Electrical Engineering Objective Questions

1. A device whose characteristics are very close to that of an ideal voltage source is
A. a vacuum diode
B. a DIAC
C. a zener diode
D. a FET
2. The forbidden energy gap in semiconductors
A. lies just below the valance band
B. lies just above the conduction band
C. lies between the valence band and the conduction band
D. is the same as the valence band
3. The barrier potential for a Ge PN junction is
A. 0.6V
B. 0.3V
C. 0.1V
D. 0.5V
4. The ripple factor of a power supply is a measure of
A. its voltage regulation
B. its diode rating
C. purity of power output
D. its filter efficiency
5. In a BJT, if the emitter junction is reverse-biased and the collector junction is reverse-biased, it is said
to operate in
A. in active region
B. in saturation region
C. in cut-off region
D. none of the above
6. In the switching type of voltage regulators, the power efficiency will be of the order of
A. 50% or less
B. 60%
C. 40% or more
D. 90% or more
7. The resistance between bases of a UJT is typically in the range of
A. 2 to 3 K
B. 5 to 10 K
C. 15 to 20 K
D. 18 to 20 K
8. The quantity that serves as a figure of merit for a DIFF AMP is
A. slew rate
B. bandwidth
C. input bias current
D. CMRR
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Electrical Engineering Objective Questions

9. Practical range of resistance values obtainable with base diffused resistors is
A. 10 to 1 K
B. 20 to 30 K
C. 5 to 3 K
D. 20K to 50 K
10. With increasing temperature, the resistivity of an intrinsic semiconductor decreases. This is because,
with the increase of temperature
A. the carrier concentration increases but the mobility of carriers decreases
B. both the carrier concentration and mobility of carriers decreases
C. the carrier concentration decreases, but the mobility of carriers increases
D. the carrier concentration remains the same but the mobility of carriers decreases
11. Which of the following is a unipolar device?
A. P-N junction diode
B. zener diode
C. tunnel diode
D. Schottky diode
12. On applying a Positive voltage signal to the base of a normally biased N-P-N CE transistoramplifier
A. base current will fall
B. collector current will fall
C. emitter current will fall
D. collector voltage will become less positive
13. The extremely high input impedance of a MOSFET is primarily because of
A. absence of its channel
B. depletion of current carriers
C. extremely small leakage current of its gate capacitor
D. negative VGS
14. The specific resistance depends upon
A. The area of cross-section and the length of the conductor
B. The material of the conductor, its area of cross-sectional and length
C. The nature of the material of the conductor only
D. The area of the cross-section of the conductor
15. An ampere is how many abampere?
A. 0.4
B. 0.3
C. 0.1
D. 0.2

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Electrical Engineering Objective Questions

16. How is the storage battery rated in capacity?
A. volts
B. watts
C. amperes
D. ampere-hour
17. It is the unconventional unit of MMF in the CGS system.
A. unit pole
B. statvolts
C. gilberts
D. ampere turns
18. In CGS system, what is the unit of EMF when I is in abampere and P is in erg per second?
A. millivolt
B. kilovolt
C. abvolt
D. volt
19. Which of the following is a bilateral circuit?
A. vacuum tube rectifier
B. diode
C. transmission line
D. transistor
20. Megger is an instrument to measure
A. very low resistance
B. insulation resistance
C. Q of a coil
D. inductance of a coil
21. Electrolyte of a storage battery is formed by adding
A. water to hydrochloric acid
B. sulfuric acid to water
C. hydrochloric acid to water
D. water to sulfuric acid
22. In the American Wire Gauge, as the number of gauge increases, the diameter of wire ___________.
A. increases
B. decreases
C. does not change
D. become twice
23. When the sole purpose of ac is to produce heat, the selection of conductor is based on ___________
value of the current.
A. average
B. instantaneous
C. RMS
D. peak
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Electrical Engineering Objective Questions

24. The Q-factor of a coil is given by ________.
A. the ratio of its maximum energy stored to its energy dissipated per cycle
B. its power factor
C. the reciprocal of its power factor
D. the ratio of its resistance to its inductive reactance
25. The phase shift between the voltage and current vectors is due to the following loads except one.
A. magnet coils
B. electric flat iron
C. power capacitors
D. fluorescent lamp
26. The length of time between a point in one cycle to the same point of the next cycle of an AC wave is
the __________.
A. frequency
B. period
C. magnitude
D. polarity
27. In a balance star (wye) connected system, the line voltage is ______________.
A. 0.707 times the phase voltage
B. 1.414 times the phase voltage
C. phasor sum of two phase voltages
D. phasor difference of two phase voltages
28. When phase sequence of a three-phase system is reversed, ___________.
A. phase currents change in angle not in magnitude
B. phase currents are changed
C. total power consumed is changed
D. phase power are changed
29. In two-wattmeter method, the readings of the wattmeter will be identical when ___________.
A. load in one of the two phases is zero
B. power factor is unity
C. power factor is 0.5
D. neutral is earthed
30. Floating neutral in a three-phase supply is undesirable because it will cause __________.
A. high voltage across the load
B. unequal line voltage across the load
C. low voltage across the load
D. it has no effect on the load
31. A three-phase load is balanced if all the three phases have the same ___________.
A. impedance
B. power factor
C. impedance & power factor
D. power
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Electrical Engineering Objective Questions

32. The phase sequence of a three-phase system is BCA. The other possible phase sequence can be
___________.
A. CBA
B. CAB
C. ACB
D. none of these
33. Which DC motor cannot be used without a load connected to it?
A. shunt
B. series
C. compound
D. universal
34. In a DC compound motor, what is the relation of the connection of motor field windings with respect
to the motor armature?
A. series
B. parallel
C. series-parallel
D. delta-wye
35. Which of these is not a factor in determining the speed of a DC motor?
A. strength of armature circuit magnetic field
B. strength of magnetic field produced by the field coils
C. the load of the motor
D. the thickness of the commutator bars
36. Adjustment of field excitation on one of the two alternators operating in parallel will
A. increase its load
B. change its frequency
C. decrease its load
D. change its power factor
37. The disadvantage of a short-pitch coil is that ___________.
A. harmonics are introduced
B. waveform becomes non-sinusoidal
C. voltage around the coil is reduced
D. both a & b
38. The imaginary or fictitious part of synchronous reactance on alternator takes care of ___________.
A. inductive reactance
B. leakage reactance
C. armature reaction
D. copper losses

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Electrical Engineering Objective Questions

39. The power factor of an alternator is 75%. The operator is ordered to increase the power factor to
80%. What shall he do?
A. increase the voltage
B. operate the governor
C. increase the excitation
D. decrease the excitation
40. High speed alternators have a rotor construction
A. similar to DC machines
B. of non-salient type
C. of salient type
D. none of these
41. In huge alternators, the moving part is
A. brushes
B. armature
C. poles
D. none of these
42. The fact that the outer layer of the conductor carries more current as compared to core is known as
__________.
A. corona
B. permeability
C. fault
D. skin effect
43. An ACSR conductor having seven steel strands surrounded by 25 aluminum conductor is specified as
___________.
A. 7/25
B. 25/7
C. 14/50
D. 50/14
44. The conductors are bundled primarily to _________.
A. increase reactance
B. reduce ratio interference
C. reduce reactance
D. reduce resistance
45. Shunt capacitance is neglected in __________ transmission lines.
A. short
B. medium length
C. long
D. all of these

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Electrical Engineering Objective Questions

46. When the load at the receiving end of a long transmission line is removed or the line is highly loaded,
the sending end voltage is less than the receiving end voltage. This phenomenon is called
____________.
A. Ferranti effect
B. proximity effect
C. Kelvin effect
D. skin effect
47. For a line terminated by its characteristics impedance, the reflected wave is equal to __________.
A. zero
B. equal to incident wave
C. half of the incident wave
D. twice of the incident wave
48. Which of the following is not one of the classes of arresters?
A. transmission class
B. station class
C. distribution class
D. intermediate class
49. In transmission lines, the most effective protection against lightning strikes is one of the following.
Which one is this?
A. lightning rods
B. lightning arresters
C. Peterson coils
D. overhead wires
50. A combination of switch & fuse.
A. fuse cut-out
B. relay
C. safety switch
D. circuit breaker
51. High impedance grounded system generally means ____________ system.
A. solidly grounded
B. unigrounded
C. multigrounded
D. ungrounded
52. A string efficiency of 100% means that ________.
A. one of the insulator discs is shorted
B. the potential across each disc is zero
C. potential across each disc is the same
D. potential across the large disc is very large

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Electrical Engineering Objective Questions

53. The causes of nearly all high voltage flashovers in transmission lines are due to one of the following.
A. high humidity
B. dust & dirt
C. corona
D. lightning discharges
54. The transfer bus scheme has the following characteristics except one. Which one is this?
A. it allows the disconnection of circuit breaker for maintenance without interrupting the service.
B. it is more flexible
C. it allows better continuity of service as compared with the single bus
D. it is more costly than that of the single bus system
55. Surge arresters are needed in transmission lines for the following purpose. Which one is important?
A. regulate the voltage
B. prevent the lightning from striking the line
C. protect the system from high transients
D. protect the line from short circuit current
56. In fission, energy is produced when
A. chemical compound splits into its components
B. nuclear particle splits
C. nuclear particles combine
D. molecules combine
57. In the list below which one is not a type of present day nuclear power plant?
A. boiling water
B. fusion-fission reactor
C. low pressure reactor
D. fast breeder reactor
58. A thermal power plant using dry organic material such as wood and other wastes for its fuel.
A. geothermal power plant
B. diesel power plant
C. dendro power plant
D. hydro power plant
59. The power generated by some steam power plants drops in the summer because __________.
A. there is no rain
B. the water in the lake decreases
C. many people are swimming in the lake
D. the lake temperature increases
60. Diesel power plant is best suited as
A. peak load
B. standby
C. base load
D. general purpose
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Electrical Engineering Objective Questions

61. Which of the following cannot have a single unit of 100 MW?
A. hydro power plant
B. steam power plant
C. diesel power plant
D. nuclear power plant
62. Inadverent accumulations between power systems are normally balanced by scheduling
compensating deliveries of power
A. during off-peak load
B. during periods corresponding to those in which the inadvertent energy was accumulated
C. on weekends
D. on base load plants
63. Online load flow program of a SCADA system
A. used the actual operating data
B. used calculated values of loading of lines and equipment
C. cannot provide transmission loss factor
D. are used only on system designed function
64. Spinning reserve is generating capacity that
A. is available by starting Gas Turbine generating units
B. is synchronized and online, with capacity in excess of existing load
C. has lowest fuel cost
D. a policy matter
65. Heating value of coal largely depend on
A. ash content
B. moisture content
C. volatile matter
D. size of coal particle
66. Power plant using coal work closely on which of the following cycle
A. Rankine cycle
B. binary vapor cycle
C. Otto cycle
D. size of coal particle
67. In steam turbine, the lowest pressure occurs in
A. turbine inlet
B. boiler
C. condenser
D. superheater
68. For low head and high discharge the hydraulic turbine used is
A. Kaplan
B. Francis type
C. Pelton wheel
D. Jonvas
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Electrical Engineering Objective Questions

69. Overall efficiency of gas turbine is
A. equal to Carnot cycle efficiency
B. equal to Rankine cycle efficiency
C. less than Diesel cycle efficiency
D. more than Otto or Diesel cycle efficiency
70. The function of moderator in Nuclear Reaction is
A. to accelerate reaction
B. to control the reaction
C. to absorb excessive neutrons
D. to liberate excessive neutron
71. During load shedding
A. system voltage is reduced
B. some loads are switched off
C. system power factor is changed
D. system frequency is reduced
72. A low utilization factor for a plant indicates that
A. plant is used for base loads only
B. plant is used for standby purpose only
C. plant is under maintenance
D. plant is used for peak load
73. Which of the following relations is incorrect?
A. Capacity factor = Utilization factor x Load factor
B. Load factor x Maximum load = Average load
C. Demand factor x Connected load = Maximum demand
D. none of the above
74. When the load on a thermal unit is increased, fuel input
A. increased
B. does not change
C. decreased
D. slightly decrease
75. When the generating units are loaded to equal incremental cost:
A. minimum fuel cost result
B. fuel cost at maximum
C. fuel cost not affected
D. efficiency decreased
76. In a power system using both hydro and thermal generation, the proportion of hydro generation
can be increased by
A. increasing the price of water
B. reducing the price of water
C. increasing the field current of hydro generators
D. decreasing the field current of hydro generators
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Electrical Engineering Objective Questions

77. Which of the following methods of generating electric power from the sea is more advantageous?
A. water power
B. ocean power
C. tidal power
D. wind power
78. The efficiency of thermal power plant improves with
A. increase of quantity of coal burnt
B. use of high steam pressure
C. lower load on the plant
D. larger quantity of water used
79. A gas turbine works on
A. Carnot cycle
B. Brayton cycle
C. Dual cycle
D. Rankine cycle
80. Air standard efficiency of a diesel engine depends on
A. compression ratio
B. speed
C. fuel
D. torque
81. Most of the heat generated in internal combustion engine depends on
A. cooling water
B. exhaust gases
C. lubricating oil
D. radiation
82. Capital cost per MWh is highest in case of
A. steam power
B. diesel engine
C. nuclear power plant
D. hydroelectric
83. Economizers are used to heat
A. air
B. feedwater
C. steam
D. boiler
84. Surge tank is provided for the protection of
A. weir
B. penstock
C. blade
D. intake pipe
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Electrical Engineering Objective Questions

85. For the same maximum demand, if the load factor is decreased the cost of energy is
A. increased
B. decreased
C. not affected
D. none of the above
86. The feedwater is usually heated before it is injected to the boiler for the following reason EXCEPT
one. Which one is this?
A. improves the overall performance of the plant
B. recovers part of the flue gas heat which is otherwise lost to the atmosphere
C. derating types of preheaters permit the removal of dissolve gases from the feedwater
D. increase the efficiency of the boiler
87. Subsynchronous resonance is a condition that may occur on
A. short transmission line
B. long heavily loaded line
C. loss of load on transmission line
D. increase of load on line
88. Which of the following contributes to the efficiency of Rankine cycle in thermal power plant?
A. use of high pressure
B. reheating of steam at intermediate stage
C. regeneration use of steam for heating boiler
D. all of these
89. It is the modern equipment of removing sulphur content from the flue gas of the power plant.
A. ESP
B. EMS
C. FGD
D. DAC
90. The power intended to be available even under emergency condition is called
A. firm power
B. hot reserve
C. cold reserve
D. spinning reserve
91. The most economical cross section of a conductor is that which makes the interest on the capital
outlay plus depreciation due to the conductor in the cable equal to the annual cost of energy loss.
A. Ferranti law
B. Kelvins law
C. Mc Kelvins law
D. Vanderwhaals law

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Electrical Engineering Objective Questions

92. Ferroresonance is a condition that may occur on
A. distribution line
B. capacitor
C. transformer
D. Transmission line
93. An effective remover of dust, carbon particles and other from the flue gas of the power plant is
called _________.
A. electrostatic precipitator
B. shoot blower & connector
C. mechanical collector
D. dust scrubber
94. Type of water wheels used in hydroelectric plants
A. propeller
B. impulse
C. reaction
D. all of these
95. When the alternative sources of energy are available to power system, they should be used in such
a way that
A. thermal generation is held at minimum
B. the most efficient plants are always loaded to their maximum
C. overall production cost is minimized
D. used diesel power plant
96. In thermal electric generating plant, overall efficiency is improved when
A. boiler pressure is increased
B. the difference between initial pressure and temperature and exhaust pressure and temperature
are held at maximum
C. loads on the units is increased
D. increase the number of generator
97. One advantage of computer control of generating unit is that
A. various outputs of the units are minimized
B. all units under the control of the computer will be located on the same load
C. loading of the units will be frequently adjusted to maintain them at equal incremental cost
D. it can control all equipment
98. Which is not found in a rapid start fluorescent lamp?
A. ballast
B. starter
C. wire harness
D. capacitor

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Electrical Engineering Objective Questions

99. Electrons at the outermost shell are called
A. free electrons
B. outer electrons
C. valence electrons
D. active electrons
100. Which has the least number of valence electrons?
A. conductor
B. elemental semiconductor
C. insulator
D. compound semiconductor
101. Energy required by a valence electron before it can move towards the conduction band.
A. energy gap
B. conduction band
C. work function
D. valence band
102. A semiconductor that is free from impurities
A. intrinsic semiconductor
B. compensated semiconductor
C. extrinsic semiconductor
D. elemental semiconductor
103. The process of adding impurities in a semiconductor material.
A. growing
B. diffusion
C. doping
D. depleting
104. If the substance used in doping has less than four valence electrons, it is known as
A. acceptor
B. donor
C. trivalent
D. pentavalent
105. P-type semiconductor has an excess of
A. electron
B. hole
C. proton
D. neutron
106. A semiconductor frequently used to rectify AC current to DC is called
A. zinc oxide
B. transistor
C. tube
D. diode
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Electrical Engineering Objective Questions

107. A full-wave rectifier has a ripple voltage which is approximately ___________ that of a half-wave
rectifier.
A. one-fourth
B. one-half
C. twice
D. thrice
108. The pulsating DC voltage output of a full-waver rectifier without a filter capacitor can be used in a
A. battery charger
B. radio
C. computer
D. stereo system
109. An unregulated power supply which consists of a transformer, a rectifier and a filter has some
characteristics which are as follows except one. Which one is this?
A. it has good voltage regulation
B. it is relatively expensive
C. the output voltage varies with the load
D. the output voltage depends on the input voltage
110. This is a special diode optimized for operation in the breakdown region.
A. light-emitting diode
B. zener diode
C. rectifier diode
D. Schottky diode
111. The resistance of semiconductor is known as
A. bulk resistance
B. intrinsic resistance
C. extrinsic resistance
D. dynamic resistance
112. A device that is formed when an n-type and p-type semiconductors are brought together.
A. pn junction
B. semiconductor junction
C. depletion region
D. junction diode
113. The minimum voltage required before the diode can totally conduct in a forward direction.
A. triggering voltage
B. saturation voltage
C. breakdown voltage
D. threshold voltage

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Electrical Engineering Objective Questions

114. Diode circuit that is used to cut a portion of the input signal.
A. clipper
B. clamper
C. peak detector
D. level shifter
115. The voltage output of a bridged rectifier is
A. half wave signal
B. bridged rectified signal
C. sine wave
D. full wave signal
116. Zener diode normally requires _________ biasing.
A. forward
B. reverse
C. maximum
D. impedance
117. Zener diodes are used as
A. rectifiers
B. switches
C. amplifiers
D. regulators
118. A transistor has _________ doped regions.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
119. What is one important thing that transistors do?
A. amplify weak signals
B. rectify line voltage
C. emit sound
D. emit light
120. An advantage of a transistor is
A. small size
B. lack of heater
C. it lasts indefinitely
D. all of these
121. Buchholz relay is used for protection of
A. transformer
B. alternator
C. bus bar
D. none of these
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Electrical Engineering Objective Questions

122. Mho relay is used for protection of
A. short lines
B. long lines
C. medium lines
D. none of these
123. EHT cable is designed for which voltage level
A. 22-33 KV
B. 33-66 KV
C. beyond 132 KV
D. none
124. String efficiency can be improved by which method
A. grading the insulator
B. using guard ring
C. both A and B
D. neither A nor B
125. Which of these sets of logic gates are designated as universal gates
A. NOR , NAND
B. XOR,NOR ,NAND
C. OR,NOT,AND
D. NOR,NAND,XNOR
126. Slip of induction motor does not depends on
A. rotor speed
B. synchronous speed
C. shaft torque
D. core loss
127. Ampere second is the unit of
A. conductance
B. power
C. energy
D. charge
128. The pressure coil of a dynamometer type wattmeter is
A. highly resistive
B. highly inductive
C. purely resistive
D. purely inductive
129. Bundled conductor are mainly used in high voltage overhead lines to
A. reduce line losses
B. reduce sag
C. reduce corona
D. increase mechanical strength
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Electrical Engineering Objective Questions

130. The bridge method is used for finding mutual inductance is
A. Schering Bridge
B. Heaviside Campbell Bridge
C. De Sautee
D. Wien Bridge
131. Number of comparators needed in a parallel conversion type 8 bit A to D converter is
A. 255
B. 256
C. 16
D. 8
132. Type of single phase motor having highest p.f. at full load is
A. shaded pole type
B. capacitor run
C. capacitor start
D. split phase
133. A 4 point starter is used to start and control the speed of a
A. DC shunt motor with field weakening
B. DC shunt with armature resistance control
C. DC series motor
D. DC compound motor
134. For large capacity transformer which core is used
A. square
B. multi stepped
C. rectangular
D. circular
135. Transformers cause transfer of energy from one circuit to another without change in
A. frequency
B. load
C. voltage
D. none
136. Commonly used starters of cage motor is
A. DOL
B. star delta
C. both A and B
D. neither A nor B
137. When bundle conductor are used in place of single conductor the effective inductance and
capacitance will respectively
A. decrease and increase
B. increase and decrease
C. increase and remain unaffected
D. decrease and remain unaffected
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Electrical Engineering Objective Questions

138. For effective use of a counterpoise wire
A. its leakage resistance should be less than the surge impedance
B. its leakage resistance should be greater than the surge impedance
C. its leakage resistance should be equal the surge impedance
D. none of the above
139. Which loss occurs in magnetic core of transformer?
A. copper loss
B. iron loss
C. stray loss
D. dielectric loss
140. In Open circuit (O.C) test of transformer which side is kept open
A. high voltage side
B. low voltage side
C. either A or B
D. both A and B
141. Cooling of synchronous generator is done by
A. air cooling
B. direct water cooling
C. hydrogen cooling
D. all of the above
142. In a short circuit test, low voltage side is
A. connected to wattmeter
B. connected to ammeter
C. open circuited
D. short
143. All day energy efficiency is related to which of the transformer
A. distribution transformer
B. C.T
C. P.T
D. power transformer
144. There are how many three phase transformer groups
A. 3
B. 6
C. 4
D. 5
145. Slip speed is the
A. difference of synchronous speed and actual rotor speed
B. difference of actual rotor speed and synchronous speed
C. sum of synchronous and rotor speeds
D. half of the sum of synchronous and rotor speeds
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Electrical Engineering Objective Questions

146. Conductance of any conductor is expressed as
A. ampere/watt
B. mho
C. volt2/watt
D. watt/ampere2
147. At slip, s=1 torque developed in machine is
A. starting torque
B. maximum torque
C. electromagnetic torque
D. none
148. Which special type of motor has rotor movements in discrete steps
A. stepper motor
B. reluctance motor
C. hysteresis motor
D. servomotors
149. Recovery voltage in CB is equal to
A. transient voltage
B. arcing period voltage
C. normal frequency 50 Hz RMS voltage
D. none of the above
150. In a synchronous alternator rigidity factor or stability factor (Psyn) expressed as a
A. (VXs/Ef) cos
B. (VEf/Xs) cos
C. (1+VXs/Ef) cos
D. none of the above
151. In synchronous generator a synchronous dead load (lamp, furnaces etc.) has no ____________
hence it has no natural frequency of oscillation.
A. restoring torque
B. damping torque
C. synchronizing power co efficient
D. none of the above
152. In Diesel engine, gas engine type of machine contains __________ pole type of alternator.
A. salient
B. cylindrical
C. non uniform cylindrical
D. none of the above
153. To determine the losses an alternator is driven by
A. synchronous motor
B. calibrated D.C. motor
C. compensated D.C. motor
D. A.C series motor
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Electrical Engineering Objective Questions

154. What is represented by the hypotenuse of impedance triangle?
A. impedance drop
B. resistance drop
C. reactance drop
D. apparent power
155. Fusing factor is the
A. normal current rating of fuse element / minimum fusing current
B. minimum fusing current / normal current rating of fuse element
C. both A and B
D. neither A nor B
156. Maximum temperature limit of class F insulator in (degree centigrade) is
A. 105
B. 155
C. 120
D. 130
157. In which dc motor flywheel is used
A. differential compound motor
B. cumulatively compound motor
C. shunt motor
D. series motor
158. On what factors the speed of DC motor depends
A. applied voltage
B. field flux
C. armature current Ia
D. all of the above
159. What is the relation between rotor copper loss & full load slip
A. s/1-s
B. 1-s/s
C. 1/s
D. 1/s-1
160. Important property of core of transformer
A. high permeability
B. high resistivity
C. both a & b
D. low permeability
161. We can apply source transformation to Voltage source when a resistance is connected to it in
A. series
B. parallel
C. any one of the connection
D. no resistance is connected
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Electrical Engineering Objective Questions

162. In foster 1 form 1st element is
A. capacitor
B. inductor
C. both A and B
D. neither A nor B
163. In 2 port network Z12 = Z21 indicates which property
A. unilateral
B. bilateral
C. linear
D. non linear
164. Link In network theory refers to
A. B-N +1
B. B-N-1
C. N-1
D. N-B-1
165. Properties of incidence matrix
A. algebraic sum of column entries of an incidence matrix is zero
B. determinant of incidence matrix of a closed loop is zero
C. both A and B
D. neither A nor B
166. In a synchronous motor if the excitation is greater than 100%. Then the current drawn by the
motor would be
A. maximum
B. minimum
C. same
D. none of the above
167. The rapid forward and backward motion of the rotor as it revolves at the avg. constant speed is
called
A. hunting
B. cogging
C. crawling
D. humming
168. Maximum power output of a synchronous motor is given by
A. Pom(max)= (VEf/Zs)-(Ef2/Zs2 Ra)
B. Pom(max)= (VEf/Zs)+(Ef2/Zs2 Ra)
C. Pom(max)= (Zs/VEf)-(Ef2/Zs2 Ra)
D. Pom(max)= (Zs/VEf)+(Ef2/Zs2 Ra)

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Electrical Engineering Objective Questions

169. _________ can be tested for determining the maximum temperature rise by back to back test
called Sumpners test.
A. small transformer
B. large transformers
C. alternators
D. none of the above
170. Piezoelectric effect is carried out in
A. composite filter
B. crystal filter
C. m derived filter
D. constant k prototype filter
171. In Cauer 1 form last element in the network is
A. Lseries
B. Cseries
C. Lshunt
D. Cshunt
172. What are the starters used for starting of cage motors?
A. D.O.L starter
B. star-delta starter
C. autotransformer starter
D. all of the above
173. Methods of synchronizing of alternator
A. all dark lamp method
B. all bright lamp method
C. one dark two bright
D. all of the above
174. Which transformer is used to operate 24 hours a day?
A. distribution
B. power
C. both A and B
D. neither A nor B
175. In an autotransformer, losses are ____ than conventional transformers.
A. more
B. equal
C. less
D. no loss
176. Which motor is double excited machine?
A. induction motor
B. synchronous motor
C. DC motor
D. alternator
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Electrical Engineering Objective Questions

177. In 4 quadrant operation of a hoist, 3rd quadrant represents
A. reverse motoring
B. reverse braking
C. forward braking
D. forward motoring
178. In lathe machine which motor is used
A. synchronous motor
B. Induction motor
C. alternator
D. none of the above
179. Overhead voltage distribution system is applied to city A & cable voltage distribution system is
applied to city B. Voltage variation at consumer terminal is less in which city
A. A
B. B
C. both are equal
D. not related to voltage distribution
180. A C.T is connected in _________ with the line.
A. series
B. across
C. not connected
D. both A & B
181. Bauxite is the main ore of
A. manganese
B. copper
C. aluminum
D. silver
182. In a transistor amplifier the __________junction is reverse biased.
A. collector base junction
B. Emitter base junction
C. CE base junction
D. none of the above
183. For effective use of a counterpoise wire
A. its leakage resistance should be less than the surge impedance
B. its leakage resistance should be greater than the surge impedance
C. its leakage resistance should be equal the surge impedance
D. none of the above
184. E.C.E stands for
A. electrochemical equation
B. electrochemical equivalent
C. electron chemical equation
D. none of the above
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Electrical Engineering Objective Questions

185. Larger values of air flux density is taken while designing IM for
A. larger output
B. larger bore diameter
C. both A and B
D. neither A nor B
186. Purpose of using capacitor is/are
A. increase p.f. of inductive load circuit
B. to do phase split in AC single phase motor
C. effect DC filter in electronic circuit
D. all of the above
187. What are the constituents in speed time curve of train?
A. coasting
B. initial acceleration
C. constant speed
D. all of the above
188. Which transformer is designed to have maximum efficiency at or near full load?
A. power transformer
B. distribution transformer
C. current transformer
D. potential transformer
189. What are the points to be mentioned in specifying main switches?
A. voltage grade
B. current rating
C. both A and B
D. neither A nor B
190. In distribution transformer which winding is used
A. helical
B. sandwiched
C. circular
D. cylindrical
191. Phase difference in AC two phase coil is
A. 60 dergee
B. 90 degree
C. 120 degree
D. 180 degree
192. In illumination technology total lumens emitted by source / total lumens available after waste of
light is equal to
A. waste light factor
B. utilization factor
C. absorption factor
D. beam factor
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Electrical Engineering Objective Questions

193. Which type of dc motor is employed in a domestic vacuum cleaner?
A. DC series motor
B. DC shunt
C. DC short shunt compound
D. DC long shunt compound
194. Advantage/s of active filter is/are
A. do not offer gain
B. easy to tune
C. derive high impedance load
D. all of the above
195. Which type of dc motor runs in constant speed?
A. series
B. shunt
C. compound
D. both A & B
196. In which dc motor flywheel is used
A. differential compound motor
B. cumulatively compound motor
C. shunt motor
D. series motor
197. Which losses do not vary with load?
A. windage loss
B. copper loss
C. iron loss
D. hysteresis loss
198. On what factors the speed of dc motor depends?
A. applied voltage
B. field flux
C. armature current Ia
D. all of the above
199. What are the methods of testing DC motor?
A. all options are not valid
B. swinburnes test
C. direct loading method
D. both B & C
200. Important property/ies of core of transformer is/are
A. high permeability
B. high resistivity
C. both A & B
D. neither A nor B

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Electrical Engineering Objective Questions

201. Bird guard is used in
A. insulator
B. conductor
C. transformer
D. lightning arrester
202. Alternating Current is found most suitable for
A. arc welding
B. resistance welding
C. gas welding
D. electric arc welding
203. What type of dielectric material is used in capacitors used for fans and for p.f. correction?
A. oil impregnated paper
B. vacuum
C. glass
D. mica
204. DIVERSITY FACTOR is equal to
A. maximum demand /connected load
B. sum of maximum demand of consumers/ maximum demand on system
C. average demand /maximum demand
D. none of the above
205. What are the types of EHT cables?
A. oil filled
B. gas filled
C. both A and B
D. neither A nor B
206. For large plants of capacity for more than 15MW, what type of cooling is used?
A. hydrogen
B. water
C. air
D. liquid
207. Among the following, which is not a nonconventional energy?
A. wind
B. nuclear
C. tidal
D. geothermal
208. On what factor does the performance of a circuit breaker depend?
A. breaking speed
B. critical length of breaking
C. both A and B
D. none of the above
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Electrical Engineering Objective Questions

209. Maximum length of transmission line wherein the capacitance can be neglected?
A. 120km
B. 75km
C. 220km
D. 150km
210. What is/are the method/s for determining regulation of an alternator?
A. synchronous impedance method
B. MMF method
C. zero p.f. method
D. all of the above
211. The fluorescent materials used for fluorescence of green color.
A. zinc silicate + manganese
B. zinc sulfide + manganese
C. zinc sulfide + silver
D. calcium silicate + manganese
212. Examples of base load stations.
A. thermal
B. hydro
C. gas turbine
D. both A and B
213. In what connection we get neutral?
A. star
B. delta
C. mesh
D. both A & B
214. Sag depends upon
A. weight of conductor
B. tensile strength of conductor
C. both A and B
D. neither A nor B
215. What is the relation between line voltage & phase voltage in case of delta connection?
A. VL = VP
B. VL =1/ 3 VP
C. VL = 3 VP
D. none of the above
216. Which single phase motor is used for refrigerator?
A. capacitor run
B. split phase
C. universal
D. repulsion
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Electrical Engineering Objective Questions

217. What type of cable are used in hill /mines?
A. MIND
B. XLPE
C. FRLS
D. LSOH
218. What is the flash point of transformer oil in degree centigrade?
A. 200
B. 80
C. 140
D. >300
219. Leakage reactance of transformer vary with number of turns as
A. directly proportional
B. directly proportional to square of number of turns
C. inversely proportional to square of number of turns
D. inversely proportional
220. Class B insulation can bear temperature (in degree centigrade) up to?
A. 130
B. 120
C. 105
D. 90
221. Leakage reactance of transformer depends upon
A. number of turns
B. configuration of windings
C. frequency
D. all of the above
222. Mineral insulating oils are the most widely used for liquid insulation for
A. easy availability
B. cheap
C. good electrical property as well as heat transfer
D. all of the above
223. Thermal conductivity of hydrogen is how many times that of air?
A. 7
B. 4
C. 1.4
D. 14
224. Silicon content in electric sheet steel is limited to 5% as it
A. makes punching difficult
B. makes steel brittle
C. pouching is easier
D. both A and B
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Electrical Engineering Objective Questions

225. At which point of a conductor embedded in a slot does the maximum temperature occur?
A. periphery
B. center
C. equal throughout
D. none
226. In synchronous machine the damper winding is used to
A. reduce oscillation
B. reduce air gap harmonic flux
C. increase stability limit
D. resist the moisture
227. Transformer with current rating of 2000A has what type of winding?
A. crossover
B. helical
C. continuous disc
D. sandwich winding
228. Type/s of rotating machines
A. transformer
B. IM
C. synchronous motor
D. both B and C
229. The concept of an electrically short, medium and long line is primarily based on
A. nominal voltage of the line
B. physical length of the line
C. wavelength of the line
D. power transmitted over the line
230. Which class of insulator can bear maximum temperature?
A. C
B. H
C. Y
D. A
231. Minor insulations include
A. insulation between turns
B. conductor insulation
C. both A & B
D. between L.V. and H.V. winding
232. In a three-phase system, when the loads are perfectly balanced, the neutral current is
A. one-third of maximum
B. one-third of maximum
C. two-thirds of maximum
D. zero
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Electrical Engineering Objective Questions

233. Composition of insulator porcelain.
A. clay, talc, magnesite
B. clay, quartz ,feldspar
C. clay, quartz, barium carbonate
D. none of the above
234. Sandwich winding is seen in
A. core type transformer
B. shell type
C. distribution transformer
D. power transformer
235. Which windings are used for small capacity transformers?
A. circular
B. rectangular
C. cylindrical
D. helical
236. Major insulation of transformer includes
A. insulation between windings and windings
B. insulation between windings and earthed parts
C. both A and B
D. neither A nor B
237. What are the limitations imposed on m/c design?
A. temperature rise
B. insulation
C. efficiency
D. all of the above
238. Type/s of air cooling of a transformer.
A. ANAN
B. AN
C. AB/AF
D. all of the above
239. Specific magnetic loading is ratio of
A. total flux in air gap to area of flux path in air gap
B. area of flux path in air gap to total flux in air gap
C. total armature ampere conductor to armature periphery at air gap
D. both A and C
240. Area of yoke of transformers is what %?
A. 5-10%
B. 20-25%
C. 15-20%
D. 30%
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