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Symantec 250-253

Administration of Veritas Cluster Server 6.0 for Unix


Version: 5.0

Symantec 250-253 Exam


QUESTION NO: 1
Refer to the exhibit.

The exhibit shows an N-to-1 cluster configuration, in which nodes are connected to storage
devices via dual-hosted SCSI cables.
Why is this an inefficient configuration?
A. Storage should be shared by more than two nodes.
B. Clusters should have at most two nodes.
C. NAS is preferred over SAN for shared storage.
D. NFS is the preferred way to share storage within a cluster.
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 2
What does Network Monitor use to identify network traffic going to a nonstandard port?
A. The originating domain
B. Total packet size
C. Either UDP or TCP
D. Protocol signature
Answer: D
Explanation:
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Symantec 250-253 Exam

QUESTION NO: 3
While Veritas Cluster Server supports nodes in a cluster using different hardware or operating
system versions, this is potentially undesirable for which two reasons? (Select two.)
A. User security
B. Inability to handle load on failover
C. Cluster upgrades
D. Operational complexity
E. Network connectivity
Answer: B,D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 4
What are two operating systems supported by Veritas Cluster Server? (Select two.)
A. Fedora
B. Red Hat Enterprise Server
C. openSuSe
D. Mac OS
E. AIX
Answer: B,E
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 5
What is a characteristic of the web-based installer?
A. It can be automated with a response file.
B. It can be run using Internet Explorer, Firefox, or Safari.
C. It can install on multiple operating systems at the same time.
D. It runs the same commands as the command line installer.
Answer: D
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Symantec 250-253 Exam


Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 6
What is a feature of keyless licensing?
A. It works on all versions of Veritas Cluster Server.
B. It requires an accessible Veritas Operations Manager (VOM) server.
C. It requires that at least one key be installed on each cluster host.
D. It must be enabled before installation of Veritas Cluster Server.
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 7
Symantec Operation Readiness Tools (SORT) provides which service?
A. It automates installation of product updates.
B. It manages notifications for changes in patches.
C. It stores operating system patches required for upgrade.
D. It maintains common config files required for Disaster Recovery.
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 8
When run in a two node cluster, what does the lltstat -nvv command show?
A. only LLT information for the node the command was run on
B. LLT information for all configured nodes in the cluster
C. LLT information for any cluster nodes attached to the same switch
D. only LLT information for nodes verified by Veritas Cluster Server to be active
Answer: B
Explanation:

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Symantec 250-253 Exam

QUESTION NO: 9
Which roles configuration tab is used to set the custom attributes that a certain role can view or
edit?
A. General tab
B. Incident Access tab
C. Policy Management tab
D. Users tab
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 10
Which component is directly responsible for communicating online configuration changes to all
nodes in the cluster?
A. LLT
B. IMF
C. GAB
D. HAD
Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 11
Discover Servers can leave Marker Files for files moved to the quarantine location.
Which file types retain their file extension and the corresponding icon in the Marker File?
A. All file types configured in Windows Explorer on the detection server host
B. Text files, including source code in Java, C, and shell script
C. Microsoft Office documents
D. File types specified in the ProtectRemediation.properties file
Answer: D
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Symantec 250-253 Exam


Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 12
What is required in order to have two separate Veritas clusters share a common private heartbeat
network switch?
A. GAB network IDs must be unique across the clusters.
B. All node IDs must be unique across the clusters.
C. Cluster IDs must be unique across the clusters.
D. All LLT node IDs must be unique across the clusters.
Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 13
Which two are characteristics of a Veritas Cluster Server resource? (Select two.)
A. Corresponds to a hardware or software component
B. Allows cyclical dependencies without a clear starting point
C. Allows only persistent resources to be a parent
D. Has a unique name throughout the cluster
E. Has a single entry point that the agent uses to control the resource
Answer: A,D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 14
Which detection method includes keyword rules?
A. Exact Data Matching (EDM)
B. Directory Group Matching (DGM)
C. Described Content Matching (DCM)
D. Indexed Document Matching (IDM)
Answer: C
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Symantec 250-253 Exam


Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 15
What information must be specified when adding a resource to a service group?
A. Cluster identifier
B. System name
C. Attribute values
D. Service group name
Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 16
What are two requirements for configuring disk-based I/O fencing on supported storage arrays?
(Select two.)
A. Cluster File System Option enabled
B. Arrays with SCSI3-PR enabled
C. Aminimum of two private heartbeat connections
D. LUNs visible within the vxdisk list output
E. LUNs validated with the hacf -verify command
Answer: B,D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 17
Veritas Cluster Server (VCS) includes a disk-based I/O fencing mechanism.
Thinking specifically about data disks, which two cluster configuration requirements must be met
to implement this? (Select two.)
A. The application using the disks must be managed by a VCS Application resource type.
B. The disks must be in a Veritas Volume Manager disk group.

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Symantec 250-253 Exam


C. The service group containing the disks must include an IP resource.
D. The disks must be managed by a VCS DiskGroup resource type.
E. The disks must contain at least one *.dbf file.
Answer: B,D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 18
An administrator is responsible for a cluster split between two data centers in different locations.
The data is mirrored between the two sites.
If the administrator would like to set up I/O fencing, how should the configuration be deployed to
maximize resilience?
A. One SCSI-3 coordinator disk at the primary site, one coordinator disk at the secondary site, and
a Coordination Point Server at a third site
B. Two SCSI-3 coordinator disks at the primary site and one coordinator disk at the secondary site
C. One SCSI-3 coordinator disk at the primary site and two coordinator disks at the secondary site
D. One Coordination Point Server at the primary site, and one Coordination Point Server at the
secondary site, and one Coordination Point Server at a third site
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 19
An employee received the following email notification:
****************************************************************************************************************
********
Dear Bob,
Your email to jane_smith@partner.com with subject Account Info you requested violates the
company's Customer Data Protection policy.
If this is a legitimate business email, please add the word Encrypt in the subject line of the email.
The communication will then be automatically sent to the recipient in an encrypted form, in
accordance with company policy.
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Symantec 250-253 Exam


Please note that this violation has also been reported to your manager. Confidential data
protection is every employee's responsibility.
Thank you,

Corporate Information Security Team


****************************************************************************************************************
********
Which recommended item is missing from this email notification?
A. Acontact person
B. The severity of the violation
C. The affected business unit
D. The name of the file that caused the violation
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 20
Only two local disks suitable for use as coordinator disks are available for a local muti-node
cluster.
Adding a Coordination Point (CP) Server with which two properties would maximize the resiliency
of the I/O fencing configuration? (Select two.)
A. One-node CP server cluster with GAB and LLT configured
B. One-node CP server cluster with only LLT configured
C. Second network connection to the CP server cluster
D. Multi-node CP server cluster
E. I/O fencing on the CP server cluster
Answer: C,D
Explanation:

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Symantec 250-253 Exam


QUESTION NO: 21
To which file system folder does PacketCapture write reconstructed SMTP messages?
A. drop
B. drop_pcap
C. drop_discover
D. drop_ttd
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 22
How is a policy applied to files found in Network Discover scans?
A. By assigning policy groups to the scan target
B. By choosing the correct policies in the scan target
C. By assigning policies to the Network Discover Server
D. By choosing the correct detection servers to run the scans
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 23
How can an incident responder remediate multiple incidents simultaneously?
A. By selecting a Smart Response on the Incident Snapshot page
B. By selecting an Automated Response on an Incident List report
C. By selecting a Smart Response on an Incident List report
D. By selecting the Find Similar command on the Incident Snapshot page
Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 24

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Symantec 250-253 Exam


Which Network Protect feature is a system administrator unable to configure?
A. Ability to copy files
B. Ability to restore files
C. Location of quarantined files
D. Content of the file marker
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 25
Which Storage Foundation feature is used to send data changes to a remote site via an IP
network?
A. Volume Replicator
B. Storage Replicator
C. NetBackup
D. Replication Exec
Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 26
What is a characteristic of an application that is to be clustered with Veritas Cluster Server?
A. It must have the ability to be monitored.
B. It must have the ability to store all required data and configuration information on shared disks.
C. It must have the ability to store all required data on SATA disks.
D. It must have the ability to copy configuration information between cluster nodes.
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 27
Which two capabilities must an application have in order to be made highly available using Veritas
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Symantec 250-253 Exam


Cluster Server? (Select two.)
A. The ability to monitor each instance of the application independently
B. The ability to be installed on shared storage
C. The ability to determine if the application is running
D. The ability to notify the administrator of the state
E. The ability to disconnect users from the application
Answer: A,C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 28
How does a system administrator verify that a Network Monitor Server is healthy?
A. By checking Incident Queue and Message Wait Time on the System Overview page
B. By verifying the configuration details of the System Settings page
C. By determining whether system alert message emails are generated or received
D. By reviewing the results of the Environmental Check Utility (ECU)
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 29
Which two traffic feed sources should be used for Network Monitor? (Select two.)
A. Test Access Port (TAP)
B. trunking port on a hub
C. Switched Port Analyzer (SPAN) port
D. router LAN port
E. tunneled port on a VPN router
Answer: A,C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 30

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Symantec 250-253 Exam


An administrator is configuring another application service in high availability. The application's
logical IP address will rely on the same NIC used by the ClusterService service group. Data will be
stored on raw devices.
Which types of resources should the administrator consider to configure in the service group?
A. Application, File System, Volume, Disk Group, IP, NIC
B. Application, Volume, Disk Group, IP, Proxy
C. Application, File System, Volume, Disk Group, IP, Proxy
D. Application, Volume, Disk Group, IP, Phantom
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 31
Which product can replace a confidential document residing on a public share with a Marker File
explaining why the document was removed?
A. Network Prevent
B. Network Protect
C. Network Monitor
D. Network Discover
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 32
During testing, an administrator configures a Network Discover target to identify and quarantine
confidential files. The target is set up with a Default credential that has read-only permissions on
the file server. After running the scan and checking the results, the administrator finds several
incidents from the scan, but observes that all confidential files are still in their original location, and
the configured quarantine directory is empty (contains none of the confidential files).
Which two Discover target configuration mistakes might be causing the problem? (Select two.)
A. The sharelist excludes all directories on the host being scanned.
B. The Quarantine/Copy Share credentials are invalid.

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Symantec 250-253 Exam


C. The Default credentials are invalid.
D. The Copy option is selected.
E. The Protect credential is unspecified.
Answer: B,E
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 33
Which two characteristics must be present when preparing an application to be configured for high
availability using Veritas Cluster Server? (Select two.)
A. Ability to run on multiple independent servers
B. Remote monitoring capability
C. Data stored on internal disks
D. Well-defined start and stop procedures
E. Refresh capability after sudden failures
Answer: A,D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 34
An administrator is planning to migrate a locally hosted application to high availability. Data
migration on the shared storage has been properly completed.
Which two actions must the administrator perform for the storage in order to complete the
configuration of the application service? (Select two.)
A. configure the operating system to automatically mount the file systems involved
B. configure the MountPoint, BlockDevice, FSType, and FsckOpt attributes for all the file systems
involved
C. link the application resource to the file system resources, with appropriate dependencies
D. unconfigure the operating system to automatically mount the file systems involved
E. set up the appropriate file system contention mechanism in the correct sequence
Answer: B,D
Explanation:

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Symantec 250-253 Exam


QUESTION NO: 35
An administrator is planning to configure a new application service in a Veritas cluster. In the case
of an application failure, the company requires that the node with the fewest running service
groups be selected as the failover target.
Which failover policy should the administrator implement to achieve this requirement?
A. Priority
B. RoundRobin
C. Quorum
D. Prerequisites
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 36
Which data locations should an organization scan first?
A. Private individual directories
B. Centralized repositories
C. Password protected shares
D. Regionalized repositories
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 37
Which detection method is used for fingerprinting and protecting unstructured data, such as
source code documents or merger and acquisition documents?
A. Exact Data Matching (EDM)
B. Directory Group Matching (DGM)
C. Indexed Document Matching (IDM)
D. Described Content Matching (DCM)
Answer: C
Explanation:
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Symantec 250-253 Exam

QUESTION NO: 38
The log files used to verify that a custom application is being properly monitored are located in
which directory?
A. /var/VRTSvcs/log/
B. /opt/VRTSvcs/log/
C. /var/VRTSvcs/agent/log/
D. /opt/VRTSvcs/agent/log/
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 39
What should be considered before enabling the Preventing Concurrency Violation (ProPCV)
attribute in a service group?
A. The MonitorProgram attribute must be configured for the Application resource type.
B. The MonitorProcesses attribute must be configured for the Application resource type.
C. The Mode value for the IMF attribute of the Application type resource is set to 1.
D. The ProPCV attribute is prevented from being changed when the service group is active.
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 40
What are two resource types that Proxy resources can reference? (Select two.)
A. NIC
B. IP
C. Quorum
D. DNS
E. ElifNone
Answer: A,E
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Symantec 250-253 Exam


Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 41
On a cluster, what does the following command display?
Hares -display -ovalues
A. all online resource attributes
B. all overridden resource attributes
C. all uncommitted resource attributes
D. all default resource attributes
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 42
Which two actions can be taken to determine whether an application clustered with Veritas Cluster
Server (VCS) has been successfully started or stopped? (Select two.)
A. Examine the online log file
B. Examine the engine log file
C. View the Security Log from the VCS Java GUI
D. View the Log Desk from the VCS Java GUI
E. View the Application_A.log file
Answer: B,D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 43
Which resource type creates a dependency between applications that are configured in different
Veritas Cluster Server clusters?
A. Proxy
B. RemoteGroup

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Symantec 250-253 Exam


C. Phantom
D. Application
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 44
What is the primary benefit of implementing the Intelligent Monitoring Framework feature for
resources?
A. Prevention of concurrency violations
B. Monitoring of resources running on remote clusters
C. Immediate notification of resource state change
D. Monitoring of resources without need of configuration
Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 45
How is Intelligent Monitoring Framework configured?
A. It is automatically configured but only on supported agents.
B. It is automatically configured on all agents.
C. It needs to be manually configured on each agent.
D. It needs to be manually configured on each cluster node.
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 46
On which system can you set UseMpathd=1 in a MultiNICB resource?
A. Solaris
B. Linux
C. AIX
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Symantec 250-253 Exam


D. HP-UX
Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 47
Which resource type attribute enables Veritas Cluster Server to bring a resource online after it
goes offline unexpectedly before faulting the resource?
A. RestartLimit
B. RetryLimit
C. AutoRestartLimit
D. AutoRestart
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 48
Given a service group with all resources online, what should be done to prevent the top resource
in a dependency tree from causing a failover when it is taken offline outside the cluster?
A. Freeze the resource
B. Disable the dependency links for the resource
C. Set the Critical attribute for the resource to 0
D. Freeze the node
Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 49
What is the main benefit of installing and using the Symantec Management Platform for managing
DLP Agents?
A. The ability to supervise how agents are used
B. The ability to view the health status of the agents
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Symantec 250-253 Exam


C. The ability to reconfigure the agent filters
D. The ability to easily manage agents remotely
Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 50
When setting different severity levels, which level should be set as the default?
A. The highest level available in the system
B. The lowest level available in the system
C. The lowest level the policy manager wants to assign
D. The highest level the policy manager wants to assign
Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 51
Which actions are required to enable a service group to run on all systems in a cluster
simultaneously?
A. Run the hagrp -modify [service group] Parallel 1 command and the service group will
automatically restart on all systems
B. Take the service group offline, add all cluster systems to the AutoStartList, and bring the
service group back online with the -all option
C. Stop Veritas Cluster Server, edit main.cf to turn the Parallel attribute on, add all cluster systems
to the AutoStartList, and restart Veritas Cluster Server
D. Stop Veritas Cluster Server, edit main.cf so the service group AutoStartList attribute includes all
cluster systems, and restart Veritas Cluster Server
Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 52
Which type of resources are considered by Veritas Cluster Server when determining whether a
service group is online?
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Symantec 250-253 Exam


A. OnOnly
B. OnOff
C. Persistent
D. None
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 53
Which characteristic of Veritas Cluster Server attributes allows the public interface to be different
for each of the systems in the cluster?
A. Global
B. Local
C. Custom
D. Proxy
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 54
What happens when a DLP Agent is unable to connect to its preferred Endpoint Server?
A. If any detection server in the system is running, the agent automatically connects to it after a
period of time.
B. If any Endpoint Server is running, the agent automatically connects to it after a period of time.
C. If any Endpoint Server is running, and if the agent is configured to recognize it, the agent
connects to it after a period of time.
D. If any detection server is running, and if the agent is configured to recognize it, the agent
connects to it after a period of time.
Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 55
Which statement describes a DLP Agent encryption feature?
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Symantec 250-253 Exam


A. The key size is standard and unconfigurable.
B. The key is randomly generated for the agent store.
C. The system administrator can generate a unique authentication key.
D. DLP Agent-to-server communication uses Secure Socket Layer (SSL).
Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 56
How can a system administrator obtain the log files for a detection server? (Select three.)
A. Run the Log Collection Utility (LCU)
B. Navigate to the logs directory
C. Click Fetch Latest on the Server Detail page
D. Select Logs under Administration node
E. Download logs from the System Overview page
Answer: A,B,C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 57
Where can an incident responder view all actions that have occurred for an incident?
A. Incident Snapshot
B. Auditlog Table
C. Incident Actions
D. System Events
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 58
Refer to the following service group example:

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Symantec 250-253 Exam


group websg (
SystemList = { sym1 = 0, sym2 = 1 }
AutoStart = 0
AutoStartList = { sym2 }
)
DiskGroup webdg (
DiskGroup = webdg
)
IP webip (
Device = eth0
Address = "169.254.128.12"
NetMask = "255.255.255.0"
)
Mount webmnt (
MountPoint = "/web1"
BlockDevice = "/dev/vx/dsk/webdg/webvol"
FSType = vxfs
MountOpt = rw
FsckOpt = "-y"
)
NIC webnic (
Device = eth0
)
Application webproc (

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Symantec 250-253 Exam


MonitorProgram = "/usr/local/bin/web -monitor"
StartProgram = "/usr/local/bin/web -start"
StopProgram = "/usr/local/bin/web -stop"
)
webip requires webproc
webproc requires webmnt
webip requires webnic
webmnt requires webdg
Which resource will start online last?
A. webip
B. webmnt
C. webproc
D. webdg
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 59
An application is experiencing failures. The application administrator wants Veritas Cluster Server
to take all resources offline after failure. The application should remain offline.
Which attribute can accomplish this?
A. ManageFaults
B. FailOverPolicy
C. AutoFailover
D. Critical
Answer: C
Explanation:

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Symantec 250-253 Exam


QUESTION NO: 60
Which three statements apply to communication between the Enforce Server and detection
servers? (Select three.)
A. By default, the Enforce Server and the detection servers communicate over port 8100.
B. Port 3389 must be open between the Enforce Server and the detection servers.
C. The same port number must be used for all detection servers.
D. The servers can be configured to use any port higher than 1024.
E. IPSec must be configured on the Enforce Server and the detection servers.
Answer: A,C,D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 61
Which service group attribute enables specifying preferred nodes for failover?
A. SystemZones
B. AutostartList
C. ClusterList
D. IntentionalOnlineList
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 62
Which two are default behaviors of Veritas Cluster Server service groups? (Select two.)
A. Migrate service groups from a system on intentional system shutdown
B. Start the service groups in lexical order
C. AutoDisable the service groups on cluster startup
D. AutoDisable the service groups on a system when all low priority links fail
E. Start the service groups in the order of the attribute SystemList
Answer: A,C
Explanation:

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Symantec 250-253 Exam


QUESTION NO: 63
System capacity and service group load are the main components for which FailOverPolicy?
A. Load
B. Order
C. Limit
D. Capacity
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 64
Consider the following configuration:
group websg (
SystemList = { sym1 = 1, sym2 = 2 }
AutoStartList = { sym1 }
Frozen = 1
)
While websg is online, all of the systems in the cluster are rebooted simultaneously. All of the
systems finish booting and successfully join the cluster.
What will happen to the websg service group?
A. It will unfreeze on reboot and start on sym1.
B. It will remain offline on all systems.
C. It will resume its state before the reboot.
D. It will start on sym1 in a frozen state.
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 65

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Symantec 250-253 Exam


The service group named websg is currently online on the sym3 node. All other nodes are
running.
Consider the following partial main.cf definition:
Group websg (
SystemList = { sym1=0, sym2=1, sym3=2 }
AutoStartList = {sym2, sym3 }
FailOverPolicy = Priority
)
The operator incorrectly shuts down a critical resource in the websg service group outside of
Veritas Cluster Server.
Based on the information provided, what will happen to the websg service group?
A. It will remain partially online on the sym3 node.
B. It will switch to the sym1 node.
C. It will switch to the sym2 node.
D. It will restart on sym3 node.
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 66
What should be done before removing a resource named webdg from a running service group?
A. The service group must be taken offline.
B. All parent resources of webdg must be taken offline.
C. All child resources of webdg must be taken offline.
D. The service group must be disabled.
Answer: B
Explanation:

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Symantec 250-253 Exam


QUESTION NO: 67
Which Network Discover option is used to determine whether confidential data exists without
having to scan the entire target?
A. Exclude Filtering
B. File Throttling
C. Byte Throttling
D. Inventory Mode Scanning
Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 68
Under which high-level node in the left navigation panel can administrators find the System Events
report?
A. Reports
B. Policy
C. System Health
D. Administration
Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 69
Which two are valid settings for FailoverPolicy? (Select two.)
A. Priority
B. RoundRobin
C. Order
D. Failover
E. Dynamic
Answer: A,B
Explanation:

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Symantec 250-253 Exam


QUESTION NO: 70
Which Veritas Cluster Server utility can be used to prototype cluster logic using minimal
hardware?
A. Simulator
B. AgentServer
C. Fencing
D. AgentTester
Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 71
An additional email address was added to the Veritas Cluster Server notifier resource without any
other actions being taken. All but one user is receiving notifications.
How can this problem be solved?
A. Refresh the mailbox of the impacted user
B. Restart the notifier resource
C. Restart the SNMP daemon
D. Restart the HAD daemon
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 72
A system administrator examines the results of a completed scan.
Which information is available on a scan listing on the Discover Targets page? (Select three.)
A. User who initiated the scan
B. Elapsed time and total time for each scan
C. Number of items scanned
D. Number of items changed since the previous scan
E. File structure and location
F. Errors encountered
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Symantec 250-253 Exam


Answer: B,C,F
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 73
When configured as default, the Veritas Cluster Server Notifier receives queued messages on a
schedule every how many minutes?
A. One
B. Three
C. Five
D. Ten
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 74
The procedure for making changes to the Veritas Cluster Server (VCS) cluster communications
involves stopping the components in the communications stack, modifying the configuration files,
and restarting the stack.
In what order should the components be stopped?
A. LLT, GAB, I/O fencing
B. VCS, I/O fencing, GAB, LLT
C. VCS, I/O fencing, LLT, GAB
D. I/O fencing, VCS, GAB, LLT
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 75
What is a characteristic of the Veritas Cluster Server communication stack?
A. The HAD processes propagates information to other nodes by way of agents.

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Symantec 250-253 Exam


B. Agents communicate resource status information with HAD.
C. LLT determines cluster membership by monitoring heartbeats over GAB.
D. Agents can communicate with each other directly over GAB.
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 76
A Veritas Cluster Server (VCS) administrator has to change NICs used as the heartbeat links due
to network reconfiguration.
What is the correct order for the cluster and heartbeat protocols to be shut down?
A. VCS --> Fencing --> GAB --> LLT
B. VCS --> Fencing --> LLT --> GAB
C. Fencing --> VCS --> GAB --> LLT
D. Fencing --> VCS --> LLT --> GAB
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 77
Which three options can incident responders select when deleting incidents? (Select three.)
A. Delete the incident completely
B. Delete the original message and retain the incident
C. Delete the incident and retain the violating attachments or files
D. Delete the incident and export incident details to .csv file
E. Delete the non-violating attachments or files and retain the incident
Answer: A,B,E
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 78
A two node cluster is being brought online, but one node is unable to boot.
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Symantec 250-253 Exam


Which command is run to manually seed GAB?
A. gabconfig -x
B. gabconfig -n2
C. lltconfig -x
D. lltconfig -n2
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 79
Which three products support virtualization and can be run on virtual machines? (Select three.)
A. Endpoint Discover
B. Network Discover
C. Network Prevent (Web)
D. Network Monitor
E. Network Prevent (Email)
Answer: B,C,E
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 80
Which two items are required to replace a coordinator disk while the cluster is online? (Select two.)
A. Replace the LUN and create the disk as a Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) Disk
B. Replace the LUN and create the disk as a Logical Volume Manager (LVM) Disk
C. Replace the LUN and create the disk as either a VxVM or LVM Disk
D. Run the installvcs -fencing command to replace the removed LUNs
E. Run the vxfenadm command to replace the removed LUNs
Answer: A,D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 81

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Symantec 250-253 Exam


What are two reasons to implement SCSI-3 I/O fencing? (Select two.)
A. Disk-based heartbeat
B. Data protection
C. Lock disk
D. Cluster communication
E. Membership arbitration
Answer: B,E
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 82
In which two cases will the agent status remain green (good) on the Agent Events page? (Select
two.)
A. The agent closed the connection to the Endpoint Server.
B. The Endpoint Server detected that the connection with the agent was lost.
C. There was agent or server authentication failure.
D. The agent is unable to restore a database file.
E. There was an agent service shutdown during machine shutdown.
Answer: A,E
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 83
Which Preferred Fencing policy should be configured to ensure that the node with the preferred
application survives a fencing event?
A. PreferredFencingPolicy = Disabled
B. PreferredFencingPolicy = Site
C. PreferredFencingPolicy = System
D. PreferredFencingPolicy = Group
Answer: D
Explanation:

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Symantec 250-253 Exam


QUESTION NO: 84
Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator has configured preferred fencing. Cluster communication breaks and separates
sym1 from the other cluster nodes.
Which node(s) will survive the fencing race?
A. sym1 only
B. sym2 only
C. sym3 only
D. both sym2 and sym3
Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 85
An administrator stopped Veritas Cluster Server (VCS) on the sym1 node to remove it from the
cluster. When attempting to do this with the hasys -delete command from sym2, an error message
is displayed.
What is the likely cause of this error?
A. One or more SystemList attributes still contains sym1.
B. VCS must be completely shut down on all nodes.
C. The vxfen daemon on sym1 is still running.
D. The GAB daemon on sym1 is still running.
Answer: A
Explanation:
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Symantec 250-253 Exam

QUESTION NO: 86
How is the incident count for a new system managed in order to avoid overwhelming the incident
response team?
A. Match count thresholds are set.
B. More than one policy is enabled.
C. Many incident responders are allowed access to the system.
D. Incidents are auto-filtered to hide false positives.
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 87
An administrator is adding a node to a running cluster. The administrator has successfully installed
Veritas Cluster Server and has configured and started LLT.
Which command will allow the new node to start communicating with the cluster?
A. gabconfig -c
B. hastart
C. sh /etc/gabconfig
D. hastart -force
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 88
An administrator is merging two Veritas clusters that are already configured and running. The two
clusters are already sharing private interconnect networks.
Which directive in the /etc/llttab file must be updated?
A. Set-cluster
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Symantec 250-253 Exam


B. Set-node
C. Set-mode
D. Set-system
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 89
An administrator has removed a system from a running Veritas Cluster Server cluster so that the
cluster now only has seven nodes. The administrator must ensure the cluster will start successfully
after a complete cluster shutdown.
Which line should be in the /etc/gabtab file to successfully start the cluster?
A. gabconfig -c -n 7
B. clust start seed=7
C. gabconfig start seed=7
D. clust -c -n 7
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 90
What is an advantage of using a Dashboard report?
A. Incident reponders can execute Smart Responses from them.
B. They allow incidents to be viewed across multiple products.
C. They can be used as work queues for incident responders.
D. Incident responders can see the history of each incident.
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 91
Which Veritas Cluster Server command is used to override static resource type attribute values for
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Symantec 250-253 Exam


a specific resource?
A. haclus
B. hatype
C. hagrp
D. hares
Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 92
A resource of type Application is configured to be monitored by the Intelligent Monitoring
Framework.
Which resource attribute should be exclusively configured in order to enable the Proactive
Prevention of Concurrency feature for the resource of type Application?
A. PidFiles
B. MonitorProgram
C. MonitorProcesses
D. StartProgram
Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 93
What should a system administrator do to stop a detection server?
A. Access the Enforce Server Detail page and select "Done"
B. Access the Server Detail page and select "Stop"
C. Access a command prompt and enter the command "net stop service VontuMonitor"
D. Access the services panel and stop the VontuMonitorController service
Answer: B
Explanation:

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Symantec 250-253 Exam


QUESTION NO: 94
The I/O fencing configuration for a Veritas cluster uses one Coordination Point (CP) server and
two local coordinator disks. There are two network connections between the cluster and the CP
server. A resource of type CoordPoint has been configured in the cluster using all default resource
attribute values.
Which resource attribute value for the resource of type CoordPoint needs to be modified so that
the resource will fault only when both network connections to the CP server fail even though the
coordination disks are still accessible?
A. FaultTolerance
B. ToleranceLimit
C. FencingTolerance
D. FencingLimit
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 95
Which command allows the administrator to leave services currently under Veritas Cluster Server
control in a running state while performing configuration changes?
A. hastop -all -force
B. hastop -all -evacuate
C. haconf -all -force
D. haconf -all -evacuate
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 96
Offline configuration changes made to Veritas Cluster Server (VCS) are missing when viewing it in
one of the GUIs or the CLI.
What is the likely cause of this issue?
A. VCS was started on the node where the changes were made.
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Symantec 250-253 Exam


B. VCS was started on the node without the changes being made.
C. VCS was started on the node with the lowest priority in the SystemList.
D. VCS was started on the node with the highest priority in the SystemList.
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 97
When making offline configuration changes, which command should be run to ensure the main.cf
file has the correct syntax?
A. haconf verify
B. hagrp verify
C. haclus verify
D. hacf verify
Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 98
Which Veritas Cluster Server (VCS) utility is used to verify a configuration file and can also be
used by the VCS engine to load a configuration file at runtime?
A. hacf
B. haconf
C. haclus
D. haverify
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 99
What is a likely outcome of filtering network traffic in Network Monitor?
A. monitoring of outbound traffic before inbound traffic
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Symantec 250-253 Exam


B. monitoring of traffic important to the customer
C. decrease in the detection accuracy
D. increase in Network Monitor demand for RAM
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 100


An administrator needs to manually add a new resource type to a running cluster.
What should the administrator do after installing the agent software on each Veritas Cluster Server
(VCS) node?
A. Generate the appropriate hatype commands with hacf -addtype
B. Use the hatype command to add the new resource type
C. Stop and restart VCS so that the new resource type is recognized as valid
D. Use the hares command to add the new resource type to the cluster
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 101


What is the first step when upgrading the operating system on a single node in a running multinode Veritas Cluster Server (VCS) cluster?
A. Offline service groups on the node
B. Freeze the service groups
C. Migrate parallel service groups
D. Shut down VCS on all nodes
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 102


An installed cluster has been licensed with the keyless licensing option. The administrator has yet
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Symantec 250-253 Exam


to configure the cluster to be managed by Veritas Operations Manager (VOM).
What will happen when 60 days have passed since installation?
A. The cluster will shut down.
B. The cluster will log messages related to licensing.
C. The cluster will ignore licensing.
D. The cluster will cease to respond if a resource faults.
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 103


Two clusters are both running the same operating system and version of Veritas Cluster Server. A
service group in one cluster depends on a service group in the other cluster.
Which method can be used to manage the service group relationship?
A. CrossCluster trigger
B. RemoteGroup agent
C. RemoteCluster agent
D. RemoteGroup trigger
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 104


The Veritas Cluster Server (VCS) notifier resource and VCS triggers can be configured to
generate messages to assist in VCS administration.
Which other facility can be a source of notifications within a comprehensive VCS implementation?
A. Cluster Manager Java console
B. Veritas Operations Manager
C. Storage Foundation Manager
D. Veritas Enterprise Manager

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Symantec 250-253 Exam


Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 105


Which two capabilities does the Veritas Cluster Manager Java console provide when used with the
Veritas Cluster Server (VCS) Simulator and a simulated cluster that are unavailable when using
the Veritas Cluster Manager Java console with a live cluster configuration? (Select two.)
A. System power on and off
B. Remove a system
C. Fault a resource
D. Run a virtual firedrill
E. Copy a service group
Answer: A,C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 106


Refer to the exhibit.

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Symantec 250-253 Exam

A two-node cluster has three failover service groups as shown in the exhibit. The websg and
appsg service groups are online on sym1 the dbsg service group is online on sym2. All resources
are enabled and critical.
Which action does Veritas Cluster Server take when a resource in the appsg service group faults?

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Symantec 250-253 Exam


A. The appsg service group enters a faulted state, and the websg service group remains online.
B. The appsg service group enters a faulted state on sym1, and the dbsg service group is taken
offline.
C. The appsg service group enters a faulted state on sym1 and fails over to sym2.
D. The appsg service group enters a faulted state on sym1, and the websg service group is taken
offline.
Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 107


Which two response rule actions should be avoided in Exact Data Matching (EDM) policies?
(Select two.)
A. Endpoint: Notify
B. Protect: Copy File
C. Network: Block HTTP/HTTPS
D. Protect: Quarantine File
E. Endpoint: Block
F. Network: Remove HTTP/HTTPS Content
Answer: A,E
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 108


Which detection server requires the use of two network card ports?
A. Network Prevent Server
B. Discover Server
C. Endpoint Server
D. Network Monitor Server
Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 109

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Symantec 250-253 Exam


Where does an incident responder find the exact matches that triggered an incident?
A. Dashboard report
B. Incident Snapshot
C. Incident List
D. System Events report
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 110


An administrator is configuring a websg service group and a dbsg service group. The administrator
needs to configure Veritas Cluster Server so websg will only come online if dbsg is online
somewhere in the cluster.
If dbsg faults, websg should stay online. If dbsg is unable to fail over, the websg should stay
online.
Which type of service group dependency does this require?
A. Online global soft
B. Online global firm
C. Online local soft
D. Online local firm
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 111


What is an advantage of using Endpoint Discover over Network Discover?
A. Ability to pause an in-progress scan
B. Ability to schedule the scans
C. Ability to scan online machines
D. Ability to scan many machines in parallel
Answer: D

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Symantec 250-253 Exam


Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 112


Which type of installation requires the most additional memory on the Enforce Server machine to
host multiple server instances?
A. Three-tier
B. Two-tier
C. Single-tier
D. Stand-alone
Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 113


An administrator needs to set up a service group dependency with the following characteristics:
The parent group depends on the child group being offline on the same system.
If the child group faults and fails over to a system on which the parent is running, the parent should
switch to another system.
Which type of dependency is this?
A. Offline local
B. Offline home
C. Offline remote
D. Offline parent
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 114


Which relational database management system (RDBMS) does Symantec Data Loss Prevention
9.0 support?
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Symantec 250-253 Exam


A. Sybase
B. MySQL
C. IBM
D. Oracle
Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 115


Which type of Veritas Cluster Server service group dependency permits a parent group to be
brought online when the child group is offline?
A. Offline local
B. Online local
C. Online remote
D. Offline remote
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 116


How many levels deep can a service group dependency tree be?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 5
D. 7
Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 117


Which delimiter is unacceptable in Exact Data Matching (EDM) data sources?
A. Comma (,)
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Symantec 250-253 Exam


B. Tab
C. Pipe (|)
D. Slash (/)
Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 118


Which Veritas Cluster Server event trigger is always invoked on the system where the event
occurred?
A. postonline
B. sysoffline
C. nofailover
D. violation
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 119


The loadwarning trigger has been configured for all cluster systems, and all service groups have
been configured for load. The current load on a system is 135, which is the maximum possible
load on a system for this configuration, and the load has been observed for 10 minutes. The
following system attributes have been set for all cluster nodes:
Capacity = 150
LoadWarningLevel = 80
LoadTimeThreshold = 300
Under which condition will the loadwarning trigger be invoked?
A. The trigger will never be invoked.
B. The trigger will be invoked after 135 seconds.
C. The trigger will be invoked after 240 seconds.
D. The trigger will be invoked after 300 seconds.

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Symantec 250-253 Exam


Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 120


The postoffline trigger is enabled for the websg service group for all cluster nodes, and the trigger
location has been configured for the default location. Two separate trigger action executables
named T1action1 and T2action2 are to be configured.
Where will Veritas Cluster Server look for the two trigger executables?
A. $VCS_HOME/bin/triggers/postoffline/T1action1
$VCS_HOME/bin/triggers/postoffline/T2action2
B. $VCS_HOME/bin/websg/postoffline/T1action1
$VCS_HOME/bin/websg/postoffline/T2action2
C. $VCS_HOME/bin/triggers/websg/T1action1
$VCS_HOME/bin/triggers/websg/T1action2
D. $VCS_HOME/bin/postoffline/T1action1
$VCS_HOME/bin/postoffline/T2action2
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 121


Where are configured Veritas Cluster Server triggers found using $VCS_HOME as the main
Veritas Cluster Server directory?
A. $VCS_HOME
B. $VCS_HOME/bin
C. $VCS_HOME/triggers
D. $VCS_HOME/bin/triggers
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 122


Refer to the exhibit.
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Symantec 250-253 Exam

Consider the lltstat output from both nodes of a cluster as denoted in the exhibit.
Assuming all hardware is operational, what is required to get the heartbeat links running normally?
A. start LLT
B. start GAB
C. run lltconfig -c
D. run gabconfig -a
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 123


The websg service group is online on node sym1. The dbsg service group is online on node sym2.
No fencing is configured. One of the two heartbeat links has been down for 30 minutes. The cable
is unplugged from the last working heartbeat link.
What will happen to the dbsg service group?
A. It will also start on sym1.
B. It will migrate to sym1.
C. It will go to a FAULTED state.
D. It will remain on sym2.
Answer: D
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Symantec 250-253 Exam


Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 124


Refer to the exhibit.

All service groups have FailOverPolicy=Load and are configured to run on all of the nodes.
What happens when the node sym4 faults?
A. g4sg fails over to node sym1, and g5sg remains offline everywhere.
B. g4sg fails over to node sym1, and g5sg fails over to node sym3.
C. g4sg fails over to node sym3, and g5sg fails over to node sym2.
D. g4sg fails over to node sym3, and g5sg remains offline everywhere.
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 125


What does a data loss prevention solution help an organization identify? (Select three.)
A. Employee education opportunities
B. Risk of virus infection
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Symantec 250-253 Exam


C. Unprotected content on laptops
D. Illegally obtained software on desktops
E. Encryption enforcement opportunities
Answer: A,C,E
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 126


Which report helps a compliance officer understand how the company is complying with its data
security policies over time?
A. Policy Trend report, summarized by policy, then quarter
B. Policy Trend report, summarized by policy, then severity
C. Policy report, filtered on quarter, and summarized by policy
D. Policy report, filtered on date, and summarized by policy
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 127


What is a situation that can be monitored by both Network Monitor and Endpoint Prevent?
A. An employee uses a Chrome 2 browser to post confidential data to a newsgroup.
B. An employee uses Skype to send an instant message to a friend at a competitor site.
C. An employee uses AIM to send an instant message while off the corporate network.
D. An employee uses Internet Explorer 7 to send confidential data from a Gmail account.
Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 128


A power problem caused all nodes in the cluster to crash. One node has failed to reboot, and
smoke is coming from the power supply. The administrator runs gabconfig -a and notices that port
a has two of three nodes registered.

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Symantec 250-253 Exam


What should the administrator do to start Veritas Cluster Server on the running nodes?
A. edit /etc/llttab and change the -n3 option to -x
B. run hasys -force on one of the nodes to force HAD to start
C. run gabconfig -cx on both of the running nodes
D. run gabconfig -cx on one of the running nodes
Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 129


In a Veritas cluster, when all high priority links fail, the low priority links are promoted to high
priority in which manner?
A. in order as they appear in /etc/llttab
B. in order by NIC name
C. all simultaneously regardless of number
D. one at a time as required
Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 130


A 2-node Veritas Cluster Server cluster has two dedicated Ethernet heartbeat links and I/O
Fencing enabled.
What will happen if both heartbeat links simultaneously fail?
A. I/O Fencing takes over as the heartbeat mechanism.
B. All service groups are frozen on both nodes.
C. Both nodes panic and reboot into the cluster.
D. One node panics and the other remains running.
Answer: B
Explanation:

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Symantec 250-253 Exam


QUESTION NO: 131
Which component of Microsoft Outlook Personal Folder (.pst) files does Network Discover apply
filters to?
A. Individual emails in the .pst file
B. The entire .pst file
C. Attachments in the .pst file
D. Folders in the .pst file
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 132


Which database does Symantec Data Loss Prevention 9.0 support for incident and policy storage?
A. Oracle 10g version 10.2.0.4
B. any version of Oracle 10g
C. Oracle 10g version 10.2.0.1
D. Microsoft SQL Server
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 133


Where are the installation log files created when Veritas Cluster Server is installed?
A. /opt/VRTS/install/logs/
B. /var/VRTS/install/logs/
C. /opt/VRTSvcs/install/logs/
D. /var/VRTSvcs/install/logs/
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 134


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Symantec 250-253 Exam


An administrator has configured Veritas Cluster Server (VCS) to periodically back up configuration
files when the configuration is left open for update.
What will be the resulting file name when VCS backs up the main.cf files?
A. main.cf.bak
B. main.cf.previous
C. main.cf.autobackup
D. main.cf.backup
Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 135


What is a benefit of the Symantec Data Loss Prevention 9.0 security architecture?
A. Communication is initiated by the detection servers inside the firewall.
B. Mutual authentication between servers is based on the Challenge Handshake Authentication
Protocol (CHAP).
C. Endpoint Agent to Endpoint Server communication uses the Triple Data Encryption Standard
(3DES).
D. Encryption is provided for confidential information across system components.
Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 136


What are three benefits that data loss prevention solutions provide that other security technologies
or tools do not? (Select three.)
A. Give visibility into where sensitive data is stored
B. Give insight into capacity planning for sensitive data
C. Identify who has access to sensitive data
D. Indicate where sensitive data is being sent
E. Measure encryption strength for sensitive data
Answer: A,C,D
Explanation:
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Symantec 250-253 Exam

QUESTION NO: 137


Which incidents appear in the Network Incident List when the Network Prevent Action filter is set
to "Modified"?
A. incidents in which confidential content was removed from an SMTP email
B. incidents in which an SMTP email was changed to include a specified header
C. incidents in which confidential content was removed from a Web mail
D. incidents in which confidential content resulted in a blocked Web mail
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 138


GAB can be configured to automatically seed the cluster through I/O fencing, even when some
cluster nodes are unavailable.
In which file does the autoseed_gab_timeout parameter need to be configured to enable this
feature?
A. gabtab
B. main.cf
C. vxfenmode
D. vxfentab
Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 139


Which file is created by vxfen startup script when I/O fencing starts?
A. vxfendg
B. vxfentab
C. vxfenmode
D. vxgabtab
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Symantec 250-253 Exam


Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 140


A consultant assisted with the installation of a custom agent in the environment. They later sent a
file to replace the online script for the custom agent.
If the custom agent was called newapp, where would the online file be located?
A. opt/VRTSvcs/bin/Application/online
B. opt/VRTSvcs/bin/newapp/online
C. etc/VRTSvcs/conf/newapp/online
D. etc/VRTSvcs/conf/Application/online
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 141


The hastatus command shows the nodes are in STALE_ADMIN_WAIT state.
What is the cause of this condition?
A. The configuration file main.cf was left open before restarting GAB.
B. There is a syntax error in the main.cf configuration file.
C. The main.cf file is missing from the configuration directory.
D. The main.cf is inconsistent on the nodes in the cluster.
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 142


What are two major functions of Low Latency Transport (LLT)? (Select two.)
A. Cluster communications
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B. Traffic distribution
C. Cluster membership
D. Heartbeating
E. Broadcast message
Answer: B,D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 143


Under normal conditions, Veritas Cluster Server agents are started and stopped automatically.
Which command is required to manually start an agent?
A. hatype
B. haagent
C. hastart
D. hares
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 144


What occurs when the hastop -local -force command is issued on the active node in a two-node
active/passive cluster?
A. The services will be shut down on the active node and brought up on the passive node.
B. The services will continue to run on the active node while HAD is stopped.
C. The service group behavior will follow the value of the EngineShutdown attribute while HAD is
stopped.
D. The online service groups on the primary node are taken offline and remain offline until started
manually.
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 145


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What happens when hastop -all -force is executed?
A. HAD and all services under its control shut down
B. HAD stops and all services remain online
C. HAD remains online after shutting down the services
D. HAD forcibly stops all services and HAD shuts down
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 146


In a two node configuration, which option allows the administrator to form a Veritas cluster on the
pair?
A. One node is an NFS client to the other node's NFS server.
B. One node runs HP-UX and the other Oracle Solaris.
C. One node runs Oracle Solaris SPARC, and the other runs Oracle Solaris x86.
D. One node is a virtual machine, and the other is physical.
Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 147


Which environmental factors external to the nodes represent potential single points of failure that
can be made highly available through redundancy? (Select two.)
A. Application software
B. Operating system
C. Random access memory
D. Networking components
E. Electrical power circuits
Answer: D,E
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 148


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Which configuration has the lowest percentage of active nodes?
A. active-passive (2 nodes)
B. active-active (2 nodes)
C. 7+1 (8 nodes with one spare)
D. 6+2 (8 nodes with two spares)
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 149


What is a limitation of using the web-based installer?
A. The server where the web browser is launched must be the same operating system as the
target system.
B. The server where the installation is launched must be the same operating system as the target
system.
C. The Veritas XPortal Server process must be started on the target server.
D. The web-based installer can only be used to perform standard upgrades.
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 150


When resolving or dismissing incidents, Symantec recommends that an incident responder
completes which action?
A. Add comments
B. Delete incidents
C. Set severity
D. Export incidents
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 151


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Symantec 250-253 Exam


Which three are examples of confidential data? (Select three.)
A. National ID numbers
B. Published press releases
C. Health information
D. CAD drawings
E. Manufacturing plant locations
Answer: A,C,D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 152


Which information is recommended to be included in an Exact Data Matching (EDM) data source?
A. Date fields
B. Numeric fields with fewer than five digits
C. Column names in the first row
D. Country, state, or province names
Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 153


Which component do all Veritas Cluster Server agents use to communicate their status?
A. IMF
B. HAD
C. LLT
D. GAB
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 154


Which three describe an effective data loss prevention (DLP) program? (Select three.)
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A. DLP is a company-wide initiative.
B. DLP is primarily driven by Information Security.
C. DLP is primarily driven by the Incident Response Team.
D. Employee participation is important.
E. Business stakeholders are held accountable for risk reduction.
Answer: A,D,E
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 155


Which attribute can be configured to allow a service group to come back online after a persistent
resource has faulted and other nodes are unavailable?
A. AutoReset
B. AutoRestart
C. AutoStart
D. OnlineRetry
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 156


What are three valid reasons for adding comments to incidents? (Select three.)
A. To provide detail to the next responder when escalating an incident
B. To allow the next responder to more quickly prioritize incidents for review
C. To allow the next responder to more quickly understand the incident history
D. To provide detail when closing an incident
E. To provide detail for report filtering
Answer: A,C,D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 157


An administrator wants to change the name of an existing NIC resource from net0nic to net4nic.
The resource is configured in the websg service group.
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What is the most efficient method to rename the NIC resource?
A. hares -ren net0nic net4nic
B. hares -add net4nic websg
hares -modify net4nic Device eth0
hares -delete net0nic
C. hares -duplicate net0nic net4nic
hares -delete net0nic
D. hares -copy net0nic net4nic
hares -paste net4nic
hares -delete net0nic
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 158


What is the recommended deployment location for Network Monitor?
A. Inside the secured corporate LAN
B. Within the demilitarized zone (DMZ)
C. In its own isolated virtual LAN (VLAN)
D. On the WAN side of the corporate router
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 159


When a policy is applied for detection, how are exceptions evaluated?
A. Exceptions then detection rules
B. Detection rules then exceptions
C. Exceptions then response rules
D. Response rules then exceptions
Answer: A
Explanation:

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Symantec 250-253 Exam


QUESTION NO: 160
Which TrueMatch detection method can be evaluated at the agent level?
A. Exact Data Matching (EDM)
B. Indexed Document Matching (IDM)
C. Described Content Matching (DCM)
D. Directory Group Matching (DGM)
Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 161


Which three functions of the communications architecture ensure that the system is able to
automatically recover should a network connectivity failure occur between the detection servers
and the Enforce Server? (Select three.)
A. Database backup
B. Autonomous monitoring
C. Automatic synchronizing
D. Incident queuing
E. Alert archiving
Answer: B,C,D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 162


What is the default incident data retention behavior for Network Monitor and Network Prevent?
A. Only messages are retained.
B. Only attachments are retained.
C. Neither messages nor attachments are retained.
D. Messages and attachments are retained.
Answer: D
Explanation:

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Symantec 250-253 Exam


QUESTION NO: 163
Which three are valid Scanned Content filter types for the Discover File System target? (Select
three.)
A. Exclude filter
B. File Size filter
C. Read ACL filter
D. File Owner filter
E. File Date filter
Answer: A,B,E
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 164


Where on the Endpoint Server Detail page can a system administrator configure the throttling
option?
A. Agent Listener section
B. Agent Monitoring section
C. Agent Configuration section
D. Agent Filtering section
Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 165


To cluster an application with Veritas Cluster Server, an administrator must obtain which
license(s)?
A. Permanent licenses tied to the system host ID
B. Demo license for at least one cluster node
C. Valid licenses to run on all cluster nodes
D. Keyless licenses for the application
Answer: C
Explanation:

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Symantec 250-253 Exam

QUESTION NO: 166


All users, regardless of their role permissions, are allowed to configure which two reporting
options? (Select two.)
A. Ability to delete incidents
B. Ability to set the default report
C. Ability to look up custom attributes
D. Ability to print reports to PDF
E. Ability to select reports to display
Answer: B,E
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 167


Which two pieces of information about database agents should the administrator be aware of
when placing a database under Veritas Cluster Server (VCS) control? (Select two.)
A. They are included in the VRTSdbed package for all installation options.
B. They are automatically installed if the administrator selects "recommended" or "all package"
sets.
C. They must be installed on all the failover target systems, regardless of whether they will run the
database.
D. Agent-specific type files are automatically added to the VCS configuration after the
administrator installs agents manually.
E. They can be installed manually from the software distribution using operating system utilities.
Answer: B,E
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 168


Which two standard Veritas Cluster Server resource types can determine if an application has
unexpectedly exited? (Select two.)
A. Process
B. FileOnOff
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C. Proxy
D. Application
E. Phantom
Answer: A,D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 169


What is a consideration for properly clustering NFS under Veritas Cluster Server (VCS) control?
A. The NFS daemon must be started by VCS.
B. The logical IP addresses must remain with only one system.
C. The major device numbers need to be identical across all clustered nodes.
D. The NFS daemon may need to be restarted occasionally.
Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 170


Which agent entry point is used when running a virtual fire drill for a specific resource?
A. Info
B. Online
C. Monitor
D. Action
Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 171


Which two recommendations should an organization follow when deploying Endpoint Prevent?
(Select two.)
A. Test the agent on a variety of end-user images
B. Enable monitoring of the local file system first
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C. Enable monitoring of many destinations and protocols simultaneously
D. Configure, test, and tune filters
E. Configure blocking as soon as the agents are deployed
Answer: A,D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 172


How should a policy manager write policies that adhere to compliance regulations effectively and
easily?
A. By copying an existing policy and editing as necessary
B. By creating a new blank policy and adding fitting rules
C. By using a policy template and editing as necessary
D. By using a compliance data identifier in the policy
Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 173


Which two resource attributes need to be correctly set to prevent an unplanned outage due to an
improper configuration that might cause a fault during the online process of the new resource?
(Select two.)
A. AutoStart
B. Critical
C. Enabled
D. AutoDisabled
E. MonitorOnly
Answer: B,C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 174


Refer to the following information:

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Symantec 250-253 Exam


OnlineTimeoutInterval = 60
OnlineRetryLimit = 2
MonitorInterval = 120
RestartLimit = 0
What will occur if an application takes 70 seconds to come online during the online process?
A. The application will come online without any issues.
B. The applications monitor will timeout and cause the application to failover.
C. The application will fail to be brought online and will attempt to failover to another cluster node.
D. The application will fail to be brought online and will try again.
Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 175


Which type of rule do incident responders use to remediate an incident?
A. policy response rule
B. incident response rule
C. automated response rule
D. Smart Response rule
Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 176


In addition to creating an automated response rule, which action must a policy manager take for
the rule to execute?
A. Turn on response rules from the Settings page
B. Add the response rule to the appropriate policy
C. Click the Response Rule button to execute
D. Enable Remediate Incidents privilege in the appropriate role
Answer: B
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Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 177


The application administrator has brought the application offline through Veritas Cluster Server
using the hares -offline command.
If the cluster administrator switches the application service group to another node in the cluster,
what is the state of the application after the service group switches nodes?
A. Offline
B. Faulted
C. Online
D. Partial online
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 178


A newly created failover service group configured with resources remains offline when the cluster
is started.
Which attribute should an administrator investigate to determine why the service group remains
offline?
A. AutoStartList
B. AutoStartIfPartial
C. AutoStartPolicy
D. StartList
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 179


By default, which port does the Enforce Server use to connect to all detection servers?

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Symantec 250-253 Exam


A. 443
B. 1293
C. 8000
D. 8100
Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 180


When should blocking of network transmissions and quarantining of exposed confidential files
begin?
A. Within three months of deploying the system
B. As soon as the baseline risk snapshot has been established
C. Before enabling auto notifications
D. After policies have been tuned for several months
Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 181


Which resource type can be used to mirror the state of another persistent resource?
A. Phantom
B. Proxy
C. Mirror
D. RemoteGroup
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 182


Refer to the exhibit.

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Given the configuration in the exhibit, in which two ways are resources or the service group
affected? (Select two.)
A. Any resource fault leads to a faulted state for the resource.
B. Any resource fault leads to the service group failing over.
C. Any resource fault will lead to the service group being taken offline.
D. Any resource fault will leave the service group partially online.
E. Any resource fault detected leads to the service group remaining online.
Answer: A,D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 183

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Symantec 250-253 Exam


Why should Network Monitor be configured to filter out low-threat traffic?
A. Because the product is unable to filter out high-threat traffic
B. To ensure that CPU cycles are spent processing high-threat traffic
C. Because no other traffic will be monitored until this is accomplished
D. To verify that the filtering process is actually working
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 184


Where in the GUI are Smart Response rules executed? (Select two.)
A. Incident Summary reports
B. Incident List reports
C. Incident Snapshot reports
D. Dashboard reports
E. Response Rules page
Answer: B,C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 185


A policy manager wants to apply policies only to certain employees with a specific classification
level.
Which TrueMatch detection method can help accomplish this?
A. Directory Group Matching (DGM)
B. Exact Data Matching (EDM)
C. Described Content Matching (DCM)
D. Indexed Document Matching (IDM)
Answer: A
Explanation:

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Symantec 250-253 Exam


QUESTION NO: 186
Refer to the configuration below:
group dbsg (
SystemList = { sym1=0, sym2=1, sym3=2, sym4=3 }
SystemZones = { sym1=0, sym2=0, sym3=1, sym4=1 }
AutoFailOver = 2
)
Which action will Veritas Cluster Server (VCS) take when dbsg faults if it is currently online on
sym1?
A. The service group is shut down by VCS.
B. The service group fails over if another node exists in the same zone.
C. The service group fails over to another node within the other zone.
D. The service group restarts on the same node.
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 187


Which feature is a key benefit of onscreen notification?
A. It informs endpoint users when an Endpoint Discover scan identifies confidential files on their
computers.
B. It informs endpoint users when they try to copy or transmit confidential data from the endpoint.
C. It informs endpoint users that the DLP agent has just been installed on their computers.
D. It informs the system administrator when specified system events have occurred within the
system.
Answer: B
Explanation:

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Symantec 250-253 Exam


QUESTION NO: 188
Where can an incident responder find the exact location of the file copy created by the Protect:
Copy File response action?
A. in the Incident Snapshot
B. in the Marker File
C. in the System Event
D. in the Discover Target configuration
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 189


Refer to the exhibit.

On which node will the websg service group start if all nodes are powered on and come online at
the same time?
A. sym1
B. sym2
C. sym3
D. sym4

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Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 190


What is the sequence of message processing for Network Monitor?
A. Packet Capture -> File Reader -> Incident Writer
B. Detection -> Packet Capture -> Incident Writer
C. Incident Persister -> Manager -> Notifier
D. Incident Persister -> File Reader -> Manager
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 191


Under which circumstance should the ManageFaults service group attribute be set to NONE?
A. to turn off manual control of a service group
B. to prevent a hung resource from stopping a failover
C. to help in problem analysis when a resource faults
D. to place the resource in a STALE_ADMIN_WAIT state
Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 192


The failover service group named websg is FROZEN and is ONLINE/PARTIAL in a two-node
cluster. The power is unplugged from the system on which websg is ONLINE/PARTIAL.
Consider the configuration file below:
group wewbsg (
SystemList = { sym1 = 1, sym2 = 2 }

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AutoFailover = 1
AutoStartList = { sym1, sym2 }
Parallel = 0)
What will be the state of websg on the surviving system?
A. AutoDisabled
B. OFFLINE
C. FROZEN
D. ONLINE/PARTIAL
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 193


Which two products are required for quarantining confidential files residing inappropriately on a
public file share? (Select two.)
A. Network Discover
B. Endpoint Discover
C. Network Monitor
D. Network Prevent
E. Network Protect
Answer: A,E
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 194


What is commonly observed during the Notification phase of Risk Reduction?
A. a significant drop in incident volume
B. improved business processes
C. more business unit involvement
D. improved employee communication
Answer: A

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Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 195


The failover service group websg is online when it is frozen persistently. The cluster is stopped by
running the command hastop -all -force.
What happens to the websg service group after all of the systems have the cluster started?
A. websg remains ONLINE in the cluster.
B. websg remains OFFLINE in the cluster.
C. websg is AUTODISABLE on all systems in the cluster.
D. websg starts to ONLINE on the first system listed in its AutoStart list.
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 196


A system administrator can see basic incident data, but is unable to view any of the specific details
of the incidents that are created.
How is the role configured?
A. The View option is selected, but Display Attributes are deselected.
B. The Edit option is deselected in the General tab.
C. Status and custom attributes are selected, but set to Edit.
D. Conditions are configured in the Incident Access tab.
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 197


The administrator of a four-node Veritas cluster has configured notifications as highly available for
all notification methods.

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How many notification manager resources are running when all nodes are considered?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 198


The administrator is tasked with manually reconfiguring LLT heartbeats over UDP.
Which two requirements must be met to make this possible? (Select two.)
A. The LLT private links must be on the same subnet.
B. Each NIC must have an IP address configured before configuring LLT.
C. The VRTSvcsudp package must be installed.
D. Each link must have a unique, not well-known UDP port.
E. The /etc/llttab file must be renamed to /etc/llttab.udp.
Answer: B,D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 199


Under which high-level node in the left navigation panel can administrators find the Discover
Targets page?
A. Policy
B. Reports
C. Administration
D. Data at Rest
Answer: A
Explanation:

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Symantec 250-253 Exam


QUESTION NO: 200
Refer to the exhibit.

How many servers are seeded in the GAB port membership?


A. The GAB port membership has two nodes: 01 and 12.
B. The GAB port membership has three nodes: 0, 1, and 12.
C. The GAB port membership has three nodes: 0, 1, and 21.
D. The GAB port membership has four nodes: 0, 1, 21, and 22.
Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 201


There is a two-node Veritas cluster with two independent heartbeat connections, and fencing is
disabled.
What happens when one of the heartbeat connections is lost?
A. The cluster will disable service group failover on system fault.
B. The cluster will be fully functional, but will be unsupported.
C. The cluster will automatically configure a low-pri heartbeat over the public net.
D. The cluster will take all service groups offline until both heartbeats are restored.
Answer: A
Explanation:

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QUESTION NO: 202
One of the three coordinator disks needs to be repurposed as a data disk.
What can the administrator do to accommodate growth in the data center and still provide SCSI-3
I/O fencing?
A. Use gatekeeper LUNs to provide additional coordinator disks
B. Replace all coordinator disks with Coordination Point servers
C. Remove a coordinator disk from the cluster and replace it with a Coordination Point server
D. Use compressed disks to double the space available for coordinator disks to enable future
growth
Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 203


When architecting Coordination Point (CP) server into a Veritas Cluster Server (VCS)
environment, what should be done to ensure the CP service remains online?
A. configure multiple CP server instances on the same node
B. configure CP server as a resource in a VCS cluster
C. ensure that the CP server is backed up regularly
D. ensure that the CP server is on a reliable network
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 204


In a four-node cluster configuration, main.cf is modified to remove one of the four nodes. That
node is decommissioned, and the remaining cluster configuration is unchanged. A power failure
causes all three remaining nodes to shut down.
What happens when all three nodes are powered on?
A. The three nodes form a cluster.
B. Veritas Cluster Server will need manual intervention to come online.
C. LLT will fail because the fourth node is in the llthosts.
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D. Veritas Cluster Server will go into ADMIN_WAIT.
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 205


An administrator is manually adding a node named sym3 to an existing two-node cluster.
What must be done after installing Veritas Cluster Server and configuring cluster communications
on the new node?
A. Run hastart -add sym3 on any node
B. Run hasys -force sym3 on the new node
C. Run haclus -addnode sym3 on the new node
D. Run hastart on the new node
Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 206


Which kind of detection server can block file transfer protocol (FTP) requests?
A. Network Monitor Server
B. Email Prevent Server
C. Web Prevent Server
D. Endpoint Prevent Server
Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 207


If Endpoint Prevent and Endpoint Discover are competing for resources on an endpoint computer,
how does the system resolve the conflict?
A. Endpoint Discover copies all files for later analysis.
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B. Endpoint Discover pauses any scans if resources are needed.
C. Endpoint Prevent pauses detection until any scans complete.
D. Endpoint Prevent queues files until resources are available.
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 208


Which Veritas Cluster Server command should be used to change OnlineRetryLimit for all Mount
resources?
A. haattr
B. hagrp
C. hatype
D. haagent
Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 209


What is the master administrator user (created during installation) unable to do?
A. Remove a detection server from system configuration without uninstalling the detection server
B. Create a policy author role that has access to just one policy group
C. Create an incident responder role that sees incidents only from Endpoint Discover scans
D. Dave custom reports and then share them with others in the system
Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 210


Two resources of type Process named web1proc and web2proc are configured in the failover
websg service group and are online on the sym1 cluster node. The web2proc resource is linked as
dependent on the web1proc resource, and the Critical resource attribute of the web2proc is
modified from the default value. Resource restart is set to the default value.

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What are the states of the web1proc and web2proc resources on the sym1 cluster node after
shutting down the process managed by the web2proc from outside of Veritas Cluster Server?
A. web1proc and web2proc are both faulted.
B. web1proc is online, and web2proc is online.
C. web1proc is faulted, and web2proc is offline.
D. web1proc is online, and web2proc is faulted.
Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 211


Where can an incident responder find the policy rules and/or exceptions that were in effect when a
particular incident was detected?
A. Incident List
B. Policy page
C. Policy Summary report
D. Incident Snapshot
Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 212


What is the impact to unsaved configuration changes in Veritas Cluster Server when an
administrator stops the cluster with a force option from the command-line interface?
A. Changes are prompted to be saved.
B. Changes are prompted to be discarded.
C. Changes are automatically saved.
D. Changes are automatically discarded.
Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 213


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Symantec 250-253 Exam


Which command should be used to view keyless licenses on a Veritas cluster?
A. vxkeyless
B. vxkeylist
C. vxlicdump
D. vxkeydisplay
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 214


Which product lets an incident responder see who has access to confidential files on a public file
share?
A. Network Protect
B. Network Monitor
C. Network Prevent
D. Network Discover
Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 215


Which two actions must be taken to upgrade an application under Veritas Cluster Server control?
(Select two.)
A. Verify that the application agent supports the new version
B. Verify that the new version is supported with haagent -verify
C. Freeze the application service group
D. Freeze the application resources
E. Stop the application agent on all systems
Answer: A,C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 216


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Symantec 250-253 Exam


An administrator needs to set up a service group dependency with the following characteristics:
The parent group depends on the child group being online on the same system.
If the child group faults, the parent group should be taken offline.
If the parent group faults, then the child group should go offline.
Which type of dependency is this?
A. Online local hard
B. Online local firm
C. Online global soft
D. Online global firm
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 217


There is a service group dependency configured as follows:
If the child group faults, the parent group is taken offline.
If the parent group faults, the child group remains online.
Which type of dependency is this?
A. Firm
B. Hard
C. Soft
D. Remote
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 218


Two applications can be online on any system of a cluster.

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Symantec 250-253 Exam


Which dependency attribute supports this relationship?
A. Global
B. Local
C. Flex
D. Remote
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 219


An administrator has a three-node cluster.
The cluster manages an application that depends on a database.
The application and database can be online on the same or a different node.
If the database faults, the application must continue to be online.
Which type of service group dependency should be created to ensure this behavior?
A. Online global soft, where the application is the parent
B. Online global soft, where the database is the parent
C. Online global firm, where the application is the parent
D. Online global firm, where the database is the parent
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 220


What is a function of the Enforce Server?
A. provides a GUI for policy creation
B. detects incidents
C. writes incidents to all detection servers
D. deploys agents to endpoint computers
Answer: A
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Symantec 250-253 Exam


Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 221


Which method encrypts the Oracle password on the Enforce Server?
A. Rivest, Shamir, Adleman (RSA)
B. Data Encryption Standard (DES)
C. Secure Socket Layer (SSL)
D. Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)
Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 222


Where can an administrator view the number of messages per protocol that have been monitored
over a given time period?
A. Traffic Detail page
B. Network Incident Report page
C. Server Detail page
D. System Events page
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 223


Only the TriggerPath service group attribute value for the websg service group is set to
"bin/websg" for cluster nodes where the websg service group can be online.
Where will Veritas Cluster Server (VCS) look for the preonline event trigger if the preonline event
trigger is also enabled on all cluster systems for the websg service group?
A. $VCS_HOME/preonline/triggers/bin/websg
B. $VCS_HOME/bin/websg/preonline

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Symantec 250-253 Exam


C. $VCS_HOME/bin/websg/internal_triggers
D. $VCS_HOME/preonline/bin/websg
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 224


Which two triggers can only be enabled at the resource level? (Select two.)
A. resrestart
B. resadminwait
C. resfault
D. resstatechange
E. resnotoff
Answer: B,E
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 225


Which two types of stakeholders should be included when writing policies? (Select two.)
A. Compliance
B. Education
C. Risk management
D. Messaging team
E. Marketing
Answer: A,C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 226


A two-node Veritas Cluster with I/O fencing configured has two service groups running, one on
each node.
What happens when all heartbeat links are lost simultaneously?
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Symantec 250-253 Exam


A. All service groups remain where they are.
B. All nodes race for the data disks, and one node panics.
C. All nodes race for the coordinator disks, and one node panics.
D. All service groups fault and shut down.
Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 227


In a two node Veritas cluster, all Ethernet heartbeats failed simultaneously. I/O fencing and linklowpri heartbeat are yet to be configured.
What is the resulting condition of this problem?
A. Split-cluster
B. Jeopardy
C. Split-brain
D. Panic
Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 228


What should be used to exclude email going to any email address in the partner.com domain?
A. IP filter
B. L7 filter
C. Content filter
D. Sender/User Matches pattern
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 229


Which three protocols are system-configured and are recognized by Network Monitor by their
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Symantec 250-253 Exam


individual signatures? (Select three.)
A. FTP
B. IM: ICQ
C. IM: AIM
D. NNTP
E. TFTP
Answer: A,C,D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 230


An administrator adds a new user within a cluster that is running in a non-secure mode.
In which file will the user name be stored?
A. /etc/VRTSvcs/conf/config/secure.cf
B. /etc/VRTSvcs/conf/config/main.cf
C. /etc/VRTSvcs/conf/config/types.cf
D. /opt/VRTSvcs/conf/config/users.cf
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 231


What must a policy manager do when working with Exact Data Matching (EDM) indexes?
A. Re-index large data sources on a daily or weekly basis
B. Index the original data source on the detection server
C. Deploy the index only to specific detection servers
D. Create a new data profile if data source schema changes
Answer: D
Explanation:

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Symantec 250-253 Exam


QUESTION NO: 232
What is one function of a Network Discover scanner?
A. It scans an organization's network to identify Network Discover targets.
B. It collects content and metadata from a variety of repositories.
C. It sends collected content to the Enforce Server for processing.
D. It specifies the types of repositories that can be scanned.
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 233


What should an administrator do when the License Key expires?
A. Enter a new key on the Advanced Settings page
B. Enter a new key on the System Settings page
C. Edit the key in the VontuManager.conf file
D. Edit the key in the Protect.properties file
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 234


Which three does the Environment Check Utility (ECU) provide? (Select three.)
A. Software build numbers
B. System events records
C. Days remaining on the current license
D. Operating system version of servers
E. Installation configuration settings
Answer: A,D,E
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 235


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Symantec 250-253 Exam


On which protocols does Symantec Data Loss Prevention 9.0 use port-based protocol
recognition?
A. Secure tunneling protocols
B. Pre-defined UDP protocols
C. User-configured TCP protocols
D. System-defined UDP and TCP protocols
Answer: C

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