1. A fact is an observation that has been repeatedly confirmed.

2. A hypothesis is a testable statement about the natural world that can

be used to build more complex inferences and explanations.
3. A theory is a well-substantiated explanation of some aspect of the
natural world.
4. Which of the following is the organizing theme of this course as well as
all of biology?
a. Evolution
5. Recall the experiment of ant navigations. What parameters would
have to be held constant for the test group of 75 ants in order to run a
controlled experiment?
a. All variables except leg length (and therefore stride
length)
6. Which of the following observations led to the conclusion that the food
competition hypothesis for giraffe neck length might not be correct?
a. Male and female giraffes spend most of their time feeding
in low trees.
7. Use the figure (karyotype of male lubber grasshopper): What are the
haploid number, ploidy, and total number of chromosomes?
a. 12, 2n, 23
8. Homologous chromosomes ________________________.
a. Carry information for the same traits
9. Genetic recombination takes place in which of the following
processes?
a. Crossing Over
10.
Meiosis involves the creation of haploid cells from diploid cells.
The haploid chromosome number is created when
_______________________.
a. Homologous chromosomes separate.
11.
What event is taking place?

a. Homologous chromosomes separate

12.
For the duration of meiosis I, each chromosome is
______________________.

a. Two sister chromatids joined by a centromere.

13.
Gynogenesis is a mode of reproduction that describes any case
where females produce unreduced diploid eggs, but must mate with
males of closely related species to initiate embryogenesis, but none of
the males genes are incorporated into the offspring.
14.
In true parthenogenic species the offspring will
______________________.
a. Be genetically identical to the mother.
15.
Which of the following is not an example of a sex determination
system seen in animals?
a. Males are a heterogametic sex (X/Y)
b. Females are a heterogametic sex (Z/W)
c. Temperature dependent sex determination
d. Haplo-diploid sex determination
e. All occur in animals
16.
The Tangled Bank Hypothesis is one for the benefit of genetic
variation posits that genetic variation reduces competition for
resources.
17.
If, in a heterozygous individual, only one allele is expressed in
phenotype that allele is ___________________.
a. Dominant
18.
What is the ratio of phenotypes in offspring produced by
crossing Aa x Aa? Assume compete dominance for that trait.
a. 75% Dominant, 25% Recessive
19.
Grey seed color in peas is dominant to white. Assume plants
with grey seeds were crossed among themselves and the following
progeny produced: 302 grey and 98 white. What is the most probable
genotype of each parent? What genotype and phenotype ratios are
expected in the progeny?
a. Gg x Gg; genotype: 1:2:1; phenotype: 3:1.
20.
In peppers, the Y allele = red peppers and the recessive y allele
= yellow peppers (yy). If a heterozygous plant mated with a yellow
pepper plant, what percentage of progeny will be yellow?
a. 50%
21.
Which event in meiosis accounts for Mendels principle of
Independent Assortment?
a. Nonhomologous chromosomes line up independently
during Meiosis I.
22.
White fruit color is controlled by the dominant allele (W) and
yellow fruit color is controlled by recessive allele (w). At another locus,
on another chromosome, a dominant allele (S) produces disc shaped
fruit and the recessive (s) yield sphere shaped fruit. If a homozygous
white disc variety is crossed with homozygous yellow sphere variety,
what is the genotype and phenotype of the F1 generation?
a. WwSs; white disc.

23.
Homozygous CC is normal, Cc results in deformed legs, and cc
results in very short legs. Genotype BB = black fur, Bb = brown fur,
and bb = white fur. If a cross is made between a brown rabbit with
deformed legs and a white rabbit with short legs, what percentage of
the offspring is expected to have deformed legs with white fur?
a. 25%
24.
If F, a plant with genotype RrYy self fertilized, what would be the
phenotypic ratio of the F2 generation? R= dominant (round), r = red
(wrinkled), Y = dominant (yellow), and y = recessive (green).
a. 9 round, yellow: 3 round, green: 3 wrinkled, yellow: 1
wrinkled, green
25.
Suppose two AabbCc individuals mated. Assuming the genes are
not linked what is the probability of producing an offspring that is
homozygous recessive for 3 traits?
a. 1/16
26.
Suppose two AabbCC individuals mated. Assuming that the
genes are not linked, what is the probability of producing an offspring
that is heterozygous A and C, recessive b?
a. 1/4
27.
Suppose two AaBBCc individuals mated, assuming the genes are
not linked, what is the probability of producing homozygous offspring
for all 3 genes?
a. 0
28.
How many unique gametes could be produced through
independent assortment by individuals with genotype AaBbCcDdee?
a. 16
29.
A man is heterozygous for the sickle cell allele, an autosomal
recessive disease. He has a child with a woman who is a carrier. What
is the chance that their kid will be healthy?
a. 75%
30.
Hemophilia is a recessive sex-linked (on X) disease. A man
doesnt have it but the woman does. Through prenatal testing, they
discover theyre having a boy. What is the chance that the boy will
suffer from hemophilia?
a. 50%
31.
A man carries the allele of an X-linked gene and will pass it on
______________________.
a. To all his daughters
32.
In a fly experiment, a cross is made between two homozygous
wild-type females and wingless males. All resulting F1s were
phenotypic wild-type. Adult flies in the F2 generation showed: 51
wingless males, 50 wingless females; 148 wild-type males, 151 wildtype females. Is the mutant allele for wings recessive or dominant? Is
the wingless locus autosomal or X-linked?
a. Recessive; not X-linked.

33.
In humans, ABO blood types refer to glycoproteins in
membranes of red blood cells. There are 3 alleles for the autosomal
gene IA, IB, and i. If a woman with AB type mates with a man with O
type, what are the possible types of their children?
a. A and B.
34.
Pleiotropy refers to a single gene having multiple effects on
phenotype.
35.
A black Labrador is crossed with a chocolate Labrador and
produces 8 puppies: 3 black, 2 golden, and 3 chocolate. Which of the
following is the likely genetic combination of the two dogs?
a. BbEe x bbEe
36.
Which is the strongest evidence that a trait might be influenced
by polygenic inheritance?
a. A trait shows quantitative variation
37.
Who proposed that organisms could be organized into a great
chain of being?
a. Aristotle
38.
Three colors. Red (RR), white (rr), and Pink (Rr). What is the
explanation?
a. Incomplete dominance
39.
Researchers studying a small milkweed population note that
some plants produce a toxin and other plants do not. They identify the
gene responsible for toxin production. The dominant allele (T) codes for
an enzyme that makes the toxin, and the recessive allele (t) codes for
a nonfunctional enzyme that cannot produce the toxin. Heterozygotes
produce an intermediate amount of toxin. The genotypes of all
individuals in the population are determined (see chart) and used to
determine the actual allele frequencies in the population.

Is this population in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?

a. f(T) = (0.56) (0.28) = 0.7
f(t) = 1 0.70 = 0.3
Expected:
TT = (0.7)^2 = 0.49
Tt = 2(0.7)(0.3) = 0.42
tt = (0.3)^2 = 0.09
No, there are more heterozygotes than expected.
40.
q^2 = 0.09
q = 0.3, p = 0.7
AA = p^2 = (0.7)^2 = 0.49
Aa = 2pq = 2(0.7)(0.3) = 0.42
aa = q^2 = (0.3)^2 = 0.09
41.
S2 = Chemolitho (inorganic energy)
CO2 = Autotrophs

42.

Which of the following is/are characteristics of all animals?

a. Multicellularity
43.
Why would gene duplication events such as those seen in the
HOX gene complex, set the stage for adaptive radiation?
a. One of copy of a gene can perform the original function
while other copies are available to take on new functions.
44.
Which of the following embryonic features are common in
deuterostomes?
a. The gastropore becomes the anus and mesoderm pockets
pinch off of the gut to form coelom.
45.
In a triploblastic bilateral organism the inside tube is derived
from ___________________.
a. Mesoderm
46.
What defines a chordate?
a. Dorsal, hollow nerve cord
b. Muscular post-anal tail
c. Pharyngeal gill slits
d. Notochord
47.
Which of the following statements about the tetrapod limb is
false?
a. All animal appendages are homologous.
48.
The proximate causes of behavior are interactions with the
environment, but behavior is ultimately shaped by
a. Evolution
49.
On what do proximate explanations of behavior focus?
a. Genetic, neurological, and hormonal mechanisms of
behavior.
50.
During a field trip, an instructor touched the body of a moth
resting on a tree trunk. The moth raised its forewings to reveal large
eye-spots on its hind wings. The instructor asked the class why the
moth lifted its wings. One student answered that certain sensory
receptors had fired and triggered a reflex that led to the contraction of
certain muscles. A second student responded that the behavior might
frighten predators. Which statement describes the students'
explanations?
a. The first response answers a proximate questions and the
second answers an ultimate question.
51.
In the territorial behavior of the stickleback fish, the red belly of
one male elicits attack from another male by functioning or
a. a sign stimulus.
52.
Classical and operant conditioning both illustrate:
a. associative learning.
53.
Which of the following descriptions best describes classical
conditioning?
a. When a neutral stimulus is paired with a stimulus that
produces a response a number of times, the neutral

stimulus comes to evoke a similar response.

54.
Which of the following is a good example of intraspecific deceit?
a. Male bluegills
55.
When a signaler suffers a reduction in fitness as a result of
producing signal, but a receiver benefits, the communication is
referred to as:
a. Eavesdropping.
56.
Von Frisch hypothesized that honeybee scouts communicate the
distance of food sources that are greater than 50m away to other
honeybee recruits in the hives with:
a. The number of waggles per run in the waggle dance.
57.
Which of the following mechanisms favor honest communication?
a. Costs associated with producing signals, increasing
inclusive fitness, mutualistic interactions leading to
fitness benefits, and signals that indicate quality.
58.
What is the estimation of relative position by keeping track of
turns and distance traveled between turns?
a. Dead Reckoning.
59.
For animals that use the sun as a compass, why must the
compass be time-compensated?
a. As the sun moves across the sky, the angle maintained
relative to the sun also has to change.
60.
According to the inequality known as Hamilton's rule....
a. Natural selection favors altruistic acts when the resulting
benefit to the beneficiary, multiplied by the coefficient of
relatedness, exceeds the cost to the altruist.
61.
What is the coefficient of relatedness between my father and his
sister's daughter?
a. 0.25
62.
An exchange of fitness benefits that are separated in time is
termed
a. reciprocal altruism.
63.
Bateman's Rule specifies that males are limited by access to
mates, and females are limited by resources.
64.
In Coho salmon, males are either large with reddish color and
have a heavily kyped jaw, or they are phenotypically similar to
females. The typical males fight with other males to line up behind
females where they mate and the first males in line usually fertilize
most of the female's eggs. The other males are sneakers and do not
fight, but race in from the side to spray sperm on the female's eggs.
The existence of these two types of males is an example of
a. Alternative mating strategies.
65.
For the elephant seal production show in the figure, consider an
allele that increases reproductive success in males versus a similar
allele in females. Which allele will increase in frequency faster via
sexual selection and why?

a. The male allele because variation in reproductive success

is much higher in males than in females.
66.
Beak shape of the Huia differs between male and female
individuals. Such structural differences are referred to as....
a. Sexual dimorphism.
67.
Male turkeys have a snood, which is a flap of skin that hangs
across their beak. Snood length is negatively correlated with parasite
load, and females prefer to mate with long snood males. This is an
example of
a. Sexual selection via female choice.
68.
Which of the following are reasons why males are often the
limited sex (and females the limiting)?
a. Females usually have initial investment in offspring.
69.
You observe that females of a newt species lay unusually large
yolky eggs, but they abandon their nests as soon as the eggs are laid.
Males, on the other hands, defend the territory around the nest and
regularly bring the baby newts insects to feed on. The males also sleep
with the babies to keep them warmer during colder nights. Which of
the following statements is most likely to be true?
a. The males are choosey about which females to mate with.
70.
What is the difference between semelparous and iteroparous
organisms?
a. Semelparous organisms make many small offspring, while
interoparous organisms make few large offspring.
71.
Why is aging considered an evolutionary puzzle?
a. Aging reduces fitness, yet should, in theory, be avoidable.
72.
According to the evolutionary theory of senescence, one
explanation for aging is the accumulation of mutations that are
advantageous early in life and disadvantageous later in life.
73.
Which statement is a logical conclusion from this set of date from
Luckinbill's fruit fly experiment?
a. Fruit flies can evolve greatly increased life spans in just a
dozen or so generations, when selection is strong.
Selection for late reproduction can lengthen fruit fly
lifespan.
74.
In the diagram at the right, which of the following survivorship
curves implies that an animal may lay thousands of eggs, of which only
a few will survive to reproduce?
a. Curve C, Type III Curve.
75.
What four factors define population growth?
a. Birth, death, emigration, immigration.
76.
Which of the following might be expected in the logistic model of
population growth?
a. As N approaches K, d increases.
77.
At the point in time indicated by the hand
a. population growth rate (dN/dt) starts decreasing.

78.
In the logistic growth equation dN/dt = r N, (K-N)/K, r is a
measure of the population's intrinsic rate of increase. It is determined
by which of the following?
a. Birth rate and death rate only.
79.
You are studying a population of finches on one island in an
archipelago. You find that your population is much smaller than you
would predict form your careful recording of hatching, fledging, and
death rates. The likely explanation for this observation is
a. you are dealing with a metapopulation...your island is the
source of emigration.
80.
In an overpopulated area of deer, which of the following is a
density-dependent factor that could help reduce the number of deer?
a. Higher predation.
81.
A wildlife biologist is trying to predict what will happen to a bear
population if bear hunting is banned. He had the equations all worked
out but then realized that he had grossly underestimated the amount
of food available to the bears. To make his predication more accurate
he should increase the value of K in his equation.
82.
What is term used to describe the process shown in these
panels?
a. Niche differentiation.
83.
The competitive exclusion principle states that:
a. it is not possible for 2 species with the same niches to
coexist.
84.
In the hypothesis that C. Stellatus is competitively excluded from
the lower intertidal zone by B . balanoides, what could be concluded
about the 2 species?
a. The fundamental and realized niches of B. balanoides are
identical, but the fundamental and realized niches of C.
stellatus are different.