Cornelius' Conversion - Final Thoughts

The idea is in vogue in some quarters that Cornelius was saved when the Holy Spirit fell
upon him (Acts 10:44) without any further action on his part. One of the verses used to
support this idea is 1 John 4:13, "By this we know that we abide in Him, and He in us,
because He has given us of His Spirit." (NKJV) So, it is said that settles it.

I went to take a look at that verse and read it in context. Now understand I believe the
Spirit abides in a Christian - that is not the point. The point is whether it necessarily
follows that because the Holy Spirit fell on Cornelius that he was saved instantly at that
point in time.

But, I read the verse in context. One verse above this one, in verse 12, it is stated, "If we
love one another, God abides in us, and His love has been perfected in us." (1 John 4:12
NKJV) Two verses down I read this, "Whoever confesses that Jesus is the Son of God,
God abides in him, and he in God." (1 John 4:15 NKJV) In a broader context, but still in
the book of 1 John, it is said if we keep his word he we abide in him and he in us. (1 John
2:5, 1 John 3:24) Thus we have a series of items being listed by which we can measure
whether or not we are in a faithful relationship with God.

The passage is not talking about initial obedience to God (the gospel) for there can be no
obedience to what is thrust upon you. To say that obedience to the gospel (a command of
God - 2 Thess. 1:8, 1 Peter 4:17) equals Holy Spirit baptism and vice versa is to say in
reality that there is nothing to obey. Had Cornelius obeyed the gospel?

Paul said, concerning the matter of salvation in Rom. 6:17-18, "But God be thanked that
though you were slaves of sin, yet you obeyed from the heart that form of doctrine to
which you were delivered. And having been set free from sin, you became slaves of
righteousness." (NKJV) There is then something to obey. What? The command of Peter
to Cornelius and those gathered with him, "And he commanded them to be baptized in
the name of the Lord." (Acts 10:48 NKJV) The reader would do well to read Rom. 6:1-6
where Paul talks about baptism in the same chapter as the verse just quoted above (Rom.
6:17-18).

Let the reader note that obedience from the heart (Rom. 6:17) necessarily implies faith or
else how can it be from the heart, thus the obedience being spoken of is in addition to
faith and it is something they must do for themselves - not God do for them or to them..

I might talk a little about the conversion of the Ethiopian eunuch as it bears on this topic.
I quote the passage at hand.

"Then Philip opened his mouth, and beginning at this Scripture, preached Jesus to him.
Now as they went down the road, they came to some water. And the eunuch said, "See,
here is water. What hinders me from being baptized?" Then Philip said, "If you believe
with all your heart, you may." And he answered and said, "I believe that Jesus Christ is
the Son of God." So he commanded the chariot to stand still. And both Philip and the
eunuch went down into the water, and he baptized him. Now when they came up out of
the water, the Spirit of the Lord caught Philip away, so that the eunuch saw him no more;
and he went on his way rejoicing." (Acts 8:35-39 NKJV)

Was this Holy Spirit baptism? I do not want to insult your intelligence. But, I want you
to take note of this. When the eunuch left the water he was convinced he was then a
saved man. He went "on his way rejoicing." Philip thought he was a saved man for he
was willing to let him go, the preaching was ended.

If it is said the baptism was simultaneous, that is that he was both baptized in water and
in the Holy Spirit all at one and the same time, I then ask does that not make the going
down into the water and being baptized in it a necessity in order to receive Holy Spirit
baptism? Would it have come upon him without going down into the water and being
baptized? However, it is no where stated he was baptized by the Holy Spirit and to say
he was is to say so without evidence.

What we do not have to assume is that he was baptized in water and went away rejoicing.
Could it be he went away rejoicing because baptism is for the remission of sins? (Acts
2:38) Could it be because he knew he had been obedient to the teaching of the Great
Commission? Let the reader judge for himself.

I do not know of a case in the Bible where it is said or implied that the Holy Spirit was
ever said to be given to a man for the purpose of saving him. Do you? Yes, he has the
Spirit if he is saved but is that the reason it was given to him - to save him? That is what
needs to be shown.

There is an interesting passage in 1 Cor. 14:22 about the very thing Cornelius received. It
reads as follows: "Therefore tongues are for a sign, not to those who believe but to
unbelievers; but prophesying is not for unbelievers but for those who believe." (1 Cor.
14:22 NKJV) It will be said oh, but this is not about the case of Cornelius. No, I do not
think it is either but I think it has an application.

When we come to an understanding that without convincing the Jews that God was
willing and desirous of saving the Gentiles, as well as themselves, the gospel never would
have been preached to the Gentiles nor would they ever have been accepted into Christian
fellowship then we will see the application. The Jews were unbelievers that God had
anything for the Gentiles. Ten years has gone by since Jesus' ascension back into heaven
and still there is no preaching to the Gentiles.

It took a miracle to convince them, the Jews, the unbelievers, that God would or had
accepted the Gentiles. "And those of the circumcision who believed were astonished, as
many as came with Peter, because the gift of the Holy Spirit had been poured out on the
Gentiles also." (Acts 10:45 NKJV) This was the event that convinced the Jews that it
was not only okay but the will of God that the Gentiles also have access to eternal life
through the gospel. "When they (the Jewish Christians in Jerusalem - DS) heard these
things they became silent; and they glorified God, saying, 'Then God has also granted to
the Gentiles repentance to life.'" (Acts 11:18 NKJV) Tongues served for a sign to the
Jewish Christians with regards to the Gentile Cornelius and thus to all Gentiles
concerning God's will for them.

This whole episode at the house of Cornelius of being baptized in the Holy Spirit had
nothing to do with gospel obedience or conversion. Let us say this had not happened.
Let us say the Holy Spirit had not fallen upon Cornelius? Do you think Cornelius would
have been disobedient to, and an unbeliever of, the things Peter was teaching him? Do
you think Peter would have left Cornelius as an unsaved man? You know better. With or
without the baptism of the Holy Spirit Cornelius was going to obey the gospel that day
and be saved. Remember his conversion began with an appearance of an angel in a
vision telling him to send for Peter. He knew full well what this was about when Peter
came to him and who it was from.

It has been said that the word "believe" in Acts 15:7 is proof that Cornelius was saved
without water baptism. The authority who was quoted to me in order to prove it said, "'to
believe' is used in the sense 'to be converted'". I would say it was synecdoche which is
just a different word that means the same thing. It is a figure of speech were the part is
put for or stands for the whole thing, the whole conversion process which is faith,
repentance, confession of Jesus, and baptism for the remission of sins. Our only
difference is how much ground our synecdoche covers or includes. They cut it short, too
short to cover the whole ground of conversion.

Titus 3:6 was quoted to me, "whom He poured out on us abundantly through Jesus Christ
our Savior," with reference to the Holy Spirit being poured on Christians and then related
to Acts 10:45, "And those of the circumcision who believed were astonished, as many as
came with Peter, because the gift of the Holy Spirit had been poured out on the Gentiles
also." (NKJV) The idea is then that Cornelius was made a Christian without any further
acts on his part when the Holy Spirit fell upon him.

What was not mentioned when I was pointed to this verse was the verse just above it,
Titus 3:5, "not by works of righteousness which we have done, but according to His
mercy He saved us, through the washing of regeneration and renewing of the Holy
Spirit." (Titus 3:5 NKJV) The washing of regeneration and renewing of the Holy Spirit
is a reference to Mark 16:16, the Great Commission, as given by Jesus. The baptism of
the Great Commission (Mark 16:16, Matt. 28:18-20) was water baptism and I do not
know of anyone who doubts it.

It is the same as Heb. 10:22, "let us draw near with a true heart in full assurance of faith,
having our hearts sprinkled from an evil conscience and our bodies washed with pure
water." (NKJV) The Holy Spirit was poured out upon brethren the result of having
obeyed the gospel after being saved. I have already stated why Cornelius was an
exception to the rule.

One needs to be careful lest he take the exception to the rule and make it the general rule.
We do not do that in life and we should not do it in bible study. We do not say that the
Lord appeared to Saul on the road to Damascus therefore unless the Lord appears to you
personally you cannot be converted. There was a reason Jesus appeared to Saul and that
reason is not applicable to either you or me. We understand this. We need to understand
the same principle as it relates to the conversion of Cornelius and his household.