIP*

What is the administrative distance of EIGRP-learned routes that have been injected int
EIGRP via redistribution?
1
90
100
110
170*

180

For ODR learned routes, what is the default administrative distance and metric that
displayed by the show ip route command?
[160/0]
[160/1]*
[170/0]
[170/1]

Which feature best defines the function of the IEEE 802.1x standard in the enterprise
architecture?
port level access control*
priority to real-time traffic
minimizing delay and jitter
provision for server load balancing

Which type of network traffic requires high reliability and security but can sustain a low
bandwidth connection in a converged network?
FTP traffic
IP telephony traffic
transactional traffic*
voice application traffic
video conferencing traffic

What is one role of QoS in a converged network?

to ensure that real-time traffic is not delayed*
to ensure that highest priority is given to transactional traffic
to ensure that all traffic above available bandwidth levels is dropped
to ensure that the interface bandwidth setting matches the actual data throughput

What are two Intelligent Information Network phases that involve sharing resources and
making the network "application aware"? (Choose two.)
integrated applications*
integrated standards
integrated services*
integrated security
integrated devices

Which statement about the Intelligent Information Network (IIN) is true?

The IIN is an industry-standard approach to designing a modern network.
The IIN is a framework that describes how to build a Service-Oriented Network Architecture (SONA).
The IIN defines a network design of three hierarchal layers consisting of the core, distribution, and access layers.
The IIN offers end-to-end functionality and a centralized, unified control that promotes true business transparency and agility.*

11 Which feature defines functionality that is found in the integrated services phase of IIN?
making the network application-aware
pooling and sharing IT resources through virtualization*
consolidating voice, video, and data into the IP network
content caching, load balancing, and application-level security

12 In which PPDIOO phase do key decision makers identify the initial business and technic
requirements?
Design Phase
Implement Phase
Operate Phase
Optimize Phase
Plan Phase
Prepare Phase*

13 In which PPDIOO phase is the actual network configured and verified?

Design Phase
Implement Phase*
Operate Phase
Optimize Phase
Plan Phase
Prepare Phase

Which two statements are true about an implementation plan approach? (Choose two.)
In an ad hoc approach, the Cisco Lifecycle Services framework could be used to complete a task.

In an ad hoc approach, the network engineer identifies the need for a change and implements the solution without planning any o
tasks*.
In an ad hoc approach, the network engineer identifies the need for a change and starts with planning as the first step.
In a structured approach, it is more likely that scalability issues, suboptimal routing, and security issues will occur.

In a structured approach, the Fault, Configuration, Accounting, Performance, and Security (FCAPS) model could be used to com
a task.*
In a structured approach, the network engineer identifies the need for an upgrade and starts with configuring as the first step.

15 Which two statements are true about the structured approach model? (Choose two.)

The Cisco Lifecycle Services approach defines six phases including the prepare, plan, design, implement, operate, and optimi
phases.*
The Fault, Configuration, Accounting, Performance, and Security (FCAPS) model identifies the implementation plan in the Fau
management category.
The Fault, Configuration, Accounting, Performance, and Security (FCAPS) model identifies the implementation plan and the
implementation as part of FCAPS best practices.
The IT Infrastructure Library (ITIL) model is defined by the International Organization for Standardization (ISO).

The Prepare, Plan, Design, Implement, Operate, and Optimize (PPDIOO) model identifies the implementation plan as part of t
Design phase and the actual implementation as part of the Implement phase.*
The Telecommunications Management Network (TMN) model is similar to the PPDIOO model.

16 Which three steps are completed in the first three phases of the Prepare, Plan, Design,
Implement, Operate, and Optimize (PPDIOO) model? (Choose three.)
Archive the documentation for future use.
Characterize the existing network and sites.*
Design the network topology and solutions.*
Identify customer requirements.*
Implement and verify the design.
Monitor and optionally redesign.

17 Which two steps are completed in the last three phases of the Prepare, Plan, Design,
Implement, Operate, and Optimize (PPDIOO) model? (Choose two.)
Characterize the existing network and sites.
Configure and verify the design.*
Design the network topology and solutions.
Document the existing network information.
Identify customer requirements.
Monitor and optionally redesign.*

18 The ABC Corporation implements the network for its new headquarters via the use of the
Cisco Enterprise Architecture. The network administrator wants to filter the traffic from an
the outside world. Where should the administrator deploy a firewall device?
server farm
enterprise edge*
enterprise campus
service provider edge

19 When designing a network infrastructure, a network engineer will use the hierarchical
network model. What two factors must be taken into account when designing the core lay

(Choose two.)
packet manipulation to prioritize the flow of core data
redundant links to ensure fault tolerance*
routing protocols that are chosen for the speed of network convergence*
access control lists to curtail core layer traffic
star network topologies to reduce core layer latency

20 Which two functions are performed at the distribution layer of the hierarchical network
model? (Choose two.)
summarizing routes from the access layer*
providing high-speed backbone switching services
allowing end users to access the local network
providing the gateway of last resort for core layer devices
isolating network problems to prevent them from affecting the core layer*

CHAPTER 2

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured R1 and R2 for EIGRP authenti
multiple keys and activation times. After functioning normally for a month, R1 and R2 are n
forming an EIGRP adjacency. Which configuration change to the key lifetimes will correct th
adjacency problem?
Change the key 1 accept life to an end time of Feb 1 on both routers.
Change key 2 send lifetime to a start time of Jan 1 on both routers.
Change the key 1 send lifetime to an end time of Feb 1 on both routers.*

2 Which event must take place to transition an EIGRP route that is in the active state
the passive state?
expiration of the RTO timer
an update packet that is received from every EIGRP neighbor
an acknowledgment that is received from every EIGRP neighbor
a reply that is received from each neighbor for every generated query *
a feasible successor route that is moved from the topology table to the routing table

Which EIGRP packet type can quickly propagate through a network and result in exces
computations and high CPU loads?
acknowledgment
hello
reply
update
Query *

4 When does an EIGRP router place a route in the active state?

when there is no successor route in the routing table
when the feasible distance is greater than the reported distance of the route
when an update packet containing information about the route is not acknowledged
when the current successor is no longer valid and there is no feasible successor in the topology table *

5 Which two solutions are used in an EIGRP network to reduce DUAL computations? (Cho
authentication
load balancing
partial updates

Summarization *
EIGRP stub routing *

6 Which two statements are true of EIGRP topology depth? (Choose two.)
Topology depth should be limited to 15 routers.
Redundant links and alternative paths can be used to reduce topology depth.
Topology depth is the maximum hop count between any two EIGRP routers in the topology.
Route summarization can reduce the convergence time in networks with large depth. *
Topology depth is the number of router hops necessary for traffic to reach from access layer to core layer.
Topology depth refers to the total number of hops that information must travel to reach all EIGRP routers in the network. *

7 Which EIGRP algorithm tracks all the routes that are advertised by neighbors and uses th
metric of each route to compare the routes?
STP
Dijkstra
DUAL *
SPF

8 Which three technologies are used in EIGRP? (Choose three.)

Dijkstra algorithm
DUAL finite-state machine *
reliable transport protocol *
link-state advertisements
protocol-specific modules *
Bellman-Ford algorithm

Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output of show ip eigrp neighbors, what are two poss
problems with adjacencies between Router1 and Router2? (Choose two.)
The routers are configured with different EIGRP AS numbers. *
Automatic summarization was disabled.
The hello timer for R1 was altered.
The serial interfaces for both routers are in different networks.

10

Refer to the exhibit. During a test of an EIGRP prototype network, a network administrato
show ip protocols command. What two facts can be determined from the output? (Choo

The administrative distance is 100.

This router will not accept routes that are more than 100 hops away.
There are 10 Cisco devices in this prototype network.
The auto-summary command was applied on this router.
EIGRP is using two values for the calculation of the composite metric.
EIGRP on this router will display up to four unequal cost routes to the same destination.

11 A router in a fully converged EIGRP network detects that a remote route is unreachable.
events may occur next? (Choose two.)
EIGRP will look for a feasible successor in the routing table.
DUAL will calculate the highest cost routes to each network.
EIGRP will send a bounded update to alert neighbors about the failure. *
The router will forward the complete routing table to the neighboring routers.

*DUAL will look for a feasible successor route in the topology table and, if one is found, it will add this route to the routing tabl

12

Refer to the exhibit. All three routers are exchanging EIGRP routes. What value represen
advertised distance of the feasible successor for the 10.1.2.0/24 network?

256
532 *
768
1280

13

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true of the EIGRP keys that are used by router R
R2 is encrypting EIGRP packets with only key 1.
R2 is encrypting EIGRP packets with both key 1 and key 2.
R2 is using only key 2 to authenticate received EIGRP packets. *
R2 is authenticating received EIGRP packets with both key 1 and key 2.

14 Which action is effective in preventing EIGRP routes from becoming SIA?

Use multiple EIGRP autonomous systems to bound the query range.
Modify keepalive timers on point-to-point connections.
Maintain a hierarchical network design. *
Keep K-values at default settings.

15 What are two advantages to deploying a hierarchical IP addressing scheme in an EIGRP

(Choose two.)
greater redundancy
improved scalability *
ability to use network route summarization *
better route optimization creating shorter paths
fewer network addresses that need to be allocated for the network

16 Which statement is a requirement for the EIGRP AS number?

It is the EIGRP router ID and must be the same on each router in the EIGRP domain.

It is only locally significant, and as a result it can be different on each router in the EIGRP domain.
It is selected by the network administrator and must be the same on each router in the EIGRP domain.
It is assigned by IANA and must be the same on each router in the EIGRP domain.

17 What are two advantages of modifying the interface metrics when deploying EIGRP in a
(Choose two.)
improved bandwidth utilization *
less likely to have routing loops
faster convergence
better control over traffic patterns *
more efficient troubleshooting

18 Which design plan or diagram would govern how well EIGRP will scale?
IP addressing plan *
STP topology diagram
Layer 2 addressing plan
detailed cabling plan
EIGRP traffic engineering plan

19

The network administrator wants RTA to send only the summarized route of 10.10.0.0/16
Which configuration will accomplish this?
RTA(config)# interface s0/0
RTA(config-if)# ip summary-address eigrp 101 10.10.0.0 255.255.0.0
RTA(config-if)# exit
RTA(config)# router eigrp 101

RTA(config-router)# no auto-summary
RTA(config)# interface s0/1
RTA(config-if)# ip summary-address eigrp 101 10.10.0.0 255.255.0.0 *
RTA(config-if)# exit
RTA(config)# router eigrp 101
RTA(config-router)# no auto-summary
RTA(config)# interface s0/0
RTA(config-if)# ip summary-address eigrp 101 10.10.0.0 255.255.0.0
RTA(config)# interface s0/1
RTA(config-if)# ip summary-address eigrp 101 10.10.0.0 255.255.0.0

20

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the EIGRP hello packets that are rece
router R2?
They are encrypted.
They are authenticated. *
They are sent confidentially.
They must be acknowledged.

ROUTE Chapter 3 CCNP 6.0 2012

1. Which OSPF network type requires the election of a DR/BDR?
broadcast *
point-to-point
point-to-multipoint

point-to-multipoint nonbroadcast

2. In an OSPF hub-and-spoke topology, what needs to be done to

ensure that
the spoke routers would never be selected as DR and BDR?
Because nonbroadcast networks do not elect a DR/BDR, nothing needs to be done.
All routers must be configured with an OSPF interface priority of 0 (ip ospf priority) t
o disable the DR/BDR election process.
All spoke routers need to be configured with an OSPF interface priority
of 0 (ip ospf priority) so that they will not become the DR/BDR. *
One of the spoke routers will need to be configured as the DR by setting
the OSPF interface priority higher than 1 (ip ospf priority).

3. A network administrator is implementing OSPF in a portion of th

e network and
must ensure that only specific routes are advertised via OSPF. W
hich network statement would configure the OSPF process for net
works 192.168.4.0, 192.168.5.0, 192.168.6.0, and 192.168.7.0, no
w located in the backbone area, and inject them into the OSPF do
main?
r1(config-router)# network 192.168.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 1
r1(config-router)# network 192.168.4.0 0.0.3.255 area 1
r1(config-router)# network 192.168.4.0 0.0.15.255 area 1
r1(config-router)# network 192.168.0.0 0.0.3.255 area 0
r1(config-router)# network 192.168.4.0 0.0.3.255 area 0 *
r1(config-router)# network 192.168.4.0 0.0.255.255 area 0

4. What two advantages does authentication provide that should

be considered when planning an OSPF implementation? (Choose t
wo.)

It reduces OSPF information exchange overhead.

It encrypts routing tables to prevent unauthorized viewing.
It prevents routing information from being falsified in transit. *
It ensures that routing information comes from a valid source router. *
It ensures that OSPF routing information takes priority over RIP or EIGRP updates.

5. When will a router in an OSPF nonbackbone area receive a defa

ult route from the ABR or ASBR? (Choose three.)
when the area is a normal area
when the area is a NSSA stub area
when the area is a totally stubby area *
when the area is a NSSA totally stubby area *
when the area is connected to the backbone area using a virtual link
when the area is a normal area and the ASBR has been configured with the defaultinformation originate always command *

6. What are
two reasons for creating an OSPF network with multiple areas?
(Choose two.)
to protect against the fact that not all routers support the OSPF backbone area
to ensure that an area is used to connect the network to the Internet
to reduce SPF calculations *
to reduce use of memory and processor resources *
to simplify configuration

7. What does OSPF use to calculate the cost to a destination netw

ork?
bandwidth *
bandwidth and hop count
bandwidth and reliability
bandwidth, load, and reliability

8. Which three items must match between OSPF neighbors in orde

r to form
an adjacency? (Choose three.)
hello/dead interval *
area ID *
priority ID
authentication type *

9. Refer to the exhibit. When OSPF is operational and converged,

what neighbor relationship is developed between Router1 and Rou
ter2?
A FULL adjacency is formed. *
A 2WAY adjacency is formed.
Router2 will become the DR and Router1 will become the BDR.
Both routers will become DROTHERS.

10. A fully converged five router OSPF network has been running s
uccessfully for several weeks. All configurations have been saved
and no static routes are used. If one router loses power and reboo
ts, what information will be in its routing table after the configurat
ion file is loaded but before OSPF has converged?
All routes for the entire network will be present.
Directly connected networks that are operational will be in the routing table. *
Because the SPF algorithm has not completed all calculations, no routes
will be in the table.
A summary route for all previously learned routes will automatically
appear in the routing table until all LSPs have been received by the
router.

11. What are two effects of using multiple OSPF areas that reduce
bandwidth and router overhead? (Choose two.)
prevention of a flood of queries

reduction in the size of the LSDB *

reduction in the size of the neighbor table
limits on the propagation of type 1 and 2 LSAs *
decrease in the number of DR and BDR elections

12. What is the function of the OSPF LSU packet?

to announce new OSPF information *
to confirm receipt of certain types of OSPF packets
to request more information about any entry in the BDR
to establish and maintain adjacency with other OSPF routers

13.
Refer to the exhibit. How does the router treat the authentication
of OSPF packets that enter and leave FastEthernet interface 0/0?
OSPF packets are sent with authentication key 10 only.
OSPF packets are sent with authentication key 20 only.
Two copies of every OSPF packet are sent, one with key 10 and one with key 20. *
Key 10 is used to authenticate incoming packets and key 20 is used to authenticate
outgoing packets.

14.
Refer to the exhibit. Which type of OSPF packets are represented
by the debug command output?
link-state request packets sent with plain-text authentication
hello packets sent with a MD5 hashed authentication key id of 100 *
hello packets sent in simple authentication with a password of youngest
link-state update packets sent encrypted with a 100 bit authentication key

15.
Refer to the exhibit. What destination address will RTB use to adv
ertise LSAs?
224.0.0.5
224.0.0.6 *
10.1.7.17
172.16.1.1

172.16.2.1
255.255.255.255

16. Which two statements are correct about OSPF route summariz
ation? (Choose two.)
Automatic OSPF route summarization is performed by the ABR.
The metric of the summary route is equal to the lowest cost network within the sum
mary address range. *
The area 51 range 172.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 command identifies area 51 as the area t
hat contains the range of networks to be summarized. *
OSPF can perform automatic summarization on major classful network boundaries e
ven if no summarization commands are entered from the CLI.

17. Which two statements are correct

about OSPF NSSA areas? (Choose two.)
The NSSA is a Cisco proprietary area type.
Type 7 LSAs are translated to type 5 LSAs by the ABR. *
Type 7 LSAs are originated by the ASBR that is connected to the NSSA. *
Type 7 LSAs are denoted in the routing table of an NSSA internal router as E1 or E2.
Both NSSA stub and totally stubby areas have a default route that is injected into th
e NSSA area by ABR.

18. How can correct OSPF topology change-behavior be verified a

s part of an implementation plan?
Debug the DUAL finite state machine.
Review the running configuration file.
Check the topology table for SIA routes.
Test link failure and router failure events. *

19. What is the correct method to configure route summarization

on an OSPF router?
Configure OSPF and instruct the ABR to summarize specific area routes. *
Configure OSPF and instruct the ASBR to summarize internal area routes.

Configure the ABR and ASBR to summarize routes on an interface basis.

Do nothing because summarization is on by default.

20. Which command can be used to determine the stability of an

OSPF area by examining the number of times SPF has been execu
ted for that area?
show ip ospf *
show ip route
show ip protocols
show ip ospf database

ROUTE Chapter 4 CCNP 6.0 2012

1.

Refer to the exhibit. Two-way redistribution was configured

between OSPF and RIP on R2. After the redistribution, R3 does not
see any external routes coming from the RIP domain. The debug
ip ospf database external output reveals that no external LSAs are
generated for the routes. What could the problem be?
A subnets keyword is missing from the R2 configuration. *
An area 0 stub command is missing from the R2 configuration.
A default-metric command is missing from the R2 configuration.
A distribute-list in Serial0/1 command on R3 is blocking all of the updates coming
from R2.

2.
Refer to the exhibit. RTA
has two paths to network 10.0.0.0/8 via two serial links, Serial
0/0/0 to RTB and Serial 0/0/1 to RTC. RTA is not running any
dynamic routing protocol and its preferred route to network
10.0.0.0/8 is via RTC. Which commands on RTA would configure it
to use RTB to reach network 10.0.0.0/8 only if the serial link to
RTC fails?
ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 Serial 0/0/0
ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 Serial 0/0/1 130
ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 Serial 0/0/1 *
ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 Serial 0/0/0 130 *
ip routing
ip default-network 10.0.0.0
ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 Serial 0/0/0
no ip routing
ip default-gateway 10.0.0.0
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 Serial 0/0/1

3. What is the final step when configuring policy-based routing?

Define access lists.
Configure policy with the use of the route-map command.
Apply policy to an interface using ip policy route-map command. *
Apply match commands.

4. Which prefix-list entry will be used when multiple entries in a

prefix list match a given prefix?
all matching entries
entry with the lowest sequence number *

entry with the largest sequence number

entry with the longest prefix mask length

5. Which method of redistribution is least likely to introduce a

routing loop into a network?
one-way
two-way
one-point *
multipoint

6.

Re
fer to the exhibit. A network engineer was called to investigate so
me intermittent delay and jitter issues with the corporate network
that is shown. The engineer determined that the root cause is that
the routing tables in the district routers are so large that the route
rs cannot maintain the tables efficiently. What can be done to miti
gate this issue?

Implement a classful routing protocol.

Use OSPF as the routing protocol between the regional routers.
Enable autosummarization on the WAN links from the regional routers to
the district routers.
From the regional routers, advertise only default routes to district routers and filter o
ut all remaining networks. *

7.

Refer to the exhibit. Which command was

issued to display the route metric and minimum MTU information
that is shown?
show
show
show
show

ip
ip
ip
ip

route
route
route
route

metrics
131.119.0.0 *
metric 131.119.0.0
metric-mtu

8. Which command would allow advertising only an aggregate ad

dress of 192.168.0.0/16 when applied by using a neighbor statem
ent that contains prefix-list [prefix-list name] out?
permit
permit
permit
permit

192.168.0.0/0 le 16
192.168.0.0/16 *
192.168.0.0/16 ge 16
192.168.0.0/16 eq 16

9.
Refer t
o the exhibit. The network that is shown is operating normally wit
h the routing protocols configured with the default settings. What
path will packets from PC1 take to the file server?
AR2-DR1
AR3-DR1
AR2-AR3-DR1
AR3-AR2-DR1 *

10. Which is the default seed metric for an OSPF route that is redi
stributed into an EIGRP autonomous system?
Infinity *
1
20
90
110
170

11. Which command would deploy a prefix list in a BGP environme

nt?
ip prefix-list distribute
ip bgp prefix-list distribute
neighbor [ip address] prefix-list prefix-list-name [in/out] *
neighbor [ip address] prefix-list-name [in/out]

12.
Refer to the exhibit. The EIGRP subnets such as 10.10.0.0/16 and
10.20.0.0/16 are not being seen inside the OSPF domain. What is
a possible reason for this?
The redistribute command is missing the subnets keyword in the OSPF configuration
.*
The network statement for EIGRP is missing the network mask configuration.
The metric configuration for OSPF is set too high.
A seed metric for EIGRP has not been set.

13. A router has learned the route 192.168.254.0 /24

from multiple sources.
These sources are as follows:
- RIPv1 route with a metric of 12
- EIGRP with a metric of 125689
- OSPF E2 route with a metric of 125
- EIGRP external route with a metric of 3489
- OSPF type 1 route with a metric of 632
- OSPF route with a metric of 4
What route will be injected into the routing table?
D with metric of 125689 *
E1 with a metric of 632
E2 with a metric of 125

EX with a metric of 3489

O with a metric of 4
R with metric of 12

14. Which criterion must be met before a route

can be redistributed into another routing protocol?
Be directly connected
exist in the routing table *
be learned through a dynamic routing protocol
be learned
from a different routing protocol than the protocol into which it is redistributed
have an administrative distance that is greater than that
of the routing protocol into which
it is being redistributed

15.

Re
fer to the exhibit. A network engineer was called to investigate so
me

intermittent delay and jitter issues with the corporate network tha
t is exhibited. The engineer determined that the root cause of the
issue is excessive routing updates. What solution would mitigate t
his issue?
Re-address the corporate network to allow summarization. *
Implement RIPv1 classful route summarization.
Use OSPF as the routing protocol between the regional routers.
Migrate the routing protocol to multiarea OSPF to summarize networks.

16.

Re
fer to the exhibit. You have been asked to investigate why users in

the District 2 offices are experiencing long delays when

accessing their e-mail. After
a preliminary investigation, you determine that the
route to the District 1 server farm
in the District 2 router is through the
regional office switch. What can be done to resolve this fault?
Make the WAN interfaces on the district routers passive EIGRP interfaces.
On the
district routers, lower the OSPF cost to 1 on the interfaces between the routers.
On the district routers, change the default metric of the EIGRP routes that are being
injected to 10000.
Modify the administrative distance of OSPF to 80 on the
district routers for the routes that
are included in 10.0.0.0 /8. *

17. Which statement best describes the route tag in a RIPv2 pack
et?
The route tag contains a 32-bit mask that identifies the network and subnet portion
of the IP address.
It contains the IP address of the next hop that is listed in the IP Address field.
It indicates how many internetwork hops or routers have been traversed in the trip t
o the destination.
It differentiates between a request for a full routing table or a
partial routing update due to a topology
change.
It differentiates between routes that are learned within the autonomous system and
those that were
redistributed into the routing process. *

18.
Refer to the exhibit. After configuring two-way redistribution, an

administrator notices that none of the EIGRP routes are being adv
ertised in the OSPF network. What is a possible reason that the ro
utes are not being advertised?
The
The
The
The

wrong EIGRP AS is being redistributed. *

metric value is wrong for the redistribute command under EIGRP.
metric value is wrong for the redistribute command under OSPF.
subnets keyword is missing on the redistribute command under OSPF.

19.

Re
fer to the exhibit. A network engineer was called to investigate so
me intermittent delay and jitter issues with the corporate network
that is exhibited. The engineer determined that the root cause of t
he issue is excessive routing updates. What solution would mitigat
e this problem?
Enable OSPF autosummarization on all the routers.
Implement RIPv1 classful route summarization.
Create an OSPF area from each interface on the regional routers to
summarize advertisements. *

Configure the WAN interfaces of the district routers to summarize the

routes into the regional routers.

20.

Re
fer to the exhibit. How will router RTA redistribute routes between
the two autonomous systems?
Route redistribution will not be successful in either direction.
One-way redistribution will occur with EIGRP routes being redistributed
into RIP.
One-way redistribution will occur with RIP routes being redistributed
into EIGRP. *
Two-way redistribution will occur with RIP routes being redistributed
into EIGRP and then back into RIP.

ROUTE Chapter 5 CCNP 6.0 2012

1. Routing protocol convergence time would be an example of
which path
control consideration?
adaptability
availability *
performance
predictability

resiliency

2. A BGP routing policy has been created using route maps. The command
route-map TEST permit 10 is part of the configuration. What does the
argument 10 indicate?
It identifies the access list number to be used by the route map statement.
It identifies the position of the route map in relation to other instances. *
It indicates the local preference to be set for routes that match the route map.
It indicates the metric to be set for routes that match the route map.
It specifies the route map to be used on autonomous system 10.

3.
Refer to
the exhibit. What would be the RIP routing metric for the subnets of the 72.16.0.0/16 network on
the R2 router after the configuration in the exhibit was applied to the R1 router?
1
2
3
4*
5

4.
Refer to
the exhibit. The routing policy for router R1 states that traffic from the 192.168.1.0
LAN network is to be routed to ISP-1 and traffic from the 172.16.1.0 LAN
network is to be routed to ISP-2. However, the network administrator notices that a
host at IP address 172.16.1.10 is being routed out Serial0/0/0. What is the cause of
the problem?
The route map ISP-1 should be applied to Serial0/0/0.
The route map ISP-2 should be applied to FastEthernet0/1. *
The route maps are applied to opposite interfaces.
There is an incorrect access list 1 statement.
There is an incorrect access list 2 statement.

5. What are three accurate descriptors of the functionality of the Cisco IOS IP SLA
feature? (Choose three.)
the sending of simulated data *
applies only to distance vector protocols

the filtering of routing updates to and from neighbors

a requirement that NTP be configured on source and responder *
provision of a mechanism to mark packets with different ToS
verification that the TCP or UDP ports on a target are active and responsive *

6.
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the information that is presented, w
hich statement is true?
Access list 1 specifies that packets with a destination address of 192.168.1.0 will be
policy routed.
Access list 2 specifies that packets with a source address of 172.16.1.0 will be policy
routed. *
Packets that match access list 1 will be sent to the next-hop address 172.17.1.2.
Packets that match access list 2 will be denied access.
Both match statements must be true for the ISP1 route map to be true.

7. What is the purpose of using an offset list when implementing p

ath control in EIGRP?
to measure EIGRP updates and then trap them once they meet a specific threshold
to filter EIGRP updates in a continuous, reliable, and predictable manner
to increase incoming and outgoing metrics to routes learned by EIGRP *
to cause the router to evaluate for inconsistencies all packets that come into an inte
rface

8.
Quality of Service (QoS) and Cisco Wide Area Application Service
s (WAAS) are two examples of which path control consideration?
resiliency
availability

adaptability
performance
support for network and application services *

9.
Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the information presented, wh
ich two IP SLA related statements are true? (Choose two.)
IP
IP
IP
IP
IP
IP

SLA
SLA
SLA
SLA
SLA
SLA

99
99
99
99
99
99

is measuring jitter.
is scheduled to begin in 2 hours.
is sending echo requests every 10 seconds. *
is sending echo requests from IP address 192.168.2.1.
was configured with the type dns target-addr 192.168.2.1 command.
will run forever unless explicitly disabled. *

10. Which two descriptions are accurate about the path control
functionality of offset lists? (Choose two.)
used to increase metrics *
used to increase administrative distance
provides a mechanism to mark packets with ToS
can be applied to only the inbound direction on an interface
can be applied to routes that are learned via dynamic routing protocols

can be applied only to routes that are learned via distance vector protocols *

11. Which two IP SLA path control statements are true? (Choose t
wo.)
An IP SLA operation is a measurement that includes protocol, frequency, traps, and t
hresholds. *
IOS IP SLA is a mechanism for increasing incoming and outgoing metrics to routes t
hat are learned via RIP or EIGRP.
The IOS IP SLA feature allows performance measurements between a Cisco device a
nd another Cisco device or a host. *
The IOS IP SLA feature can only measure performance statistics between a Cisco de
vice and a host.
The IOS IP SLA feature can only measure performance statistics between Cisco devi
ces.
The IOS IP SLA feature is only configurable using the command-line interface (CLI).

12.

efer to the exhibit. RIPv2 is configured on routers in the network.

Which
commands would an administrator issue on the R3 router in order
for traffic to take the fastest path from R4 to the 192.168.1
.0 network on the R1 router?
router rip
distribution-list 1 out
access-list 1 permit 192.168.1.0
router rip *
offset-list 1 in 5 serial 0/0/0 *
access-list 1 permit 192.168.1.0
router rip
offset-list 1 out 5 serial 0/0/1
access-list 1 permit 192.168.1.0
router rip
ip prefix-list 1 in 2 out
access-list 1 permit 192.168.1.0
router rip
distribution-list 1 out
access-list 1 permit 172.16.13.0

0.0.0.255

0.0.0.255 *

0.0.0.255

0.0.0.255

0.0.0.3

13. Which two commands can be used to verify that an offset list
has
altered the path taken by traffic? (Choose two.)
traceroute *
telnet
ping
show ip route *
show ip protocols
show running-config

14.

Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the information presented, wh

ich
statement is true?
A default static route was configured with the track keyword. *
EIGRP was configured to track the host at IP address 192.168.2.1.
IP SLA operation 99 is currently monitoring the network 192.168.2.0/24.
IP SLA operation 99 has lost connectivity to 172.16.12.2.

15. When policy-based routing (PBR) is being implemented, which

set
command will override explicit entries in the routing table?
set
set
set
set

ip next-hop
ip precedence
default interface
ip default next-hop

16.

Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration will

ensure that traffic that
originates from network 172.16.1.0 will be forwarded out Serial 0/
0/0?
R1(config)# access-list 1 permit 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0
R1(config)# route-map ISP-1 permit 10
R1(config-route-map)# match ip address 1
R1(config-route-map)# set interface serial 0/0/0
R1(config)# interface fa0/0
R1(config-if)# ip policy route-map ISP-1
R1(config)# access-list 1 permit 172.16.1.0 0.0.0.255 *
R1(config)# route-map ISP-1 permit 10
R1(config-route-map)# match ip address 1
R1(config-route-map)# set interface s0/0/0
R1(config)# interface fa0/1
R1(config-if)# ip policy route-map ISP-1
R1(config)# access-list 1 permit 172.16.1.0 0.0.0.255
R1(config)# route-map ISP-1 permit 10
R1(config-route-map)# match ip address 1
R1(config-route-map)# set interface s0/0/0
R1(config)# interface s0/0/0
R1(config-if)# ip policy route-map ISP-1
R1(config)# access-list 1 permit 172.16.1.0 0.255.255.255
R1(config)# route-map ISP-1 permit 10
R1(config-route-map)# match ip address 1
R1(config-route-map)# set interface fa0/0

R1(config)# interface s0/0/0

R1(config-if)# ip policy route-map ISP-1
R1(config)# access-list 1 permit 172.16.1.0 0.255.255.255
R1(config)# route-map ISP-1 permit 10
R1(config-route-map)# match ip address 1
R1(config-route-map)# set interface fa0/1
R1(config)# interface s0/0/0
R1(config-if)# ip policy route-map ISP-1
17.

Refer to the exhibit. Assuming all FastEthernet interfaces have been configured with
the ip policy route-map LOAD_BALANCE command and are up, how will router R1 tre
at packets that are received from network 10.2.0.0 and destined for the Internet?
will
will
will
will
will

be
be
be
be
be

dropped by R1
forwarded out interface S0/0/0
forwarded out interface S0/1/0
routed normally based on the routing table *
load balanced through each serial interface

Which path control consideration creates an effective use of

bandwidth by having traffic use
different paths for opposite directions?
18.

availability
adaptability

performance
predictability
asymmetric routing *

19. Which path control consideration helps provide an acceptable

level
of service when a failure occurs?
availability
adaptability
performance
resiliency *

20. Which IP SLA statement is true?

An IP SLA responder could be a web server or an IP host.
Cisco IOS IP SLAs use passive traffic monitoring, generating traffic in
a random manner to measure network performance.
IP SLA operations are configured on a target device.
To increase security of IP SLAs control messages,
Message Digest 5 (MD5) authentication can be used. *

CHAPTER 6

Refer to the exhibit. A

network administrator in autonomous system 65100 has set
dual-homed BGP connection with an ISP. The administrator would like to ensu
re t
from the ISP enters the autonomous system through router R1. Which BGP at
tribu
administrator configure on routers R1 and R2 to accomplish this?
multi_exit_discriminator *
local preference
aggregate

2
Which statement is true?

Refer to the exhibit.

The neighbor at 190.10.50.1 is an external peer.

The neighbor at 170.10.20.2 is an internal peer.
RTA is going to advertise that it is part of AS 300.
RTA is going to advertise network 150.10.0.0 to its neighbors if 150.10.0.0 or
its subnets are in the IP *

Refer to the exhibit. Which two configurations will allow router R1 to establis
h a neighbor relationship with router R2? (Choose two.)
R1(config)# router bgp 100 *
R1(config-router)# network 192.168.10.0 *
R1(config-router)# neighbor 209.165.200.226 remote-as 200 *
R2(config)# router bgp 200 *
R2(config-router)# network 192.168.20.0 *
R2(config-router)# neighbor 209.165.200.225 remote-as 100 *
4 How can static routes be dynamically injected into BGP?
Create the static routes with an administrative distance equal to BGP.
Apply the redistribute static command to the BGP configuration. *
Create a prefix list that covers the scope of the networks that are specified b
y the static routes.
Use route maps instead of static routes to dynamically update the convergen
ce.

Refer to the exhibit. BGP sessions are established between all routers. RTC re
ceives route updates for network 209.165.200.224/27 from autonomous syst
em 300 with the weight attribute set to 3000. RTB also learns about network
209.165.200.224/27 from autonomous system 200 with a weight of 2000. W
hich router will be used by RTA as a next hop to reach this network?
RTB because of the lowest weight
RTB because of the slow 64 kb/s link
RTB because of the shortest AS_Path *
RTC because of the highest weight
RTC because of the longest AS_Path
RTC because of the T1 link

Refer to the exhibit. Router R2 is currently unable to access network 172.16.

10.0/24. Based on the information in the exhibit, which configuration would fi
x the problem?
R1(config)# router bgp 65100
R1(config-router)# network 10.0.0.0 mask 255.0.0.0
R1(config)# router bgp 65100 *
R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 mask 255.255.0.0 *

7.

Refer to the exhibit. Based on the show ip bgp summary and debug ip bgp ou
tput, which two statements must be true?
(Choose two.)
The router at 10.255.2.2 is an EBGP peer.
The ebgp multi-hop command is missing from the BGP configuration.
R1 has established an EBGP peering relationship. *
R1 is directly connected to an IBGP peer.
R1 cannot route BGP packets to 10.255.2.2. *

8
Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 is receiving the prefix 10.22.0.0/16 from an IB
GP peer. The prefix appears in the BGP table of R1, but not in the IP routing t
able. What could be preventing R1 from installing 10.22.0.0/16 in the routing
table?
automatic summarization disabled
EBGP multihop misconfiguration
incorrect use of the update-source command
route dampening
synchronization *

Refer to the exhibit. Autonomous system 65500 is routing traffic between tw

o external BGP autonomous systems, autonomous system 65200 and autono
mous system 65100. Synchronization is disabled on BGP in autonomous syst
em 65500. Which routers should have IBGP peer relationships for routing bet
ween autonomous system 65200 and autonomous system 65100 to work pro
perly?
R1 and R5
R1, R3, and R4
R1, R3, R4, and R5 *
ISP A, R1, R5, and ISP B

10 Which routes are available to a BGP speaker to advertise to peers once an

adjacency is formed?
only routes in the IP routing table *
only routes in the BGP forwarding database

only routes that are learned from IBGP peers in the same autonomous syste
m
any route in either the IP routing table or BGP forwarding database

11
Ref
er to the exhibit. An organization has configured a multihomed solution using
EBGP between two edge routers and two ISPs. The edge routers are receiving
only default routes from each ISP EBGP peer. Which two statements are true
of this solution? (Choose two.)
EIGRP will choose the best route to exit the autonomous system. *
Traffic between the ISPs will be routed through autonomous system 65500.
All routers in autonomous system 65500 must have complete knowledge of e
xternal routes.
A TCP session must be established between the edge routers and the ISP rout
ers. *

12 Which two statements are key characteristics of BGP? (Choose two.)

It uses cost as its metric.
It is a link-state routing protocol.
It is a policy-based routing protocol. *
It uses bandwidth and delay as its metric.
It is an advanced distance vector routing protocol.
It provides interdomain routing between autonomous systems. *

13 What is the range of autonomous system numbers reserved for private us

e?
1 to 32768
1 to 65535
32768 to 65535
64512 to 65535 *
65512 to 65535

14 Which two options best describe an exterior routing protocol (EGP)? (Choo
se two.)
an interdomain routing protocol *
an intradomain routing protocol
a routing protocol that is used for intradomain routing such as IS-IS and OSPF
v3
a routing protocol that exchanges routing information within an autonomous
system
a routing protocol that exchanges routing information between different auto
nomous systems*

15 An enterprise must interconnect multiple sites. Which technology would p

rovide secure and manageable connections over the Layer 3 ISP network wit
hout the additional expense of leased lines
IBGP
IP SLA
MPLS VPN *
16 What is a disadvantage to multihoming and accepting only a default route
from each ISP?
Because of load balancing between ISPs, suboptimal routing may occur.
Because routers will select the edge router based on the IGP metric, subopti
mal routing may occur. *
Because routing loops within the IGP routing domain may occur, only a single
ISP connection can be used.
Because no more than one default route can be advertised into the IGP routi
ng domain, only a single ISP connection can be used.
17 An enterprise has routers with limited resources but requires the best pat
h to selected external networks. Which multihoming option would provide the
best solution?

multihoming with default routes from all providers

multihoming with full Internet routes from all providers
multihoming with default routes and partial Internet routes from all providers
*
multihoming with partial Internet routes from one provider and default routes
from all other providers

18

Refer to the exhibit. BGP sessions are established between all routers. Router
RTC has the local preference for network 209.165.200.224/27 set to 200 and
router RTB has a local
preference set to 150 for the same network. Which router will be used by RTA
as a next hop to reach network 209.165.200.224/27?
RTB because of the lowest local preference
RTB because of the slow 64 kb/s link
RTC because of the highest local preference *

19 Which BGP attribute is used by BGP to ensure a loop-free topology on the

Internet?
Next_hop
As_path *
local preference
Atomic aggregate
Origin
20 Which BGP routers will become peers and share routing information?

BGP
BGP
ult.
BGP
BGP

routers that are configured with the same network command

routers share routing information with all routers in the same AS by defa
routers that are configured with the neighbor command *
routers that are configured with the same peer command

CHAPTER 7

1.
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured a GRE tunnel bet
ween R1 and R2 as shown. After completing the tunnel configurations, the ad
ministrator notices that the tunnel interfaces on both routers are down. All o
ther interfaces are up and the pings through the ISP to the serial interface of
each router are successful. What is the cause of the problem?
Tunnel source configurations are incorrect.
Tunnel destination configurations are incorrect. *
The MTU size has not been increased to 1492.
GRE IP encapsulation has not been configured.

2. Which three protocols are involved in the establishment of an IPsec VPN tu

nnel? (Choose three.)
Tunnel Profile (TCP port 604)
Authentication Header (protocol 51) *
Generic Routing Encapsulation (protocol 47)
Encapsulating Security Protocol (protocol 50) *
Internet Security Association and Key Management Protocol (TCP port 500)
Internet Security Association and Key Management Protocol (UDP port 500) *

3.
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the partial configuration that is shown, which s
tatic route would be the primary default path?
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.20.2 40 *
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.68.6.1 50
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 202.16.20.2 60
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 212.68.6.1 70
4. Which is a clientless VPN solution for mobile workers?
GRE
IPsec
SSH
SSL *
5. Which two statements are correct about IPsec crypto maps? (Choose two.)
The crypto map defines the IPsec tunnel endpoint or peer. *
Packets that do not meet the criteria as specified in the crypto map
are dropped.
The crypto map is applied to the outbound interface that the router is
peering with. *
6. What is a limitation of IPsec by design?
IPsec only forwards unicast traffic.*

7.
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the exhibited stat
ic routes? (Choose two.)
If a route to 10.0.0.0/8 is received via
IP, R1 will prefer the dynamic route over both configured
static routes. *
The static route to 10.0.0.0/8 via 1.1.1.1 will be preferred to the route via 2.2.
2.2. *
8.

R
efer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring NAT on router Re
mote. The configuration should allow users on network 172.16.16.0/21 to acc
ess Internet sites as well as resources on the HQ LAN network 172.16.0.0/21
through the VPN tunnel. How should the administrator configure access list 1
01 to accomplish this task?
Remote(config)# access-list 101 deny 172.16.16.0 0.0.7.255 172.16.0.0 0.0.
7.255 *
Remote(config)# access-list 101 permit ip 172.16.16.0 0.0.7.255 any *

Remote(config)#
Remote(config)#
7.255
Remote(config)#
Remote(config)#

access-list 101 permit ip 172.16.16.0 0.0.7.255 any

access-list 101 deny 172.16.16.0 0.0.7.255 172.16.0.0 0.0.

Remote(config)#
9 0.0.0.3
Remote(config)#
Remote(config)#
Remote(config)#
0.0.7.255

access-list 101 deny 172.16.16.0 0.0.7.255 209.165.202.12

access-list 101 deny 172.16.16.0 0.0.7.255 any

access-list 101 permit ip 172.16.16.0 0.0.7.255 any

access-list 101 permit ip 172.16.16.0 0.0.7.255 any

access-list 101 permit ip 172.16.16.0 0.0.7.255 any
access-list 101 deny 172.16.0.0 0.0.7.255 172.16.16.0

9. How is NAT tuned to handle traffic that is sent through a VPN tunnel
between a mobile worker and internal corporate resources?
Translation is allowed by a permit access list statement or route map.
Translation is allowed by a deny access list statement or route map.
Traffic should bypass translation with a deny access list statement or routemap. *
10. Branch office network design
faces several challenges. Which of these challenges
has the goal of obtaining centralized control of network security and manag
ement?
bandwidth and network requirements
consolidated data centers *
deployment plan
management costs
mobility
11. Which three statements would help an end user develop a better
understanding of DSL technology? (Choose three.)
ADSL typically has a higher download bandwidth than available upload band
width. *
All varieties of DSL provide the same bandwidth, although they use different
technologies to achieve upload and download.
DSL is available in any location that has a telephone.
DSL speeds can exceed the speeds available with a typical T1 line. *
Transfer rates vary by the length of the local loop. *

12. What are three characteristics of broadband access? (Choose three.)

always on *
built-in security
enhanced voice and video services *
guaranteed quality of service (QoS)
high-speed access *
wide area of coverage
13. Which three items can be specified by ISAKMP policy parameters? (Choos
e three.)
the hashing method to be used *
the encryption method to be used *
the encapsulation method to be used
the authentication method to be used *
the ACL that is used to identify interesting traffic
the amount of time the crypto interface should be active before being renego
tiated

14.
Refer to the exh
ibit. A network administrator is tuning IPsec to encapsulate the GRE tunnel
between R1 and R2. Assuming all other IPsec configurations are correct, whic
h two crypto map

access lists will complete this task? (Choose two.)

R1(config-ext-nacl)# permit gre host 172.16.248.1 host 172.16.248.2
R1(config-ext-nacl)# permit gre host 209.165.202.129 host 64.100.32.1 *
R2(config-ext-nacl)# permit gre host 209.165.202.129 host 64.100.32.1
R2(config-ext-nacl)# permit gre host 64.100.32.1 host 209.165.202.129 *
15. Which statement is true about the deployment of Contextbased Access Control (CBAC)
and Zone-Based Firewall (ZBF)?
They cannot be deployed on the same router.
They can be deployed on the same router but not on the same interface. *
16. Which two solutions can a hybrid fiber cable service provider apply when
there is constant congestion on the line? (Choose two.)
Allocate less bandwidth to affected customers.
Allocate another downstream channel. *
Allocate another upstream channel.
Run fiber deeper into the neighborhood. *
Run fiber to each home.
17. Which is a Cisco IOS firewall solution that relies on access control lists?
Cisco Easy VPN server
Cisco Security Manager
Zone-Based Firewall (ZBF)
Context-Based Access Control (CBAC) *
18. In the routing design for a branch office, which area will have an affect on
convergence, load balancing, and scalability?
connectivity technologies
mobility requirements
resiliency
routing protocols *
service mix
security and compliance
19. Which IPsec service verifies that the data was not altered during transmis
sion?
authorization
encryption
integrity

20. Which two UDP ports must be permitted inbound through the Internetfacing interface on
a firewall to establish an IPsec tunnel and NAT-T? (Choose two.)
22
50
51
500
4500

Chapter 8

1
Refer to the
exhibit. An administrator has configured routers R1 and R2 for EIGRP
After completing the configurations and verifying that the interfaces are up, t
he adm
that the routers have not formed an EIGRP adjacency. What needs to be done
to
neighboring routers to establish adjacency?
IPv6 multicast routing must be enabled.
The EIGRP routing process must be started. *
The router ID for IPv6 EIGRP must be a 128 bit number.

2.

Refer to the exhibit. What is indicated by the connected route entry?

Router1 is configured for NAT-PT. *
The interface is part of an 6to4 tunnel.
Router1 is participating in an ISATAP tunnel.
The interface is part of an OSPF not-so-stubby area.
3 Which of these addresses is the shortest abbreviation for the IP address:
3FFE : 1044 : 0000 : 0000 : 00AB : 0000 : 0000 : 0057?
3FFE : 1044 :: AB :: 57
3FFE : 1044 :: 00AB :: 0057
3FFE : 1044 : 0 : 0 : AB :: 57 *
3FFE : 1044 : 0 : 0 : 00AB :: 0057

4.

R
efer to the exhibit. The network is using OSPFv3 as the routing
protocol. Servers A, B, and C
offer the same application services. Which type of IPv6 address would be us
ed so that the router will send the packet to the server with the lowest cost O
SPF route?
anycast *
multicast
link local
unique local
5 Which two statements are correct about solicited-node multicasts? (Choose
two.)
They are used for address resolution of an IPv4 address to an IPv6 address.
They are used for address resolution of an IPv6 address to a MAC address on
a LAN segment. *
They are used for address resolution of an IPv4 address to an IPv6 address on
a LAN segment.
They resolve the problem of two or more devices having the same MAC addr
ess.

They resolve the problem of two or more devices having the same link-local a
ddress.
They are used in Duplicate Address Detection (DAD) to detect duplicate IPv6
addresses. *

6
Refer to the exhibit. Hos
t 1 sends a router solicitation ICMP message that requests
auto configuration from router R1. Which destination IPv6 address will be use
d by R1 to send the ICMP router advertisement message that contains the IP
v6 configuration options?
multicast address FF02::2 for all routers
router R1 link-local address FE80::2/10
DHCP servers/relay agent address FF02::C
host 1 link-local address FE80::1 or multicast address FF02::1 for all nodes *
7 Stateless autoconfiguration enables which IPv6 feature?
Capability of devices to connect to the network without any configuration or
without the use of a DHCP server *
8. How do IPv6 enabled routers handle packet fragmentation?
IPv6 routers do not perform packet fragmentation. OSPFv3 has a mechanism
for determining the optimal packet size and dynamically adjusting the packet
size.
IPv6 routers do not perform packet fragmentation. CDP is used to discover th
e
correct packet size for any given traffic flow. The correct packet size is unique
for
each traffic flow.
IPv6 routers perform packet fragmentation. CDP is used to determine which
packets need to be fragmented for any given traffic flow.

IPv6 routers perform packet fragmentation. OSPFv3 has a mechanism for

fragmenting packets so that they are the optimal size.
IPv6 routers do not perform packet fragmentation. A discovery process is use
d
to determine the optimum maximum transmission unit (MTU) to use during a
given
session. *
9.

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true of the NAT-PT configurati
ons
on router R1? (Choose two.)
Router R1 will advertise the 1144::/96 prefix to router R2. *
The ip nat outside command is required on interface Fa0/0.
Router R3 will learn about the 14::/64 network from router R1.
NAT-PT is enabled on both Fast Ethernet interfaces of router R1. *
To reach the App_Server, packets from host A should be forwarded to router
R1
with a destination IP of 172.16.23.100.

10.
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator configured router R1 with two instances
of RIPng.
Based on the information in the exhibit, what must the administrator do next
in order to exchange routes between both RIPng instances?
The redistribute rip R1R2 command must be issued under the R1R3 RIPng ins
tance and the
redistribute rip R1R3 command must be issued under the R1R2 RIPng instanc
e. *
11 Which two IPv6-specific extensions are incorporated into MBGP? (Choose t
wo.)
an identifier for the IPv6 address family *
all routers IPv6 multicast address
a global IPv6 address with the NEXT_HOP attribute *
a 128-bit router ID
MPLS as a passenger protocol
12 Which two IPv4 to IPv6 transition techniques manage the interconnection
of IPv6 domains? (Choose two.)
trunking
dual stack *
encapsulation
tunneling *
translation
13 What is an advantage of the NAT-PT technique for transitioning between I
Pv4 and IPv6?
All mappings are static.
Globally routable IPv4 addressing is not required.
DNS is not required.
No configuration is required on end nodes *

14.
Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of this configuration?
to protect the IPv6 traffic from being corrupted by the IPv4 traffic
to transport IPv6 traffic through an IPv4 network *
to allow the IPv6 traffic to use IPv4 addresses

15
Refer to th
e exhibit. A network administrator wishes to apply a routing policy on router
WestR1 that will forward web traffic to the ISP while preserving the normal ro
uting to the district office. However, when the configuration displayed in the
exhibit is applied, the web traffic is still flowing to the district office. What
configuration change should be made to the WestR1 router?
The access list must be rewritten to properly match web traffic.
The route map should be applied to Gi 0/0 interface. *
The access group should be applied to S0/0/0 outbound.
The route map name should match the access list name.

16 What is the IPv6 prefix used for 6to4 automatic tunnels?

2002 *
17 Which method can be used to route traffic through a 6to4 automatic tunn
el?
IPv6 static route *
IPv4 static route
OSPFv2
OSPFv3
RIPv2

18.
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the command ipv6 ospf c
ost 20?
The Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP) will not use this interface unl
ess all other interfaces go down.
The cost number is used in the designated router election.
OSPFv3 will prefer this link over links with a lower cost.
The IPv6 priority must be configured before this command is entered.
The cost of sending a packet on this interface, expressed in the link state me
tric, is 20. *

19 After the activation of IPv6 routing on a Cisco router and the

configuration of IPv6 addresses
on multiple interfaces, what is the remaining step to activate RIPng?
Enter the ipv6 rip name enable command on each IPv6 RIPng interface. *

20.
Refer to the exhibit. Which type of IPv6 static route is configured in the exhibi
t?

directly attached static route

recursive static route *
fully specified static route
floating static route