Skill Exercise II

Due by class-time on the day of the Kant and Voltaire discussion.

Read through these questions before you start reading the texts. This will help you focus on the
important points before you go into the texts themselves. Answer the following questions in one
or two sentences and provide an example from the text (such as a quote) that supports your
answer. Finally explain how that quote provides support for your answer. Type your answer in
the space below the question and submit the completed exercise through Moodle.
If you have any technical difficulties or concerns, please let me know. If you have any questions
or are thoroughly confused by a certain passage (or by the whole thing) let me know, and I can
help you work through it. Sooner is better than later.
Immanuel Kant, What is Enlightenment?
1) According to Kant, what is enlightenment? How would you put this into your own
words?
According to Kant, Enlightenment is mans release from his self-incurred
tutelage. Tutelage is mans inability to make use of his understanding without direction
from another. (P.1) In my own words I would say that Enlightenment is a break from
communal, traditional reasoning to the enforcing of ones own individual reasoning and
directing. Kant finalizes his perspective by sharing the motto of the enlightenment Have
courage to use your own reason! (P.1)
2) What is a major obstacle to enlightenment? If it is such a good thing, why are more
people not enlightened?
Laziness and cowardice are the reasons why so great a portion of mankind, after
nature has long since discharged them from external direction, nevertheless remains
under lifelong tutelage, and why it is so easy for others to set themselves up as their
guardians (P.1) Here Kant uses laziness and cowardice to exemplify the obstacles that
block many from reaching enlightenment. He states that many are not enlightened due to
the obstacles blocking our path to natural external direction or tradition.
3) What is the difference between the public and private use of reason?
Kant states, The public use of ones reason must always be free, and it alone can
bring about enlightenment among men. The private use of reason, on the other hand, may
often be very narrowly restricted without particularly hindering the progress of
enlightenment (P.3). Within his definitions, Kant is explaining that public use of reason
is once again to be free allowing men to reach enlightenment and private use of reason is
a much more restricted way of reasoning not allowing men to reason freely.
Voltaire, Reflections on Religion

1) According to Voltaire, can coercion be applied in religious matters? Why or why not?
Voltaire explains Obedience to ecclesiastical order must consequently always be
free and voluntary: no other should be possible (P.117). Here he stresses that no man
should be forced to practice a certain religion, as they are always free to choose.
2) Why does Voltaire think that we must be tolerant of other religions?
In the article Voltaire explains, that men of other religions persecute each other
over different opinions making them very intolerant. He speaks to Christians to portray
his perspective Of all religions, the Christian is without doubt the one which should
inspire tolerance most, although up to now the Christians have been the most intolerant of
all men (P.130) He explains that as we were once intolerant we must now share great
tolerance with other religions.

Bonus Round!
Who is Voltaire talking to after he speaks with Socrates during his dream-vision? (No quote or
explanation is necessary.)
He is talking to the beat up 35 year old that was beaten for preaching false gods
or individual perspective, like Socrates.