1 & 2.

ELECTRIC CHANGES AND FIELDS ELECTROSTATIC

POTENTIAL AND CAPACITANCE
Q1.A glass rod rubbed with silk is found to
have positive charge of 3.2 x 10-10C.
a) In this method charge is produced by
...........
b) Name the Scientist who establised the
types of charges
c) Which priciple helps to find the number
of electrons transfered. state it.
d) Find the number of excess electrons in
silk.
e) Calculate the mass transfered from
glass to silk.
Ans: a) Friction
b) Benjamin Franklin
c) Quantisation of charge. It states that
total charge on a body is an integral
multiple of fundamental charge, ie.
charge of an electron.
q = + ne
n = 1, 2, 3 ... e = 1.6 x 10-19c
d) q = 3.2 x 10-10c
q = ne
q
n= e
3.2 x 10-10
=
= 2 x 109 electrons
1.6 x 10-19
e) me = 9.1 x 10-31
mass transfered
= me x n
= 9.1 x 10-31 x 2 x 109
= 18.2 x 10-22 kg
= 1.82 x 10-21 kg

Q4.Vehicles carrying inflammable materials

usually have metallic chains touching
the ground. Why?
Ans.Static charges may be produced in the
vehicles by friction between the tyre and
the road, between the inglammable
material and the body of vehicle and also
due to air. By doing so the accumulated
charges may flow to the earth.

Q2.Aeroplanes are provided with special

rubber tyres that are slightly conducting.
why?
Ans. By doing so staic charges produced
by the friction between the tyre and the
road when the aeroplane move through
the runway may flow to the earth.

= 81 x 101 = 810 N
c) In a medium the force between the
charges decreases by an amount K = r

Q3.Electostatic experiments are not

conducted in humid days. Why?
Ans. This is because wet air is slightly
conducting and the static charges may
get conducted away.
Aswathy Books

Q5.Two charged spheres 3c and 12c are

seperated by a distance 2 cm apart in
air.
a) Name the law which governs the force
between the charges. State it.
b) Find the magnitude force between the
charges.
c) If the charges are placed in mica (k =
5.6) do the force change. Find the new
force.
d) Nacl easily converts into ions when put
in water. Why?
e) What is the dielectric constant of copper?
Ans.a) Coulombs law (Statement)
b) q1 = 3c = 3 x 10-6c
q2 = 12c = 12 x 10-6c
r = 2cm = 2 x 10-2m
q 1q 2
qq
1
9 1 2
F=
=
9
x
10
40 r2
r2
-6
3 x 10 x 12 x 10-6
= 9 x 109 x
(2 x 10-2)2

Fm =

9 x 109 q1q2

k
r2
810
=
= 14.28 N
5.6
d) When put in water, the force between
Na+ and Cl- ions dereases by an amount
81 (r of water = 81). So they easily
seperates. m

e) For metals K = r = (infinity)

Q6. Two fixed charges +9e and +4e are
seperated by a distance d. Where
should be the third charge placed. So
that they are in equillibrium.
d
<
<
q
Ans. 9e
4e
x
<
< <
<
(d-x)
q2
q
q
1
1x 2
1
=
2
40 (d -x)2
40
x
9e x q
x

4e x q

(x -d)2
+2
3
taking squareroot
=
x
x-d
3(x - d) = 2x
3(x-d) = -2x
3x - 3d = 2x
3x - 3d = -2x
x = 3d
5x = 3d
3d
Which is not possible
x= 5
Which is possible
So the third charge is placed at a
distance 3d from the charge 9e.
5
Q.7.In HCl molecule H + & Cl- ions are
separated by a small distance.
a) Name such an arrangement
b) How is it measured. What is its unit?
c) What is the net force acting on it when
placed in uniform Electrifield?
d) Derive an expression for torque acting
on it.
e) What happens when it is placed in a
non uniform electric field?
Ans.a) Electric dipole.
b) The strength of a dipole is measured
as dipolemoment. Its unit is Coulomb
metre ( c-m)
c) Zero, net force on eletric dipole is zero
in uniform E.F.
d) (Derivation of = Ep Sin from text)
e) In a non uniform Electric field there is
an unbalanced External force. So there
will be translatory motion in addition to
rotation.
2

Q.8. Consider a uniform electric field E =

3 x 103 i N/C
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a) What is the flux of this field through a

square of 10cm on a side whose plane
is parallel to the yz plane?
b) What is the flux through the same
square if the normal to the plane makes
600 angle with x axis?
c) What is the net flux if the charge is at
the centre of a cube of side 10 cm?
Ans.a) E = 3 x 103 N/C a = 10 x 10-2m
= E x Area = 3 x 103 x (10 x10-2)2
= 30 N m2c-1
1
b) = E x Area x Cos 60 = 30 x
2
= 15Nm2c-1
c) Zero. The number of lines entering the
cube is same as the number of lines
leaving the cube.
9. An oil drop of 12 excess electrons is held
stationary under a constant electric field
of 2.55 x 104 N/C in 1.26 g/cm3. Estimate
the radius of the drop. (g = 9.81m/s2, e
= 1.6 x 10-19 c)
Ans. n = 12, E = 2.55 x 104N/C-1,
d = 1.260/cm3 = 1.26 x 103 kg/cm3
mg = qE
4 r3dg = neE
3
3neE
r3 = 4dg
1/3
r = 3neE
=
4dg
y3
3 x 12 x 1.6 x 10-19 x 2.55 x 104
4 x 3.14 x 1.26 x 103 x 9.8
= 9.81 x 10-7m
Q.10. A charge placed inside a spherical
gaussian surface products an electric
flux of 3 x 105 Nc-1m. What will be the
flux when (i) The are of gaussian surface
is doubled (ii) The spherical surface is
replaced by a cylindrical surface.
Ans. (i) Remains same as 3 x 105 Nc-1m2
(ii) Remain same.
This is because electric flux is
independent of shape and area of the
gaussian surface.

Q.11. The atmospheric electric field near

the surface of the earth is as high as
100 vm-1. Why do we not get an electric
shock as we move on earth.
Ans. Our body and earth are at the same
potential.
Q.12. A man inside an insulated matellalic
cage does not get a shock when the
cage is highly charged. Why?
Ans. Due to electrostatic shielding the
electrified inside the cage is zero. Also
the charge resides only on the surface
of the conductor.
Q.13.A sphere of radius 1 cm is given a
charge +3c. Find the electric field and
potential.
(i) At the surface of the sphere.
(ii) Inside the sphere.
Ans.r = 1 cm = 1 x 10-2m
q = 3 c = 3 x 10-6c
q
1 q
(i) E =
= 9 x 109
=
40 r2
r2
9 x 109 x
1
V = 4
0

3 x 10-6
(10-2)2

-6
= 9 x 109 x 3 x 10 = 2.7 x 104 V
-2
10
(ii) Inside the sphere electrifield is zero but
the potential is same as that of the
surface and is equal to 2.7 x 104 V.
Q.14. Why do we obtain neutral point in
the space between two like charges?
Ans. This is because net electrif field
intensity at this point is zero, the
intesities due to two charges being
equal and opposite.

Q.15. What does (q1 +q2) = 0 signify?

Ans. q1 + q2 = 0, q1 = -q2 such a system of
point charges is called electric dipole.
It is a system containing two equal and
opposite charges separated by a small
distance.
Q.16. A uniform E.F of 10 N/C exists in the
vertically downward direction. Find the
Aswathy Books

increase in the electric potential as one

goes up through a height of 50 cm.
Ans. E = -10 N/C (-ve sign form down ward
direction.
dv = ? dr = 50 cm = .5 m
dv
E=
dr
dv = - E dr = -(-10) x .5 = 5 V
Q.17. The Electric potential V at any point
(x, y, z) in space is given by V = 4x2 volt.
Calculate the electric intensity at the
point (1m, 0, 2m)
Ans. V = 4x2, E = ?, x = 1m, y = 0, z = 2m
E = - v =
x

(4x2) = -4 x 2x
x

= -8x = -8 x1

= -8v/m along -ve x axis

Q.18. An infinite number of charges each
numerically, equal to q and of the same
sign are placed along the x axis at x = 1,
x = 2, x = 4, x= 8 and so on. Find the
electric potential at x = 0.
Ans.
0
1
2
4
8
By Superposition Principle, potential at
x = 0 is
1
q q q q
V=
[ + + + + ..........]
40 1 2 4 8
=

1 1 1 1
[ + + + ......]
40 1 2 22 23

The sum of infinite G.P series is

a
S = 1-r
1
1
Here =
=
=2
1/
1-1/2
2
q
2q
V
x2 =
40
40
Q.19. Can we produce high voltage on the
human body without getting a shock?
Ans. Yes, we can. The person must stand
on a highly insulated platform. There fore
with high voltage on the body, no charge
will flow to the ground through the body
and the person will not get any shock.
Q.20. Figure shows three point charges +2q,

-q and +3q. What is the electric flux

due to this configuration through the
surface S?
1
Ans. = E =
(2q -q)
+2q
0
-q S
q
+3q
=

Q.21.What is the amount of work done in

moving a 200nC charge between two
points 5cm apart on an equipotential
surface?
Ans. On an equipotential surface, work
done W = q(VB-VA) = 0
Q.22. Do electrons tend to go to regions
of high potential or low potential.
Ans. Since electrons are negatively
charged, they have tendency to go to
regions of high potential.
Q.23. IF E.F = 0 at a given point, must
potential V equal zero for that point?
Give some example to prove your
answer?
Ans. No, it is not necessary that V = 0 when
-dv
E = 0. This is because E =
. In a
dr
sphere V = a constant at every point
inside the sphere but EF = 0.
Q.24. A charge of 2C moves between two
plates maintained at a potential
difference of 1 Volt. What is the energy
acquired by the charge?
Ans.Energy acquired = Vq
= 1 x 2 = 2J
Q.25. The middle point of a conductor is
earthed and its ends are maintained at
a potential difference of 220 V. What is
the potential at the two ends and at the
middle points.
Ans. Potential at the middle point is zero.
The values of potential at the two ends
of the conductor must be +110V and
-110V. So that the potential difference
across the two dens is 110-(-110) =
220V

surface. What is the net electric flux

coming out of the surface.
Ans. Zero, because net charge on electric
dipole is zero.
Q.27. Write an expression for potential
energy of two charges q1 and q2 at
r1 and

r2 in a uniform Electric field E.

Ans. If V(
r1 ) and V( r2 ) are electric potentials

at points r1 and
r2 where q1 and q2 are
held, then potential Energy =

q1 q2
q1.V(r ) + q2.V(r2) +

1
40|r1-r2|
Q.28.A sensitive instrument is to be shifted
from the strong electrostatic field in its
environment. Suggest a possible way.
Ans. For this the instrument must be
enclosed in a metallic cover. This will
provids electrostatic shielding to the
instrument.
Q29.Two conductors of identical shape and
size. One of copper and other of
aluminium are both placed in an identical
electric field. In which metal more charge
will be induced.
Ans.Maximum induced charge is given by
q1 = -q (1 - 1 ). For both metals Cu and
K
Al, K = ie in both metals induced
charge will be equal.
Q.30. Why is a spaceship entering the
ionosphere not sufficiently heated
though temperature at the top of the
ionosphere is nearly 700K.
Ans. This is because density of air in
ionosphere is so low that very few
molecules only bombard the spaceship.
Q.31.Calculate the equivalent capacitance
between the points P and Q. If a battery
of 10 V is connected between the points.
What will be the charge on each
capacitor.
C1 = C2 = C3 = C4 = 4 F
C5 = = 5F

Q.26. An electric dipole of dipolemoment

20x10-6 cm is enclossed by a clossed
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C1
P

C5

(More Application Questione)

Electrostatics & Electric Potential

C2
Q

C3
C4

Ans.The given figure can be redraw as

R
C1

C2

C5
C3

C4

C1
C3
=
as C1 = C2 = C3 = C4, the
C2
C4
bridge is balaced. The points R and S
are at the same potential. No charge
can accumulate on C5.
Between P & Q, there are two series
combinations
1
1
1
=
+
;
C1
C
C1
2
1
1
1
1
+
=
1 = 4
2
C
4
1
1
1
C11 = C3 + C4 ;
1
1
=
4+
C11

1
4=

C1 = 2F

1
11
2 C = 2F

Since C1 & C11 are in parallel,

C = 2 + 2 = 4F
Potential difference between P & Q is
V = 10 V & equivalent capacitance of
C1 & C2 = 2F. charge on each
capacities C1 & C2 = 2 x 10 = 20C
Charge on each capacitors C3 & C4 is
= 20 C charge on C5 = 0.

Q.1. An electric dipole of dipolemoment

20x 10-6 cm is enclosed by a closed
surface. What is the net flux coming
out of the surface.
Ans. Zero
Q.2.Why does the electric field inside a
dielectric decease when it is placed in
an external electric field.
Ans. An electric field is induced inside the
dielectric in a direction opposite to the
direction of external electric field. The

net field is E = E0 - Ep. E0 = external EF.

Q.3. An electric field line cannot be
discontinuous. Why.
Ans.If it is so, it will indicate the absence of
electric field.
Q.4.Electric lines of force never intersect
eachother. Why?
Ans. If they intersect it would mean that at
the point of intersection electric field has
two direction which is impossible.
Q.5. Two plane sheets of charge densities
+ and - are kept as shown in
.A + electric
the figure.What are the ______
.B - A and
field intensities at points ______
B.
Ans. At A EF is zero since it is outside the
plate. At B field =

20

=
20
0

Q.6. What would be the work done if a point

charge +q, is take from a point A to the
point B on the circumference of a circle
drawn with another point charge +q at
the centre.
A

+q
B
Ans. Zero, since it an equipotential surface,
work done in moving a point charge
from one point to another on it is zero.

Aswathy Books

Q.7. An uncharged insulator conductor A

is brought near a charged insulator
conductor B. What happens to the
charge and potential of B.
Ans. By induction charge on B remains
same potential of B decreases.
Q.8.How does the force between two point
charges change if the electric constant
of the medium in which they are kept
increases?
Ans. Force decreases by an amount K,
electric constant. Force in a medium
Fm = Fo Fo is force in air.
K
Q.9. Why do charge reside only on the
outer surface of a charged conductor.
Ans. The charge cannot reside a conductor
because potential at a point on the
outer surface is always less than the
potential at a point inside a solid
conductor.
Q.10.How much work is required in turning

an electric dipole of depolemoment P

from the position of stable equillibrium
to its position of unstable equillibrium

in a uniform Electrostatic field. E.

Ans. Work done = PE (Cos 1- Cos2)
1 = 0, 2 = 180
W = PE (Cos 0 - Cos 180)
= PE (1--1) = 2 PE.
Q.11. An electric dipole of depolemoment

P is placed in a uniform electrostatic

field E. For what angle between P and

E will the potential energy of the electric

dipole be half its maximum value.
Ans. Potential Energy =
(Potential Energy)
2

PE
PE Cos =
2
1
Cos =
2
0
= 60

Aswathy Books

Max

Q.12. Why electric lines of force are normal

to an equipotential surface.
Ans. For an equipotential surface, P.d = 0
Edl = 0
Edl Cos = 0
Cos = 0 and so = 900
Q.13. Why is it difficult to perform
electrostatic experiment during humid
days.
Ans.Humid air is slightly conducting and the
state charges may be conducted away.
Q.14. Why water has much greater
dielectric constant (80) than mica (=6)
Ans. It is so because water molecule has
permanent dipolemoment.
Q.15. Find the ratio of linear momenta
acquired by an particle and proton
acculated through same potential.
Ans. P = 2mqV
q = +2e qp = +e
P2 = 2mqV
P2
2mq V
4mp x 2e
8
=
=
=
Pp2
mp x e
2mPqpV
1
P

Pp =

8
1

or P:Pp = 8 : 1

16.What will be new capacitance if a metal

foil of negligible thickness is introduced
between the plates.
Ans. Consider a capacitance of plate area
A & seperation d. Its capacity is to
C=

A0

d
on introducing a thin metal sheet in a
the middle it will act like a combination
of two capacitors in series with plate are
A & Seperation d/2. Capacity
2A0
C1 = C2 = A0 =
d
d/2
1
1
1
=
+
C2
C1
C

d/2 d/2

10

d
d
=
+ d
=
2A0
A0
2A0
A
C = 0 Thus the capacitance will not
d
be affected.
Q.17. Can a metal sphere of radius 1cm
hold a charge of one coulomb? Justify
your answer.
Ans. A metal sphere of radius R can hold
a charge Q provided the electric field E
around it does not exceed the break
down value for dry air which is 3 x 108
v/m.
For Q = 1 c, r = 10-2m, E = 9 x 109 q =
r2
1
13
9 x109 x
E
=
9
x
10
v/m.
As
(10-2)2
it is much larger than the break down
value of air, a metal sphere of radius
1cm cannot hold 1 c charge as charge
will leak away.

(K + 1)
d
Cd = (K + 1) A0
2d
Without dielectric C0 =
Cd
K+1
=
Co
2
Cd
5
4+1
=
=
Co
2
2
C0 = 5 Cd
2
5
=
x 10 F
2
= 4 F
Aswathy Books

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A0
d

<

> P

<

= A
2

Q.1. Consider an infinitely long straight

uniformly charged wire of uniform
charge density .
a) To find the E.F at P (located at a distance
r from the line of charge) describe
appropriate Gaussian surface.
b) Define electric flux.
Write the
mathematical expression for electric
flux.
c) Find the total electric flux through the
Gaussian surface for above mentioned
charged wire.
d) What is the net charge enclosed by the
Gaussian surface.
e) Apply Gausss theorem to find the
electric field at P for the above
mentioned charged wire. Write the
direction of electric field.
f) Compare the E.F for the above case
with that of the field of uniformly charged
infinite plane sheet.
(March 2009)
Ans.a) Cylindrical Gaussian Surface.
<

Q.18. A capacitor half filled with a dielectric

of dielectric constant 4 has a
capacitance 10F. what will be the
capacitance without dielectric.
Ans. Capacitance hay filled with dielectric
A 0
A 0 k
is C =
+
d
2 d
2

Questions from previous Question

Paper

b) Electric flux through a surface is the total

number of electric lines of force passing
normally through it.
Flux
c)

= E. ds = E ds Cos

= E. ds = E ds Cos q
linear charge density =
= or q = l
1

= q
0
= l
0

11

c) In the figure EP and EQ are the electric

fields at the same distance r on an axial
and equitorial planes respectively due
to a dipole. Calculate the ratio of fields

q
d) Since =
l
q =l
e) = E.S = E. 2rl
By Gauss Theorem =
E. 2rl =

0 x l

1
E=
20 l

f) For an infinite plan sheet E =

0

(Electric field is independent of

distance)

Q.2. Two hollow conductors are charged

positively. The smaller is at 50V and
the bigger is at 100 V Potential.
a) What will happen if these conductors
are connected externally as shown.

b) What will happen if these conductors

are connected as shown below? Why?
(March 2009)
Ans.a) Charge flows bigger conductor to
smaller conductor.
b) Charge flows from inner conductor to
the outer conductor.
Q.3.a) Define an electric dipole.
(March 2007)
b) Even though the magnitude of the total
charge of a dipole is zero three is a field
around it. Why?
EQ + Q

EP
-q
Aswathy Books

+q

EP . Given that r >> a.

EQ
Ans. a) Two equal and opposite charges
seperated by a very small distance
constitute an electric dipole.
b) Due to the electric dipole moment,
electric field does not cancel each other.
1
2P
c) EP =
40
r3
P
1
EQ =
40
r3
EP
= 2
(March 2012)
EQ
Q.4.a) Name the physical quanity which has
its unit joule. coulomb-1. Is it a vector or
a scalar quantity?
b) Two plane sheets of charge densities
+ and - are Kept in air as shown in
figure.
What are the electric field intensites at
points A and B.

.A
.B

+
-

Ans.a) Electric potential. It is a scalar

quantity.

b) At A field = 0. At B EF =

Q.5. The idea of electric field lines is useful

in pictorially mapping the electric field
around charges.
a) Give two properties of electric lines of
force.
b) State Gausss theorem in electrostatics.
c) Using the theorem derive an expression
for E.F due to uniformly charged
spherical shell.
i) at a point outside the shell
ii) at a point inside the shell.
d) A point charge of +10 c is at a distance
of 5cm directly above the centre of a

12

square of side 10 cm (as shown in

figure). What is the electrif flux through
the square.
5 cm
(March 2012)
10 cm

ii) At a point inside the shell the Gaussian

does not enclose any charge. Hence
EF = 0.
d) Imagine the given square is one of the
faces of a cube of side 10cm.

10 cm

q
1
x

6
0
1
10 x10-6 (No. of faces
=
x
of a cube = 6)
6
8.85 x 10-12

Ans.a) (i) The tangent drawn at any point

on the electric line of force gives the
direction of E.F at that point.
(ii) Electric lines of force never intersect
each other.
b) Gauss theorem states that the electric
field through any closed surface in free
space 1s.
1
0 is times total charge enclosed.
1
=
q

>

c) (i) Consider a spherical shell of radius

R having uniform charge density .
Let P be a point a distance r from the
centre O of the sphere. Construct a
spherical Gaussian surface with centre
O and radius r.
R

>

12
12
12
12
12P
12
12
12

ds

6
5

>E

E. ds

0 q

E x 4r2 =

0 q

E=

40

Aswathy Books

q
r2

12F

Flux through small area ds is d = E. ds

1
By Gauss theorem =
q
0

1
E.ds = q
1

= 1.88x105 Nm+2C-1
Q.6. Beside its use in storing charge a
capacitor is a key element of most ac
circuits.
a) What are the factors on which
capacitance of a parallel plate air
capacitor depends?
b) Define the term dielectric constant of a
medium.
c) Two capacitors C1 and C2 are connected
in series. Derive an expression for
capacitance of the combination.
d) Find the equivalent capacitance of
capacitors given in the network.
(March 2012)
4F
3F
B
C
A

a) The capacitance of parallel plate

capacitor depends on
(i) Area of the plates
(ii) Seperation of the plates
(iii) Dielecric constant of the medium
b) It is defined as the ratio of capacitance
of a capacitor with medium as dielectric
to the capacitance of the same
capacitor with air as dielectric
Cm
K=
Co
c) Consider two capacitors of capacitance
C 1 & C 2 connected in series with a

13

potential V. The charge on each

capacitor will be same but potential will
be different.
C2
C
1

V1

V2

V
q
q
and V2 =
C1
C2
is Cs is the effective capacitance, then
q
V =
Cs
But V = V1 + V2
q
q
q
=
+
C
Cs
C1
2
V1 =

1 = 1 + 1
C2
Cs
C1
d) Equivalent capacitance between
terminals A & B = 4 + 12 = 16F
Equivalent capacitance between
B & C = 3 + 6 = 9F
Equivalent capacitance of the
network is
1
1
1
1
=
+
+
6
9
/5
16
C
1
1
5
=
+
+
16
9
6
ie.

145
= 9 + 16 + 5 x 24 =
144
144
144
C=
F
145
Q7.How does atmosphere get charged?
Ans: By lightning and thunder storms the
atmosphere get charged.
Q8.A glass rod held in hand can be
charged by rubbing with silk. Why
cannot a metal rod be charged like this.
Ans:Metals and our body are good
conductors. So charges produced by
rubbing a metal are transferred to the
earth.
Aswathy Books

Q9.An electron and a proton is released

from rest in a uniform electric field E.
Which will have greater acceleration.
Ee
Ans:Acceleration a =
m
Since Me < Mp, Electron has larger
acceleration.
Q10.What is the net force acting on a dipole
placed in (i) uniform E.F and (ii) Non
uniform Electric field.
Ans:(1) Net force is zero as the opposite
charges are experiencing a force equal
in magnitude but opposite in direction.
(ii) There is a net force as the force on the
opposite charges are not equal and
opposite.
Q11.The electric field is zero at a point
midway between two equal like charges.
What is the potential at that point.
Ans:The potential is twice the value of
potential due to a single charge at that
point.
Q12.Can electric potential at any point in
space be zero while intensity of EF at
that point is not zero?
Ans:At the centre of a dipole there is a field
but potential will be zero.
Q13.The electric field near the surface of
earth is about 100Vm-1. Yet we do not
get electric shock. Why?
Ans:Our body and the earths surface are
situated on an equipotential surface. So
there is no p.d and hence no shock.
Q14.What is the work done in rotating a
dipole once completely.
Ans:Let be the orientation of a dipole with
a uniform E.F. 1 = when the dipole is
rotated once completely 2 = + 360.
W = PE (Cos1 - Cos2)
= PE (Cos - Cos (+ 360))
= PE (Cos - Cos ) = 0
Q15.A charge is kept at the centre of a circle.
Another charge is taken (i) along the
circle (ii) along the ellipse, once

14

completely. In which case the work done

is more.
Ans:As the second charge is taken a closed
trip the work done will be zero in both
the cases.
Q16. If a conducting metal plate of
thickness t is introduced between the
plates of a parallel plate capacitor what
change is produced in the capacitance.
Ans:The introduction of the conducting
metal plate will decrease the effective
width of the dielectric medium to (d - t).
Hence the capacitance will increase.
Q17.Four charges, each equal to q, are
placed at the four vertices of a regular
pentagon. The distance of each corner
from the centre is a. Find the E.F at the
centre of the pentagon.
Ans:Imagine a charge q at the corner E
also. By symmetry, the field at the centre
O will be zero. We conclude from here
that the field due to charges at A, B, C
and D is equal and opposite to the
electric field at O due to the charge q.
1 q
So the required EF =
along
40 r2

OE.
A
B

From figure all the six triangles are

equilateral OA = OB = OC = OD = OE =
OF = r = 10 cm = 0.1 m Potential at the
centre of teh hexagon.
V=6x

q
r

1
40

= 6 x 9 x 109 x 5 x 10-6
0.1
= 2.7 x 10 V
6

Q19. Two spheres of copper of same radic,

one hollow and the other solid are
charged to the same potential. On which
spere there is more charge?
Ans. Both would carry equal charge this is
because the capacity of the sphere
depends upon the radius. It does not
matter whether it is hollow or solid.
Q20. An electric dipole of dipolemoment
20x10 -6 cm is enclosed by a closed
surface. What is the net flux coming out
of the surface.
Ans. Zero. This is because net charge of a
dipole is zero.
Q21. How the mass of a body is affected on
charging?
Ans. When a body is negatively charged it
gains mass and when a body is positively
charged it loses mass.

E
O

Q18. A regular hexagon of side 10cm has

a charge 5C at each of its vertices.
Calculate the potential at the centre of
the hexagon.
D
Ans.
E
O
C

600

A
Aswathy Books

) 60

600 )

15

3. CURRENT ELECTRICITY
Q1. A wire is carrying a currrent. Is it
charged?
Ans: No. This is because at any time, the
number of protons in the wire is equal
to the number of electrons.
Q2.Determine the dimensional formula for
resistance
Work
V
Ans: R =
= Charge x Current
I
ML2T-2
= ML2T-3A-2
AT. A
Q3.Three conductors are connected in
parallel. Their conductances are G1, G2
& G 3 . What is their equivalent
conductance.
1
1
1
1
Ans:
=
+
+ R
R2
Rp
R1
3
=

Equivalent conductance Gp = G1+G2+G3

Q4.How does the bend in a wire affects

the electric resistance.
Ans:Since electrons are extremely small in
size compared to the bends they can
easily change their direction of motion.
Thus the resistance of the wire remain
unchanged.
Q5.A 8 resistance wire is bent at the
middle by 1800. Both halves are twisted
together. What is the new resistance.
8

Ans:
4

Since length is halved resistance of

each part is 4.
R1R2
Effective resistance is R =
R1+R2
4x4
R =
= 2
4+2
Q6.Give the equivalent of VA-1
Ans: Ohm
Q7.The sequence of colour bands on a
resistance is green, yellow, silver. What
is the resistance?
Ans:54x10-2. When silver is used third
Aswathy Books

colour band, it indicates the multiple of

10-2.
Q8.Resistivity of copper silver and
manganin are 1.7x10-8m, and 44x10-8
respectively. Which of these is the best
conductor?
Ans:Out of these metals, specific resistance
is least for silver. So silver is the best
conductor.
Q9.Why constantan and manganin used for
making standard resistances?
Ans:Because of their low temperature coefficient of resistance and high resistivity.
Q10.V- I graphs for parallel and series
combination of two metallic resistors as
shown in fig. Which graph represents
parallel combination? Justify your
answer.
Ans:Resistance is less for the combination
A. So A represent the parallel
combination.
V
B
A

I
Q11.Two wires of equal lengths, one of
copper and the other of manganin, have
same resistance. Which wire is thicker?
Ans:Since two wires are of equal length and
equal resistance.
R1 = R2
l
1 l = 2 A
A1
2
A1 =
A2

1
2

Since resistivity 1 of Cu is less than

that of manganin (2), area of cross
section of Cu (A1) is less than the cross
sectional area (A2) for manganin. So

16

manganin wire is thicker than copper

wire.
Q12.Two wires A and B are of the same
metal and of same length. Their area
of cross sections are in the ratio of 2:1.
If the same potential difference is
applied across each turn, What will be
ratio of currents flowing in A & B.
Ans: I = V

I =

V
l /

R2 = 4R1

20 =

are

So the ratio of currents are 2:1.

Q13. What happens to the drift velocity of
electrons and to the resistance if the
length of the conductor is doubled
keeping potential difference unchanged?
eE
ev
Ans: vd = m =

ml
Keeping v constant if l is doubled, vd is
halved. Again keeping cross sectional
area constant, if length is doubled, R
will be doubled [R l ].
Q14.Are the paths of electrons straight
lines between successive collisions in
the a) Absence of E.F b) Presence of
E.F.
Ans:a) In the absence of EF paths are
straight lines.
b) In the presence of EF, the path are
generally curved due to drif of the E.F.
Q15.How will you represent a resistance
of 3700 + 10% by colour code?
Ans: Orange violet red and silver.
Q16.A wire of resistance 8 is bent in the
form of a circle. What is the effective
resistance between the ends of the
diameter of this circle.
Aswathy Books

Q17.Two resistances are in the ratio 1:4. If

these are connected in parallel, their total
resistance become 20. Calculate the
value of each resistance.
1
R1
Ans:
=
4
R

For parallel combination Rp =

VA
l

In the given problem V, l and

constants
I A
2
I1
A1
=
=
1
A
I

Ans: (Same as Question No.5).

20 =

R1 x 4R1

R1R2
R1+R2

R1+4R1
4R12
5R1

20 x 5
4
= 25
R2 = 4R1
= 4 x 25
= 100

R1 =

Q18.Why is it not advisable to use Copper

wire in a potentiometer?
Ans:This is because the resistivity of Copper
is small and its temperature co-efficient
of resistance is large.
Q19.It is possible to generate 100000 volt
potential difference by rubbing a pocket
comb with wool. Why is it not
dangerous?
Ans:This is because comb (insulator) has
high resistance. So current is extremely
small.
Q20.Would a galvanometer show any
current if the galvanometer and cell are
interchanged at the balance point of the
bridge?
Ans:No, The galvanometer will not show
any current.
Q21.Why is it easier to start a car engine
on a warm day than on a chilly day?
Ans:The internal resistance of a car battery
decreases with increase in temperature.

17

Q22.Why light from a bathroom bulb get

dimmer for a moment when the geyser
is switched on?
Ans:The large current drawn from the
supply initially lowers the voltage for a
moment until it is stabilised by the
transmission grid.
Q23.Why is a potentiometer of longer wire
considered more accurate than a
potentiometer of shorter wire?
Ans:In longer wire the fall of potential per
unit length is small. ie Potential gradient
is small. Lesser the potential gradient,
more accurate is the potentiometer.
Q24.Can you measure the internal
resistance of a car battery with the help
of a wheat stones bridge?
Ans:The internal resistance of the
accumulator of the car battery is very
small. Such small resistance cannot be
measured by a wheatstones bridge
since it become insensitive.
Q25.Why is voltmeter less accurate in
measuring emf than a potentiometer?
Ans:Potentiometer measures potential by
null deflection method. So it will not
draw any current from the source of emf
to be measured voltmeter draws some
current and consequently measures a
slightly lesser value of emf.
Q26.The circuit in the figure shows use of
a potentiometer to measure the internal
resistance of a cell.
r

increased keeping current from the driver

cell constant?
Ans:(a) Due to decrease in current, the
potential gradient is decreased. The
balance point would now be obtained on
a larger length of the wire.
(b) If R is increased, the amount of current
drawn from the cell of emf E l will
decrease. The terminal voltage across
the cell shall increase. The balance point
will now be obtained on a larger length
of the potentiometer wire.
Q27.What is the magnitude of the resistance
in the circuit shown, when no current
flows through the 5 resistance?
6V
X
vvv
2

18

vvv

vv
v

5 vv

Ans:It is a case of balanced wheat stones

bridge
2
X
=
6
18
2 x 18
X =
= 6
6
Q28.Calculate the resistance between A and
B of the given network.
2
vvv
1
vvv

10
vvv

vvv

2
vvv

J
El

Ans: This circuit can be redrawn as

G
K

vvv

vvv
vvv

vvv

10

2
=
4

1
2

vvv

a) If the key is open how does the balance

point change if the current from the
driver cell decreases.
b) When the key k is closed, how does
the balance point change if R is

4 Here

Aswathy Books

18

This represent a balanced wheat stones

bridge. Hence 10 can be neglected.
vv4
v

vvv

vvv

vvvv

vvvv

B
r1 = 3

6
vvv

r2 = 1

E2 = 2v
Ans:

3
vvv

I1
4

vvv

I1

I1 + I2

I1 + I2
2

vvv

vvv

4v

vvv

I1
vvv

Q30.R1, R2 and R3 are different values of

R. A, B and C are the null points
obtained corresponding to R1, R2 and
R3 respectively. For which resistor, the
value of X will be the most accurate and
Why?

vvv

a) when resistance R is increasing keeping

all parameter unchanged.
b) resistance S is increased keeping R
constant.
c) cell P is replaced by another cell whose
emf is lower than that of the cell Q.
Ans:(a) When R is increased, the current
from the driver cell is decreased. This
decreases the potential gradient. So
the balance point will shift to the right.
b) Increasing resistance s shall have no
effect on balancing point. This is
because there will be no flow of current
in this branch when potentiometer is
balanced.
c) The balancing point will not be
obtained. For getting balance point on
the wire, the emf of the driver cell
should be greater than the emf of the
cell Q.

Aswathy Books

Q31a) Calculate the current through each

cell and 6 resistance.
b) Find the terminal voltage across E1.
E1 = 4v

vvv

Ans:The bridge is most sensitive when the

four resistances of the bridge are of
nearly same magnitude. Hence the null
point B will give most accurate value of
X.

vvv

vvvv

Equivalent resistance between A and B is

6x3
R=
= 2
6+3
Q29.In the potentiometer circuit shown
below the balancing point is at X. State
with reason where the balance point is
shifted when
R
P
A

vvv

vv

2 v

vvvv

vvv

I2

1
2v

Applying Kirchoffs second law in mesh 1

-3I1 + 4 - 5I1 - 6(I1 + I2) - 4I1 = 0
-3I1 - 5I1 - 6I1 - 6I2 - 4I1 = -4
-18I1 - 6I2 = -4
9I1 + 3I2 = 2
(1)
For second mesh
-4I2 - I2 + 2 - 5I2 - 6(I1 + I2) = 0

19

-4I2 - I2 + 2 - 5I2 - 6(I1 + 6I2) = -2

-16I2 - 6I1 = 2
-16I2 +6I1 = 2
3I1 +8I2 = 1
From (1) 9I1 +3I2 = 2
From (2) 3I1 +8I2 = 1
(2) x (3) 9I1 +24I2 = 3
(1) - (3) -21I2 = -1
1
I2 =
= 0.0476A
21

(2)

(3)

From (2) 3I1 = 1 - 8I2

3I1 = 1 - 8 x .0476 = 0.6192

I1 = 0.6192 = 0.206A

3
Current through 4v cell = .206A
Current through 2v cell = 0.0476 A
Current through 6 resistance = I1 + I2
= 0.254A
Potential difference across 6 resistance
= 6 x 0.254A = 1.52v
Terminal potential voltage across
E1 = IR
= E1 - I1r
= 4 - 0.206 x 3
= 4 - .62
= 3.38v
Important Questions
Q1. Two 120v light bulbs, one of 25w and
other of 200w are connected in series
across a 240v line. One bulb burnt out
almost instantaneously which one was
burnt and why?
V2
Ans:As P =
, 25w bulb has more
R
resistance. In series same current glow
through them. So the 25w bulb will
develop more heat and burnt out
instanteously.
Q2.A wire of resistivity is stretched twice
its length. What will be new resistivity.
Ans:Resistivity will not change as it is
independent of length or area.
Aswathy Books

Q3.If the length of a wire conductor is

doubled by stretching it keeping the
potential difference across it constant by
what factor does the drift speed of
electrons change?
Ans:Drift speed is related to p.d, v as
ev
eE
Vd =
=
,
m
ml
At constant v, when length is doubled,
vd is halved.
Q4.Why cant we use eight ordinary cells
connected in series to get a 12v supply
in a car instead battery having 12v.
In eight ordinary cells connected in
series the internal resistance will be high
and current will be low.
Q5.Using metre bridge, it is adviced to
obtain null point in the middle of the wire.
Why?
Ans: For metre bridge to be more sensitive,
its four resistances must be equal. This
is so when the null point lies near the
middle of the wire.
Q6.How can we increase the sensitivity of
a potentiometer?
Ans:By reducing the potental gradient.
Potential gradient can be reduced by (i)
increasing the length of the wire (ii) by
reducing current in the main circuit.
Q7.What happens if the galvanometer and
cell are interchanged at the balance
point of the bridge?
Ans:Conditions for balanced bridge remains
same. Galvanometer will show no
current.
Questions from Previous Question
Papers
Q1. A potentiometer wire PQ of length 1m
is connected to a standard cell of emf
E 1 . Another cell E 2 of 1.02 volt is
connected to a parallel combination of
resistance r and a key as shown when
the switch s is open the null point is
obtained at a distance of 51cm from P.
a) What do you mean by potential gradient.
b) Determine the potential gradient across

20

PQ.
c) When the switch s is closed, will the
null point move towards P or Q? Justify
your answer?
(March 2010)
E1
J

r
vvv

I1 = 3.75 = .01875

s
1.02v
Ans:a) Potential gradient is defined as the
potential per unit length.
E1
b) Potential gradient across PQ =
1
= E1 v/m
c) The null point does not change. The
resistance connected in series to
galvanometer does not change the null
point.
100
vvv
Q2.

(.05-71)

50

She says that the voltmeter reading will

give the emf of the cell.
a) The physics teacher says that it is not
possible to measure emf of the cell in
this way. Justify this statement.
b) Explain with a circuit diagram the method
to measure the emf of a cell with a
potentiometer if you are given another
standard cell (whose emf is known)
(March 2011)
Ans:a) Emf cannot be measure in this way
since the cell is connected to a
resistance. Emf is the potential difference
across the terminals of a cell in a closed
circuit.
+ b)
G
E
A
+
J
-

vvv

vvv

Aswathy Books

I1

75

vv
v

vvv

I1

E
R

50

vvv

150
= 18.75
8
Effective resistance of the combination
is = 100 + 18.75 = 118.75
b)
vvv
.05A
6v

Q3.Remya makes the following circuit to

measure the emf of a cell.

50

a) Find the equivalent resistance of above

circuit.
b) Determine the current through the 75
resistance.
(March 2011)
Ans:a) Equivalent resistance of parallel
combination is
1
1
1
2
1
1
R = 50 + 75 + 50 = 50 + 75
3x2 + 1x2
=
150
1
8
=
R
150

10

200
Current through 75 resistance
= .05 - 2 x .01875
= .05 - .0375
= .0125A

vvv

75

vv
v

vvv

50

6v

6 = .05A
118.75
Voltage across 75 = voltage across 50
75 r (.05 - 2I1) = 50I1
3.75 - 150I1 = 50I1
3.75 = 200I1
Effective current =

()

With the given cell let l1 be the balancing

length, then E l1
With the standard cell E1 let l2 be the
balancing length,

21

then E1 l2
E
E1 =
E

l1
l2
l1
x E1
l2

Since E1 is known, E can be measured.

Q4.Thermal velocity of electron is about
106m/s and drift velocity is about
10-3m/s.
a) What is mean by drift velocity.
b) Obtain the relation between drift velocity
and electric current
(March 2011)
Ans:a) The velocity with which the
electrones are drifted under the
influence of an electric field is called drift
velocity.
l
b)
A
B
v
V

Consider a conductor of length l, cross

sectional area a carrying n electrons
per unit volume. When an electric field
E is applied let v be the drift velocity.
Volume of the conductor = al
Number of electrons in the conductor =
nal
Total charge in the conductor = nale
Time taken by the electrons to flow from
B to A, t = l/v
Therefore current i = q/t
=

nale
l/v

i = nave
Q5. n equal resistances, each of value
R are combined in different ways.
a) What are possible values of maximum
and minimum equivalent resistances?
b) If the maximum and minimum values
are 40 and 2.5 respectively. Find n
and R.
(March 2008)
Ans:a) Maximum resistance is obtained
when connected in series
Aswathy Books

Rs = R + R + .... n times
Rs = nR
Minimum resistance is obtained when
connected in parallel.
1
1
1
=
+
... n times
Rp
R
R
n
1 =
R
Rp
R
Rp =
n
b) nR = 40
R
= 2.5
n
(1)/(2)
n2 = 16

(1)
(2)

40

2.5

ie n= 4
40

R = 4 = 10
Q6.An electric kettle has two heating coils.
When one of the coils is switched on the
kettle begins to boil in 6 minutes and
when the other is switched on the boiling
begins in 8 minutes.
a)The working of an electric kettle is based
on which principle? State the principle.
b) Find the ratio of the resistances of the
two coils in the above problem.
c) If the two coils are connected in series,
find in what time will the boiling begin for
the same quantity of water.
d) Suggest a method to reduce the boiling
time. Find the boiling time then.
(March 2009)
Ans:a) Joules law. The amount of heat
developed in a conductor by passage of
a steady current through it is directly
proportional to the square of the current,
resistance of the conductor and time of
flow.
b) Let Q be the heat required to boil the
kettle and v be the supply voltage.
2
v2
Q=
r t 1 = v r t2
R1
R2
t1
R1
3
6
R2 = t2 = 8 = 4
c) When connected in series let t be the
time taken

22

v2
xt
(R1 + R2)
7
R1 + R2 = 3 R2 + R2 =
R
4 2
4
v2 t
Q =
(1)
7/4 R2

represent voltage change for L 1 ?

(March 2012) V
B

Q =

d) Time t = 6 + 8 = 14 minutes
When the coils are connected in series,
the equivalent resistance increases and
hence more time is required. When
connected in parallel, equivalent
resistance becomes.
1
R

1
1
+
=
R1
R2

/4R2 x R2
/4R2 + R2

R =
=

1
1
+
R2
/4R2
7R2

7
R
11 2

4+

11
4

Let t be the time taken in this case

Then Q =

From (1) & (2)

V2
xT
7 R
2
11
V2
xt =
7 R
4 2

(2)

V2
xT
7 R
11 2

t
T
1.75 = 0.63
14 x .63
T=
= 5minutes
1.75
Q7a) The resistance R of a conductor
depends on its length l area of cross
section A and resistivity of the material
. The correct expression connecting
R, l, A and is
A
l
Al
(i) R =
(ii) R=
(iii) R =
l

A
(iv) R = Al
b) The voltage-current graphs for two
resistors of the same material and
same radii with length L1 and L2 are
shown in the figure. If L1 > L2 state the
reason, which of these graphs
Aswathy Books

Ans:a) (iii) R =

l
A

b) B represents voltage change for L 1.

Resistance of B is greater than that for
A, since resistance increases with length.
Q8.To determine the resistance of a wire a
student uses a metre bridge.
a) Draw the circuit diagram and explain the
working of a metre bridge to determine
the resistance of a wire.
b) How the resistance of a wire changes if
its (i) temperature (ii) length is increased.
Explain.
(March 2008)
X
Ans:
vvv G
R

Principle: The Wheatstones bridges

balancing condition.
Uses: Metre bridge is used to find the
unknown resistance, resistivity etc.
Experiment: Connections are made as
shown in the figure. Circuit is closed and
suitable resistance R is introduced in the
resistance box. The jockey is moved along
the wire AB and balancing length is
measured at the null point, AJ = l cm, BJ =
(100-l )cm. Let r be the resistance per unit
length of the wire.
According to Wheatstones bridge principle
lr
X
=
R
(100 - l )r
X

Rl
(100 - l )

Knowing R & l, unknown resistance X can

be determined.

23

Q8.A wire is drawn to double its original

length. What will be increase in its (i)
resistance (ii) resistivity.
Ans: R =

A
When length is doubled, area will be
halved
(2l )
l
ll
Rl = l =
=4
= 4R
A
A
A/2
ie the resistance increases.
Increase in resistance = 4R - R = 3R.
(ii) Resistivity will not change as it is
independent of the dimensions of the
wire.
Q9.Explain why Aluminium wires are
preferred for overhead power cables?
Ans:Aluminium wire is preferred because
i) It has low density (lighter) (ii) low
resistance
(iii) It is cheaper compared to copper.
Q10.n equal resistors are connected in
series, then in parallel. Find the ratio of
series to parallel combination.
Ans:In series Rs = R + R + ... n times
Rs = nR
1
1
1
In parallel,
=
+
+ .. n times
Rp
R
R
1
n
=
Rp
R
R
Rp =
n
nR
n2
Rs: Rp =
=
= n2:1
R/n
1
Q11.Explain why Copper is not used in
potentiometer
Ans: Resistance of Copper wire is very
small. Hence when Copper is used for
the potentiometer wire, it is as if short
circuited. No p.d will be available on the
wire.
Q12. Is the dimensional formula of
electromotive force same as that of
force?
Ans. No, the dimension formula of emf is
same as that of potential. (work/charge)

Aswathy Books

Q13.Why the jockey should not be rubbed

against the potentiometer wire?
Ans. Because rubbing can affect the
uniformity of the cross-sectional area of
the wire.
Q14. A wire of resistivity is stretched to
there times its length. What will be the
new resistivity?
Ans. Resistivity remains constant since it is
independent of the dimension of the
material.
Q15.Electric current is the rate of flow of
charges through any cross section of a
conductor.
a) What do you meant by current density.
What is its unit?
b) Obtain the relation between current
density and conductivity?
Ans:a) The electric charge flowing normally
per unit area per second through a
conductor is called current density. Its
unit is Am-2.
b) Consider a conductor of lengthl, area of
cross section A, given a potential
differnce V. Let E be the electric field and
I be the current produced.
By Ohms law V I
V = RI
V=
But

I
A

l
A

xI

= j, current density

V = l j
But potential V = E x l
E l = l j
E= j
E
j=
But

= , conductivity
j=E

This is the relation between current,

density and conductivity.

24

4. MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF CURRENT AND MAGNETISM

Q1.Which of the three has lowest
resistance - Ammeter, voltmeter,
galvanometer?
Ans:Ammeter.
(An ideal ammeter has zero resistance
and an ideal voltmeter has infinite
resistance).
Q2.A negative charge is moving vertically
downwards when it enters a magnetic
field directed to the south, what is the
direction of force on the charge.
Ans:East direction (Applying Flemings left
hand rule).
Q3.How can we increase the range of (i)
an ammeter (ii) a voltmeter.
Ans:(i)The range of an ammeter can be
increased by connecting a low
resistance parallel to it.
(ii) Range of voltmeter can be increased
by connecting a high resistance in
series with it.
Q4.Why do we prefer phosphor-bronze
alloy for the suspension wire of a
moving coil galvanometer.
Ans:Phosphor bronze fibre has small
restoring torque per unit twist and a
high tensile strength.
Q5.A charged particle entering at an angle
850 with the magnetic field. Its path will
be ..........
(Helical)
Q6.Consider the circuit shown in the figure
where APB and AQB are semicircles.
What is the magnetic field at the centre
P
C of the loop.
Ans: Magnetic fields due
B
A
to the two semi
circles are
equal in magnitude
but opposite in direction.
Q
Moreover the M.F at C
due to the striaght parts is zero. So the
net M.F at C is zero.
Aswathy Books

Q7. Why an ammeter is always connected

in series?
Ans: Ammeter is a low resistance
instrument. When it is connected in
series in a circuit it does not appreciably
change the resistance of the circuit.
Consquently the current to be measured
is not appreciably changed.
Q8.A straight section AB of a circuit lies
along the X axis from x = -a/2 to x = +a/2
and carries a steady current I. What is
the M.F due to the section AB, at a point
x = +a.
Ans:Zero. This is because observation point
is on the axis of the straight section (M.F
will be perpendicular to this line).
Q9.An particle and an electron are
projected into a uniform M.F, B with the

same velocity v such that v is

prependicular to B. Compare the period
of revolution of the particle with that of
proton.
Ans:If m and q are the mass and charge of
2m
a proton, then period t =
Bq
For an particle mass = 4m and charge
= 2q

t =

2(4m)
2 x2m
=
B(2q)
Bq

= 2 x time period of a proton.

Q10.Establish the dimensional formula for
B.
Ans: F = Bqvsin
MLT-2
[F]
B =
=
[q] [v]
ATLT-1
( has no dimension)
= MT-2A-1
Q11.What is the MF a the centre of a current
carrying cube made of twelve wires?

25

Ans:
>
>

>

>

>

>

>

>

>

>

>

>

>
>
The given system may be regarded as
a set of six current carrying pairs. The
contribution of each pair is zero. So the
net MF induction at the centre is zero.
Q12.Apply Amperes law qualitatively to the
three parts as shown below.
i

>

>
III

II

Ans:For path I and III, 0 B. dl = 0i

For path II 0 B.dl = 0 since the net current

is zero.
Q13.What do you mean by the term current
element. What is its SI unit. What is its
significance?
Ans:Current element denoted by idl is the
product of current and geometrical
length of an element under
consideration. Its SI unit is Ampere
metre (Am). Just electric charge is
considered as a source of E.F current
element is considered as a source of
M.F.
Q14.If a student by mistake connect a
voltmeter in series and ammeter in
parallel to a circuit, what will happen?
Ans:When voltmeter is connected in series,
the resistance of the circuit becomes
high. So the current decreases and the
voltmeter will not read the required
potential difference.
When the ammeter is connected in
parallel in a circuit, the resistance is
considerably reduced so a large current
would flow which will damage the
ammeter.
Aswathy Books

Q15.An electron and proton moving in same

direction with same kinetic energy enters
a perpendicular magnetic field. Will they
describe paths of same radius.Why?
Ans:The radius of electron will be smaller.
mv2
Bqv =
r
2mEk
mv
P
Bq =
=
=
r
r
r
2mEk
r =
Bq
For the given problem r m. Electron
being lighter shall describe path of
smaller radius.
Q16.A rectangular loop of area A having N
turns and carrying a current of I ampere
is held uniform in a MF, B.
a) What is the maximum torque
experienced by the loop?
b) In which orientation will the loop be in
stable equilibrium.
Ans:a) = NBIA.
b) when the plane of the coil is prependicular

to B it experience no torque and is

therefore in stable equilibrium.
Q17.How will the magnetic field intensity at
the centre of a circular coil carrying
current change if the current through the
coil is doubled and the radius of the coil
is halved.
Ans: B =
Bl =

0I
2r
0(2I)
0I
=
4
= 4B
2(r/2)
2r

MF is increased by a factor 4.
Q18.The energy of a charged particle
moving in a uniform M.F does not
change.Why?
Ans:As M.F is a conservative field it does
no work in a charged particle. So the
energy of the particle does not change.
Q19.Two wires of equal lengths are bent in
the form of two loops. One is square
shaped while the other is circular. These

26

vxB=0

F = q (v x B) = 0
Q21.Which one of the two, an ammeter or
a milli ammeter, has a higher resistance
and why?
Ig x G
Ans:Shunt resistance s =
I - Ig
So the shunt needed to convert a
galvanometer into a milliammeter has
a larger value than that required to
convert into ammeter. As the shunt is
connected in parallel with the
galvanometer, the milliammeter will
have higher resistance than the
ammeter.
Q22.An electron beam is moving vertically
downwards if it passes through a
magnetic field which is directed from
south to north in a horizontal plane, then
in which direction the beam would be
deflected?
Ans:
N

S
The encircled cross represent the

direction of v of electron. Applying right

hand rule for the cross product of
Aswathy Books

Q24.What are the advantages of soft iron

core used in moving coil galvanometer?
Ans:a) The magnetic lines of forces crowd
through the soft iron core. This increases
the MF and hence the sensitivity of the
galvanometer.
b) The soft irron core helps to make the MF
radial.
Q25.The wire shown in the figure below
carries a current of 60A. Determine the
magnitude of the magnetic field at C.
Given radius = .02m.
0 idl Sin
C
Ans: B =
2
4
r
900
0i
=

dl
Sin
90
4r2
>

>

Ans:v and B are parallel vectors.

Q23.Why a cyclotron is not suitable for

accelerating electrons?
Ans:When an electron is accelerated in a
cyclotron, it very soon acquires a very
high velocity. Its mass begins to vary as
m0
m=
. The synchronisation
1 - v2/c2
between the applied frequency and
frequency of revolution of the charge is
disturbed. Thus the cyclotron is not
suitable for accelerating electrons.

>

Q20.A charge 8c is moving with a velocity

^ in a magnetic field
v = (7j^ + 4k)

^
^
B = (7j + 4k) Wbm-2. Find the force
acting on the charge.

vectors we find the direction of v x B

towards east. Since Fm = -e (v x B).

Therefore the force is directed west.

>

are placed in a uniform M.F & same

current is passed through them. Which
loop will experience greater torque.
Give reason.
Ans:For a given wire circular loop has
greater area than the square loop.
Since the torque experienced by the
loop is proportional to the area of the
loop, the circular loop experience
greater torque than square loop.

=
=

0i
4r

30i
8r

dl
=

0 i
4r2

3
x 2r
4

3 x 4 x 10-7 x 60
8x .02

= 4500 x 10-7T
= 4.5 x 10-4T
Q26.An electron in an atom revolves around
the nucleus in an orbit of radius 0.5A0.
Calculate the equivalent magnetic
moment if the frequency of revolution of
the electron is 1010MHz.
Ans:M = iA
r = .5A0 = .5 x 10-10m

27

= e x r2
= 1010MHz
-19
10
= (1.6 x 10 ) x 10 x 3.14 x (0.5 x 10-10)2
= 1.26 x 10-23 Am-2

>

>

Q27.Determine the M.F at the point O in

the system shown below.
i
R1

O
R2

>

>

Ans:MF at the centre of a current carrying

0 i
circle is
and so that of a semicircle
0 i 2 R
is
4R
B = B1 + B2
=

0i

1
1
+
R2
R1

More Application Questions

Q1.Write two properties of a material used
as a suspension wire in a moving coil
galvanometer.
Ans: i) Low value of torsional constant (k)
ii) High conductivity
Q2.An electron and a proton moving
parallel to each other in the same
direction with equal momenta enter into
a uniform magnetic field which is at right
angles to their velocities. Trace their
tragectories in the magnetic field.
Ans: They follow circular tracks of equal
radii, electrons revolving in clockwise
and protons in anticlockwise inward
normal to the plane of the paper.
Q3.Two wires of equal lengths are bent in
the form of two loops. One of the loops
is square shaped whereas the other
loop is circular. These are suspended
in a uniform magnetic field and same
current is passed through them.Which
loop experience greater torque? Give
reasons?
Ans: Torque

= i (A x B)

As for same perimeter area of the

Aswathy Books

square is more it will experience more

torque.
Q4.Write one condition when an electric
charge experience no force in a
magnetic field.
Ans:When the charge is moving parallel to
the M.F.
Q5.Which one of the following will describe
the smallest circle when projected with
same velocity v perpendicular to the
magnetic field B.
(i) particle (ii) particle
mv2
Ans: qvB =
r
mv
r =
Bq
Since value of q is large for particle, it
describes smaller circle.
Q6.An ammeter and a milliammeter are
converted from the same galvanometer.
Out of the two which current measuring
instrument has higher resistance.
Ans:Higher is the range lower will be the
value of shunt. So milliammeter will be
having higher resistance.
Q7.What is advantage of using radial
magnetic field in a moving coil
galvanometre.
Ans: (i) Maximum torque is experienced.
(ii) Torque is uniform for all positions of
the coil.
(iii) Plane of the coil is parallel to the
direction of magnetic field.
Q8.Equal currents are flowing through two
infinitely long parallel wires. The M.F at
a point midway when the currents are
flowing in the same direction is
Ans: (zero)
Q9.A positive charge moving vertically
upwards enters a magnetic field directed
towards north. In which direction will the
force act on the charge.
Ans:Force will act towards west.
Q10.An electric current is flowing due south
along a power line. What is the direction

28

Q11.A current carrying loop, free to turn

is
placed in a uniform magnetic field B.
What will be its orientation, relative to

B in the equilibrium state?

Ans:In equilibrium state, the plane of the
current
carrying loop will be normal to

B.
Previous Questions
Q1. Oersted found that moving charges or
currents produce a magnetic field in the
surrounding space.
a) An electric current is flowing due south
along a power line. What is the direction
of MF (i) above it (ii) below it.
b) Draw a neat and labelled diagram of a
cyclotron. State the underlying principle
of its working.
c) A cyclotrons oscillator frequency is
10MHz. What should be the operating
MF for accelerating protons e = 1.6 x
10-19C and Mp = 1.67 x 10-27kg.
(March 2012)
Ans:a) (i) Towards west above the line.
(ii) Towards East below the line.
b) Working of cyclotron in NCERT text).
c) F = 10 x 106Hz
Bq
F=
2 m
2mf
B=
q
=

2 x 3.14 x 1.67 x 10-27 x 10 x 106

1.6 x 10-19

= 0.655T
Q2a) State Flemmings left hand rule.
b) Figure shows the section of a straight
conducting rod placed in an external
M.F, B. The number density of charge
carrier is n. Deduce the force
experienced by charge carriers. What
is the name given to this force? If the
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conductor is of an arbitrary shape

suggest a method to find this force.

(March 2008)
B
>
>
>
>
>
>
>

of the magnetic field (a) above it (b)

below it.
Ans: a) Towards west above the line
b) Towards east below the line

vd
q

l
Ans:a) If the middle finger, forefinger and
thumb of the left hand are stretched out
mutually perpendicular to each other
such that the middle finger is in the
direction of the current the forefinger in
the direction of MF then the thumb gives
the direction of the force on the
conductor.
b) Force on the current carrying conductor
is

F = i ( l x B)
But i = nAVde

F = nAVde ( l x B)
Al is the volume and neAl is the total
charge q.
F = nAle (Vd x B)

F = q (Vd x B)
This the Lorentz force.
For equilibrium, the charges accumulate
in the perpendicular direction to the field
constituting a Hall voltage. By measuring
the voltage we can find the force.
Q3.A galvanometer is used to detect current
in a circuit.
a) State the working principle of a
galvanometer.
b) How will you convert it into (i) an
ammeter and (ii) a voltmeter.
c) A galvanometer coil has a resistance of
12ohm. It shows a full scale deflection
for a current of 3mA. How will you
convert this into a voltmeter of range
0-18v.
(March 2010)
Ans:a) A current carrying loop when placed
in a magnetic field experience a torque.
At equilibrium this torque is balanced by
the torsional couple of the suspension
fibre.
nBiA = c

29

b) A galvanometer can be converted to an

ammeter by connecting a low
resistance called shunt parallel to it.
igG
Shunt S = i - ig
A galvanometer can be converted to a
voltmeter by a connecting a high
resistance in series with it
V
High resistance R =
-G
ig
c) ig = 3 x 10-3A, G = 12 , v = 18v
The resistance required to convert
galvanometer in the voltmeter.
V
R =
-G
ig
18
3 x 10-3

12 = 5988

By connecting a resistance R = 5988

in series with a galvanometer, we can
convert it into ammeter.
Q4.Amperes circuital theorem is generally
used to determine the magnetic field
produced by a current carrying element.
a) State Amperes circuital theorem.
b) Obtain an expression for infinitely long
straight conductor using Amperes
circuital theorem.
c) A long straight conductor carries 35A.
Find the MF produced due to this
conductor at a point 20cm away from
the centre of the wire? (March 2010)
a) According to Amperes circuital
theorem, line integral to magnetic field
around any closed path is 0 times total
current enclosed by the path.

0 B. dl = . i
0
b) Consider a solenoid of length l having
n no. of turns per unit length.
S

A
X

Aswathy Books

B=0

B
>
O Q

To find the M.F at the point O image a

rectangular path PQRS containing the
point O.

By the theorem 0 B. dl = 0 x i
Q
P

B. dl + Q B. dl +R B. dl +S B. dl

= 0 nli
Bl + 0 + 0 + 0 = 0nli

B = 0ni
c) i = 35A
d = 20cm = .2m
0
B=
x 2i
4
d
= 10-7 2 x 35
.2
= 350 x 10-7
= 3.5 x 10-5 T
Q5.A student claims that if lightening strikes
a metal flag pole, the force exerted by
the earths M.F on the current carrying
pole can be large enough to bend it.
(Lightning currents are very large of the
order of 104 to 105A).
a) What is your opinion about the students
above argument. Justify the above
statement.
b) Which law helps you to find the direction
of force on the pole. State the law.
c) Obtain an expression for force on the
pole by taking l as length, B as the
earths horizontal intensity and i as the
current due to lightning.
Ans:a) F = Bil Sin = Bil
= 0.38 x 10-4 x 105 x 10
= 38 N
B = 0.38 x 104
i = 105A
l = 10m
This force is so feeble that the pole will
not bend.
b) Flemings left hand rule:According to this rule, stretch the thumb,
forefinger and middle finger to represent
mutually perpendicular directions. If the

30

forefinger points in the direction of the

field and the middle finger points in the
direction of motion of a positively
charged particle, then the thumb points
to the direction of force.
c) Let v be the drift velocity of e be the
charge of one electron.

Magnetic Lorentz force f = e (v x B)
If n is the number density of free
electrons, total no. of free electrons in
the conductor N = nAl
where A area of cross section and l1
length of the pole.
Total force on the conductor F = Nf

F = nAl e (v x B)
= nAl e vBSin
But current i = nAve
F = Bi l Sin

F = i (l x B)
Q6.Two conducting wires AB and CD are
connected to the battery.
B

C B

D
A
(a)

number of turns per unit length same?

Ans:When the radius is doubled the field
remains the same since B = 0 ni
independent of the radius of the toroid.
Q7. A Voltmeter is always connected in
parallel to a circuit. Why?
Ans. Resistance of a Voltmeter is very high.
So it will draw only a small current when
connected in parallel.
Q8. An particle moving in a straight line
enters a uniform magnetic field parallel
to the field direction. How will its path
and velocity change.
Ans. We know that F = Bqu Sin
Here = 0 F = 0
Since force acting on the -particle is
zero, the velocity and path will not
change.
Q9. An electron is moving along a straight
path in a certain region in space. Can
we conclude there is no magnetic field
in this region?
Ans. If the electron is moving, parallel to
the direction of the magnetic field, then
it will not experience any force. So in
the given problem we cannot conclude
that there is no force in the region.

(b)

a) When they are connected as shown in

fig (a), what is the force between
them.Why?
b) When connected as in fig (b) what is
the force. Why?
c) What is the rule governing the above
phenomenon?
Ans:a) Repulsion. Since the conductors AB
and CD carry currents in opposite
direction.
b) Attraction, since they carry current in
same direction.
c) Flemmings left hand rule.
Q7.What happens to the field of a toroid
when the radius is doubled keeping the

Aswathy Books

31

5. MAGNETISM & MATTER

Q1.Give three reasons of making
permanent magnet with alnico.
Ans.(i) Large area of the hysteris is loop
(ii) High coercivity
(iii) High retentivity.
Q2. Horizontal and vertical components
ofearths M.F at a place are 0.22T and
0.38T respectively. Find the resultant
intensity of earths M.F.
Ans.

B = Bh2 + Br2
= 0.222 + 0.382

Q8. Find out the value of Bohr Magneton.

Given
h = 6.63 x 10-34 Js & e = 1.6 x 10-19 c
eh
Ans. 1 Bohr Magneton =
4 me
-19
1.6 x 10 x 6.63 x 10-34
=
4 x 3.14 x 1.67 x 10-27
= 9.27 x 10-24 Am2
Q9.What happens to a bar magnet if it is
cut into two pieces (i) transverse to its
length (ii) along its length.

= 0.44 T
Q3. The angle of dip two places on the
surface of the earth are respectively 00
and 90 0. Where are these places
located.
Ans. At the magnetic equator angle of dip
is 00. At the magnetic pole, angle of
dip is 900.
Q4. The horizontal component of MF at a
place 3 times the vertical component.
What is the value of angle of dip at the
place.
B
Bv
1
tan = v =
=
Bn
3 B
3

= 300

Q5.What is S1 unit of magnetic

susceptibility?
Ans. Tm A-1
Q6. Why do magnetic lines of force plyer
to pass through iron than air?
Ans. Permeability of soft iron is greater
than that of air.
Q7. Does an iron bar magnet retain its
magnetism when melted? Give reason
for your answer?
Ans. Iron melts at a temperature which is
higher than the curie temperature of
iron. So the iron bar magnet cannot
retain its magnetism when melted.
Aswathy Books

Ans. When cut transversely, the

polestrength of each pole is the same
as that of the bar magnet but the length
is halved. So magnetic moment is
halved.
N
S
When the bar magnet is cut along its
length, the pole strength of each piece
is halved but the length is unchanged.
So magnetic moment is halved.
Q10. Two identical thin bar magnets each
of length L and pole strength m are
placed at right angles to each other with
the N pole of one touching the S- pole
of the other. Find the magnetic moment
of the system.
N2

S2

N1

<

S1

>
32

Ans. The system bahaves as a magnet

whose pole strength is m and length
N 2S 1
N2S1 =

N1S12 + N2S22 =

L + L = 2 L
2

Magnetic moment = polestrength x

length
= m 2 L = 2mL
Q11. a) Magnetic lines of force represent
lines of force of a moving charged
particls at every point.
b) Magnetic field lines can be entirely
confined within the core of toroid, but
not within a straight solenoid. Why?
c) If magnetic monopoles existed, how
would Gausss law of magnetism
modified?
d) Does a bar magnet exert a torque on
itself due to its own field? Does one
element of a current carrying wire exert
force on another element of the same
wire?
e) Can a system have magnetic moment
even though its net charge is zero?
Ans. a) Magnetic Lorent =

foce is F = q ( x B )

Magnetic force is always normal to

B.
magnetic lines of B cannot represent
the lines of force of a moving particle.
b) Magnetic field lines can be entirely
confined to the core of a toroid because
a toroid has no ends. It can confine
the field within its core.
A straight solenoid has two ends. If
the entire magnetic flux were fonfined
between these ends, the M.F lines will
no longer be continuous.
c) According to Gausss theorem in
magnetism, magnetic flux over any

surface is always zero ie 0 B . ds = 0
If monopoles existed, the magnetic flux
would no longer be zero, but equal to

Aswathy Books

0 times the polestrength enclossed by

the surface.

ie 0 B . ds = 0 m
d) No three is no force or torque on an
element due to the field produced by
that element itsely. But their is a force
on an element of the same wire. For
special case of straight wire this force
is zero.
e) Yes, a system can have magnetic
moment even if its net charge is zero.
For eg. every atom of para and
ferromagnetic material has a magnetic
moment though atom is electrically
nuetral
Q12. What is the approximate distance
upto which earths MF extends.
Ans. 3.2 x 104 km
Q13. What is the basic difference between
magnetic and electric lines of force?
Ans. Magnetic lines of force are closed,
continuous but electric lines of force are
discontinuous.
Q14. If a compass box and dip circle were
to be taken to the magnetic north pole
of the earth, what would one observe
with regard to directions of their
respective needles & why?
Ans. The needle of compass box shall not
necessarily stand along north south
direction. If may point along any
arbitrary direction.
The needle of the dip circle shall
stand vertical with south pole pointing
upwards.
Q15. The susceptibility of magnesium at
300k is 1.2 x 10-5. At what temperature
will be susceptibility be equal to 1.44 x
10-5?
C
Ans. Xm =
T
Xm
T|
=
|
Xm
T
-5
T| = T Xm = 1.2 x 10 x 300 = 250K
X|m
1.44 x 10-5

33

Q16. The angle of dip at a location in south

India is about 180, would you expect a
greater or lower dip angle in Britain?
Ans. Yes we expect greater dip angle in
Britain because it is located close to the
north pole.
Q17. In which position, the potential energy
of a magnet in a uniform M.F is a) zero
and (ii) Maximum
Ans. (i) Potential energy of a magnet is zero
when it is held perpendicular to the M.F.
(ii) It is maximum when held antiparallel to
the M.F.
Q18. Why does a paramagnetic substance
display greater magnetisation when
cooled? How does a diamagnetic
substance respond to similar
temperature changes?
Ans. As temperature decreases the kinetic
energy of the dipoles decreases & they
become more ordered.
So
paramagnetism increases.
Magnetism of a diamagnetic
substance is independent of
temperature changes.
Q19. You are given two identical bar
magnets
having
different
dipolemoment. How will you select the
one having larger dipole moment.
Ans. The two bar magnets are suspended
in two fibres and their period of
oscillation is calculated. The one having
less period has more magnetic
moment.
Q20. What type of Feromagnetic material
is used for coating magnetic tapes in
cassette player or for building memory
of a modern computer.
Ans.Ceramics or ferrites.
Q21. Three identical specimens of
magnetic materials Nickel, Antimony,
Aluminium are kept in a non-uniform
M.F. Draw the modification in the field
lines in each case. Justify your answer.

Aswathy Books

Ans. Antimony is diamagnetic material,

permeability is less than unity. So it
repels magnetic lines of force.

Aluminium is paramagnetic material,

permeability is greater than unity. So it
attracts magnetic lines of force.

Nickel is ferromagnetic material

permeabity is very large in comparison
to the paramagnetic material. Thus it
has greater tendency to attract
magnetic lines of force.

Q22. The magnetic field lines of the Earths

M.F is from south to north. By the
convention of a magnet, the Earths
magnetic north is at the geographic
south. The M.F lines are also slightly
inclined from the north-south direction.
a) Name the quantities that conventionally
used to specify the earths M.F.
b) If you made M.F map of the earths field
at Melborn in Australia the lines seen to
come out of the ground. In which
direction is a compass needle free to
move?
c) The earths field roughly estimates the
field due to a dipole of moment 8 x 1022
JT-1, check the order of magnitude of
this field.

34

Ans.a) Declination, dip and horizontal

intensily are the independent quantities
used to specify the earths M.F.
b) At the geometical north or south pole
the earths M.F is exactly vertical. So is
at Melborn in Australia. A compass
needle free to rotate in a horizontal
plane cannot give a proper direction, ie
compass needle can move freely.
c) B =

0
4

m
r3

-7
= 8 x 1022 x 10
(6.4 x 106)3

= 0.3 x 10-4 T
r = radius of earth.
Q23. The hysterisis loop of a soft iron piece
has a much smaller area than of a
carbon steel piece. These materials are
to go through repeated cycles of
magnetization.
a) Which piece will dissipate greater heat
energy.
b) A system displaying hystensis loop is a
device for storing memory - Explain.
c) What are the difference between
permanent magnets and electro
magnets.
Ans. a) The area of the hysterisis loop is
proportional to the heat energy lost per
cycle of magnetization. Carbon steel
piece will dissipate more heat than soft
iron peice. Steel has greater area of
hysterisis loop than soft iron.
b) Magnetization of a ferromagnetic
depends on the field and number of
cycles of magnetization it has gone
through. The valve of magnetization is
a record (memory) of its cycles of
magnetization. If information bils can
be made to corresponding cycles. the
system displaying such a hysterisis loop
can act as a device for storing
information.
c) Permanent magnets have high
retentivity and high coercivity. They
have low loss of magnetisation. eg.
steel.

Aswathy Books

Magnetic materials used for

construction of electromagnets have
large flux density with small
magnetising field & low hysterisis loss.
eg. soft iron.
Q24.Interstellar space has a very weak M.F
of the order of 10 -12 T. What is the
significance.
Ans. Interstellar space has very weak
magnetic field. Such fields bends
charged particles such as cosmic rays.
Over small distances this bending is not
detectable. But at large distances the
dylection can affect the passage of
charged particles.
Q25. We can produce induced field inside
a material by keeping it in external M.F.
The magnetic properties of a material
is stadied by defining the following.
a) What is meant by (i) Magnetizing field
(ii) Intensity of magnetization.
b) Obtain the relation between
susceptibility and permeability.
c) What is polestrength of a bar magnet
having a magnetization 240Am-1? The
length of the magnet is 0.2m and area
of cross section is 2cm2.
Ans. a) (i) The current through a solenoid
produces a field called Magnetising field
(H) given by H = ni = 0 H
unit A/m
(ii) The magnetic moment per unit volume
of a material placed in a magnetising
field is called magnetization.
m
v
unit A/m
b) Consider a solenoid carrying a current
produces a magnetizing field H. A soft
iron piece placed in side it acquires a
magnetization M.
Then B = 0 (H + M)
M=

diving by H,
But

B
=
H

B
= 0 (1 + M )
H
H
M
&
=
H

35

 = 0 (1 + )

= 1+
0
r = 1 +
m
P
P x 2l
=
=
a
v
a x 2l
P = Ma
M = 240
= 240 x 2 x 10-4
a = 2 x 10-4m2
= 480 x 10-4 Am

c) M =

Previous Questions
1. The captain of a ship sailing in the
Atlantic Ocean has to travel in the north
direction to reach the nearest port. He
finds that the magnetic declination of
the present position of the ship is 50 22
East.
a) What is meant by magnetic declination
b) The captain has a magnetic compass
needle with him. By how much angle
and in which direction should he deviate
his ship from the north direction, pointed
by the magnetic needle to reach the
port.
c) Suppose magnetic needle is capable
of rotating in a vertical plane about a
horizontal axes. If the ship reaches the
magnetic pole of earth in which
direction will be magnetic needle point.
(March 2011)
Ans. a) Magnetic declination at a place is
the angle between magnetic meridian
and geographic meridian at the place.
b) 50 22 towards West.
c) Vertical.
Q2.A magnetic needle made of iron is
suspended in a uniform external M.F.
It experiences a torque and needle
starts oscillating.
a) Write down the frequency of oscillation
of the magnetic needle.
b) If the magnetic needle is heated
beyond curie temperature while it is
oscillating, then its period a) increases
b) decreases c) remains the same d)
becomes infinity.
(March 2010)
Aswathy Books

Ans. T = 2

mB

1
f = 2

mB

b) Increases.
Beyond the curie
temperature the magnetic needle
becomes paramagnetic and its moment
m decreases.
3. How will you classify diamagnetic and
paramagnetic materials based on
magnetic susceptibilities?
(March 2009)
Ans. For diamagnetic substances is small
and negative.
For paramagnetic substances is small
and position.
Q4. Match the following.
Feriomagnetism

< 0 Aluminium,

Paramagnetism

>>0

Diamagnetism

>0

Calcium
Lead
Bismuth
Iron, Cobalt

(March 2011)
Ans.
Feriomagnetism

>> 0 Iron, Cobalt

Paramagnetism

>0

Diamagnetism

<0

Aluminium,
Calcium
Lead
Bismuth

Q5.Classify the following properties into

diamagnetic, paramagnetic and
ferromagnetic
a) Susceptibility, -1 < x < 0
b) In a uniform M.F it acquire a large
magnetisation in the direction of the
field.
c) When it is suspended in a M.F, it will
come to rest perpendicular to the M.F.
d) Susceptibility of the substance varies
inversely as the temperature of the
substance upto curie temperature.

36

Ans: a) Diamagnetic
b) Ferromagnetic
c) Diamagnetic
d) Paramagnetic
Q6.An iron rod of 0.1m2 cross section is
subjected to a mangnetising field of
1000Am -1. Calculate the magnetic
permeability. Given susceptibility of iron
= 599.
Ans: = 0(1 + m)
= 4 x 10-7 (1 + 599)
= 4 x 10-7 x 600
= 7.54 x 10-4TmA-1

(ii) Relative permeability.

Ans. Given m = 3x10-4, H = 4 x 10-4 Am-1
I = m H = 3x10-4 x 4 x 104
= 12 Am-1
r = + 13 x 10-4 + 1 = 1.0003
Q11. Name the line joining place having
same (i) Declination (ii) Dip (iii)
Horizontal intensity.
Ans. (i) Same declination Isogonic line
(ii) Same dip Isoclinic line
(iii) Same horizontal intensity
Isodynamic line

Q7.Draw the hysterisis loop for soft iron and

steel.
Ans:
M
soft iron
steel
H

Q8. If a toroid uses Bismuth as its core,

will the field in the core be slightly
greater or less than when the core is
empty?
Ans: Slightly less, since bismuth is
diamagnetic.
Q9. Define Bohr magneton. What is its
unit.
Ans. It is the magnetic dipolemoment
associated with an atom due to orbital
motion of an electron in the first orbit of
hydrogen atom.
1 Bohr magneton, B = 9.27 x 10-24 Am2
Q10. A paramagnetic substance of
susceptibility 3 x 10-4 is placed in a
magnetising field of 4 x 10 -4 am -1.
Calculate (i) Intensity of magnetization

Aswathy Books

37

6. ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION
Q1.Electromagnetic induction was first
discovered by Faraday. The direction
of this emf is given by Lenz.
a) State the laws of eletromagnetic
induction.
b) How will you find the direction of
induced emf, using this law.
c) Flux in a closed circuit of resistance
12 varies with time t as = 9t2+ 6t + 3
Milli Webber where t is in seconds.
Find the emf and current induced in the
coil in t = 3 s.
Ans.a)(i) Faradays law states that the
magnitude of the induced emf is equal
to the rate of change of magnetic flux
linked with it.
= d
dt
ii) Lenzs law, The direction of the induced
emf is such that it opposes the cause
producing the change.
= - d
dt
b) When a coil is brought near a north pole
of a magnet, the magnetic flux linked
with the coil begins to increase. The
coil generates an induced emf so as to
oppose the increase in flux. This is
possible if the coil can oppose the north
pole of the magnet. To oppose the face
of the coil near to the magnet shows a
north polarity. Similarly if the north pole
is moved away from the coil the face of
the coil shows south polarity which
attracts the north pole. Thus one can
determine the direction of induced
current in a coil.
c)

= - d
dt
= - d (9t2 + 6t +3)
dt
= -18t - 6

Aswathy Books

When t = 3 sec
= -18 x 3 - 6 = - 54 - 6 = -60v

60
=5A
R
12
2. The north pole of a magnet goes to and
fro and then away from the coil.
a) What is the direction of the induced
current in the coil in each case.

I=

b) Define self induction & inductance.

c) A coil has an inductance of 0.03 H.
Calculate the emf induced when current
in the coil changes at a rate of 200 A/S
Ans. a) When the north pole of the magnet
goes into the coil, the induced current
flow it such as to make the face of the
coil acquire north polarity. So current
in the coil is viewed in anticlock wise
direction.
When the north pole is moved
away from the coil by Lenzs law the
face of the coil acquire south polarity
and the direction of the induced current
is clockwise.
b) The property of the coil to oppose the
growth and decay of current through it
is called self induction

I
=LI
When I = 1 A1 = L

Inductance is the flux linked with a coil

when unit current is passed through it.
c) = - d
dt
= -L dI
dt
= 0.3 x 200 A/S
= -60 v

38

Q3. The plot of magnetic flux () verses

current I is shown in fig. for two
inductors A and B. Which of the two
has larger value of self induction?
A

Ans. As L = /I, therefore L for A is greater

than L for B.

Q4. A train is moving with uniform speed

from north to south. Will any induced
emf appear across the ends of its axis?
Ans. Yes, it will appear as the train is
intercepting vertical components of
earths M.F.
Q5. Why are oscillations of copper sheet
in a magnetic field highly damped?
Ans. This because of eddy currents
developed in the copper sheet.
Q6. Explain why coils are usually double
wound.
Ans. The resistance coils are double
wound be avoid inductance effect. MF
due to current in one hay of the coil is
cancelled by the MF due to current in
the other half of the coil.
Q7. How is the mutual inductance between
a pair of coils affected when.
i) Seperation between the coils.
ii) The number of turns of each coil is
increased ?
iii) A thin iron sheet is placed between the
two coils, other factors remaining the
same. Explain your answer in each
case.
Ans.(i) When the relative distance between
the coil is increased, the leakage of flux
increases which reduces the magnetic
coupling of the coil. So magnetic flux
linked with all the turns decreases.

Aswathy Books

Hence mutual inductance will be

decreased.
(ii) Mutual inductance for a pair of coil is
given by M = K L1L2. when the No.
of turns in each coil increases, mutual
inductance also increases.
(iii) When thin sheet is placed between the
two coils, the mutual inductance
decreases due to the opposite eddy
current set up in the iron sheet. As the
rate of change of magnetic flux in the
coil decreases, induced emf
decreases.Hence mutual inductance
decreases.
Q8. How does the self inductance of an air
core coil change when (i) the number
of turns in the coil decreased (ii) an iron
rod is introduced in the coil.
Ans.(i) When the No. of turns in the coil is
decreased, self inductance decreases.
(ii) If core of a magnetic material of relative
permeability r is introduced.
L| = r .L, Self inductance increases.
Q9.Two concentric circular loop, one of
small radius r1 and the other of large
radius r2 such that r1 << r2 are placed
co-axially with centres coinciding.
Obtain the mutual inductance of the
arrangement.
Ans. Suppose current I2, flows through the
outer circular coil. Field at the centre of
the coil is
B2 =

0 I2

2r2
Flux through inner coil is ,

= B . A = B x r 2 =
1
2
2
1
But 1 = M12

0 r12
2r2

. I2

I2

M12 = 0 r12
2r2
Here M12 = M21 because r1 << r2
Q10.Take a strong cylindrical electro
magnet connected to AC source and

39

place a light metallic disc at the top of

it. When the current is switched on
the disc is thrown up in the air.
a) Why does the disc go up.
b) How is the repulsive force produced.
Ans. a) Induced currents are produced in
the disc which act as a manner that it
opposes the increase in magnetic flux
through it. As a result the disc is thrown
up.
b) When the circuit is switched on, the
current starts growing through the
solenoid. Hence magnetic flux through
the coil increases from zero to some
finite value. Induced currents are
produced in the coil which oppose the
increase in magnetic flux through it.
Hence the disc is thrown up.
Q11. A small resistor is usually put in
parallel to the current carrying coil of
an electromagnet. What purpose does
it serve?
Ans. This prevents spark at the open
switch produced by the self induced
current at the break. These sparks may
damage the insulation.
Q12.A boy uses a coil of wire (90m long)
without unwinding it to light a bulb using
230 v mass. Then he anwinding it and
again lights the bulb.
a) What difference does he observe?
b) Name the phenomenon in the first
case.
Ans. Since the coil is wound in the first
case, it has self inductance. Since ac
is used induced back emf is produced
in the coil. Hence the bulb glows dim.
But in the second case inductance
effect is negligible. So the bulb
becomes brighter.
Q13.a) When a magnet falls through a
vertical coil, will its acceleration be
different from the acceleration due to
gravity.
b) Why does the acceleration of a magnet
falling through a long solenoid
decrease?
Aswathy Books

Ans. a) Yes, This is because the motion of

the magnet will be opposed in
accordance with Lenzs law.
b) This is due to the opposition offered by
the induced emf.
Q14. Name the physical quantity whose SI
unit is weber. Is it a scalar or a vertor
quantity?
Ans. Magnetic flux. It is a scalar quantity.
Q15. Find the induced current in the circular
loop KLMN of radius r1 if the straight wire
PQ carreis a steady current of I ampere
K
N

L
M

>
I

Ans.Since the current is steady, the

magnetic flux linked with the loop shall
not change. So there will be no induced
emf.
Q16. Why birds fly off a high tension wire
when current is switched on.
Ans. When current begins to increase from
zero to maximum value, a current is
induced in the body of the bird. This
produces a repulsive force and the bird
flies off.
Previous Questions
1. Sometimes when we switch off the
electrical equipments, a spark is seen
within the switch. This is explained on
the basis of electromagnetic induction.
a) What is induction
b) Current in a circuit falls from 5A to 0A in
0.1s. If an average emf of 200v is
induced, determine the self inductance
of the circuit.
(March - 2011)
a) Question No. 2(b)

40

b)

= 200v, dI = 0-5 = -5A, t = 0.1

= -L dI
L=-

dt
dt
dI

= -200 x

0.1
-5

=4H

Q2.A jet plane is travelling west at a speed

of 1800 km/hr. What is the voltage
difference between the ends of the
wings 25m long if the earths magnetic
field at the location has a magnitude of
5 x 10-4 J and the dip angle is 300?
Ans:Induced emf between the ends of the
wings is = Bl v
Since the plane is flying horizontally its
wing moves perpendicular to the
vertical intensity at the place.
B = Vertical intensity = 7 Sin
= 5 x 10-4 x Sin 30
= 5 x 10-4 x .5
= 2.5 x 10-4J
5
I = 25m, v 1800km/hr = 1800 x18 m/s
= 500m/s
= Bl v
= 0.25 x 10-4 x 25 x 500
= 3.125v
Q3.Figure shows a bulb connected in an
electrical circuit.

()
a) When the key is switched on the bulb
attains the maximum glow after a short
interval of time. Which property of the
solenoid is responsible for the decay.
b) The flux linked with a solenoid changes
from 0 to 1wb in 2s. Find the induced
emf in the solenoid.
c) If 3v battery is replaced by ac source
of 3v with the key closed, what will be
observed? Justify your answer.
Aswathy Books

Ans:a) Self Induction

b) d = 1 - 0 = 1wb
dt = 2s
1
d
e=
=
= 0.5v
2
dt
c) Brightness decreases since the current
through the solenoid always changes,
there is a back emf in the circuit. So the
effective emf decreases and so the
brightness of the bulb decreases.
Q4. What is the self inductance of a solenoid
of length 0.4m, area of corss section 20
x 10-4 m2 and total number of turns 800?
N2A
Ans. L = O
l
4 x10-7 x 8002 x 20 x 10-4
= 4.023 x 10-3 H

0.4

Q5. Why a thick metal plate oscillating about

a horizontal axis stops when a strong
magnetic field is applied on the plate?
Ans.This because eddy currents are
produced and this opposes the
mechanical motion.
Q6. A train is moving with uniform velocity
from north to south. Will any induced
emf appear across the ends of the axle.
Ans. Yes, the vertical component of earths
magnetic field shall induce emf.
Q7. Name the physical quantity whose SI
unit is Weber. Is it a scalar or a vector
quantity?
Ans.The Physical quantity is magnetic flux.
It is a scalar quantity.
Q8. When a fan is switched off, a spark is
produced in the switch. Why?
Ans. At the time of break of the circuit, a
large emf is induced which opposes the
decay of current in the circuit. This
ionises the air between the contacts of
the switch. Consequently spark is
produced.
Q9. Why birds fly off a high tension wire
when current is switched on?
Ans.When current begins to increase from
zero to maximum value, a current is
induced in the body of the bird. This
produces a repulsive force and the bird
flies off.

41

7. ALTERNATING CURRENT
Q1. Write the general equation for the
instantaneous emf of a 50Hz generator
whose peak voltage is 250Hz.
Ans.
Eo = 250v
= 50 Hz
w = 2 = 2 x 50 = 100
E = Eo sin wt
E = 250 sin 100 t

Q2. The instantaneous current from an AC

source is I = 6 sin 314t. What is the
rms value of the current.
Ans. Comparing with the equation
I = I0 sin wt
I0 = 6 A

Irms =

I0

= 4.24 A

2
2
1
Q3. What is the SI unit of
c
Ans. ohm

Q4. Why a DC voltoneter and DC ammeter

cannot read AC?
Ans. This is because the average value
value of AC over a complete cycle is
zero.
Q5.A transformer has an efficiency of 80%
& work at 100v and 4 KW. If the
secondary voltage is 240v, claculate the
Primary & Secondary currents.
Ans. = 80%

Vp = 100v,
Vp Ip = 4 x 103 W
3
Ip = 4 x 10 W = 40 A

= Vs Is
Vp Ip
0.8

240 x Is
4 x 103

Is =13.33 A

Aswathy Books

100 v

Q6. A town situated 20 Km away from a

power plant generating power at 440v,
requires 600 KW of electric power at
220v. The resistance of the two wire
carrying power is 0.4 per km. The
town gets power from the line through
3000v - 220v step down transformer at
a substation town.
(i) Find the line power losses in the form
of heat.
(ii) How much power must the plant supply
assuming there is religible power loss
due to leakage?
Ans. Total length of the wire = 2 x 20km =
40km
Resistance of the wire, R = 40x0.4 = 16
3
Irms = P = 600 x 10 A = 200 A
3000
V
(i) Power loss in the form of heat
2
= I rms R = 2002 x 16 = 64 x 104 W
= 640 KW
(ii) Power supplied by the plant =
power demand + power loss =
600 + 640 = 1240 KW
Q7. An inductor of inductance 5mH is
connected in series with a capacitor of
capacitance 20 F and a variable
frequency sinusoidal supply as shown.
5 mH

20PF

.~.

a) When the frequency of the supply is

250Hz, the rms current in the circuit is
230 mA. calculate
(i) The reactance of the inductor.
(ii) The rms voltage across the inductor
(iii) The rms voltage across the capacitor.
b) By reference to the current in the inductor
and the capacitor. State the phase of
p.d across

42

(i) The inductor

(ii) The capacitor.
Ans. a) L = 5 mH = 5 x 10-3H
C = 20F= 20 x 10-6F
f = 250 Hz
I = 230 mA .23A
i) XL = Lw = L x 2 f = 5 x 10-3 x 2 x
3.14 x 250 = 7.85
ii) Vrms = Irms x L
= .23 x 7.85 = 1.81 V
1
iii) Vrms = Irms x
C
1
= .23 x
-6
20 x 10 x 2 x 3.14 x 250
= 7.33 V
b) i) P.d leads the current by a phase /2
ii) P.d lags by a phase /2
Q8.Outline the function of a capacitor in
an ac circuit.
Ans. Uses of a capacitor
i) To produce a phase difference of
/ between current and voltage.
2
ii) To block dc and to allow high frequency
ac to pass through a circuit.
Q9. A cellular phone transmits and
receives electromagnetic waves of
frequencies between 806 and 902
MHZ. Why do cellular phones
sometimes have poor reception inside
steel frame office building.
Ans.Electromagnetic waves arriving from
outside the building cannot propagate
into conductors like steel. Instead
waves are reflected back, outside. So
less wave energy reaches the phone.
Q10.A filament lamp and a condenser with
air between the plates are connected
in series to an ac source.What happens
to the brightness of the lamp when a
dielectric slab is inserted between the
plates of the capacitor? Explain.
Ans. Capacitive reactance X = 1
C

2fc
decreases, the current in the circuit
increases and brightness increases.

Aswathy Books

Q11. Explain why the transmission of

electrical energy in national distribution
system is carried out with alternating
current and with a high voltage.
Ans. AC can be stepped up or down
convieniently without much power loss
by a transfer. High voltage is used to
reduce transmission loss.
Q12. What is the relation between quality
factor and selectivity of the circuit.
Ans. Quality factor is a measure of
sharpness of resonance or selectivity.
The greater the quality factor, greater
is the selectivity.
Q13. The divisions marked on the scale of
an ac ammeter is not equally spaced.
Why?
Ans.An ac ammeter is constructed on the
basis of heating effect of electrtic
current. Since heat produced varies as
the square of the current, the divisions
marked on the scale are not equally
spaced.
Q14. What is the difference between
resistance and reactance with
reference to an ac.
Ans. An ohmic resistance has a fixed value
for resistance while reactance changes
with frequency of ac supply.
Q15. Which is more dangerous to use ac
or dc. Why?
Ans. Ac is more dangerous than dc of the
same voltage. It is because the peak
value of ac is more than the rms value.
Q16. A capacitor blocks dc but allows ac to
pass through it. Explain why?
Ans.The capacitive reactance XC = 1
2fc
For dc f = 0 so XC will be infinite. But ac
has a definite value for an ac. Hence
ac can pass through a capacitor.
Q17. Explain the importance of power
factor.
Ans. The average power P = IV EV Cos .In
electric circuits operating some electric

43

20H

>
to receiver

>

0.1 F
vvvvvv

Q19. The v - I values obtained from a

transformes constructed by a student
is shown in this table.

Q20.A boy constructed a circuit to tune

radio signals as shown and received the
programme from a near by radiostation.

Q18. A lamp is connected in series with a

capacitor. Predict your observation for
dc and ac connections. What happens
in each case if the capacitance of the
capacitor is reduced?
Ans. If dc source is connected to the bulb
through a capacitor, the capacitor offers
1
an infinite reactance (XC =
=)
2fc
and hence the lamp doesnot glow. The
dc source charges the capacitor, but the
lamp will not glow as the capacitor
offers an infinite resistance to dc.
If ac is applied the capacitor offers
a finite reactance depending on the
frequency of ac. When capaciter is
connected the lamp glows. The
brightness of the glow depends on the
value of capacitance C of the
capacitor. Reducing C will increase XC
and the lamp will shine less brightly
than before.

Ans. a) Step up transformer.

b) Input power - VI = 200 x 1 = 200 W
1
Output power = VI = 1000x = 100W
10
Power wasted = 200-100 = 100 W
c) Iron loss, Copperloss, hysterisis loss
and magnetic flux leakage.
d) This is not an ideal transformer. Due to
the energy losses output power is less
than the input power. There is 50% loss.
Input power = 48 x 1 = 48W. So the
output power will be less than 48W (only
24W). But we require 100W output to
light 100W. So it is not possible to light
240v, 100W electric bulb.

appliances, the power factor is kept as

low as possible. It is done so that the
power consumption in the circuit is low.
On the other hand when power is
transmitted, the powerfactor is made as
large as possible.

10

llllll

Secondary coil

Primary coil
Voltage Current Power Voltage Current Power
1 A .........
......... 1000V
200V 1 A
10
a) Identify the trasformer as step up or
step down.
b) How much power is wasted by the
transformer.
c) What are the possible energy losses
in a transformer.
d) If the input voltage is 48V and input
current is 1A is it possible to light 240V,
100W electric bulb using the above
transformer? Justify the answer.
Aswathy Books

a) Which phenomenon is made use of

radio tuning.
b) Calculate the frequency of the wave that
can be clearly accepted by the circuit
and impedence corresponding to the
same frequency.
Ans.a) LCR resonance.
b) L = 20 H = 20 x 10-6 H
C = 0.1 F = 0.1 x 10-6 F
R = 10
f =

1
2Lc

44

1
2 x 3.14 x 20 x 10-6 x 0.1 x10-6
= 112.6 KHZ
Z = R = 10
Q21.The given circuit diagram shown a
series LCR circuit connected to a
variable frequency 230V source.
80F

5 mH

40
vvv

.~.
i) Determine the source frequency which
driver the circuit in resonance.
ii) Obtain the impedance of the circuit and
the amplitude of current at the
resonating frequency.
iii) Determine the rms potential drops
across the three elements of the circuit.
iv) How do you explain the observation
that the algebraic sum of the voltages
across the three elements obtained in
(iii) is greater than the supplied voltage?
Ans. i) Resonant angular frequency,
l
l
w =
=

Lc

w
f=
2

5 x 80 x10-6

= 50 rad/sec.
25
=
Hz

ii) The impedence of the circuit is given

by
Z=

+ ( L -

At resonance L =

Z = R = 40

l )2

VC

= 5.75 x 50 x 5
= 1437.5 V
l
= irms x c

VR

= 1437.5 V
= irms x R = 5.75 x 40

l
= 5.75 x 5 x 80 x10-6

= 230 V
iv) The voltage across R, L and C are not
in the same phase. Therefore they
cannot be added like an ordinary
number
in LCR circuit, V = VR2 + (VL- VC)2
Previous Questions
Q1a) Fill in the blanks
If W is the angular frequency of ac, then
the reactance offered by inductance L
and capacitance C are respectively, XL
- ............... and XC = ..................
b) An electric bulb B and a parallel plate
capacitor C are connected in series as
shwon in figure. The bulb glows with
some brightness. How will the glow of
bulb affected on introducing a dielectric
slab between the plates of the
capacitor? Give reason in support of
your answer.
B
C

l
c

The current amplitude at resonance ie.

1.414 x 230
E
i0 = o = 2 Erms =
40
Z
R
Aswathy Books

= 8.13 A
Erms
The rms current is Irms =
Z
230
=
= 5.75 A
40
iii) The rms potential drop aross L, C & R
are
VL = irms x L

ac

c) Give below are two electric circuits A &

B. What is the ratio of the power factor
of the circuit B to that of A?

45

XL = 3R

vvv

Cos A

Cos B

ac

XC = 3R XC = R vvv R

(March 2012)
l
Ans. a) XL = LW and XC =
cw
b) When dielectric slab introduced
capacitance C increases and
capacitive reactance XC = l
cw
decreases. So current through the
circuit decreases and brightness of the
bulb increases.
R
c) For A, power facter Cos=
R2 + X12
R
=
R2 + (3R)2
R
=
R2 + 9R2
=

10 R

For B, Cos =

10
R

R2 + (XL- XC)2
R

R2 + (3R - R)2

=
=

R2 + 4 R2
R

5R
Aswathy Books

5
l x 5

10

Q2.A series LCR AC circuit has great

practical importance. It is used for
tuning radio, T.V, Wireless set, etc.
a) Obtain the expression for current in a
series LCR circuit using phasor
diagram.
b) Under what condition this circuit is used
for tuning.
(March 2011)
Ans. a) In NCERT Text.
b) To select a particular frequency using
resistance principle.
Q3. Seema constructed a series LCR circuit
in the laboratory as shown in the
diagram. She found that the voltage
across the inductor and capacitor are
equal when the circuit is connected to
an ac source.
vvvR = 100

300v 300v v
A

~
220 v, 50 Hz

10

a) State the condition at which the voltage

across L and C becomes equal.
b) Obtain the expression for the frequency
at which this situation occurs in a series
LCR circuit.
c) Find the voltmeter and Ammeter
readings in the circuit.
(March 2010)
Ans. a) Resonance
l
b) L =
C
l
2
=
LC

46

efficiency is 60%, estimate the electric

power available from the plant.
Ans:h = 300m, v = 100m3 t= 1s, g = 9.8m/s
= 60% = 0.6 , = 103 kg/m3
mgh
vgh
Work
Input power =
=
=
t
t
time

LC
l

2 f =

LC
l

f =

LC

=
220
V
=
R
100

c) Ammeter reading I =
=

2.2A

Voltometer reading V = IR = 2.2 x 100

= 220 V
Q4.A radio can tune over the frequency
range of a portion of MW broadcast
band (800 KHz to 1200 KHz). If its LC
circuit has an effective inductance of
200H. What must be the range of its
variable condenses?
Ans:L = 200H = 200 x 10-6H
f1 = 800KHz = 800 x 103 = 8 x 105Hz
f2 = 1200 KHz= 1200x103 = 12 x 105 Hz
f=

f2 =

2LC

1
42LC

c=

42Lf2

For the lower frequency f1 = 8 x 105Hz

c1 =

1
4 x 3.14 x 200 x 10-6 x (8 x105)2
2

= 198.1 x 10-12F = 198.1pF

For the higher frequency, f2 = 12x105Hz
c2 =

1
4 x 3.14 x 200 x 10-6 x (12 x105)2
2

= 88.04pF
Q5.At a hydroelectric power plant, the
water pressure head is at a height
300m and the water flow available is
100m 3 s -1 . If the turbine generator
Aswathy Books

100 x 103 x 9.8 x 300

1

= 29.4 x 107W
Output power
=
Input power
Output power = x input power
= 0.6 x 29.4 x 107
= 176.4 x 106W
= 176.4 MW
Q6.AC is passing through a capacitor and a
bulb connected in series. What will
happen to the brightness when the
frequency of ac is increased?
1
. Therefore the
Ans:Impedence c =
2fc
bulb glow brighter when frequency is
increased as the imepdence is now
decreased.
Q7.A stone and a metal block are dropped
from the same height near the earthly
surface. Which will reach the earths
surface first?
Ans:The eddy current developed in the
metal block opposes its motion. Hence
stone reaches the ground first.
Q8.The peak value of an ac is 230v. What
value will an ac voltmeter read?
Ans:An ac voltmeter read only the rms value
230 v
vrms =
2
Q9.Which is preferred for long distance
transmission ac or dc; Why?
Ans:AC is preferred as it can be stepped up
or stepped down. Power loss is also
reduced if ac is used.

47

Q10.A transformer has 50 turns in the

primary and 100 turns in the secondary.
If the primary is connected to 220v dc
supply. What will be the voltage across
the secondary?
Ans: Zero, transformer works only on ac.
Q11.Can a transformer contradicts the
principle of conservation of energy.
Ans:In a transformer energy is neither
created nor destroyed. So the principle
of conservation of energy is not
contradicted.
Q12.Why is soft iron used for making the
core of a transformer?
Ans:Transformer cores have to repeatedly
go through cycle of magnetisation. So
they have to be made from materials
of low hysterisis like soft iron.
Q13.In an ac circuit containing only a
resistor when the voltage is high,
current is high
a) Suggest a situation in which current is
zero when the voltage in an ac circuit
is high.
b) Draw the variation of voltage and
current in an ac circuit with inductor
only.
c) Obtain an expression for current and
voltage in an ac circuit with inducance
only.
d) Explain why current is zero when the
voltage is high in the circuit with
inductance only?
Ans:a) If an ac circuit is purely inductive or
purely capacitance at certain instants
when the voltage is high current is zero
and vice versa.
b)
emf
current
E or I

Aswathy Books

c)

~
E
Consider an ac circuit containing
inductor only.
Instantaneous emf V = Vmsint (1)
dI
But V = L
dE
dI
L
= Vm sint
dE
V
dI = m sintdt
L
Vm
sintdt
L
Vm -cost
I= L

I=

Sin(t - /2)

I = Im sin (t - /2)

(2)

From equations (1) & (2) it is seen that

the voltage leads current by a phase
/2.
d) When the voltage is maximum,
magnetic flux linked with the inductance
is maximum, there is no change of flux
at that instant and hence no induced emf
and current in the circuit.
Q14.In a step up transformer the primary
coil is made of thicker wire than
secondary. Why.
Ans:In a step up transformer, the primary
voltage is less than secondary voltage.
So primary current is greater than
secondary current. To withstand such a
high current the primary coil should be
thicker.

48

8. ELECTROMAGNETIC WAVES
Q1. A plane electromagnetic wave of
frequency 25 MHZ travels in free space
along the X-direction. At a particular
point in space and time the electric

vector is E = 6.3 ^j V/m calculate B at

this point.
Ans.We have B = E/C
6.3
B=
= 2.1 x 10-8 T
3 x 108
Since EF is along Y direction and
propagating along X direction, MF is
along Z direction.
Q2. Find the wavelength of em waves of
frequency 5 x 1019 HZ, in free space.
Give its two applications.
Ans. = 5 x 1019 HZ
3 x 108
= C =
= 6 x 10-12 m
5 x 1019
Applications
(i) To find the atomic or molecular
arrangement of a substance.
(ii) For the treatment of certain form of
cancer.
Q3. Identify the part of the em spectrum
which is.
(i) Suitable for radar systems used in
aircraft navigation
(ii) Adjacent to the low frequency end of
the spectrum.
(iii) Produced in nuclear reactions.
(iv)Produced by bombarding a metal target
by high speed electrons.
Ans. (i) Microwaves (ii) Radiowaves
(iii) Gamma rays (iv) X - rays
Q4.Give two characteristics of em waves.
Write the expression for the velocity of
em waves in terms of permeability &
permittivity of the medium.
Ans. (i) EM wave do not require any
material medium for propagation.
(ii) Em being uncharged cannot be
deflected by electric or magnetic field.
Aswathy Books

Em wave travels in space with a velocity

1
C=
= 3 x 108 m/s

0 0

Q5.Sky waves cannot be used in

transmitting T.V signals. Why? State two
factors by which the range of
transmission can be increased.
Ans. Television frequencies lie in the range
100-200 MHZ. These frequencies
cannot be reflected by ionosphere.
Hence sky wave propagation cannot be
used.
TV transmission can be increased by
(i) Increasing height of the transmission
antenna.
(ii) The use of geostationary satellite.
Q6. Give reason for the following.
(i) Long distance radio broadcasts use
short wave bands.
(ii) The small ozone layer on top of the
stratosphere is crucial for human
survival.
(iii) Satellites are used for long distance TV
transmission.
Ans. (i) As radiowaves from short wave
bands get reflected from ionosphere we
use them for long distance
communication.
(ii) It absorbs large portion of UV radiations
harmful for living organism on earth,
emitted by the sun.
(iii) Television signals of the frequency
range from 100MHZ to 200MHZ neither
follow the curvature of the earth nor get
reflected by ionosphere. Therefore
satellites are used for long distance TV
transmission.
Q7.The magnetic field in a plane
electromagnetic wave is given by
By = 2 x 10-17 sin (0.5 x 103x + 1.5 x
1011t) T.
a) What is the wavelength and
frequency of the wave. (b) Write an
expression for EF.

49

Ans. a) BY = BO Sin [2 ( x

= =

+ t )]

T
Comparing with the above equation
2
=
= 1.26cm
0.5 x 103
1
1.5 x 1011
= =
= 23.9GHZ
T
2

3 x 108
= 6m
C
50 x 106
b. Suppose em wave is moving along x
axis

E = 120 sin (1.05 x - 3.14 x 108t)j

b) E0 = B0C
= 2 x 10-7 x 3 x 108 60 V/m
E2 = 60 sin (0.5 x 103x + 1.5 x 1011t)V/m.

Q10. Name the constituent radiation of em

spectrum which.
a) Is used in satellite communication
b) Is used for studying crystal structure
c) Is similar to radiation emitted during
radioactive decay.
d) Has its wavelength range between 390
nm and 770nm.
e) Is absorbed from sunlight by oznoe
layer.
f) Produce intense heating effect.
g) Warfare to look through fog.
h) In radar.
Ans. a) Microwaves
b) X rays
c) rays
d) Vissible light
e) Ultraviolet rays
f) Infrared rays
g) Infrared rays
h) Microwaves

(iv)

B = 400 x 10-8 sin (1.05 x - 3.14 x 108t)k^

Q8. Light with an energy flux of 18 W/cm2

falls on a non reflecting surface at
normal incidence. If the surface has
an area of 20cm2. Find the average
force exerted on the surface during a
30 minute time span.
Ans. Total energy falling on the surface is
V = 18 x 20 x 30 x 60
= 6.48 x 105 J
Total momentum delivered is
6.48 x 105
V
P =
=
3 x 108
C
-13
= 2.16 x 10 Kg m/s
Average force exerted is
-3
F = P/t = 2.16 x 10
30 x 60
= 1.2 x 10-6 N
Q9. Suppose that electric field amplitude
of an electromagnetic wave is E0 =
120N/C & that its frequency is =

50MHZ. a) Determine B0, , K and

b) find the expression for E and B.
Ans. E0 = 120 N/C
= 50 x 106 HZ
E
a) (i) B0 = 0 = 120 = 40 x 10-8
C
3 x 108
(ii) = 2 = 2 x 3.14 x 50 x 106
= 3.14 x 108 rad/s
2
(iii) K =

2 x 3.14 x 50 x 106
= 2 =
8

C
= 1.05 rad/s
Aswathy Books

3.14 x 10

Q11. Charging current on a capacitor is

0.25 A. What is the displacement
current across the plates.
Ans. Displacement current is equal to the
charging current, 25 A.
Q12. Arrange the following in the order of
decreasing wavelength (Infrared,
radiowave, X rays, UV rays)
Ans. radiowave, infrared, UV rays, X rays.
Q13.Long distance radio broadcast use
short band waves. Why?
Ans. Only short waves can be reflected by
the ionosphere.
Q14. Explain why infrared photography is
better than the photograph using visible
light?

50

Ans. Infrared radiations can travel through

fog and mist which vissible light cannot.
Q15. Optical and radio telescopes are built
on the ground but X ray astronomy is
possible only from satellites orbitting the
earth. Why?
Ans. X rays are absorbed by the
atmosphere but visible rays and
radiowaves penetrate through it. Hence
X rays astronomy is possible only from
satellits.
Previous Questions
Q1. The orderly distribution of
electromagnetic radiations according to
their wavelength or frequency is called
electromagnetic spectrum. Identify the
constituent radiation of em spectrum
which
(i) Is used for studying crystal structure.
(ii) Is absorbed by the ozone layer in the
atmosphere.
(iii) Produce greenhouse effect.
(iv)Used in medicine to destroy cancer
cells.
(March 2012)
Ans.(i) X rays
(ii) UV rays
(iii) IR rays
(iv) X rays or Gamma rays.
Q2. Name the em waves used for the
following applications.
a) Imaging of bones in human body.
b) Mobile phone communication
c) Remote control of TV sets
d) For sterilizing surgical instruments
(March 2011)
Ans. a) X ray
b) Radio waves
c) Microwaves
d) Gamma rays
Q3.The frequencies of radio waves in the
AM broadcast band range from 0.55 x
106 Hz to 1.6 x 106Hz. What are the
largest and the shortest wave lengths
in this band.
Ans: 1 = 0.55 x 106Hz , 2 = 1.6 x 106Hz
Aswathy Books

c=

1=

2 =

1
2

=
=

3x108
= 5.45 x 102m
0.55 x 106

3x108
1.6 x 106

= 1.87 x 102m

Q4.What is a ground wave? Why is short

wave communication over long
distances not possible via ground
waves.
Ans:A ground wave is a radio wave which
can travel directly from one point to
another along the surface of the earth.
Ground wave transmission is possible
only with frequencies of 1500KHz or
wavelength of 200m.
Short wave communication over long
distance is not possible via ground
waves because of the fall in intensity of
these waves due to absorption.
Q5.The magnetic field of an em wave
oscillates parallel to a Y-axis and is
given by
By = Boy sin (kz - wt)
a) in what direction does the wave travel
b) Parallel to which axis does the
associated electric field oscillate?
Ans:a) The phase is changing with z and t.
So the wave is travelling in the z
direction.

b) Since E, B and direction of propagation

are mutually perpendicular, E should be

along the X-axis.
Q6.What is the name associated with the
following equations.

=
(ii) B . ds = 0
E.ds

-d

(iii) E. dl =
B. ds
dt

(i)

(iv)

B . dl =

0 0 dt

E. ds + 0

-7

Ans:(i) Gausss theorem in Electrostatics

(Maxwells I eqn)

51

(ii) Gausss theorem in magnetism

(Maxwells II equation)
(iii) Faradays law (Maxwells III equation)
(iv)Ampere-Maxwells law (Maxwells IV
equation).
Q7.What is Maxwells displacement
current?
Ans: It is that current which is produced in
a region when electric flux in that region
is varying with time
dE
ID = 0
dt

Aswathy Books

52

9. RAY OPTICS
Q1. When a ray of light is passed through
a prism under what condition will the
angle of incidence be equal to angle of
emergence?
Ans. For angle of minimum deviation.

Q8. A thin prism of 60 0 angle gives a

deviation of 300. What is the refractive
index of the material of prism?
Ans.Given A = 600, m = 300

Q2. A lens made of glass is immersed in

water. What will be its effect on the
power of the lens?
Ans. Power of the lens will decrease.
Q3. A convex lens made of glass of
refractive index L is immersed in a
medium of refractive index m. How will
the lens behave when L < m ?
Ans. It will behave as a diverging lens.
Q4. How does the resolving power of a
telescope change if the incident yellow
light is replaced by blue light?
Ans. Resolving power of
D
telescope =
1.22
as b < y, resolving power ill increase.
Q5. The refractive index of a medium is
3. What is the angle of refraction if
the unpolarised light is incident on it at
the polarising angle of the medium.
Ans.
tan ip =
= 3
ip = tan-1 3 = 600
r = 90 - 60
= 300
Q6. What is the focal length of a plane
mirror?
Ans. infinity
Q7. Two thin lenses of power +7D and
-3D are in contact. What is the focal
length of the combination.
Ans. P = P1 + P2 = 7-3 = 4D
1
f=
= .25m
4
= +25cm
0

Aswathy Books

Sin ( A + m )
2
Sin A/2

Sin ( 60 + 30 )
2
=

Sin 60/2

= Sin 45 = 1.41
Sin 30
Q9. A convex lens is placed in water. Will
there be any change in focal length?
Give reason.
1 - 1
Ans. 1 = n2-n1
R2
R
n
f
1

)(

On dipping in water, increases. n 1

Hence focal length increases.
Q10. At what angle of incidence should a
light beam strike a glass slab of
refractive index 3 such that the
reflected and refracted rays are
pependicular to each other.
Ans. tan 1p = = 3
1p = tan-1 (3 )
= 600
Q11. Focal length of an equiconvex lens is
equal to the radius of curvature of either
face. What is the refractive index of the
lens material.
Ans. Here R1 = R, R2 = -R and f = R
1

1 = ( - 1)
f

(R

1
= ( - 1)
R

(R

1
R2

-1
R

53

1
R

= (

- 1) x 2
R

= 1.5
Q12. An object is first seen in red light and
then in violet light through a simple
microscope in which case is the
magnifying power larger.
Ans. M = 1 + D
f
Since fV < fR, magnifying power is larger
when the object is seen in violet light.
Q13. Two plane mirrors arre placed at 600
to each other. How many number of
images would be formed.
Ans. n = 360 -1 = 360 -1 = 5
60

Q14. Doesthe apparent depth of a tank of

water change if viewed obliquely? If so
does the apparent depth increase or
decrease?
Ans. The apparent depth for oblique
viewing decreases from its value for
near normal viewing.
Q15. The aperture of the objective lens of
an astronomical teliscope is doubled.
How does it affect.
a) The resolving power of the telescope
and
b) The intensity of the image.
D
Ans. a) As resolving power =
1.22
when the aperture D is doubled, the
resolving power also will be doubled.
b) With double the aperture, the area of
the objective will become 4 times.
Hence the intensity of the image formed
by the telescope also becomes 4 times.
Q16. Why does air bubbles in a jar of water
shine brightly?
Ans. A ray of light entering from water to
air bubble suffers total internal reflection
at certain angle of observation. The
reflected light gives the appearance as
Aswathy Books

if from a reflected mirror. Thus the

bubbles shine brightly.
Q17. Why does smoked ball appears
silvery when dipped in water?
Ans.If a ball is smoked soot deposits on
the surface. When the ball is dipped in
water, water does not wet soot and thus
a layer of air is enclosed in between soot
and water. The light passing from water
to air suffers total internal reflection and
is scattered away. The reflected rays
gives the ball a silvery white
appearance.
Q18. Why does the bottom of the vessel
filled with water appears to be concave
when viewed from above?
Ans. The object in water appears to be
raised move and move when observed
move and move obliquely due to
refraction of light. In this case the
marginal portion of the bottom are
raised morethan the central portion due
to refraction. thus the shape of the
bottom appears concave.
Q19. If the plane glass slab is placed on
letters of different colours, the red
coloured letters appears more raised
up. Why?
Ans. The refractive index is more for violet
than red. The apparent shift s =t(1- 1/n)
is maximum for red than that for violet.
Hence red coloured letters appear more
raised than violet and other colours.
Q20.What type of lens is an air bubble
inside water.
Ans. It behaves as a diverging lens.
Q21. In viewing through a magnifying
glass, one usually positions ones eyes
very close to the lens. Does the angular
magnification change if the eye is
moved back?
Ans. Yes, it decrease a little because the
angle subtended at the eye is then
slightly less than the angle subtended
at the lens.

54

Q22. Why must both objective and eye

piece of a compound microscope have
short focal length.
Ans. Magnification of the eyepiece
me = 1 + D which increases if fe is
fe
small. further the magnification of the
objective, mo = vo /u for greater
o

magnification mo of the objective, object

distance uo should be small. It has to
be between fo and 2fo. Hence fo should
be small.
Q23. a) Doctors examine the inside of a
patients stomach without performing an
operation using a device called
endoscope. In this device a tube is used
to send LASER beam into the stomach.
Identify the tube and principle used in
it.
b) What are the conditions to be satisfied
to make use of this principle.
Ans. a) Optical able (lightpipe). The
principle is total internal reflection.
b) The conditions for total internal
reflection are
i) The ray should travel from a denser
medium to rarer medium
ii) The angle of incidence should be
greater than critical angle.
Q24. Where should an object be placed
from a convex lens to form an image of
same size? Can it happen in the case
of concave lens.
Ans.The object should be placed at a
distance of 2f from the convex lens. In
the case of concave lens the image
formed is always diminished. So we
cannot get an image of same size as in
the case of a convex lens.
Q25.A fish is at a depth of 30cm below the
surface of water. What will be the
distance between the fish and its
image? Refractive index of water is
4/3 .
Ans. Distance between fish and the image
= d(1 - 1 )

Aswathy Books

1
)
4/
3
= 30 ( 1 - 3/4)
= 30 x 1/4 = 7.5 cm.
Q26. The image of a candle formed by a
convex lens is obtained on a screen.
Will full size of the image be obtained if
the lower half of the lens is painted
completely opaque?
Ans. The full size of the image is obtained.
But the intensity of image will be
reduced. This is because the number
of rays of light refracted through different
parts of the lens will be reduced.
= 30 ( 1-

Q27. Why goggles (Sun glasses) have zero

power even though their surfaces are
curved.
Ans. Both the surfaces of the sunglasses
are curved in the same direction.
moreover the curvature is the same for
both the surfaces. R1 = R2 = R
P = ( - 1)

(R

1
R2

1
= 0
R
Q28. Within a glass bulb, a double convex
air bubble is formed. How would the
air bubble behave.
Ans.The air bubble would behave as a
diverging lens, because of air is less
than that of glass.
1

(R

= ( - 1)

Q29. Why does a convex lens of glass =

1.5 behaves as a diverging lens when
immersed in carbondisulphide of =
1.65.
g
1.5
Ans. This is because = =
<1
C
1.65
1
1 - 1 ,f
From
= ( - 1)
f
R2
R1
becoms negative

the lens behaves as a diverging

lens.
55

Q30. In which colour of the light the object

should be viewed by a microscope for
better magnifying power?
D
ans. Magnifying power m = 1 + . Focal
f
length of violet is minimum. Hence for
better magnifying power the object
should be viewed in violet light.
Q31. Explain why some clouds appear
white.
Ans. Clouds contain water droplets. As
they are quite large, Raylight scattering
is not obeyed. They scatter all colours
equally. Hence clouds appear white.
Q32. Explain why a rectangular glass slab
does not produce dispersion.
Ans.The dispersion produced by the first
diagonal half of the glass slab is
concelled by the other half.

Q33. There is a dot at the centre of a

spehrical glass. If it is viewed from a
medium of water surrounding the glass.
Where will be the image of the dot
fromed?
Ans. As the dot is at the centre of the
curvature light passes straight at the
interface. Hence the image formed will
be virtual and it is at the centre itself.
Q34. Explain why mirage diappears or
recedes when we come near the object.
Ans. Now the rays come downwards at a
smaller angle of incidence and hence
may not attain the critical angle even
from the lowest layer.
Q35. If the absolute refractive index of
glass is 3/2 and that of water is 4/3, then
explain how to find the critical angle at
the interface of the two media.
Ans.Refractive index of glass w.r.t water
9
wng = (3/2) (4/3) =
8
9
critical angle, C = Sin-1 ( )
8
Aswathy Books

Previous Questions
Q1. A spherical surface of radius of
curvature R, separates a rarer and a
denser medium as shown in the figure.
Rarer medium

Denser medium

a) Complete the path of the incident ray

of light, showing the formation of a real
image.
b) Derive the relation connecting object
distance U, image distance V1 radius of
curvature R and refractive indices n1
and n2 of the two media.
c) A thin convex lens of a focal length 5cm
is used as a simple microscope by a
person with normal near point (25cm).
What is the magnifying power of the
microscope?
(March 2012)
Ans.
N
a)
i ( )
n1
n

)
O

I
U R
V

b) By snelly law
n
Sin i
= 2
n1
Sin
n1 sin i = n2 sin
n1 i = n2r ______(1) For small values of
i&r
From ONC, i = +
From CNI r + =
r= -
Substituting the value of i and r in (1)
n1 ( + ) = n2 ( - )
n1 + n1 = n2 - n2
n1 + n2 = (n2 - n1)

56

MN
MN
MN
, =
and =
U
V
V
MN
MN
MN
n1
+ n2
= (n2 - n1)
V
U
R
n1
n2
(n - n )
+
= 2 1
U
V
R
But =

Applying sing convension

U = -ve, V = +ve & R = +ve
n1
n2
n -n
+
= 2 1
-U
V
R
n2
V

n1
U

(n2 - n1)
R

c) f = 5 cm
D = 25 cm
m=1+D
f
25
=1+
=6
5
Q2. In figure PQ is a ray incident on a prism
ABC
A

b) From quadrilateral AQNR,

A + N = 180
From QNR, N + r1 + r2 = 1800
Comparing above two equations
A = r1 + r2
.....(1)
From QMR,
= MQR + MRQ
= i - r 1 + e - r2
= i + e - (r1 + r2)
=i+e-A
c) C = 300
1
n=
Sin C
1
=
Sin 30

3.

a)
b)

Q
c)
P

C
B
a) Complete the ray diagram showing the
passage of light. Mark angle of
incidence i, angle of emergence e,
angle of deviation and angle of
refraction r1 and r2.
b) Using the diagram obtain the relation
=i+e-A
c) The critical angle of diamond is 300.
What is the refractive index.
(March 2012)
A
Ans.
a)
m A
)S
Q
e
( )> ( )
i
r r
1

1
=2
0.5
A lens of a particular focal length is
made from a glass slab by adjusting the
radic of curvature. the formaula used
in this case is lens makers formula.
Write lens makers formula.
Derive lens makers formula assuming
formula for refraction at a spherical
surface.
Is it possible for a given lens to act as a
converging lens in one medium and a
diverging lens in another medium?
Why?
Compare the focal length of a given
converging lens for violet light with that
using red light. Are they equal or
different. Why?
=

d)

Ans.a) 1 = (n - 1)
f
A
b)
n1 n

Aswathy Books

U
C

1
R2

n1

N
B

(R

I1

V1

V
57

For the face ABC, O is the object and

V1 is the image so
n2
n
n2 - n 1
- 1 =
..............(1)
V1
U
R1
For the face ADC, V1 is the virtual object
and I is the image such that
n1
n2
n -n
= 1 2
V
V2
R2
n1

n2
V1

(n2 - n1)
-(n2 - n1)
R1
R2
1 - 1
n1
n1
= (n2 - n1)
R2
R1
U
V
1
1
n2
1 - 1
= (
-1)
R2
U
R1
V
n1

1
U

= (n - 1 )

(R

1
R2

...............(3)
(Considering first medium as air)
When U = , V = f
1 - 1
1
1

= ( n - 1)
R2
R

f
1
1
1 - 1
= (n - 1)
.........(4)
R2
f
R1

Aswathy Books

(R

1
<
f red

1
R2

1
f violet

So f red > f violet

ie focal length of a lens for red light is
greater than that for violet large.
Q4.A microscope is a device used to obtain
magnified images of small objects.
a) Draw a labelled ray diagram of a
compound microscope forming an
image at the near point of the eye.
b) Obtain an expression for magnification
produced on a compound microscope.
c) If the objective lens is immersed in a
transparent oil, what will happen to the
resolving power of the microscope?
Explain.
(March 2011)
Ans. a)
Eye lens

Objective

I1 ^ >
O F
0

This is lens makers formula.

c) Yes a lens can act both as a converging
and diverging lens depending upon the
refractive index of the medium in which
it is placed.
If L < m it act as a diverging lens and
if
L > m it act as a converging lens.
L - refractive index of the material of
the lens.
m - refractive index of the medium

= ( -1)

red > violet

Since < 1

Red < violet

-(n - n )
= 2 1 ................(2)
R2

Adding equations (1) and (2)

n2
n
n
n
- 1 + 1 - 2
=
V1
U
V1
V

1
d) f

F0

Fe

I
^
B

^
B
b) Magnification of a compound
microscope is the product of the
magnification produced by the objective
and that of the eye lens.
M = M0 x Me
V0
D
=
(1+
)
U0
fa

58

d) Resolving power of a compound

microscope is
= 2n sin

Q5. Combination of lenses are used in

optical instruments to obtain the
required power.
a) What do you mean by power of a lens?
Express its unit.
b) Draw a neat schematic diagram for the
formation of image due to a point object
placed in front of two thin convex lenses
placed in contact.
c) Obtain an expression for the effective
focal length of the combination of two
thin lenses in contact
(March 2010)
Ans.a) Power of a lens is the reciprocal of
focal length when focal length is in
metre.
P = 1/f
unit = Dioptre
b)
L1
L2

I1

V1

c) For the lens L1, 0 is the object and I1

is the image such that
1
1
- 1 =
...........(1)
V
f1
U
For the lens L2, I1 is the virtual object
and I is the final image such that
1
1
- 1
=
.............(2)
V
f2
V1
1
1
1
1
(1) + (2) =
+
V1
U
V1
V
1
1
=
+
f1
f2
Aswathy Books

1
V

1
U

1
f1

1
f2

..........(3)

If f is the effective focal length then

1
1
1
=
................(4)
U
V
f
1
1
1
From (3) and (4)
=
+
f
f1
f2
Q6. Using the data given below, state as to
which of the given lenses will you prefer
to use as
(i) An eye piece
(ii) An objective to construct an
astronomical telescope? Give reason
for your answer.
Lens

Power

Aperture

L1

1D

0.1m

L2

10D

0.05m

L3

10D

0.02m

L4

20D

0.02m
(March 2012)

Ans.(i) For an eye piece we prefer convex

lens of maximum power and minimum
aperture ie lens L4.
ii) Objective must have minimum power
and maximum aperture ie lens L1.
Q7. Consider a ray of light is entering from
one medium to another medium.
a) When this ray of light suffers total
internal reflection?
b) Discuss briefly any two naturally
occuring phenomenon of total internal
reflection.
(March 2010)
Ans. a) The ray should travel from a denser
medium to a rarer medium and angle of
incidence is greater than critical angle.
b)(i) Mirage:- On hot summer days the layer
of air in contact with the sand becomes
hot and rare. The upper layers are
comparatively cooler and denser. When
light rays travel from denser to rarer,
they undergo total internal reflection.

59

Thus image of the distant object is seen

inverted.
(ii) Brilliance of diamond:- Refractive index
of diamond is high (n=2.42) and critical
angle is small (c=24.410) Due to this
small critical angle, the light entering
the crystal undergoes total internal
reflection.
Q8.What type of mirror used to see the
rear side of a motor cycle. Why?
Ans:A convex mirror is used. The image
formed by convex mirror will be erect,
virtual and diminished. Hence the
motor cyclist gets a wider field of view
of the backside.
Q9.Can virtual image be photographed?
Ans:Yes, because the lens in the camera
produces a real image of the virtual
image being formed.
Q10.Two thin lenses of focal length 6cm
and 12cm are placed in contact. What
will be the focal length of their
combination?
1
1
1
Ans:
=
+
f2
f1
f
1
1
=
+
12
6

f = 4cm

3
2+1
=
12
12

A
900 (
Al
Bl

Q15.A small bulb is placed at the bottom of

a tank containing water to a depth of
80cm. What is the area of the surface
of water through which light from the
bulb can emerge out? Refractive index
of water is 1.33 (Consider bulb as a point
source).
Ans:
A
B

1
4

Q11.In a simple microscope, the focal

length of the lens should be small.
Why?
Ans: This is because the angular
magnification is inversely proportional
to the focal length.
Q12.Write two advantages of reflecting
telescope
over
astronomical
telescope?
Ans:(i) No chromatic or spherical
aberration
(ii) High light gathering capacity.
Q13.You are given three lenses of powers
0.5D, 4D and 10D. State with reason
Aswathy Books

Q14.Show with the help of a diagram the

inversion of rays from an object AB by a
prism.
Ans:

ic
)

which two lenses will you select for

constructing a good astronomical
telescope.
Ans:The lens 0.5D is used as objective
because of its largest focal length and
lens of 10D is used as eye piecee
because of its smallest focal length.

1
From figure Sin ic = a
w
ic = Sin-1
= Sin-1

( a )
w

(1.33 )

= Sin-1 0.752 = 48.760

Radius of the patch of light = AB
AB
tanic = OA
AB = OA tanic

60

Radius of the path of light = 80 tan(48.760)

= 80 x 1.14 = 91.2cm
Area of the patch of light = (91.2)2 cm2
= 26140.5cm2
= 2.61m2
Q16.Calculate the resolving power of an
astronomical telescope assuming the
diameter of the objective lens to be 6cm
and the wavelength of light used is
540nm.
D
Ans: Resolving power =
1.22
6 x 10-2

1.22 x 540 x 10

-9

= 9.1 x 104
Q17.The focal length of a lens is given by
1
=
f

n2

(n

) ( R1

1
R2

a) Write down the factors on which the

focal length of a lens depends.
b) Arrive at the expression for a thin lens.
c) With the help of above formula show
that the focal length of a lens changes
when it is dipped in a liquid.
Ans:a) The focal length of a lens depends
on
(i) Refractive index of the medium in
which it is placed.
(ii) Refractive index of the material of the
lens.
(iii) Radii of curvature of the lens.
b) (Ans in NCRTE text book)
n2
c) When dipped in liquid n decreases,
1
so 1/f decreases and f increase.
Q18.What is the difference between a
terrestrial telescope and an
astronomical telescope. How can we
convert an astronomical telescope to a
terrestrial?
Ans: In an astronomical telescope the
image is inverted but in a terrestrial
telescope it is erect. The final image in
Aswathy Books

an astronomical telescope can be made

erect using an erecting lens.
Q19.Inference is the preliminary process
that occur in diffraction. Comment on
this statement.
Ans:Interference is due to the superposition
of waves coming from two coherent
sources. Diffraction is due to the
superposition of waves coming from
different parts of the same wave front.
So actually the phenomenon
interference is taking place in diffraction.
Q20.Can sound waves be polarised. Why.
Ans:Sound waves are longitudinal waves
and so cannot be polarised. Transverse
waves can only be polarized.
Q21a) Using lens makers formula for a
doubly convex lens obtain the equation
for a plano convex lens.
b) Show that plano convex lens has double
the focal length of a doubly convex lens
of same radius of curvature.
Ans:a) Lens makers formula is
1 - 1
1
= (n - 1)
R2
R1
f

here R1 = R and R2 =
1
1 - 1
= (n - 1)
f

1
(n-1)
=
f
R
b) For double convex lens R1 = R, R2 = -12
1
1 - -1
= (n - 1)
R
R
f
1
1
= (n - 1)
+
R
R
1
2
= (n - 1)
f
R

(
(

)
)

61

10. WAVE OPTICS

Q2. Analyse the figure given below

a) What are the difference between the
reflected and the refracted rays.

<>>
<
<>

900

<>
<>
<>
b) State Brewsters law and prove that at
the polarising angle the reflected and
refracted rays are perpendicular to
each other.
c) The polarising angle for a medium is
570 what is the critical angle of the
medium.
Ans.a) The reflected ray is completely
plane polarised with vibration parallel
to the surface of the medium. The

Aswathy Books

refracted rays are only partially plane

polarised.
b) Brewsters law states the tangent of the
angle of polarisation is equal to
refractive index of the medium.
tan P =
tan P =
N
P
R

<>>
< i=P
<>

)
)

Q1. In a Youngs Double slit experiment

we get alternate dark and bright hands
a) What is the phenomenon behind hand
creation.
b) What are the necessary condition to
conduct double slit experiment?
Explain.
c) What happens to the band width when
the set up is immersed in water.
Ans.a) Interference.
b) For sustained interference
i) The slits should be very narrow and
very close to each other.
ii) The screen should be placed at a very
large distance.
iii) The sources must be coherent.
c) = D and C = . When the setup is
d
immersed in water velocity of light
decreases and lence decreases.
Since < , decreases.

900

<>
<>
<>
N1

Sin i
=
...........(1)
Sin r
by Brewsters law tan p =
Sin p
=
............(2)
Cos p

By Snells law

At polarising angle i = p

Sin p
Sin r

Sin p
Cos p

Cos p = Sin r
Sin (90-p) = Sin r
p + r = 900
RQS = 180 - (p + r)
= 180-90
= 900
So at the polarising angle, the reflected
and the refracted rays are perpendicular
to each other.
c) = tan p = 1
Sin c
1
1
Sin c = tan p =
tan 57
1
c = Sin-1 tan 57 = 410 30|

Q3. In interference when light energy

superimpose with a phase difference
1800 darkness occurs

62

i) Two sources which can give sustained

interference pattern is said to be ........
ii) Does the interference pattern violates
the law of conservation of energy?
Justify your answer.
iii) Modify the expression for band width
= D in terms of refractive index of
d
the medium between the slits and the
screen.
Ans. (i) Coherent sources
ii) No. In interference light energy is only
redistributed. Total energy is constant.
The energy is simply transferred from
points of minimum intersity to points of
maximum intensity.
iii) When the medium between the slits
and the screen is air, n=1 and if is
the wavelength of light in air then
D
= d .
When another medium of refractive
index n is introduced, if is the
wavelength of light in that medium then
=| D .
d
C
=
But n =
=
Cmedium
|
|

=
n
| = D
|

n d
4. Name the following wavefronts
according to their nature.
a) Wavefront due to point source.
b) Wavefront due to fluorescent lamp.
c) Emergent wavefront from a concave
lens.
d) Emergent wavefront from a prism,
when a plane wavefront is incident on
it.
Ans.a) Spherical
b) Cylindrical
c) Convex
d) Plane

Aswathy Books

Q5. In Youngs double slit experiment two

slits are illuminated by a red
monochromic source of light.
i) If one of the slits is clossed what will be
the observation on the screen.
ii) Arrive at the expression for band width
when both slits are open.
iii) What happens to the band width if the
experimental arrangement is immersed
in water.
iv) If we change the colour of laser light
from red to blue what will happen to the
spacing between the pattern.
Ans.(i) Uniform patch of red colour is
obtained. No fringes are produced (If
the slits is very narrow single slit
diffraction pattern may be seen)
ii) (Derivation of band width from
NCERT text)
iii) Band width decreases as /n.
iv) When red is replaced by blue
wavelength decreases and the spacing
() decreases.
Q6. Would the head lights of a distant car
form a two-source interference patterns.
Ans. No, they cannot be two coherent
sources.
Q7. In Youngs double slit experiment if the
monochromatic light is replaced by
white light what is the observation on
the screen.
Ans. Instead of dark and white hands,
coloured bands are seen with central
band white violet fringe comes first on
either side followed by other colours.
Q8. Why does the colour of a butterflys
wings depend on the angle at which it
is viewed.
Ans. The ridges of butterflys wings act as
a reflection grating. For each
wavelength there is certain sets of
angles at which there is a maximum in
the reflected intensity. If you shine white
light on the wings and change the angle
at which you view the wing, different
wavelengths will be reflected most

63

strongly into your eye and the apparent

colour of the wing will change.
Q9. When a low flying aircraft passes
overhead we notice a slight shaking of
picture on our TV screen. why?
Ans. Interference of direct signal received
by the antenna with signal reflected by
the passing aircraft.
Q10. Thin films such as a soap bubble or
a thin layer of oil on water show
beautiful colours when illuminated by
white light. Explain?
Ans. Light waves reflected from the upper
and lower layers of a thin transparent
film interfere. Since the condition for
interference is wavelength dependent,
coloured fringes are obtained.
Q.11 If the angle between the planes of
the polariser and the analyser is 600,
by what factor does the intensity of
transmitted light change when passing
through the analysis?
Ans. By malus law.
I = I0 Cos2
I
1
= (cos 60)2 = ( )2
I0
2

I = 1
4
I0
ie reduces to one fourth.
Q12. Give the ratio of velocities of light
rays of wavelength 4000A0 and 8000
A0 in vacuum.
Ans. Light waves of all wavelength travels
with same velocity in vacuum. So the
ratio of velocities is 1:1.
Q13. Two slits in Youngs double slit
experiment have widths in the ratio
81:1. what is the ratio of the amplitudes
of light waves from them.
w1
81
Ans.
=
w2
1
w1
F1
a1 2
=
=
w2
F
a2
2

Aswathy Books

a1
=
a2

F1
F2

81
= 9:1
1

Q14. In a single slit diffraction experiment

if the width of the slit is doubled how
does the i) intensity of light ii) width of
the central maximum change.
Ans. If width of the slit is doubled then
i) as intensity is width, intensity
becomes two times.
ii) as = D, the width of the central
d
maximum becomes half.
Q15. What is the effect of interference
fringes in Youngs Double slit
experiment (i) If the separation between
the slits is halved.
ii) The source slit is moved closer to the
double slit.
D
Ans. We know =
d
i) If d| =d/2, | = 2
fringe width becomes doubled
ii) For interference fringes to be seen the
s
condition is
< dD where
S
s- size of source and S its distance from
the plane of two slits. As S decreases
s
increases. So interference pattern
S
produced by different parts overlap and
interference pattern gets less and less
sharp. Ultimately fringes disappear.

Q16a) When Monochromatic light is

incident on a surface separating two
media, the reflected and the refracted
light both have same frequency as the
incident frequency. Why?
b) When light travels from a rarer to a
denser medium, it loses some speed.
Does the reduction in speed imply a
reduction in energy carried by the
waves.
c) A narrow pulse of light is sent through a
medium. Will you expect the pulse to
retain its shape as it travels through the
medium?

64

d) In the wave picture of light, intensity of

light is determined by the square of the
amplitude of the wave.
What
determines the intensity of light in the
photon picture of light.
Ans.a) During reflection or refraction,
energy is not lost. Hence frequency
remains the same.
b) V = f , as the frequency is a constant
when velocity decreases, wavelength
increases.
c) Pulse will not retain the shape as it
travels through a medium because
speed of propagation in the medium
depends on wavelength ie as speed
changes, wavelength also changes.
d) For a given frequency and intensity of
light in the photon picture is determined
by the number of per unit area.
Q17.a) A concave mirror and a convex lens
are held in water. What change, if any,
do you expect to find the focal length
of either?
b) On a hot summer day in a desert, one
sees the reflected image of distant parts
of the sky. Explain.
c) What is the twinkling effect of star due
to.
d) Watching the sunset on a beach, one
can see the sun for several minutes
after it has actually set. Explain.
Ans. a) Focal length of a mirror is about
half its radius of curvature and has
nothing to do with the external medium.
The focal length of the convex lens will
increase because the refractive index
of glass with respect to water is less
than refractive index of glass with
respect to air.
b) The air layers closer to the ground are
hotter than higher layers. When the
angle of incidence is greater than
critical angle, the rays get totally
reflected and may enter the observers
eye. The observer sees a reflected
image of the distant part of the sky.
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c) The apparent position of star is slightly

different from the actual position due to
refraction of star light by the
atmosphere. The apparent is not
stationary since the conditions of the
refracting medium is not stationary. This
fluctuating apparent position of the star
gives rise to the twinkling effect.
d) Since the atmosphere bends starlight
towards the normal, the apparent
position of a star is slightly above its
actual position. Thus even when the sun
has actually set its apparent position
remains above the horizon for some
time.
Q18. When a tiny circular obstacle is placed
in the path of light from a distant source,
a bright spot is seen at the centre of the
shadow of the obstacle. Explain why?
Ans. The bright spot is produced due to the
constructive interference of light
diffracted from the opposite edges of the
circular obstacle.
Q19. What is the shape of the interference
fringes in Youngs Experiment if the pin
holes are replaced by narrow slits.
Ans. Straight line fringes parallel to the slit
are observed on the screen.
Q20. Interference fringes cannot be
produced by two separate lighted
candles or electric bulbs. Why?
Ans. Two seperate sources are not
coherent even if they emit light of same
wavelength and amplitude, their will vary
at random
Q21. Find the ratio of intensity of maxima
and minima in the interference of two
waves of amplituds ratio 1:2
Ans. Amplitude ratio, a1:a2 = 1:2
a1 = x and a2 = 2x

Imax
=
I min

(a1 + a2)2
(a1 - a2)2

9x2
=
=
(x - 2x)2
x2
(x + 2x)2

= 9/1

Fmax : Fmin = 9:1

65

Q22. Does the minimum deviation

increase or decrease when the angle
of a prism increases?
Ans. The minimum deviation increases as
the angle of the prism increases.

Q30.What should be the order of size of

obstacle or aperture for diffraction of
light?
Ans:It should be of the order of wavelength
of light.

Q23. Can you convert a microscope into

a telescope by interchanging its
objective and eyepiece.
Ans. No. For a telescope of should be very
large. This cannot be achieved by
interchanging the objective and the
eyepiece of a microscope.

Q31.Coloured spectrum is seen when we

look through a mslin cloth. Why?
Ans:It is due to diffraction of white light
through fine slits in between the fine
threads in the muslin cloth.

Q24. Binoculars are telescopes. But

length is short. Explain.
Ans. In a binocular the light is twice bent
using total reflecting prisms. Hence its
effective length of binocular is thrice its
length.
Q25. Does a man appears shorter or taller
for a fish under water. Explain.
Ans. The man looks taller for the fish under
water because the light entering water
deviates towards the normal of
refraction.

Q32.Yellow light is used in a single slit

diffraction experiment with slit width of
0.6mm. If yellow light is replaced by X
rays, how will the diffraction pattern be
affected?
Ans:No diffraction pattern will be observed.
This is because wavelength of X-rays is
extremely small as compared to the
wavelength of visible light.

Q26. Explain why sun glasses are made

of polaroid.
Ans. Polaroids absorb only that part of light
which produce a dazzling effect to the
eye.
Q27.Can you produce interference with
sound waves in air?
Ans:Yes, longitudinal wave also show
inferences.
Q28.What happens when a thin
transparent film is placed just infront of
one of the slits in the Youngs double
slit experiment.
Ans:The interference pattern shall get
displaced.
Q29.An excessively thin film appears black
in reflected light. Why?
Ans:In the given situation, the path
difference is only /2 since it is get
reflected from a denser medium. So the
film appears dark.
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66

11. DUAL NATURE OF MATTER AND RADIATION

Q2.A metal surface just emits

photoelectrons with blue light. Can it
emit photoelectrons with red light?
Explain.
Ans:The frequency of red light is les than
that of blue light. Hence no photo
emission will take place.

>

stopping potential

Q3.The variation of stopping potential with

frequency of incident radiation is shown
in the figure. Can you find the Plancks
constant from the graph?

>

Ans:If V is the stopping potential, then

eV = h - h0
h
h
V =
- e 0
e
Comparing with the equation of a
straight line y = mx + c1 we get slope of
the graph = h/e. Multiplying the slope
with charge of electron, Plancks
constant h can be calculated.
Q4.Why cannot we experience the
existence of matter wave in our day to
day life?
Ans:According to de Broglie, wavelength
h
of the matter wave =
. If m is large,
mv
will be small thus the wavelength wil
be small compared to the size of the
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particle. Hence it is not experienced in

day to day life.
Q5.An electron and a proton possessing
same amount of KE. Which of the two
has greater deBroglie wavelength.
Explain.
Ans:de Broglie wavelength, = h where
2mE
E is the KE of the particle. Given E is
same for both electron and proton. So
1

Hence will be greater for

m
smaller mass ie for an electron.
Q6.Is the de Broglie wavelength of a photon
of an em radiation equal to the
wavelength of that radiation.
h
Ans:Yes, de Broglie wavelength = p
h
h
For a photon, p =
hence =
c
p
h
= h/c = c/ which is equal to the
wavelength of the radiation.
Q7.If figure represents the variation of
current with potential of a metal
I

>

Q1. Explain why photo electrons come out

with different kinetic energies even
though the incident radiation is
monochromatic.
Ans: The different free electrons in a metal
are having different energies. Hence the
electrons will come out with different
energies.

a) Identify the phenomenon

b) State the laws governing it.
c) Even when potential is zero, there is a
current. Explain
d) Current is zero for a particular potential.
How does the potential helps in
determining the velocity of electrons.
a) Photoelectric effect. The graph shows
the relation between I and V for the same
frequency of incident light of two different
intensity.

67

b(i)No.of photo electrons emitted is

proportional to the intensity of incident
light
(ii) Kinetic energy of electrons emitted is
proportional to the frequency of incident
radiation.
(iii) There is a minimum frequency called
threshold frequency below which photo
electric effect stops completely.
(iv)It is an instantaneous process.
c) Some of the photoelectrons are emitted
with sufficient velocity to travel from
cathode to anode even when the p.d
between cathode and anode is zero.
This happens only if the frequency of
the incident radiation is sufficiently
greater than the threshold frequency.
d) The potential V0 at which current is zero
is called stopping potential. In this case
1
eV0 =
mv2
2
2V0e
m

v =

Q8.The size of bacteria can be magnified

6 x 105 times using an electron
microscope. The wave nature of
electron is used in electron microscope.
a) Name the type of waves used here.
b) Obtain a general expression for the
wavelength of this wave.
c) Why is the wave character not
observed in large bodies .......
Ans:a) Matter wave.
b) By Einsteins equation E = mc2
By Plancks Quantum theory E = h
h = mc2
hc
= mc2

= mc

potential diference 54v what is the value

of wavelength associated with electron.
Ans:

=
=

12.27

v
12.27

54

A0
A0 = 1.67A0

Q10.The work function of several elements

are given in the table.
Element
Al C Cu Au Si Ag Na
Work function (eV) 4.3 5.0 4.7 5.1 4.8 4.3 2.7

a) What is meant by work function.

b) Which material among them is most
suitable for photoelectric effect. Why?
c) Though the incident radiation is
monochromatic photons are not emitted
with same kinetic energy. Why.
Ans:a) The minimum energy of the incident
photon to eject electron from the metal
surface is called work function (0)
0 = h0
b) Na. Its work function is lowest.
According to Einsteins Photoelectric
equation h = 0 + KE. Since Na has low
work function low energy is sufficient for
radiation.
c) Free electrons in the elements have
energy varying from zero to maximum.
The electrons having maximum KE and
minimum energy are emitted with
minimum KE.
Q11.How will the photoelectric current
change on decreasing the wavelength
of incident radiation for a given
photosensitives material.
Ans:It remains same since photo electric
current is independent of frequency or
wavelength.

h
=
p
c) For large bodies m is large so de
Broglie wavelength will be negligibly
small.

Q12.Two metals A and B have work

functions 2eV and 5eV respectively.
Which metal has lower threshold
wavelength.
Ans:Metal with higher work function has
lower threshold wavelength ie metal B.

Q9.If the electrons are accelerated by a

Q13.If the potential difference used to

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h
mc =

68

accelerate electrons is doubled by what

factor does the de-Broglie wavelength
of the electron beam changes.
12.27 0
Ans:
=
A
v
12.27 0
l =
A
v

++++++++++++++++
>
>

l =

>
_______________

ie., it becomes

times the initial

value of wavelength.
Q14.If the maximum kinetic energy of
electrons emitted in a photocell is 5eV.
What is the stopping potential?
1
Ans:
mv2 = eV0
2
eV0 = 5eV
V0 = 5V
Q15.What is the de Broglie wavelength of
a 3Kg object moving with a speed of
2ms-1.
Ans: m = 3Kg
V = 2ms-1
h
= mv
=

17.Figure below shows tracks of three

charged partices 1, 2 and 3 in a uniform
E.F. Give the sign of the three charges.
Which particle has the highest charge
to mass ratio?

6.6x10-34
3x2

= 1.1 x 10-34m
Q16.Find the maximum frequency and
minimum wavelength of X-rays
produced by 30kv electrons.
Ans: Given V = 30kv
eV = h
eV
= h
1.6x10-19 x 30 x 103
=
6.63x10-34
= 7.24 x 1018Hz
c
=
3 x108
=
= 0.414 x 10-10m
7.24 x 1018
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(1)
(2)

(3)

Ans: Particles (1) and (2) are negatively

charged and particle (3) is positively
e
charged. As displacement y particle
m
(3) is having maximum charge to mass
ratio.
Q18.Work function of three elements A, B
& C are as given below A: 5eV, B: 3.8eV,
C:2.8eV. A radiation of wavelength
4125A0 is made to be incident on each
of these elements. By appropriate
calculations show in which case
photoelectrons will not be emitted.
Ans:

= 4125 x 10-10m

hc
Energy of incident light = h =

6.6x10-34 x 3 x 108
E =
= 3eV
4125 x 10-10 x 1.6x 10-19
For emission of photoelectrons E > 0
Thus only element c emit photo
electrons.
Q19. Monochromatic light of frequency
6x1014 Hz is produced by a laser. The
power emitted is 2x10-3W.
a) What is the energy of the photon in the
light beam.
b) How many photons per second, on the
average, are emitted by the source?
Ans:a) Each proton has an energy
E = h = 6.6 x10-34 x 6x1014
= 3.98 x10-19J
b) No. of photons emitted per second,
P
2x10-3
N =
=
E
3.98x10-19

69

Q1. To emit a free electron from a metal

surface a minimum amount of energy
must be supplied.
a) This energy is called .......
b) State three methods to supply this
energy to the free electron.
c) When light of frequency 7.21x1014Hz
is incident on a metal surface, the
maximum speed of ejected electrons
is 6x105m/s. Calculate the threshold
frequency for the metal. (March 2012)
Ans:a) Threshold energy
b) Thermionic emission ii) Field emission
(iii) Photoelectric emission.
c) = 7.21 x 1014Hz
v = 6 x 105m/s
1
h - h0 =
mv2
2
1mv2
- 0 =
2h
mv2
1
0 = _
h
2
= 7.21x1014 _ 2.4x1014
= 4.81 x 1014Hz
Q2.Light meters in photographic cameras
make use of photoelectric effect.
a) What is photoelectric effect?
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>

Previous Questions

Intensity

>

d) Since wavelength of ultraviolet rays is

small, its frequency will be high and it
will be greater than threshold frequency
to produce photoelectric effect. But the
wavelength of red light is high and
frequency will be low and cannot
produce photoelectric emission.
Q3.Consider the result of a historic
experiment of 1927.
>

h
( - 0)
e
-34
6.6x10
_
=
(8.2x1014 3.3x1014)
-79
1.6x10
= 2.03V
V0 =

54v

500

Q20.The threshold frequency for a certain

metal is 3.3x1014Hz. If light of frequency
8.2x10 14 Hz is incident on a metal,
predict the cut off voltage for the
photoelectric emission.
Ans: 0 = 3.3x1014Hz
= 8.2x1014Hz
eV0 = h - h0

b) Which of the following is a

photosensitive material.
(a) Quartz (b) Caesium (c) Germanium
(d) Silicon.
c) Represent graphically the variation of
photoelectric current with intensity of
incident radiation.
d) Red light however bright, cannot
produce the emission of photoelectrons
from a clean zinc surface. But a weak
ultraviolet radiation can do. Do you agree
with the statement? Why? (March 2010)
Ans:a) The emissions of electrons from the
surface of certain metals when light of
certain frequency falls on it is called
photoelectric effect.
b) Caesium
c)
photoelectric
current

= 5x 1015protons/second.

>
a) Which is the above mentioned
experiment
b) What is de Broglies hypothesis.
c) Which wave phenomenon is exhibited
by the electron in the above experiment.
d) Explain the appearance of the peak at
scattering angle = 500 (March 2011)
Ans:a) Davisson Germer Experiment
b) According to de Broglie a wave is

70

associated with a particle in motion.

The wave length is given by = h/mv.
c) Diffraction
d) The appearance of peak is due to the
constructive inteference between
successive layers of the crystal.
Q4.Complete the following statement
about photoelectric effect.
The kinetic energy of phton electrons
emitted by a photo sensitive surface
depends on ........ while the intensity of
incident radiation depends on.........
Ans: (Frequency, Intensity) (March 2009)
Q5.A photodiode is fabricated from a
semiconductor of band gap energy
2.8eV.
a) Define band gap.
b) Can this photo diode be used to detect
a wavelength of 500nm? Justify your
answer.
(March 2010)
Ans:a) The energy gap between valence
bond and conduction band is called
band gap.
hc
b) The energy, E = h =

(March 2010)
Ans:a) The minimum amount of energy
required to eject an electron from the
metal surface is called work function
(0 = h0)
1
b) h = h0 +
mv2
2
c
c
But =
and 0 =

hc

= 0.03 x 10-17J
0.03 x 10-17
= 2.4eV
1.6x10-19
The energy of incident wave is 2.4eV.
But the band gap is 2.8eV. Hence no
photocurrent is produced due to the
incident wave of energy 2.4eV. Hence
this diode cannot detect a wave of
wavelength 500nm.
=

Q6.Photoelectric effect occurs when light

of suitable frequency incident on a
metal surface.
a) What do you understand by the term
work function of the metal.
b) Write Enisteins photoelectric equation
in terms of wavelength and hence
express the condition for photoelectric
emission in terms of wavelength.
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1
mv2
2

Condition for emission is

h > h0

> 0
ie,

< 0

Q7. A photon of energy 6 x 10-20J has linear

momentum 2x10 -30 Kgms -1 . Is this
statement correct?
Ans: No, momentum of a photon
P =

h
=
c

6.6x10-34 x 3x108
E =
500 x 10-9

hc

6 x 10-20
3 x108
= 2x10-28Kgms-1

Q8.Which photon is more energetic - violet

or red. Why?
Ans:Since frequency of violet is more than
that of red, the photon of violet light is
more energetic than the photon of red
light.
Q9.How can you connect de Broglie wave
concept with Bohrs postulate, Angular
momentum is an integral multiple of
h ?

2
Ans:According to de Broglie wave concept,
only that orbit is possible for an electron
which contain an integral multiple of
wavelengths.
2r = n
h
h
, 2 r = n
mv
mv
This is Bohrs postulate.
But =

71

12. ATOMS AND NUCLEI

Q1.What is the significance of impact
parameter?
Ans:When impact parameter is large,
coulombs force experienced by alpha
particle is weak. When impact
parameter is large, the particle move
along a straight line. When impact
parameter is small, the alpha particle
undergoes large angle of scattering.
Q2.For which track the radius of curvature
is greater when and are considered
in radioactivity.
Ans:The radius of curvature of a charged
particle moving in a magnitude field is
given by mv/Bq. The momentum mv is
greater for particles. The radius of
curvature is greater for particles.
Q3.In Rutherford particle scattering
experiment he used particle of energy
of 5.5meV and gold foil of thickness as
small as 2.1x10-7m.
a) What will be the angle of scattering
when impact parameter is zero.
b) How does the angle of scattering
change with impact parameter.
c) Why the size of the gold foil is made
extremely small.
d) Can you conduct the particle scattering
experiment using Aluminium foil. Justify
your answer.
Ans:a) Zero
1 Ze2
b) Impact parameter b =
Cot /2
40 Ek
Angle of scattering decreases with
increase in imapct parameter.
c) Gold foil can be made extremely thin
(~10-4mm) comparable with the size of
gold nucleus. It avoids multiple
interaction.
d) No, Aluminium foil cannot be made that
thin. Moreover atomic number of Al is
smaller than that of gold nucleus. So

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the repulsive force is much smaller and

scattering is much lesser.
Q4.Radioactive atom 92U 238 decay into
Thorium and particle, with half life
period 4.5x109 years.
a) Write the decay equation of alpha decay
of 92U238.
b) Arrive at an expression for half life period
of radioactive substance in terms of
decay constant.
c) Find the activity of given sample if it
consists of 25.3x1010 atoms of 92U238.
Ans:a) 92U238 90Th234 + 2H4.
2.303

b) We have t =

log

N0
N

N0

when t = t1/2, N =

N
t1/2 = 2.303 log 0
N0

=
=

t1/2

2.303
2.303

x 0.3010

c) Activity =
=
=
=

log 2

0.693

dN
dt

0.693
xN
t1/2
0.693 x 25.3x1020
4.5 x 109

0.693 x 25.3x1020
4.9 x 109 x 365 x 24 x 60 x 60
= 1.23 x 104 units

72

Q5.A radioactive nucleus undergoes a

series of decays according to the
sequence.

A
A A A
1

If the element A3 has mass number 172

and atomic number 69, What are the
mass number and atomic number of A.
Ans: Mass no. of A3 = 172
Atomic no. of A3 = 69
Mass no. of A2 = 172 + 4 = 176
Atomic no. of A2 = 69 + 2 = 71
Since particle is emitted
Mass no. of A1 = 176 + 4 = 80
Atomic no. of A1 = 71 + 2 = 73
particle emission.
Mass no. of A = 80
emission
Atomic no. of A = 72
Q6.92U238 is not suitable for chain reaction.
Why?
Ans:Fission of U238 can be carried out only
with fast neutrons having energy more
than 1MeV. In natural Uranium the
relative abundance of 92U238 is 99.28%.
Even if we use fast neutron capable of
producing fission in U238 the secondary
neutrons get slowed down due to
collision with U238 nuclei and they are
incapable of producing further fission of
U238 .
Q7.Suppose you are given a chance to
repeat the alpha particle scattering
experiment using a thin sheet of solid
hydrogen in place of gold foil. What
result do you expect?
Ans:Hydrogen nucleus is lighter than
particle. So there would be no large
angle scattering.
Q8.Ground state energy of hydrogen atom
is -13.6eV. What are kinetic and
potential energy of electron in this state.
Ans:Total energy E = -13.6eV
Kinetic energy = -E = 13.6eV
Potential energy = 2E = -27.2eV
Q9.Write nuclear reactions equations for
(i) decay of 88Ra226
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(ii) decay of 94Pu242

(iii) decay of 15P32
(iv) decay of 83Bi210
(v) + decay of 6C11
(vi) + decay of 43Tc97
(vii) Electron capture of 54Xe120
Ans:(i) 88Ra226 86Ra222 + 2He4
(ii) 94Pu242 92U238 + 2He4
(iii) 16P32 16S32 + -1e0 +
(iv) 83Bi210 84Po210 + -1e0 +
(v) 6C11 5B11 + +1e0 +
(vi) 43Tc97 42Mo97 + +1e0 +
(vii) 54Xe120+ -1e0 53I120 +
Q10.A radioactive nucleus emits a beta
particle. The parent and daughter nuclei
are - (Isotopes, isobar, isotone, isomer)
Ans:Isobar, since in beta emission mass
number remains the same.
Q11.The SI units of the activity of a
radioactive nucleide is ..........
(Bequerel) Bq
Q12.Heavy water is often used as a
moderator in thermal nuclear reactors.
Give reason.
Ans:It shows down fast neutrons by elastic
collision.
Q13.Two nuclei have mass numbers in the
ratio 1:2. What is the ratio of their nuclear
densities.
Ans:1:1, since nuclear densities is same for
all nuclei independent of mass number.
Q14.Compare the radii of two nuclei with
mass number 1 and 27 respectively.
Ans: R = R0A1/3
R1
R2
R1
R2

A1

1/3

A2
1
27

1/3

1
3

R1:R2 = 1:3

73

Q15.Why are neutrons considered as ideal

particle for nuclear reaction?
Ans:Neutrons carry no charge and hence
are neither attracted nor repelled by
nucleus.
Q16.Name the reaction which takes place
when a slow neutron beam strikes 92U235
nuclei. Write the reaction involved.
Ans:Nuclear fission.
U235+0n192U236 92U235 50Ba141 36Kr92
92

1
1
2
n1
n2 2

For shortest wave length in Paschen

Series.
n1 = 3, n2 =

Ans:We have

Q18.How did de Broglie Equation lead to

the quantization condition laid down by
Bohr?
Ans:Consider an orbit of radius r. As an
electron behaves as a wave as well,
the perimeter of orbit must contain
integral multiple of wave length.
2r = n
h
But =
mv
nh
2r =
mv
nh
mvr =
2
which is the required relation.
Q19.What is the shortest and longest
wavelength present in the Paschen
series of spectral line.

1
32

R
9

9
R

9
1.097x107

= 8.256x10-7 = 8256A0
For longest wave length in Paschen
Series.
n1 = 3 n2 = 4
1

= R

1
32

1
42

= R

1
9

1
16

= 144 =
7R

7R

144

144
7 x 1.097 x 107

= 18.752 x 10-7 = 18752A0

Q20a) Group the following six nuclides into
three pairs of (i) isotones (ii) isotopes (iii)
Isobar
C12, 2He3, 80Hg198, 1H3, 79Au179, 6C14.
6
b) How does the size of nucleus depends
on its mass number?
c) Hence explain why the density of nuclear
matter should be independent of the size
of the nucleus.
Ans:a) Isotones: 80Hg198 and 79Au179
Isotopes: 6C12 and 6C14
Isobars: 2He3 and 1H3
b) Size of the nucleus mass number
4
R3 A
3
R3 A
R A1/3

Aswathy Books

=R

=R

+ 3 0n1 + energy
Q17.The value of ground state energy of
Hydrogen atom is -13.6eV.
(i) What does negative sign signify.
(ii) How much energy is required to take
an electron in this atom from the ground
state to the first excited state.
Ans:(i) The negative sign signifies that the
electrons are bound to the nucleus and
the force is attractive.
(ii) In ground state E1 = -13.6eV
-13.6
In first excited state E2 =
22
= -3.4eV
Energy required = -3.4 - (-13.6)
= 10.2eV

R = R0A1/3

74

where R0 is a constant equal to 1.1 x

10-15m.
mass of nucleus
c) Nuclear density =
Volume of nucleus

mA
/3R03A

(m = mass of nucleon)
3m
=
4R03
Thus the density of nuclear matter is
independent of the size of the nucleus.

Q23. What would happen if the electrons in

an atom were stationary?
Ans:If the electrons were stationary, they
would fall into the nucleus on account of
electrostatic force of attraction between
electrons and the nucleus.
Q24a) The energy levels of an atom is
shown below. Which of them will result
in the emission of a photon of
wavelength 275nm?
A

Q21.Calculate the energy released in the

following nuclear reaction.
Li6 + 0n1 2He4 + 1H3
Given mass of 3Li6 = 6.015126 u
Mass of 0n1 = 1.008665 u
Mass of 2He4 = 4.002604 u
Mass of 1H3 = 3.016049 u
Ans: Mass defect
m = m(3Li6) + m(0n1) - m(2He4) - m(1H3)
=6.015126 +1.008665
- 4.002604 - 3.016049
= 0.0051384 amu
Energy released = 0.0051384 x 931.5 MeV
= 4.786MeV

0eV
C

-2eV

Q22.Calculate the binding energy per

nucleon of 17Cl35 nucleus.
Given mass of 17C35 = 34.98 u
mass of proton = 1.007825 u
Mass of neutron = 1.008665 u
Ans:Total no. of protons = 17
Total mass of protons = 17 x 1.007825
= 17.133025 amu
No. of neutrons = 35 - 17 = 18
Total mass of neutrons = 18 x 1.008665
= 18.15597 u
Total mass of nucleons = 35.288995 u
Mass defect m = 35.288995 - 34.98
= 0.308995 u
Binding energy = 0.308995 x 931MeV
= 287.67MeV
287.67
Binding energy per nucleon =
A
287.67
=
= 8.22MeV
35
Aswathy Books

-4.5eV
-10eV
b) Which transition corresponds to
emission of radiation of maximum
wavelength.
Ans:a) When = 275nm = 275 x 10-9m
E = h =
=

hc

6.6 x 10-34 x 3 x108

275 x 10-9 x 1.6 x 10-19

= 4.5eV
Therefore transition B will result in the
emission of a photon of = 275nm.
b) Maximum wavelength has minimum
energy transition A provides energy of
2eV, which is minimum.
Q25.How are rays emitted from a nucleus
when it does not contain electrons?
Ans:During emission a neutron is
converted to a proton, electron and
antineutrino. The proton remains inside
the nucleus and the electron is emitted
as particle.
n1 1H1 + -1e0 +
0

75

Previous Questions
Q1a) In the following nuclear fission
reaction, N is the number of neutrons
emitted. What is the value of N?
U235 + 0n1 38Sr94 + 54Xe140 + N
92
b) Complete the following nuclear
reaction equation.
Be9 + 2He4 0n1 + .........
4
c) Two nuclei have mass numbers in the
ratio 1:8. What is the ratio of their
nuclear radii.
(March 2012)
Ans:a) 2 neutrons
U235 + 0n1 38Sr94 + 54Xe140 + 20n1
92
b) 4Be9 + 2He4 0n1 + 6C12
c) R = R0A1/3
1/3
A1 1/3
1
R1
1
= A
= 8
=
R2
2
2
R1:R2 = 1:2
Q2.Bohr proposed a new model of atom
to overcome a problem of Rutherfords
atom model.
a) Which specific problem of the
Rutherford model was attempted to be
solved by Bohr Model?
b) What are the basic postulates of Bohr
model.
c) The radius of the innermost electron
orbit of a hydrogen atom is 5.3x10-11m.
What are the radii of the n = 2 and
n = 3 orbits.
(March 2012)
Ans:a) In Rutherford atom model the
electron continuously revolving round
the nucleus which are accelerated
towards the centre. According to
Electromagnetic theory the electrons
would continuously raidate energy and
they would rapidly spiral in and fall into
the nucleus, and atom would collapse.
In practice atom do not collapse. Thus
Rutherford cannot explain the stability
of the atom. This problem was solved
by Bohr atom model.
b) Bohrs postulates are
(i) The positive charged particles of an
atom are concentrated at a point known
Aswathy Books

as nucleus and the electrons are

revolving round the nucleus in circular
orbits.
(ii) Electrpm can move only in certain
specified orbits whose angular
momentum is an integral multiple of
h/ . While moving along there orbits the
2
electrons do not radiate energy and so
they are called stationary orbits.
(iii) Emission or absorption of energy takes
place when an electron jumps from one
orbit to the other.
If E1 and E2 are the energy of there orbits
then E2 - E1 = h

E2 - E1

n
This is Bohr frequency condition.
c) r1 = 5.3 x 10-11m
r = 5.3 x 10-11 x 22 = 21.2 x 10-11m
n = 3 , r = 5.3 x 10-11 x 32 = 47.7 x 10-11m
Q3.The total energy of an electron in the
ground state of a hydrogen atom is 13.6eV.
a) What do you mean by ground state of a
hydrogen atom.
b) The excitation energy required to raise
the electron in the first excited state of
hydrogen atom is .......... eV
(March 2010)
Ans:a) The lowest energy state that an atom
can occupy is called ground state.
-13.6eV
b) E =
n2
-13.6eV
E1 =
= -13.6eV
12
E2 =

-13.6eV

= - 3.4
22
E = E2 - E1 = -3.4 - (-13.6)
= 10.2eV
Q4.If the wavelength of spectral lines emitted
by hydrogen atom is generally exposed as
1
1
1
= R
2
n1
n 22

a) Write down the expression for Balmer

Series of spectral lines.

76

b) Find out the shortest wavelength of

spectral line emitted by Balmer Series.
(Say - 2010)
Ans:a) For Balmer Series
m = 2, n = 3, 4, 5....
1

1
22

=R

1
n2

b) We get shortest wavelength when n =

1

= R
1

1
22

4
R

4
1.097x107

= 3.646 x 10-7m
Q5.What is the a) momentum b) Speed and
c) de Broglie wavelength of an electron
with kinetic energy of 120eV.
(Say 2011)
Ans: Momentum P = 2mE
= 2 x 9.1 x 10-31 x 120 x 1.6 x 10-19
= 5.88 x 10-24 Kgms-1
P
5.88 x 10-24
Speed = m =
9.1 x10-31
= 6.53 x 106m/s

h
6.6 x 10-34
=
-31
6
mv 9.1 x10 x 6.53 x 10

= 1.112A0
Q6.a) Define mass defect and binding
energy. What is the relation between
them.
b) Nuclear process (fusion (z < 10) and
fission (z > 70) are possible only for light
and heavy nuclei. Why? (March 2007)
Ans:a) The difference between the total
mass of the nucleons and the actual
mass of the nucleus is called mass
defect (m).
The energy equivalent to the mass
defect in a nucleus is called its binding
energy.
Aswathy Books

B.E = mc2
= [Zmp + (A - Z)mn - M]c2
b) Binding energy per nucleon is smaller
for z < 10 and z > 70. For stable nucleus
binding energy is between 30 and 170.
To increase the binding energy and
stability nucleus undergo nuclear fission
and fusion.
Q7a)How many electrons and neutrons are
there is ZXA?
b) Can an electron reside inside a nucleus.
c) Can an electron be emitted from the
nucleus? Explain.
(Say 2009)
Ans:a) No. of electrons = Z
No. of neutrons = A - Z
b) No
c) Yes, during electron emission a neutron
is converted to proton, electron and
antineutrino.
Q8a)The half life of radon is 3.8 days.
a) Define half life.
b) Calculate how much of 15mg of Radon
will remain after 14.2 days?
(2010 March)
Ans:a) The time taken by a radio active
element to desintegrate to half the initial
number of particles is called half life.
Total time
b) Number of half lines n =
total half life
14.2
=
= 3.736
3.8
We know

N
=
N0

N = N0(1/2)3.736
= 15 x 10-3 x 0.075
N = 1.125mg
Q9.The radius of the first electron orbit of a
hydrogen atom is 5.3 x 10-11m. What is
the radius of the second orbit?
Ans: We know rn n2
2
r2
2
=
= 4
r1
1
r2 = 4r1 = 4 x 5.3 x 10-11m = 2.12 x10-10m

77

Q10.The wavelength of first member of

Balmer series is 6563A0. Calculate the
wavelength of second member of
Lyman series.
Ans:For first member of Balmer series
n1 = 2 , n2 = 3
1
1
1
= R 22
32

1
9

1
4

= R

5
R
36

36
(1)
5R
For second member of Lyman Series,

1 =

Ans: No. of particles emitted = (difference

238 - 206
in mass no.) 4 =
= 8
4
Due to emission of 8 particles charge
reduces by 8x 2 = 16. So the charge
becomes 92 -16 = 76. But the charge
number of the end product is 82. So no.
of particles emitted = 82 - 76 = 6
Q13. Which has greater ionising power,
particle or particle. Why?

Ans: particle, since it is heavier than

particle.

n1 = 1 and n2 = 3
1

1
12

8
R
9

2 =
(1)
(2)

1
32

= R

9
8R

1-

1
9

(2)

2
9
5
5R
=
x
=
8R
32
1
36

2 =

=R

5
32

5
x 6563
32

= 1025.5A0
Q11.Neutrons are the best projectiles for
artificial radioactivity. Why?
Ans:This is due to the fact that on account
of neutral character, neutrons are not
deflected by electric or magnetic fields.
Q12.How many and particles are
emitted when 92 U 238 changes into
Pb206 through a series of radioactive
82
decays?
Aswathy Books

78

13. SEMICONDUCTOR ELECTRONICS; MATERIALS, DEVICES

AND SIMPLE CIRCUITS
Q1.A student connected a diode as shown
in figure.
a) What can you say about the current in
the circuit.
P

a)
b)

b) What do you mean by biasing a diode?

c) Explain the different types of biasing?
d) In the given figures which of the diodes
are forward biased and which are
reverse biased.

c)
a)
b)

directly proportional to the potential

difference between its ends.
Name this law.
Since diodes do not obey this law, how
will you represent graphically the
variation of voltage and current for the
diode?
You are given Germanium and Silicon
diode. How will you experimently find
which is Germanium.
Ohms law
If(mA)
Ge

Si

+10v

+5v

.3
Si

+10v
-5v

+12v
(iii)

(iv)

Ans:a) No current flows through the circuit.

b) Application of a potential difference
between the terminals of a diode is
called biasing a diode.
c) (i) Forward biasing:- When P region of
the diode is connected to positive
terminal of the battery and N region is
connected to the negative terminals the
diode conducts current and is said to
be forward biased.
(ii) Reverse biasing:- When P region
of the diode is connected to negative
terminal and N region to positive
terminal the diode do not conduct and
is said to be reverse biased.
d) (ii) and (iii) are forward biased. (i) and
(iv) are reverse biased.
Q2.The current through a conductor is
Aswathy Books

.7 V

Ge

(ii)

Reverse bias IR(mA)

c) For Ge diode knee voltage is Vk = 0.3v
and for silicon Vk = 0.7v
Q3.A circuit diagram is given below.
XX

(i)

----

----

+5v

R
a) What type of transistor is used.
b) Transistor is connected in CE mode.
Explain CE mode.
c) What changes would occur in the
brightless of the lamp when the resistance
R is decreased? Explain. Why?
Ans:a) npn transistor
b) In this mode input is connected between
the base and the emitter and output is
between emitter and collector. So emitter
is the common terminal.
c) If R is decreased the effective input
resistance r1 decreases and voltage gain
Rc
A = r increases and hence
1
brightness of the bulb increases.

79

Q4.Match the following

A

1.

Pn diode

Voltage regulator

2.

Zener diode

conversion of light energy to electric energy

3.

LED

Conversion of electric energy to light

4.

Photo diode

Rectification

1.

Pn diode

Rectification

2.

Zener diode

Voltage regulator

3.

LED

Conversion of electric energy to light

4.

Photo diode

conversion of light energy to electric energy

Ans:

Q5.A car stereo working at stabilised

voltage supply of 9v dc and has a zener
diode of 9v, .25w dc. A boy approaches
you to get help.
a) Which mode of bias will you suggest to
connect the Zener diode as voltage
regulator.
b) Draw the circuit diagram of voltage
regulation to help the boy.
c) Which device is essential for the circuit
diagram? Find the minimum value of
that device.
Ans:a) Reverse bias
b)
I
IL
R
+
IZ
input
RL
V0
V
voltage
Z

Vi

c) Current limiting resistor, R

I=IL+IZ
For minimum value of R, IL = 0

I=IZ

Vi = IR + VZ

IR = Vi-Vz = 12 - 9 = 3v

P = IZVZ , IZ= 0.25

9
Aswathy Books

IR =

.25
R=3
9

3x 9
= 108
.25
Q6.Classify the following as conductors,
insulators and semiconductors.
GaAs, InP, Ni, Calcite, Graphite
Ans: Conductors: Ni and Graphite
Insulator: Calcite
Semiconductor: GaAs and InP
R =

Q7.The behaviour of the control unit of an

automatic gas cooker is given below.
Gas

Cooking time

OFF
OFF
ON
ON

OFF
ON
OFF
ON

Warning light
ON
ON
ON
OFF

Cooking time is different for different

dishes. Hence cooking time must be
adjusted properly. This control unit can
be constructed using logic gates.
a) What is meant by logic gates.
b) Which gate is suitable for the above
control unit.
c) Construct a simple circuit diagram for
control unit.
Ans:a) A logic gate is a digital circuit having

80

b)

0
0
1
1

0
1
0
1

1
1
1
0

This is the truth table of a NAND gate

OFF = 0 ON = 1
c)
A

Gas ON/OFF
switch

Time adjustment
switch

Vi

Q8.Following figure is an incomplete circuit

of a common Emitter amplifier with the
input forward biased
a) Identify the transistor

VBE

b) Complete the above circuit diagram by

giving proper bias in the output and
connected load of 4k.
c) When the base current changes by
10A, the change in the base-emitter
voltage is found to be 0.02v. The
observed change in the collector current
is 2mA. What is the voltage gain of the
amplifier?
d) NPN transistors are preferred in
devices with very high frequency
source. Explain. Why?
Ans:a) npn

Aswathy Books

b)
Rc = 4k

VCC
VI

one ormore inputs but only one output,

the output is controlled by the
combinations of the inputs.

VB
c) IB = 20A = 20 x 10-6A
VBE = .02V
7c = 2 x 10-3A
AV = ?
Ic
.02
=
20
x 10-6
I
= 1K
Rc
AV = r
1
4 x103
= 100 x
= 400
1 x 103
d) In npn transistor charge carriers are
electrons. Electrons have high mobility
and so have quick response with high
frequency source.
Q9.Can we take one slab of a p type
semiconductor and physically join it to
another n type conductor to get a pn
junction?
Ans:No, Any slab will have roughness much
larger than interatomic crystal spacing.
Hence free electrons and holes will not
migrate through the junction and no
depletion layer and barrier potential will
be formed at the junction.
Q10.The forbidden energy gap of a
semiconductor is 1.05eV. What does it
mean?
Ans:An energy of 1.05eV is required to
move an electron from the valence band
to the conduction band.
Q11.Is an N type conductor negatively
charged.
Ans:No, An N-type conductor is electrically

81

neutral. This is because total charge of

the electrons is equal to total charge of
the positive ions in the semiconductor.
Q12.The input ac of 50Hz is applied to a
half wave rectifier. What will be the
frequency of the output.
b) What will be the output frequency if it is
a full wave rectifier.
Ans:a) 50 Hz (same as the input)
b) 100 Hz (twice as the input)
Q13.Why is a transistor called current
controlled device?
Ans:For a given emitter current, the
collector current can be conctrolled by
controlling the base current. Hence the
transistor is called a current controlled
device.
Q14.Two amplifier of voltage gains A1 and
A2 are coupled in series. What is the
voltage gain of this arrangement?
Ans:Voltage gain of the combination A =
A1A2
Q15.Why is the conductivity of n type
semiconductor greater than that of the
p type semiconductor even when both
of these have same level of doping?
Ans:In N type semiconductors charge
carriers are electrons and mobility of
electrons is greater than that of holes.
Q16.Why a transistor cannot be used as a
rectifier?
Ans:A rectifier devices should only when
forward biased and not when reverse
biased. But a transistor conducts either
way.
Q17.Pure silicon at 300k has equal
electron and hole concentration of
1.5 x 10 16 /m 3 . Doping by Indium
increases the hole concentration to 4.5
x 1022/m3. Calculate the new electron
concentration in the doped silicon.
Ans:For pure silicon at 300k,
ni = 1.5 x 1016/m3
For Indium doped silicon,
nh = 4.5 x 1022/m3
To find the new electron concentration
Aswathy Books

ne in the doped silicon,

Here ni2 = ne x nh
ne =

(1.5 x 1016)
ni2
=
= 5 x109/m3
nh
(4.5 x 1022)

Q18.An pn photo diode is fabricated from a

semiconductor with band gap of 2.8eV.
Can it detect a wavelength of 6000nm.
Ans:Eg = 2.8eV
hc
6.63 x 10-34 x 3 x 108
= Eg =
2.8 x 1.6 x 10-19
= 443.9nm
Hence = 6000nm cannot be detected.
Q19.Identify the logic gates marked X and
Y in the given figure. Write the truth table
to find the output of Z for all values of A
& B.

B
Ans: Logic gate marked X is NAND gate
Logic gate marked Y is OR gate.
A
0
1
0
1

B
0
0
1
1

Z
1
1
1
1

Q20. Show how the following gates can be

obtained by using NAND gates alone.
(i) OR gate (ii) AND gate
Ans: (i) Realisation of OR gate
A

82

(ii) Realisation of AND gate

Ans:a)

A
0
1
0
1

Q21.What do you mean by the term IC.

Give its two limitations and two
advantages.
Ans:Instead of using separate circuit
elements like resistors, diodes,
capacitors etc all these elements are
fabricated in a single semiconductors
chip called Integrated circuit.
Advantage: low cost, space savings,
requires low power, reliable.
Limitation: Inductors cannot be
fabricated in an I C. If one of the
components of an IC goes out of order,
the entire IC has to be replaced.

D
1
0
0
0

Y
0
1
1
1

B
Q3.A student made a circuit as shown in
the figure. S1 and S2 are switches and B
is a bulb a) He argues that this circuit is
equivalent to an AND gate. Do you agree
with him? Justify your answer?
E
S1

S2

Q1. Given below is the truth table of a 2

input logic gate.
a) Identify the logic gate A B output
b) Draw its logic symbol
0 0
1
c) If this logic gate is
0 1
1
connected to a NOT
1 0
1
gate what will be the
1 1
0
output when
(i) A = 1 , B = 1 and
(ii) A = 0, B = 1
(March 2012)
Ans:a) NAND gate
Y=A . B

c) If NAND gate is connected to NOT

gate it becomes AND gate.
(i) A = 1, B = 1 then Y = 1
(ii) A = 0, B = 1 then Y = 0
Q2. Consider the logic circuit using NOR
gate given below.
C
A
P
Y
Q
D
B
Aswathy Books

C
1
0
0
0

b) This is an OR gate with Y = A + B

A
Y

Previous Questions

b)

B
0
0
1
1

b) Write down its truth table (March 2010)

Ans: A) No. This is similar to the working of
an OR gate. AND gate can be
constructed by connecting the switches
in series.
b) Truth table
A

0
1
0
1

0
0
1
1

0
1
1
1

Q4a) Explain the use of transistor as an

oscillator.
b) How is an oscillator different from an
amplifier.
Ans:a) An oscillator is a device that produce
ac signals of any desired frequency.
Important parts of an oscillatory are
(i) Transistor
(ii) Tank circuit
(iii) Feedback circuit
NPN transistor in common Emitter
configuration can be used for making an
oscillator.

83

Ll

The Zener diode has a break down

voltage of 6.2V.
(March 2009)
C

+12V
Vcc

IR

Cl
vvvv

RB

IL

I2

RL
When supply voltage is switched on the
collector current start increasing which
charges the capacitor in tank circuit. A
part of it is fed back to the input by
inductor Ll. Thus sustained oscillations
are produced.
b) An oscillator produce ac signals without
the help of any input signal. Amplifier
is used for strengthening weak signals.
Q5.The band gap at 300k of crystals A, B,
C & D are 5.5, 1.2, 0.67 and 0.1 units
respectvely. Answer these questions
based on the information.
a) What do you understand by band gap.
b) What is the most common unit to
measure band gap.
c) In the above case, which crystal will
have the highest electrical conductivity
at 300K. Why?
(March 2009)
Ans:a) The range of energy possessed by
electrons in a solid is called energy
band. The energy difference between
valence band and conduction band is
called forbidden energy gap.
b) Its unit is electron volt (eV)
c) Crystal D, because energy gap is less.
Q6.Consider a Zener diode with break
down voltage 6.2V.
a) How is a Zener diode different from an
ordinary diode.
b) What is the significance of break down
voltage of a Zener diode.
c) Write any one application of Zener
diode.
d) What is the voltage drop across the
resistor R in the circuit shown below?

Aswathy Books

Ans:a) A Zener diode is similar to an ordinary

diode except that Zener diode is doped
heavily to have a sharp break down
voltage.
b) A property doped p-n junction diode
which works in the break down region
without damaging itself.
c) As a voltage regulator.
d) E = IR + ILRL
12 = VR + 6.2
VR = 5.8v
Q7.Consider the following circuit diagram
of a transistor.
IC
Vi
VBB

C
B
E

RC

VO

IE

a) Which type of transistor is used in the

circuit? How did you identify?
b) Which application of transistor is shown
in the diagram?
c) Sketch the output characteristics of a
transistor in CE configuration. Mark the
saturation region, cut off region and
active region in the characteristic curve.
(March 2010)
Ans: a) npn transistor, as the emitter current
flows outwards.
b) Amplifier

84

IC

Sa
tur
ati
on
reg
ion

c)

IB = 20A
IB =10A
IB =0A

Active region

Cut off region

VLE
Saturation region-both junctions are
forward bias.
Cut off region-both junctions are
reverse
biased
Active region-emitter base junction is
forward bias and collector bias junction
is reverse biased.
Q8.Why radio transistors do not work
satisfactorily when used inside a
railway carriage?
Ans:The railway carriage is made of iron
which act as a magnetic screen. So it
does not permit electromagnetic waves
from radio broadcasting station to enter
the carriage.
Q9.Why common emitter configuration is
commonly used in Amplifier circuits.
Ans: (i) High current gain.
(ii) High voltage gain
(iii) Good impedance matching
Q10.Draw the energy band diagram of a
ptype and n-type semiconductor.
Ans:
C.B
Acceptor energy level

V.B
p-type semiconductor

Aswathy Books

C.B
Energy level

V.B

Q11. Construct a half wave rectifier which

rectifies only positive halves of the ac.
b) Explain its working
c) Draw the i/p and output.
Ans:a)
Output

RL

Input a
b) During the positive half cycles of the ac
the diode is reverse biased and do not
conduct. Hence no current flows through
RL. During the negative half cycles the
diode is forward biased and conducts.
c) input

output

Q12.Full wave rectifier constructed using

two diodes is called a centre tap
rectifier?
a) Can a rectifier be constructed using four
diodes.
b) Name such a rectifier
c) Draw the connection diagram of this
rectifier.
d) What is its advantage.
Ans:a) Yes
b) Bridge rectifier
c)
S
P
D2
D1
D4
D3

output
d) It is cheaper than the centre tap rectifier
since only four diodes are needed and
centre tap transformer is removed.

n-type semiconductor

85

14. PRINCIPLES OF COMMUNICATION

Q1.Modulation is necessary when
antennas length is considered.
Explain.
Ans:For effective transmission and
reception, antennas should have
heights comparable to a quarter
wavelength of the frequency used. For
15KHz audio frequency, the height of
the antenna has to be about 5000m
which is unthinkable.
Q2.The maximum and minimum
amplitudes of an AM wave are 700mV
and 300mV respectively. Find the
modulation index.
Emax - Emin
Ans:Modulation Index =
Emax + Emin
700-300
=

700+300

400
= 0.4
1000

Q3.In an AM, the carrier wave frequency

is 10MHz and modulating signal
frequency is about 15KHz. Find the
band width of modulation.
Ans:Given fc = 10MHz = 10 x 106Hz
fm = 15KHz = 15 x 103Hz
Bandwidth = (fc + fm) - (fc - fm)
= 2fm
= 2 x 15 x 103 = 30 x 103 Hz
Q4.What is the modulation technique used
for digital data?
Ans:Pulse Code Modulation.
Q5.What is line of sight distance in
communication system?
Ans:It is the distance between transmitting
antenna and receiving antenna at
which they can be seen each other
directly.
Q6.Why TV transmission towers are made
very high?
Ans: TV transmission uses space wave
communication. The signal transmitted
by the antenna travels through the
Aswathy Books

space and recieved by the receiving

antenna. Hence TV towers are made
very high to ensure wide coverage.
Q7.Long distance radio broadcast uses
short wave bands. Why?
Ans:It is so because ionosphere reflects the
waves in these bands.
Q8.Why are sky waves not used in the
transmission of television signals.
Ans:TV signals are of high frequencies
(100MHz-200MHz). They cannot be
reflected to earth by ionosphere because
the maximum possible frequency of sky
wave propogation is 10MHz. Hence sky
waves cannot be used for the
transmission of TV signals.
Q9.What is the length of a dipole antenna
to transmit signals of frequency 200MHz.
Ans: = 200 x 106Hz
c = 3 x 108m/s
3 x 108
c
=
=
= 1.5m
2 x 108

Length of the dipole antenna =

=

1.5 = 37.5cm
4

Q10.How does the effective power radiated

by an antenna vary with wave length?
Ans:Power radiated by an antenna is
inversely proportional to the wavelength.
Q11.A TV tower has a height of 400m at a
given place. Calculate the coverage
range y the radius of the earth is 6400km.
Ans: d = 2Rh
= 2 x 6400 x 103 x 400
= 71554M

Area covered

= 71.6km

d2

= 3.14 x 715542
= 1.6 x 1010m2

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Q12.Why ground wave propagation is not

suitable for high frequencies?
Ans:With increase in frequency attenuation
increases. Attenuation occurs in the
lower atmosphere due to the presence
of oxygen and water vapour. Waves
also get affected by refraction due to
different atmospheric layers.
Q13.A sinusoidal carrier voltage of
frequency 1MHz is amplitude
modulated by sinusoidal wave of
frequency 5KHz. Calculate the side
band frequencies.
Ans:fc = 1MHz = 106Hz = 1000 KHz
fs = 5KHz
Upper side band frequency = 1000+ 5
= 1005 KHz
Lower side band frequency = 1000-5 =
995KHz
Q14.Can steady current carry any
intelligence (information). Why?
Ans:No, since there is no variation.
Q15.This process is popularly called
detection
a) What is this process? Define
b) What is its necessity?
c) Mention three important characteristics
of a Detector.
Ans:a) Demodulation. It is the process of
covering or extracting the information
from a modulated wave.
b) The wireless signal consists of both RF
and AF waves. RF is beyond the audible
range of human ears. So it is necessary
to extract or separate AF from RF. So
demodulation is required.
c) Linearity, sensitivity and signal handling
capacity.
Q16.The height of the transmitting antenna
is 225m and that of the receiving
antenna is 16m above ground level.
Calculate the distance between the
transmitter and the receiver. Radius of
the earth is 6400km.
Ans: d = dT + dR

2 x 6400 x 103 (225 + 16)

= 67976m
= 67.97km
Q17.In the process of modulation, any one
of the quality of carrier is varied in
accordance with the message signal.
a) Give the parameters that can be used
to achieve modulation when one uses a
sinusoidal wave as carrier.
b) Convert the following circuit diagram of
a CE amplifier into a simple AM
modulator circuit.
C
2

C1

output
RB
VBB

input

VCC

c) A sample AM modulator consists of

diode along with RC network. Give the
function of RC network in the
demodulator circuit.
d) In what way the demodulator process is
affected if 1/fc > RC?
Ans:a) Amplitude modulation, frequency
modulation and phase modulation.
b)
C1

output
RB

carrier

message

VCC

VBB

c) It helps to filter the radio frequency

carrier wave.
d) If 1/fc > RC, the period is greater than
the time constant, the capacitor will get
discharged completely and hence the
carrier wave will not be filtered.

= 2RhT + 2RhR
Aswathy Books

87

Previous Questions
Q1.Television broad cast is done by space
wave mode of propogation?
a) What is the difference between sky
wave and space wave modes of
propogation?
b) A TV transmission antenna is 81m tall.
How much service area can it conver if
the receiving antenna is in the ground
level? (Radius of earth is 6400km)
(March 2011)
Ans:a) The reflection of electromagnetic
wave by ionosphere is used in short way
propagation. Corresponding mode is
known as sky propagation. But in space
wave propagation mode the
electromagnetic wave is propagated
straight from the transmitter to the
receiver.
b) d = 2Rh
Range = d2
= x 2Rh
= 3.14 x 2 x 6400 x 103 x 81
= 3258 Km2
Q2.Spectrum
Allocations
for
communication are arrived at by an
international agreement.
a) Name the agency which administers the
present system of frequency
allocations.
b) Draw block diagram of an AM (i)
transmitter (ii) Receiver. (March 2012)
Ans:a) ITV (International Tele communication
Union)
(b)(i) Transmitter

Q3.Derive an expression for the range of a

TV antenna.
Ans:Consider a TV antenna OP of height h.
OR1 & OR2 are the maximum distance
from the antenna upto which
transmission signals can be received.
P

Radiated wave

antenna

O
R1

R2

R
R
Let OR1 = OR2 = d C
From right angled triangle CR2P,
(1)
CP2 = CR22 + PR22
From right angled triangle CR2P,
PR22 = OR22 + OP2 = h2 + d2
Also CR2 = CO = R, radius of the earth
From (1) (R+h)2 = R2 + (h2 + d2)
R2 + 2hR + h2 = R2 + h2 + d2
d2 = 2hR
d = 2hR
Q4.Match the following
Nature of Broadcast
a) FM radio
b) VHF TV
c) UHF TV

Frequency Band
(i) 47 to 230 MHz
(ii) 470 to 960MHz
(iii) 88 to 108MHz

Ans: (a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii).

Antenna

message signal generator

Modulator

>

Amplifier

Receiver
Antenna

carrier wave
Loudspeaker
Tunable amplifier

Aswathy Books

Detector

audio amplifier

88