Situation: Nurse Lanie is monitoring a child being hydrated with D5 in 0.

45 NaCl 500ml incorporated with

10 meqs of Potassium Chloride to run for 6 hours using a micro set. Answer the next three questions based
on this situation:
1. How many cc will she give the child hourly?
a. 75ml/hr
c. 93ml/hr
b. 83ml/hr
d. 110ml/hr
2. What is the rate of flow of the infusion using a micro set?
a. 55 mcgtts/min
c. 73 mcgtts/min
b. 63 mcgtts/min
d. 83 mcgtts/min
3. How much potassium will the child receive in 45 minutes?
a. 0.8 meq
c. 1.15 meq
b. 1.25 meq
d. 1.5 meq
4. Rhona, a 2 year old female was prescribed to receive 62.5 mg suspension three times a day. The
available dose is 125 mg/ml. which of the following should nurse Edwin prepare for each oral dose?
a. 5 ml
c. 2.5ml
b. 1.25 ml
d. 10 ml
5. Randy is diagnosed with amoebiasis and is to receive Metronidazole (Flagyl) tablets 1.5g daily in 3
divided doses for 7 consecutive days. Which of the following is the correct dose of the drug that the
client will receive per oral administration?
a. 1000 mg tid
c. 1500 tid
b. 500 mg tid
d. 250 tid
6. A patient is to receive an IV of Lactated Ringers, 1000 cc to run for 8 hours. The drip factor is 10
gtt/cc. How many drops per minute should you regulate the IV?
a. 24 gtt/min
c. 21 gtt/min
b. 12 gtt/min
d. 30 gtt/min
7. The doctor ordered diazepam (Valium) 10 mg PO bid for a patient. Diazepam is available in 15 mg
extended-release capsules, 5 mg/ ml vial and 5 mg/ 5 ml oral solution. What will the nurse
administer?
a. 2 ml
c. 10 mg
b. 10 ml
d. 2 mg
8. The doctor ordered phenobarbital sodium (Luminal Sodium) 60 mg PO in divided doses tid. The
available dosage forms are 30 mg/ ml injection vials, 16 mg capsules, 20 mg/ 5 ml elixir and 15 mg
tablets. The therapeutic level is 15 to 40 mcg/ml. The patient's phenobarbital level is 0.035 mg/ml.
What should the nurse do? (2 pts)
a. Hold the medication because of a potential overdose
b. Administer 2 ml via deep injection
c. Administer 4 tablets per schedule
d. Administer 5 ml elixir per schedule
9. A patient weighing 88 lbs. must be given cefotaxime sodium (Claforan) 180 mg/ kg IM. The drug
stock is 500 mg/ ml vial. The nurse will give:
a. 6 ml
c. 12 ml
b. 8 ml
d. 14 ml
10. The doctor ordered diphenhydramine (Benadryl) 40 mg PO TID for a patient Benadryl 12.5 mg/5ml
is available. How much would the patient have received in 24-hours?
a. 16 mg
c. 16 ml
b. 3.2 ml
d. 48 ml
11. The doctor ordered a medication for a patient 50 mg/ kg weight. The patient weighs 110 lbs. What
is the total dose in grams that the patient should receive?
a. 2
c. 1.5
b. 2.5
d. 3
12. The physician writes an order of Heparin 900 units/hr. the label on the IV bag reads: Heparin
10,000 units in 500 ml D5W. How many ml/hr will deliver the dose? (2 pts)
a. 45 ml/hr
c. 50 ml/hr
b. 40 ml/hr
d. 60 ml/hr
13. A lidocaine drip is infusing at 30 ml/hr on an infusion device. The drug is mixed 2g in 500ml D5W.
How many mg/min is the patient receiving?
a. 1 mg/min
c. 4 mg/min
b. 2 mg/min
d. 5 mg/min
14. Give Ceclor 45mg/kg/day PO in 3 divided doses for a patient who weighs 66 lbs. A 75 ml stock
medication is labelled Ceclor 125mg/ml. How many mL would the nurse administer per dose? (2
pts)
a. 5 ml
c. 3.6 ml
b. 4.2 ml
d. 2 ml
15. Order: Amoxicillin 0.25 g PO every 8 hrs. Available: Amoxicillin 125 mg tablets. How many tablets
will the nurse give in 24 hours?
a. 2
c. 4
b. 3
d. 6
16. Your order reads ceftizoxime 1 g IV piggyback every 8 hours. The pharmacy supplies it in 100 mL
D5W. You need to infuse it over 30 minutes. With a drop factor of 10, what drip rate will you set?
a. 33 gtts/min
c. 25 gtts/min
b. 35 gtts/min
d. 40 gtts/min
17. Your order reads labetalol 40 mg IV push every 10 minutes until blood pressure is lower than
140/90 mmHg. You have labetalol 5 mg/mL available. How should you prepare the correct dose?
a. 5 ml
b. 10 ml

c. 6 ml
d. 8 ml
18. You have on hand diazepam (Valium) 5 mg/mL. You need to administer 8 mg IV push stat. to a
patient having a seizure. How much should you draw into the syringe?
a. 2.2 ml
c. 1.2 ml
b. 1.6 ml
d. 3 ml
19. A safe maintenance dose of aminophylline is 0.36 mg/kg/hour. It is supplied as 100 mg/100 mL.
Your patient is 130 pounds and is receiving 20 mL/hour. Is the dose safe? (3 points)
a. Yes
c. I dont know
b. No
d. Only God knows
20. A client with a positive Mantoux test result will be sent for a Chest Xray. For which of the following
reasons is done?
a. To confirm the diagnosis
b. To determine if a repeat skin test is needed
c. To determine extent of lesions
d. To determine if this is a primary or secondary infection
21. The public health nurse is providing follow-up care to a client with TB who does not regularly take
his medication. Which nursing action would be most appropriate to this client?
a. Ask the Ask the clients spouse to supervise the daily administration of the medications.
b. Visit the clinic weekly to ask him whether he is taking his medications regularly.
c. Notify the physician of the clients non-compliance and request a different prescription.
d. Remind the client that TB can be fatal if not taken properly.
22. Which of the following anti-tuberculosis drugs can cause damage to the eighth cranial nerve?
a. Streptomycin
c. Pyrazinamide
b. Isoniazid
d. Ethambutol hydrochloride
23. The client experiencing eighth cranial nerve damage will most likely report which of the following
symptoms?
a. Vertigo
c. Impaired vision
b. Facial paralysis
d. Difficulty swallowing
24. A client is diagnosed with active TB and started on triple antibiotic therapy. What signs and
symptoms would the client show if therapy is inadequate?
a. Decreased shortness of breath
b. Improved chest x-ray
c. Non-productive cough
d. Positive acid-fast bacilli in a sputum sample after 2 months of treatment
25. INH treatment is associated with the development of peripheral neuropathies. Which of the
following interventions would the nurse teach the client to help prevent this complication?
a. Adhere to a low cholesterol diet
c. Get extra rest
b. Supplement the diet with pyridoxine
d. Avoid excessive sun exposure
(Vit B6)
26. Isoniazid (INH) and rifampicin (Rifadin) have been prescribed for a client with TB. A nurse reviews
the medical record of the client. Which of the following, if noted in the clients history, would require
physician notification?
a. Heart disease
c. Hepatitis B
b. Allergy to penicillin
d. Rheumatic fever
27. The nurse should include which of the following instructions when developing a teaching plan for
clients receiving INH and rifampicin for treatment for TB?
a. Take the medication with antacids
b. Double the dosage if a drug dose is forgotten
c. Increase intake of dairy products
d. Limit alcohol intake
28. A female client must take streptomycin for tuberculosis. Before therapy begins, the nurse should
instruct the client to notify the physician if which health concern occurs?
a. Decreased hearing acuity
c. Impaired color discrimination
b. Increased appetite
d. Increased urinary frequency
29. Which of the following statements is the primary preventive measure for PTB?
a. Provide public health nursing and outreach services
b. BCG vaccination of newborn, infants and grade 1 or school entrants
c. Make available medical, laboratory and x ray facilities
d. Educate the public in mode of spread and methods of control
30. A TB patient undergoing therapy complains of joint pain and muscle ache. The nurse notes that
this is because of:
a. Hypocalcemia due to the effects of Pyrazinamide
b. Hypocalcemia due to the effects of Rifampicin
c. Hyperuricemia due to the effects of Isoniazid
d. Hyperuricemia doe to the effects of Pyrazinamide
31. When joint pain and muscle ache occurs in a TB patient during the course of the therapy, the nurse
should:
a. Discontinue drug causing joint pains and muscle ache
b. Do not do anything since it is an expected side effect of a TB drug
c. Administer NSAID PRN for joint pain and muscle ache
d. Give antacids before giving medication
32. The TB patient complains of orange staining of his clothes every after he sweats, the nurse notes
that it is an expected side effect of which drug?
a. Rifampicin
b. Isoniazid

c. Pyrazinamide
d. Ethambutol
33. The nurse should immediately notify physician about the adverse effect of Ethambutol when the
client states:
a. I suddenly have difficulty hearing
b. My fingers and toes feel numb
c. My urine appears to be orange
d. My eyes are turning yellow
34. Which among the following is an early sign of hepatotoxicity?
a. Jaundice
c. Change in urine and stool color
b. Abdominal pain
d. Fatigue
35. Situation: Categorizing TB patients according to treatment regimen is a must inorder to identify
which drugs are to be given during the course of the therapy. Patient A had a history of TB and was
taking in TB drugs 2 years ago but was unsuccessful. Patient B on the other hand, is a new smearpositive PTB patient.
36. What category does Patient A belong to?
a. Category I
c. Category III
b. Category II
d. Category IV
37. What category does patient B belong to?
a. Category I
c. Category III
b. Category II
d. Category IV
38. The drugs to be given to patient A during the intensive phase of treatment are the following
except:
a. Isoniazid
c. Streptomycin
b. Ethambutol
d. Rifampicin
39. The drugs to be given to patient B during the continuation phase of treatment
a. Isoniazid and Rifampicin
c. Ethambutol and Isoniazid
b. Pyrazinamide and Rifampicin
d. Ethambutol and Pyrazinamide
40. What nursing intervention should a nurse do for patients having hyperuricemia brought about by
Pyrazinamide?
a. Restrict fluid intake of patient
d. Give antacids before taking in
b. Increase fluid intake of patient
medication
c. Instruct to avoid potassium-rich foods
41. What nursing intervention should a nurse do for patients experiencing nausea and vomiting due to
TB drugs?
a. Give small frequent feedings and give antiemetics when prescribed by physician
b. Give drugs before meals
c. Instruct patient to lie flat immediately after taking in medication
d. None of the above
42. All are type of TB patients categorized under Category I, except:
a. Extrapulmonary TB
c. Severe concominant HIV Disease
b. New smear-positive PTB
d. None of the above
43. What is the treatment regimen for TB patients under Category IV?
a.
44. All are true about furosemide, except:
a. Loop diuretic
c. Promotes potassium reabsorption
b. Promotes sodium loss
d. None of the above
45. A client diagnosed with cirrhosis of the liver and ascites is receiving Spironolactone (Aldactone). The
nurse understands that this medication spares elimination of which element?
a. Sodium
c. Vitamin K
b. Potassium
d. Albumin
46. A patient has been taking spironolactone for the treatment of HPN. Which food should you instruct
the patient to avoid?
a. Milk
c. Tea
b. Cereals
d. Banana

e.