South Pasadena AP Chemistry

Name_____________________________________
Period _____
Date ___/___/___

1Matter and Measurement

How many significant
digits are present in
the temperature read
from the
thermometer
illustrated to the
right?
a) 1

b) 2

c) 3

d) 4

2.

The dimensions of a rectangular solid are 8.00 cm long, 4.00 cm wide, and 2.00 cm high. If the
density of the solid is 10.0 g/cm3, what is its mass?
a) 10/64 grams
d) 320 grams
b) 10.0 grams
e) 640 grams
c) 64.0 grams

3.

A metal sample weighing 30.9232 grams was added to a graduated cylinder containing 23.26 mL of
water. The volume of water plus the sample was 24.85 mL. Which setup will result in the density
of this metal?
a) 30.9232 x (24.85-23.26)
b)

30.9232
24.85 23.26

c)

24.85 23.26
30.9232

d) 30.9232 x
e)

4.

24.85
23.26

30.9232
24.85 23.26

The number of significant digits in 0.30500 is

a) 1
d) 4
b) 2
e) 5
c) 3

5.

A box measures 3.50 cm x 2.915 cm. The product of these numbers = 10.2025 cm2. What is the
proper way to report the area of the box?
a) 10.20 cm2
c) 10 cm2
b) 10.2 cm2
d) 10. cm2

6.

The result of 2.350 x (4.0 + 6.311) is,

a) 24
c) 24.21
b) 24.2
d) 24.205

7.

A student does a calculation using her calculator and the number 280.27163 is shown on the display.
If there are actually three significant figures, how should she show the final answer?
a) 280
d) 2.80 x 10-2
b) 280.3
c) 280.27

e) 2.80 x 102

8.

The term that refers to the reproducibility of a laboratory measurement is

a) precision
c) accuracy
b) repeatability
d) exactness

9.

Which measurement below is NOT written with three significant digits?

a) 2.00 cm
c) 0.003 L
b) 550. grams
d) 12.7 mm

10. The number 6.33 x 102 equals,

a) 6.33
c) 633
b) 0.633
d) 0.0633
11. All the following are characteristic properties of phosphorus. Which one is a chemical property?
a) Both red phosphorus and white phosphorus exist in solid allotropic forms.
b) The red form melts at about 600C and the white form melts at 44C.
c) The white form is soluble in liquid carbon disulfide, but is insoluble in water.
d) When exposed to air, white phosphorus will burn spontaneously, but red phosphorus will not.

12. Classify each observation as a physical or a chemical property and tally them.
Observation 1: Bubbles form on a piece of metal when it is dropped into acid.
Observation 2: The color of a crystalline substance is yellow.
Observation 3: A shiny metal melts at 650C.
Observation 4: The density of a solution is 1.84 g/cm3
a) 2 chemical properties and 2 physical properties
b) 3 chemical properties and 1 physical properties.
c) 1 chemical properties and 3 physical properties
d) 4 chemical properties
e) 4 physical properties
13. Chromatography is a good way to separate the
a)
b)
c)
d)

elements in a compound
the components in a mixture
the atoms in an element
the phases of a pure substance

14. When a pure solid substance was heated, a student obtained another solid and a gas, each of which
was a pure substance. From this information which of the following statements is ALWAYS a
correct conclusion?
a) The original solid is not an element.
b) Both products are elements.
c) The original solid is a compound and the gas is an element.
d) The original solid is an element and the gas is a compound.
e) Both products are compounds.
15. The prefix milli- corresponds to what multiplication factor?
a) 10-6
d) 103
b) 10-3
e) 106
c) 101
16. A solution of sugar water may be defined as a
a) heterogeneous mixture
b) homogeneous mixture
c) heterogeneous compound
d) homogeneous compound
e) homogeneous element
17. Wafting is the proper technique for

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

neutralizing a spilled acid.

putting out burning clothing.
washing chemicals from the eye.
smelling a chemical substance.
observing the color of a chemical.

18. You measure the density of a slab of lead as 11.10 g/mL. The accepted value is 11.34 g/mL. The
percent error for your measurement is
a) 2.1 %
c) 3.7 %
b) 2.4 %
d) 5.1 %
19. Which one of the following elements is correctly matched with its symbol?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Ag, gold
Ni, nickel
Fl, fluorine
Mg, manganese
H, helium

Atoms and Elements

1.

Certain properties are characteristic of metals. Which property means that you can pound the
substance into a foil?
a) ductility
c) sectility
b) conductivity
d) malleability

2.

Which of the following is a metalloid?

a) As
b) Ag
c) S
d) Pb

e) He

3.

Which of the following is a transition metal?

a) Cl
b) Ni
c) P
d) Ca
e) C

4.

Which of the following is an alkali metal?

a) Mg
b) Kr
c) K
d) Al

e) H

Which of the following is an lanthanide?

a) Xe
b) Eu
c) Cd
d) P

e) W

5.

6.

Which element has the highest melting point?

a) Pb
7.

b) Au

c) Os

Cathode rays start at the

a) negative electrode c)
b) power source
d)

d) W

e) Hg

positive electrode
gas inside the tube

8.

In a cathode ray tube, electrons are bent toward

a) a positively charged plate.
b) a negatively charged plate.

9.

Listed below are the charges and masses of four particles. Which one will be deflected the least in a
mass spectrometer?
a) +2, 2 amu
b) +4, 4 amu

c) +1, 1 amu
d) +1, 4 amu

10. In a Millikan oil drop type experiment, the charge on four oil drops (in Coulombs) was found to be:
3.33
Coulombs
8.88

Coulombs

6.66

Coulombs

11.10

Coulombs

What is the charge on the electron according to this experiment?

a) 1.11 Coulomb
c) 4.44 Coulomb
b) 2.22 Coulomb d) 11.10 Coulomb
11. Pictured below is a schematic of the Rutherford experiment. Which scattered -particle gives the best
evidence for the nuclear atom?

a) a

b) b

c) c

d) d

e) e

12. Which of the following is an isotope of the element with 20 protons (p=20) and 22 neutrons (n=22)?

a) titanium-22
b) zirconium-40

c) calcium-40
d) titanium-48

13. The imaginary element X has the following natural abundances and isotopic masses. What is the atomic
mass of X?
X 24.02 amu
40.0%
X 26.10 amu
60.0%
Show your work:

For questions 14 - 17, use the following key:

(each answer may be used once, more than once,
or not at all)
a) alpha
b) beta
c) gamma
d) alpha and beta, but not gamma
14. A high energy form of light
15. Two protons & two neutrons
16. A high speed electron
17. Used by Ernest Rutherford as a probe
For questions 18 - 22, use the following key:
(each answer may be used once, more than once,
or not at all.)
a) John Dalton
b) Ernest Rutherford
c) J.J. Thomson
d) Democritus
18. His model of the atom has been called the plum pudding Model.
19. His model of the atom has been called the billiard ball model.
20. He studied matter in cathode ray tubes.
21. His philosophical idea included the term atomos.
22. He added to the atomic theory the idea that atoms had positive and negative parts.
23. Consider the following notation: Rn

Which statement below is correct?

a) This particle contains 86 protons
b) This particle has a mass number of 86
c) This particle has an atomic number of 220
d) This particle contains 220 neutrons
25. If copper metal is a mixture two isotopes, Cu-63, mass = 62.9298 u and Cu-65, mass = 64.9278 u. The
molar mass of copper is 64.546 g/mole. Calculate the % abundances of the two isotopes of copper.
Show your work.

Just For Fun:

Element names finish these sentences.

A ridiculous inmate is a ___.

I bumped my ___ the car door.

I am sad when all the flowers ____.

What the police officer does to the crook. ___

What the doctor does to the patient. ___

What the undertaker does if the doctor doesnt succeed. ___

If your cattle get away, ___.

A famous London theatre is the ___.

Demonstrations help keep the lectures from getting ___.

Molecules and Compounds

1.

What is the formula of the ionic compound formed between Mg and Br?
a) MgBr
d) Mg2Br2
b) Mg2Br
e) Mg2Br3
c) MgBr2

2.

What is the formula of the ionic compound formed between Ca and P?

a) Ca2P3
d) Ca2P
b) CaP
e) Ca3P2
c) Ca5P10

3.

What is the name of the SO32 ion?

a) sulfate
b) nitrate
c) sulfite

d) sulfur trioxide
e) hydrogen sulfate

4.

What is the correct formula and charge for the chromate ion?
a) CrO42
d) Cr2O7
b) CrO4
e) Cr3+
c) Cr2O72

5.

Which one of the following elements forms ions with two different valences?
a) calcium
b) arsenic

6.

c) iron
d) fluorine

The correct name for CCl4 is

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

carbon(I) chloride
carbon chloride
carbon tetrachloride
monocarbon chloride(IV)
carbochlorinate

7.

The correct formula for hydrogen telluride is

a) HTe
c) H3Te
b) H2Te
d) HTe2

8.

The correct formula for dinitrogen tetroxide is

a) NO2
d) NO3
b) N2O4
e) (N2O)4
c) N2O5

9.

The correct name for S2Cl2 is

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

sulfur dichloride
sulfur(I) chloride
sulfur(II) chloride
disulfur dichloride
sulfur chloride

10. The correct name for NO2 is

a) nitrogen dioxide
b) nitrite
c) nitrogen oxide
d) nitrogen(II) oxide
e) nitrate
11. The molar mass of (NH4)2S is closest to:
a) 50 g/mol
c) 68 g/mol
b) 82 g/mol
d) 100 g/mol
12. How many atoms are in 12 molecules of glucose, C6H12O6?
a) 24
b) 288

c) 2160
d) 7.22 x 1024

13. Calculate the number of atoms in 4.0 x 10-5 g of aluminum.

a) 8.9 x 1017
c) 6.5 x 1020
b) 4.6 x 1019
d) 3.8 x 1023
14. Which of the following samples contains the smallest number of atoms?
a) 1 g H2
c) 1 g O3
b) 1 g O2
d) 1 g Cl2
15. What is the mass of one molecule of octane, C8H18?
a) 114 g
b) 1.89 x 10-22 g

c) 1.10 x 10-22 g
d) 4.32 x 10-23 g

16. What is the percent nitrogen (by mass) in ammonium carbonate, (NH4)2CO3?
a) 14.53%
b) 27.83%

c) 29.16%
d) 33.34%

17. Of the following, the only empirical formula is

a) N2F2
c) H2C2
b) N2F4
d) HNF2

18. A compound consists of the following elements by weight percent:

carbon - 40.0%
oxygen - 53.3%
hydrogen - 6.7%
The ratio of carbon : oxygen : hydrogen in the empirical formula is
a) 1:2:1
c) 1:1:2
b) 1:1:1
d) 2:1:2
19. An organic compound which has the empirical formula CHO has a molar mass of 232. Its molecular
formula is:
a) CHO
c) C4H4O4
b) C2H2O2
d) C8H8O8
20. When CaSO4y H2O is heated, all of the water is driven off. If 34.0 g of CaSO4 [molar mass = 136] is
formed from 43.0 g of CaSO4y H2O, what is the value of y?
a) 1
c) 3
b) 2
d) 4

Chemical Equations and Stoichiometry

1.

Balance the following equation:

___NH3 + ___O2 ___NO2 + ___H2O
The balanced equation shows that 1.00 mole of NH3 requires ___ mole(s) of O2.
a) 0.57
c) 1.33
b) 1.25
d) 1.75

2.

Write a balanced equation for the combustion of acetaldehyde, CH3CHO.

When properly balanced, the equation indicates that ___ mole(s) of O2 are required for each mole of
CH3CHO.
a) 1
c) 2.5
b) 2
d) 3
3.

Balance the following equation with the SMALLEST WHOLE NUMBER COEFFICIENTS possible.
Select the number that is the sum of the coefficients in the balanced equation:
___KClO3 ___KCl + ___O2
a) 5
b) 6
c) 7
d) 8

4.

Write a balanced equation for the combustion of propane, C3H8.

When properly balanced, the equation indicates that ___ moles of O2 are required for each mole of
C3H8.
a) 3
b) 3.5
c) 5
d) 8
5.

What is the total mass of products formed when 16 grams of CH4 is burned with excess oxygen?
a) 80 g
c) 36 g
b) 44 g
d) 32 g

6.

Calculate the mass of hydrogen formed when 25 g of aluminum reacts with excess hydrochloric acid.
2Al + 6HCl 2 AlCl3 + 3 H2
a) 0.41 g
c) 1.2 g
b) 0.92 g
d) 2.8 g

7.

How many grams of the mixed oxide, Fe3O4, are formed when 6.00 g of O2 react with Fe according
to
3Fe + 2O2 Fe3O4
a) 43.4
c) 174
b) 86.8
d) 21.7

8.

For the reaction:

2MnO2 + 4KOH + O2 + Cl2 2KMnO4 + 2KCl + 2H2O
there is 100. g of each reactant available. Which reagent is the limiting reagent?
[Molar Masses: MnO2=86.9; KOH=56.1; O2=32.0; Cl2=70.9]
a) MnO2
c) O2
b) KOH
d) Cl2

9.

How many grams of nitric acid, HNO3, can be prepared from the reaction of 92.0 g of NO2 with 36.0
g H2O?
3NO2 + H2O 2HNO3 + NO
a)
b)

64
76

c)
d)

84
116

10.

The reaction of 25.0 g benzene, C6H6, with excess HNO3 resulted in 21.4 g C6H5NO2. What is the
percentage yield?
C6H6 + HNO3 C6H5NO2 + H2O
a) 100%
c) 54.3%
b) 27.4%
d) 85.6%

11.

How many grams of H2O will be formed when 16.0 g H2 is allowed to react with 16.0 g O2 according
to
2H2 + O2 2H2O?

a)
b)

18.0 g
144 g

c)
d)

9.00 g
32.0 g

12.

When 8.00 g of H2 reacts with 32.0 g of O2 in an explosion, 2H2 + O2 2H2O, the final gas mixture
will contain:
a) H2, H2O, and O2 c) O2 and H2O only
b) H2 and H2O only d) H2 and O2 only

13.

1.056 g of metal carbonate, containing an unknown metal, M, were heated to give the metal oxide and
0.376 g CO2.
MCO3(s) + heat MO(s) + CO2(g)
What is the identity of the metal M?
a) Mg
c) Zn
b) Cu
d) Ba

14. Styrene, the building block of polystyrene, is a hydrocarbon, a compound containing only C and H. A
given sample is burned completely and it produces 1.481 g of CO2 and 0.303 g of H2O. Determine the
empirical formula of the compound.
a) CH
c) C2H3
b) CH2
d) C2H5

Reactions In Aqueous Solution

1.

On the basis of the solubility rules, which of the following is insoluble?

a) K2O
d) (NH4)2SO4
b) Na2CO3
e) Ba(C2H3O2)2
c) PbS

2.

In a double replacement reaction, formation of which of the following does not necessarily lead to a
chemical change?
a) HC2H3O2
d) H2S
b) AgCl
c) CO2

3.

e) NaCl

Reaction of an acid with a carbonate (such as CaCO3) always results in the formation of
a) O2
d) O3
b) C(diamond)
e) CO2

c) CH4
4.

Which of the following is incorrect?

a) all salts containing NH4+ are soluble.
b) all salts containing NO3 are soluble.
c) all fluorides are soluble.
d) all sulfates (except those of Ca2+, Sr2+, Ba2+, and Pb2+) are soluble.
e) most hydroxides are insoluble, except those of Ca2+, Sr2+, Ba2+, the alkali metals and NH4+.

5.

One of the gases shown below is NOT usually formed in a double replacement reaction. Which
one?
a) N2
d) NH3
b) CO2
e) H2S
c) SO2

6.

Write the balanced molecular equation for the reaction of washing soda, Na2CO3 and vinegar,
HC2H3O2.

7.

The net ionic equation for the above reaction is:

8.

How many moles of H+ are associated with the acid, H2SO3, during neutralization?
a) 0

9.

b) 1

c) 2

d) 3

How many moles Al2O3 are needed to neutralize 1 mole of HCl?

a) 1/3
d) 6
b) 2/3
e) 12
c) 2

f)

/6

10. Write the net reaction that will occur when solid ammonium carbonate is added to a solution of
hydrosulfuric acid.

11. When H2SO4 and Ba(OH)2 are reacted in a double replacement reaction, one of the products of the
reaction is
a) H2
b) H2O

d) BaH2
e) SO2

c) BaS
12. In the double replacement reaction between the weak acid, HC2H3O2 and strong base, NaOH,
which ion(s) are spectator ions?
a) Na+, C2H3O2 d) H+, C2H3O2
b) Na+, OH
c) OH only

e) Na+ only

13. Which of the following is a base?

a) KOH
d) CH3OH
b) C2H5OH
e) CO2
c) Br
14. Which of the following is a strong acid?
a) H2CO3
d) HClO3
b) HF
e) HNO3
c) H3PO4
15. Which of the following is an acid in aqueous solutions?
a) H2CO3
d) H2O
b) Al2O3
e) BaO
c) CH4
16. SO2 turns into which acid in solution?
a) HNO3
d) H2S
b) H2SO3
e) HNO2
c) H2SO4
17. What is the oxidation number of C in CO32?
a) +6
b) +4
c) +2

d) +1
e) 1

18. What is the oxidation number of Br in KBrO4?

a) +1

b) 1

c) +5

d) +7

e) +8

19. For each change below, label the change of the underlined element as Oxidation, Reduction, or
Neither
___ Cu2+ Cu
___ CH4 CO2
___ H2O2 H2O
___ CO2 H2CO3
20. How many milliliters of 0.123 M NaOH solution contain 25.0 g of NaOH (molar mass = 40.00
g/mol)?
a) 5.08 mL
b) 50.8 mL
c) 508 mL

d) 625 mL
e) 5080 mL

21. If you need 1.00 L of 0.125 M H2SO4, how would you prepare this solution?
a) Add 950. mL of water to 50.0 mL of 3.00 M H2SO4.
b) Add 500. mL of water to 500. mL of 0.500 M H2SO4.
c) Add 750 mL of water to 250 mL of 0.375 M H2SO4.
d) Dilute 36.0 mL of 1.25 M H2SO4 to a volume of 1.00 L.
e) Dilute 20.8 mL of 6.00 M H2SO4 to a volume of 1.00 L.
22. What is the ion concentration in a 0.12 M solution of BaCl2?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

[Ba2+] = 0.12 M and [Cl] = 0.12 M.

[Ba2+] = 0.12 M and [Cl] = 0.060 M.
[Ba2+] = 0.12 M and [Cl] = 0.24 M.
[Ba2+] = 0.060 M and [Cl] = 0.060 M.
[Ba+] = 0.12 M and [Cl2] = 0.12 M.

23. What is the molarity of the solution that results when 60.0 g NaOH is added to enough water to
make 500. mL solution?
a) 1.33 M
d) 8.0 M
b) 12.0 M
e) 1.50 M
c) 3.00 M

24. What is the molarity of the solution that results when 45.0 g HCl is dissolved in enough water to
make 250. mL solution?
a) 4.94 M
d) 1.80 M
b) 4.50 M
e) 1.46 M
c) 3.24 M
25. What is the concentration of Cl ion in 0.60 M AlCl3 solution?
a) 1.8 M
b) 0.60 M
c) 0.20 M

d) 0.30 M
e) 0.10 M

26. How many grams of Na2CO3 (molar mass = 106.0 g/mol) are required for complete reaction with
25.0 mL of 0.155 M HNO3?
Na2CO3 + 2HNO3 2NaNO3 + CO2 + H2O
a) 0.122 g
b) 0.205 g
c) 0.410 g

d) 20.5 g
e) 205 g

27. What volume of 0.150 M NaOH is needed to react completely with 3.45 g iodine according to the
equation:
3 I2 + 6 NaOH 5 NaI + NaIO3 + 3 H2O
a) 181 mL
b) 45.3 mL
c) 4.08 mL

d) 2.04 mL
e) 1.02 mL

28. What is the concentration of an NaOH solution if it takes 16.25 mL of a 0.100 M HCl solution to titrate
25.00 mL of the NaOH solution?
a) 0.0165 M
d) 0.100 M
b) 0.151 M
e) 0.413 M
c) 0.0650 M
29. A 4.00 M solution of H3PO4 will contain ___g of H3PO4 in 0.250 L of solution.
a) 196 g
b) 98.0 g
c) 49.0 g

d) 24.0 g
e) 12.0 g

Energy and Chemical Reactions

1.

How many joules are equivalent to 37.7 cal?

a) 9.01 J
c) 1.51 J
b) 4.184 J
d) 158 J

2.

The quantity of heat that is needed to raise the temperature of a sample of a substance 1.00 degree is
called its
a) heat capacity
c) enthalpy
b) specific heat
d) kinetic energy

3.

Equal masses of two substances, A & B, each absorb 25 Joules of energy. If the temperature of A
increases by 4 degrees and the temperature of B increases by 8 degrees, one can say that
a) the specific heat of A is double that of B.
b) the specific heat of B is double that of A.
c) the specific heat of B is negative.
d) the specific heat of B is triple that of A.

4.

If 25 J are required to change the temperature of 5.0 g of substance A by 2.0C, what is the specific heat
of substance A?
a) 250 J/gC
b) 63 J/gC

5.

How much energy is required to change the temperature of 2.00 g aluminum from 20.0C to 25.0C?
The specific heat of aluminum is 0.902 J/gC.
a) 2.3 J
b) 9.0 J

6.

c) 10. J/gC
d) 2.5 J/gC

c) 0.36 J
d) 0.090 J

Consider the thermal energy transfer during a chemical process. When heat is transferred to the system,
the process is said to be _______ and the sign of H is ________.
a)
b)
c)
d)

exothermic, positive
endothermic, negative
exothermic, negative
endothermic, positive

7.

What is the E for a system which has the following two steps:
Step 1: The system absorbs 60 J of heat
while 40 J of work are performed on it.
Step 2: The system releases 30 J of heat
while doing 70 J of work.
a) 100 J
c) 30 J
b) 90 J
d) zero

8.

When two solutions react the container feels hot. Thus,

a) the reaction is endothermic.
b) the reaction is exothermic.
c) the energy of the universe is increased.
d) the energy of both the system and the surroundings is decreased.

9.

The equation for the standard enthalpy of formation of N2O3 is

a) N2O(g) + O2(g) N2O3(g)
b) N2O5(g) N2O3(g) + O2(g)
c) NO(g) + NO2(g) N2O3(g)
d) N2(g) + 3/2 O2(g) N2O3(g)

10. For the general reaction

2 A + B2 2 AB,
H is +50.0 kJ.
We can conclude that
a) the reaction is endothermic.
b) the surroundings absorb energy.
c) the standard enthalpy of formation of AB is -50.0 kJ.
d) the molecule AB contains less energy than A or B2.
11. Calculate the enthalpy of combustion of C3H6:
C3H6(g) + 9/2O2(g) 3CO2 + 3H2O
using the following data:
3C(s) + 3H2(g) C3H6(g)
C(s) + O2(g) CO2(g)
H2(g) + 1/2O2(g) H2O(l)
a) -1517 kJ
b) 1304 kJ

H= 53.3 kJ
H=-394 kJ
H=-286 kJ

c) -626 kJ
d) -2093 kJ

12. Which one of the following would have an enthalpy of formation value (Hf) of zero?
a) H2O(g)
b) O(g)

c) H2O(l)
d) O2(g)

13. Calculate the heat of vaporization of titanium (IV) chloride: TiCl4(l) TiCl4(g)
using the following enthalpies of reaction:
Ti(s) + 2Cl2(g) TiCl4(l)
H=-804.2 kJ
TiCl4(g) 2Cl2(g) + Ti(s)
H= 763.2 kJ
a) -1567 kJ
b) -783.7 kJ

c) 1165 kJ
d) 41 kJ

14. Calculate the enthalpy of reaction for:

D+FG+M
using the following equations and data:
G + C A+ B
H = +277 kJ
C+FA
H = +303 kJ
DB+M
H = -158 kJ
a) -132 kJ
b) -422 kJ

c) +422 kJ
d) +132 kJ

15. Calculate the standard enthalpy of the reaction for the process
3NO(g) N2O(g) + NO2(g)
using the standard enthalpies of formation (in kJ/mol): NO = 90; N2O = 82.1; NO2 = 34.0
a) -153.9 kJ
c) -26.1 kJ
b) 206 kJ
d) 386 kJ
16. The standard molar enthalpy of combustion is
-1277.3 kJ for the combustion of ethanol.
C2H5OH(l) + 3O2(g) 2CO2(g) + 3H2O(g)
Calculate the standard molar enthalpy of formation for ethanol based on the following standard
enthalpies of formation:
Hf CO2 = -393.5 kJ/mol
Hf H2O = -241.8 kJ/mol
a) -642.7 kJ/mol
b) -235.1 kJ/mol

c) 235.1 kJ/mol
d) 642.7 kJ/mol

17. Calculate the amount of heat needed to change 25.0 g ice at 0C to water at 0C.
The heat of fusion of H2O = 333 J/g;
a) 56.5 kJ
c) 7.06 kJ
b) 8.33 kJ
d) 463 kJ

7&8 Atomic Structure & Periodicity

A = 2.18 x 10-18 J
R = 1.097 x 107 m1

h = 6.626 x 10-34 Js
c = 3.00 x 108 ms1

mass of an electron = 9.11 x 10-31 kg

1.

What wavelength corresponds to a frequency of 8.22 x 109 Hz?

a) 0.307 m
d) 0.110 m
b) 0.0365 m
e) 27.4 m
c) 0.122 m

2.

A radio station transmits at 110 MHz (110 x 106 Hz). What wavelength is this radio wave?
a) 3.65 x 105 m
c) 3.81 x 105 m
b) 3.30 m
d) 2.73 m

3.

Which one of the following is NOT a proper unit for frequency?

a) Hz
c) ms1
b) s1
d)

4.

Calculate the wavelength of the fourth line in the Balmer series (the visible series) of the hydrogen
spectrum.
a) 0.12334 m
d) 4.1029 x 107 m
b) 24.373 m
e) 36.559 m
c) 2.7353 x 107 m

5.

What is the relationship between the energy of a photon of light and its frequency?
a) E =
d) E =
b) E =
c) E = h

e) E =

6.

What is the energy needed to raise an electron in the hydrogen atom from the second energy level to the
third energy level?
a) 1.52 x 104 J
d) 4.48 x 1019 J
b) 3.63 x 1019 J
e) 3.03 x 1019 J
c) 2.18 x 1019 J

7.

What is the de Broglie wavelength of an electron moving at 80.0% the speed of light.
a) 3.03 x 1012 m c) 3.30 x 1011 m
b) 2.42 x 1012 m d) 1.59 x 1025 m

9.

Which quantum number determines the subshell occupied by an electron (s, p, d, f, etc.)?
a)
b)

n
l

c)
d)

ml
ms

10. What position on the standing wave shown below corresponds to a crest?

a) A

b) B

c) C

d) D

e) E

11. How many orbitals make up the 4d subshell?

a) 0
b) 1
c) 3
d) 5
e) 7
12. The value of l that is related to the following orbital is:

a) 0

b) 1

c) 2

d) 3

e) 4

13. The correct electron configuration for nitrogen is

a) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p2
b) 1s2 2s2 2p6 2d4
c) 1s2 2s2 2p3
d) 1s2 2s2 3s2 4s1
e) 1s2 1p5

14. The electron configuration of the indicated atom in the ground state is correctly written for which
atom?
a) Ga
[Ar] 3d12 4s2
b) Ni
[Ar] 3d10
c) Ni
[Ar] 3s2 3p8
d) Cu
[Ar] 3d10 4s1
15. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers is possible for a 3d electron?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

n = 3, l = 3, ml = 2, ms = +
n = 2, l = 1, ml = +1, ms =
n = 3, l = 1, ml = 0, ms =
n = 3, l = 2, ml = 2, ms = +
n = 4, l = 1, ml = +1, ms = +

16. In what section of the periodic table is the 4f subshell being filled?
a) period 4
b) transition elements Y to Cd
c) noble gases
d) group IA
e) lanthanides
17. Which one of the following elements has 3 electrons in a p subshell?
a) Sb
b) Na
c) Sc
d) V
e) Nd
18. Which of the following distributions of electrons is correct for three electrons in p-subshell?

a)

b)
c)

d
)

e)

19. Which of the following particles would be most paramagnetic?

a) P
b) Ga
c) Br
d) Cl-

e) Na+

20. Which of the following correctly represents the ionization of an atom?

a) Cl(g) + e Cl(g)
b) Na(g) Na+(g) + e
c) Na(s) e Na+(g)
d) Cl2(g) 2 Cl(g)
21. Which of the following is likely to have the largest atomic radius?
a) H
b) Mn
c) Cl
d) Rb
e) Ag
22. Which one of the following isoelectronic species has the smallest radius?
a) Mg2+
d) F
b) Na+
e) O2
c) Ne
NOTE: explain your reasoning on the last page.
23. Which of the following has the greatest ionization energy?
a) K
b) Ca
c) Fe
d) Ga
e) Br
24. Which of the following has the lowest ionization energy?
a) Li
b) Na
c) K
d) Rb
e) Cs
25. The successive ionization energies for one of the period three elements is listed below. Which element
is referred to?
E1
577.4 kJ/mol
E2

1,816 kJ/mol

E3

2,744 kJ/mol

E4

11,580 kJ/mol

E5

15,030 kJ/mol

a) Na
b) Mg
c) Al
d) Si
e) P
NOTE: explain your reasoning on the last page.
Write the electron configuration for silver:
27. Long form:

28. Short form:

29. Explain your answer to question 22.

Which one of the following isoelectronic species has the smallest radius?
a) Mg2+
b) Na+
c) Ne
d) F
e) O2
30. Explain your answer to question 25.
The successive ionization energies for one of the period three elements is listed below. Which element
is referred to?
E1
577.4 kJ/mol

a) Na

b) Mg

c) Al

E2

1,816 kJ/mol

E3

2,744 kJ/mol

E4

11,580 kJ/mol

E5

15,030 kJ/mol

d) Si

e) P

Bonding & Molecular Structure

1.

The correct Lewis symbol for ground state carbon is

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

2.

The correct Lewis symbol for ground state aluminum is

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

3.

Using the picture below, what process corresponds to the lattice energy?

a) 1

b) 2

c) 3

d) 4

e) 5

4.

Which of the following favors formation of an ionic compound?

a) low ionization energy for metal
b) high electron affinity for non metal
c) high lattice energy
d) all of a-c above
e) none of a-c above

5.

Which of the atoms below is least likely to violate the octet rule?
a) Be
b) P
c) S
d) B e)
F

6.

How many electrons are shown in the Lewis structure of perchlorate ion, ClO4?
a) 30

b) 31

c) 32

d) 50 e)

51

Questions7 - 9 refer to the following energy diagram:

7.

What is the energy of the two isolated atoms?

a) 400 J
d) 0.100 nm
b) 335 J
e) 155 J
c) 0 J

8.

What is the bond length of the bond between the two atoms?
a) 0.020 nm
d) 0.330 nm
b) 0.140 nm
e) 2.00 nm
c) 0.400 nm

9.

What is the bond energy (bond strength) of the bond?

a) 0 J
d) 330 J
b) 110 J
e) 422 J
c) 10 J

10. What is the bond order of the CO bond in

a) 4

b) 1.5

c) 0.5

d) 1

e)

11. Which of the following is the correct Lewis structure for SOCl2? (Consider formal charge)

a)

d)

b)

e)

c)
12. As the bond order of a carbon-carbon bond increases, which one of the following decreases?
a) # of electrons between the carbon atoms
b) vibrational frequency of bond vibrations
c) bond energy (bond strength)
d) bond length
13. In which of the following is the actual compound a resonance hybrid of Lewis structures?
a) NO2
d) CCl4
b) H2O
e) none of these
c) O3
14. Which of the following bonds is most polar?
a) N Cl
d) Br Br
b) C N
e) S O
c) S S
15. Which one of the following molecules is a polar molecule?
a)

c)

b)

d)

16. Which of the following molecular shapes has six atoms joined to a central atom?
a) linear
d) trigonal bipyramid
b) tetrahedral
e) planar triangular
c) octahedral
17. Which molecular shape has bond angles which are not all the same?
a) linear
d) planar triangular
b) tetrahedral
e) trigonal bipyramid
c) octahedral
19. The molecule BrF3 has how many lone pairs of electrons on the central atom?
a) 0

b) 1

c) 2

d) 3

20. What is the geometrical arrangement of electron pairs in H2O?

a) linear
b) bent
c) octahedral

d) trigonal bipyramidal
e) tetrahedral

21. What is the shape of BrI3?

a) square planar
d) pyramidal
b) T-shaped
e) bent
c) distorted tetrahedral
22. What is the shape of the IF4 ion?
a) square planar
d) octahedral
b) tetrahedral
e) T-shaped
c) square pyramidal
23. Which of the following is a polar species?
a) CO2
b) PCl5
c) ICl2
d) TeCl4
e) CCl4

24. Among those listed below, which element will have the strongest tendency to form double bonds?
a) S
b) B
c) Al
d) O

H
2.1
Li
1.0
Na
0.9
K
0.8
Rb
0.8
Cs
0.7
Fr
0.7

Electronegativity Values
Be
1.5
Mg
1.2
Ca
1.0
Sr
1.0
Ba
0.9

B
2.0
Al
1.5
Ga
1.6
In
1.7
Tl
1.8

C
2.5
Si
1.8
Ge
1.8
Sn
1.8
Pb
1.8

N
3.0
P
2.1
As
2.0
Sb
1.9
Bi
1.9

O
3.5
S
2.5
Se
2.4
Te
2.1
Po
2.0

Orbital Hybridization & Molecular Orbitals

1.

Which hybridization is associated with a steric number of 3?

a) sp
d) sp3d
b) sp2
e) sp3d2
c) sp3

2.

The molecule BrF3 has a steric number of ___ on the central atom?
a) 3

3.

b) 4

c) 5

d) 6

What is the hybridization of Br in BrF3?

a) sp
b) sp2
c) sp3

d) sp3d
e) sp3d2

4.

How many equivalent sp3d orbitals are there?

a) 3
b) 1
c) 5
d) 6

5.

What type of hybridization is associated with a square planar molecular shape?

a) sp3
d) sp3d
b) sp2
e) sp3d2
c) sp

6.

What shape for electron pairs is associated with sp3d2 hybridization?

a) linear
d) tetrahedral

F
4.0
Cl
3.0
Br
2.8
I
2.5
At
2.2

He
--Ne
--Ar
--Kr
--Xe
--Rn
---

b) square planar
c) bent
7.

e) octahedral

What hybridization is predicted for phosphorus in the PCl3 molecule?

a) sp2
b) sp3

c) sp
d) sp3d2

8.

A double bond contains ___ sigma bond(s)

and ___ pi bond(s).
a) 0, 2 b) 1, 2
c) 2, 0
d) 1, 1

9.

What angle exists between orbitals in sp3d2 hybrid orbitals?

a) 90.0
b) 180.0
c) 109.5

d) 120.0
e) 78.5

10. Which of the following elements is most likely to display sp3d hybridization?
a) oxygen
d) carbon
b) nitrogen
e) boron
c) phosphorus
11. How many sigma () and pi () electrons pairs are in a carbon dioxide molecule?
a) four and zero d) two and four
b) three and two e) one and three
c) two and two
12. What is the hybridization of the oxygen atoms in CH3OH and CO2, respectively?
a) sp3, sp3
d) sp2, sp2
b) sp3, sp2
e) sp3, sp
c) sp2, sp3
13. All of the following species contain two -bonds EXCEPT
a) SCN
d) OCS
b) CO
e) NO
c) H2CCO

14. Which response contains all the characteristics that should apply to BF3?
1. trigonal planar
2. one unshared pair of electrons on B
3. sp2 hybridized boron atom
4. polar molecule
5. polar bonds
a) 2, 4, and 5
d) 1, 3, and 5
b) 1, 3, and 4
e) 3, 4, and 5
c) 1, 2, and 3
Short Answer:
15. Consider the structural formula for acetic acid, HC2H3O2 or CH3COOH. Indicate the type of
hybridization used by each of the carbon and oxygen atoms.

16. Consider the structural formula for the acetate ion, C2H3O2 or CH3COO. Indicate the hybridization
used by each of the carbon and oxygen atoms.

17. What shape of bond is formed in the above ion? ______________

19. When BF3 + NH3 BF3NH3, how does the hybridization of the boron atom change, if at all?

Gases and Their Properties

1.

A pressure of 745 mmHg corresponds to ___ kPa.

a) 55.89 kPa
c) 99.3 kPa
b) 0.980 kPa
d) 745 kPa

2.

Liquid nitrogen has a boiling point of -196 C this corresponds to

a) - 469 K
c) 153 K
b) 77 K
d) 469 K

3.

1.20 atm is the same pressure as:

a) 1.2 mmHg
d) 850 mmHg
b) 760 mmHg
e) 358 mmHg
c) 912 mmHg

4.

For an ideal gas, which pair of variables are inversely proportional to each other (if all other factors
remain constant)?
a) P, V
b) P, T

c) V, T
d) n, P

5.

A real gas would act most ideal at

a) 1.0 atm and 273 K
b) 10 atm and 546 K
c) 10 atm and 273 K
d) 0.5 atm and 546 K
e) 0.5 atm and 273 K

6.

One mole of hydrogen, H2, occupies 61.2 L at

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

100 C and 1.00 atm

200 C and 1.00 atm
0 C and 0.500 atm
50 C and 0.500 atm
100 C and .500 atm

7.

A 31.0 mL sample of gas is collected at a temperature of 37 C and pressure of 720 mmHg. What is
its volume at 17 C and 580 mmHg.
a) 23 mL
d) 41 mL
b) 27 mL
e) 58 mL
c) 36 mL

8.

The coldest possible temperature of a gas is:

a) 0 C
b) 273 K
c) -273 K
d) -273 C

9.

The pressure of 4.0 L of an ideal gas in a flexible container is decreased to one-third of its original
pressure and its absolute temperature is decreased by one-half. The volume then is
a) 1.0 L b) 4.0 L c) 6.0 L d) 8.0 L e) 24 L

10. A given mass of gas in a rigid container is heated from 100 C to 300 C. Which of the following
best describes what will happen to the pressure of the gas? The pressure will
a) decrease by a factor of three.
b) increase by a factor of three.
c) increase by a factor less than three.
d) decrease by a factor greater than three.
11. What is the pressure exerted by some nitrogen gas collected in a tube filled with water on a day when
the room temperature is 18.0 C and the room pressure is 750.0 mmHg? [The partial pressure of
water at 18 C is 15.5 mmHg.]
a) 15.5 mmHg
d) 760.0 mmHg
b) 750.0 mmHg
e) 732.0 mmHg
c) 734.5 mmHg
12. As the average kinetic energy of the molecules of a sample increases, the temperature of the sample
a) decreases
c) remains the same
b) increases
13. If a gas that is confined in a rigid container is heated, the pressure of the gas will
a) increase
c) remain the same
b) decrease
14. A mixture of gases at 810 kPa pressure contains:
3.0 moles of oxygen gas,
2.0 moles of helium gas, and
4.0 moles of carbon dioxide gas.
What is the partial pressure of helium gas, PHe.
a) 405 kPa
b) 1620 kPa
c) 810 kPa

d) 81.0 kPa
e) 180 kPa

15. If a gas has a pressure of 2.0 atm, which one of the following equations will express its pressure
after...
the number of moles has been increased to three times the original amount,
the absolute temperature (K) has been reduced to half, and
the volume has been tripled?
a) P2 = 2.0 atm x x x
b) P2 = 2.0 atm x x x
c) P2 = 2.0 atm x x x
d) P2 = 2.0 atm x x

1
x
4

16. A sample of gas occupies 30.0 L at 0.800 atm and 298 K. How many moles of gas are in the sample?
a) 22.4
b) 0.981
c) 1.02
d) 2.23
e) none of these
17. When ammonium nitrite undergoes decomposition, only gases are produced according to the
equation: NH4NO2(s) N2(g) + 2H2O(g)
What is the total volume of gases produced at 819K and 1.00 atm pressure when 128 g of
ammonium nitrite undergoes the above decomposition reaction?

18. At STP, it was found that 1.12 L of a gas had a mass of 2.78 g. Its molar mass is
a) 2.78 g/mol
c) 55.6 g/mol
b) 27.8 g/mol
d) 111 g/mol
19. A mixture of gases, nitrogen, oxygen, and carbon dioxide at 27 C and 0.50 atmospheres pressure
occupied a volume of 492 mL. How many moles of gas are there in this sample?
a) 0.010
c) 7.6
b) 1/9
d) 10
20. At a given temperature, gaseous ammonia molecules (NH3) have a velocity that is ____ gaseous sulfur
dioxide molecules (SO2).
a) greater than
b) less than

c) equal to
d) more inf. needed

21. The ratio of the average velocities of SO2(g) to CH4(g) at 300 K is

a) 1:4
b) 1:2

c) 4:1
d) 2:1

22. A sealed flask contains 1 molecule of hydrogen for every 3 molecules of helium at 20 C. If the total
pressure is 400 kPa, the partial pressure of the hydrogen is
a) 100 kPa
c) 300 kPa
b) 200 kPa
d) 400 kPa
23. A given mass of a gas occupies 5.00 L at 65 C and 480 mmHg. What is the volume of the gas at 630
mmHg and 85 C?
a) 5.00 x
b) 5.00 x
c) 5.00 x
d) 5.00 x
e) 5.00 x

65
480
x
85
630
338
480
x
358
630
358
480
x
338
630
358
630
x
338
480
338
630
x
358
480

24. Which statement best explains why a confined gas exerts pressure?
a) the molecules are in random motion
b) the molecules travel in straight lines
c) the molecules attract each other
d) the molecules collide with the container walls
25. CH4 gas and O2 gas are together in a container. Which statement correctly describes the velocities of
the two molecules.
a) The two molecules have the same average velocity.
b) The CH4 is moving twice as fast as the O2.
c) The CH4 is moving faster, but not twice as fast as the O2.
d) The O2 is moving faster than the CH4.

Nuclear Chemistry
3.

Iodine-131 undergoes "beta decay". What other particle is produced?

(A) Xe-131
(C) I-130

(B) Te-131

(D) Sb-127

4.

What is the charge carried by a beta particle?

(A) -1
(B) 0
(C) +1
(D) +2

5.

What type of radiation is simply a very energetic form of light?

(A) alpha
(C) gamma
(B) beta
(D) positron

6.

Md-256 decays spontaneously with a half-life of 1.5 hours. Which one of the following statements is
true about Md-256 after 3.0 hours?
(A) All of the Md-256 will be decayed.
(B) 75% of the Md-256 will remain.
(C) 50% of the Md-256 will remain.
(D) 25% of the Md-256 will remain.

7.

In a decay series of Th-232, the first three steps involve an alpha decay and then two beta decays. What
is the result of these decays?
(A) Th-228
(C) Fr-224
(B) Rn-228
(D) Pb-207

Questions 8 - 10 refer to this graph:

8.

According to the above data, what is the half-life of the substance?

(A) 1.0 hrs
(C) 3.0 hrs
(B) 2.3 hrs
(D) 8.0 hrs

9.

What percent of the original sample remains after 4 hours?

(A) 80%
(C) 60%
(B) 75%
(D) 40%

11.

Iodine-131 has a half-life of 8 days. What percent of a sample remains after 24 days?
(A) 75% (C) 50% (B) 25% (D) 12.5%

12.

Which of the following describes what occurs in the fission process?

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

a heavy nucleus is fragmented into lighter ones.

a neutron is split into a proton and an electron.
two light nuclei are combined into a heavier one.
a particle and an anti-particle turn completely into energy.

13.

The measured mass of neutral Li-6 is 6.01512 amu. What is the mass defect of this isotope?
mass electron
0.0005468 amu
mass proton
1.007277 amu
mass neutron
1.008665 amu
(A) 0.03435 amu
(C) 0.04947 amu
(B) 0.01512 amu
(D) 0.03038 amu

14.

One mole of H2O has a mass of 18.0 grams or 0.0180 kg. Knowing that the speed of light, c, is 3.0 x
108 m/s, calculate the energy in one mole of H2O if all of its mass were changed to energy.
[Note: 1 J = 1 kgm2/s2]
(A) 1.6 x 1015 J
(C) 1.8 x 1018 J
(B) 5.4 x 1010 J
(D) 2.0 x 1013 J

15.

The "control rods" in a nuclear reactor are designed to absorb ________ and are made of the element
____
(A) energy, Cd
(B) uranium atoms, Pb
(C) alpha particles, water
(D) neutrons, Hf

16.

The rate constant for decay of 218Po is 0.231 min-1. What is the half-life of this isotope?
(A) 0.231 min
(C) 13.6 min
(B) 3.00 min
(D) 4.33 min

17.

Which of the following is a fission reaction?

18.

Which of the following is a fusion reaction?

19.

In the nuclear equation,

the letters Z and A are, respectively

238
92

U AZ X + 42 He

(A) 90 and 242

(B) 94 and 242

(C) 94 and 234

(D) 90 and 234

20.

Radioactive C-14 has a half-life of about 5,000 years. If a fossil is only about 6% as radioactive as
expected for living tissue of the same mass, the age of the fossil is about:
(A) 5,000 yrs
(C) 20,000 yrs
(B) 10,000 yrs
(D) 40,000 yrs

21.

The half-life of 210Bi is 5.0 days. What is the rate constant for decay for this isotope, with the correct
units?
(A) 0.20 days
(C) 0.14 days
(B) 0.20 days-1
(D) 0.14 days-1

22.

A 10.0 gram sample of thorium-227 decays to 8.51 grams in a period of 3.00 days. What is the rate
constant for this decay?
(A) 0.0611 day-1
(C) 0.0851 day-1
(B) 0.0913 day-1
(D) 0.0538 day-1

23.

A sample of neptunium-234, with a half-life of 4.40 days, is allowed to decay for 7.10 days. What
percent of the original sample remains?
(A) 19.9%
(C) 30.6%
(B) 61.9%
(D) 32.7%

24.

Cobalt-64 decays by a first order process by the emission of a beta particle. The Co-64 isotope has a
half-life of 7.8 minutes. How long will it take for 15/16 of the cobalt to undergo decay?
(A) 7.8 min
(C) 23.4 min
(B) 15.6 min
(D) 31.2 min

25.

Referring to the figure below, which one of these corresponds to the fission process?
(A) III II
(B) I II
(C) III V
(D) V IV

IMFs, Liquids, and Solids

1.

Surface tension in a liquid is due to the fact that

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
2.

surface molecules are pulled toward the interior

liquids tend toward lowest energy
PE is increased for molecules at the surface
interior molecules are attracted in all directions
all of the above

In which one of the following will dipole-dipole attractions play the most significant role as the
intermolecular attraction?
a) HCl
d) H2O
b) NaCl
e) NH3
c) Kr

3.

With which type of substances do London dispersion forces play the most significant role?
a) polar molecules d) non-polar molecules
b) metals
e) network compounds
c) ionic compounds

4.

The heat of vaporization of H2S, at its boiling point (61C) is 18.8 kJ/mol. What mass of H2S can be
vaporized (at its boiling point) with 100 kJ of energy?
61
18.8
18.8
b) 34.1 x
100

a) 100 x

61
34.1
34.1
e) 100 x
18.8

d) 18.8 x

c) 61 x 18.8 x 100 x 34.1

5.

Which one of the following substances exhibits the strongest intermolecular forces of attraction?
a) CH4
d) CH3OH
b) C2H6
e) CH3Cl
c) C3H8

6.

For which substance would you predict the highest heat of vaporization?
a) F2

7.

b) H2O

c) HF

d) NaCl e) Br2

Which of the following will change the equilibrium vapor pressure of a liquid?
I. Heat up or cool down the liquid
II. Increase the Volume of the container

III. Change the pressure above the liquid

a) I only
d) I and III only
b) I and II only
e) II and III only
c) I, II, and III
8.

Which of the following statements describes a substance above its critical point?
a) the substance can be liquefied
b) the vapor and liquid phase become indistinguishable
c) the substance experiences no intermolecular interactions
d) there is a distinct phase boundary between the liquid and vapor
e) all of the above

9.

At what temperature will the liquid (whose vapor pressure is shown below) boil if the air pressure is
reduced to 380 mmHg?

a) 30C

b) 50C

c) 70C

d) 100C

e) the liquid will not boil at this pressure

10. Which one of the following is linked with the correct intermolecular force of attraction?
a) NH3.....................dipole-dipole
b) AlH3....................London dispersion forces
c) H2........................hydrogen bonding
d) C2H4....................covalent bonding
e) HCl......................ionic

11. The vapor pressure graph of an unknown liquid is shown below. Which of the following statements
about this liquid is/are true?

I. This liquid has weaker IMFs than water.

II. The liquids normal boiling point is around 75C.
III. The liquid boils at room temperature when the pressure is dropped to about 0.25 atm.
a) II and III only
d) I only
b) II only
e) I, II, and III
c) I and III
12. How much energy does it require to melt 25.0 g benzene, C6H6? The heat of fusion of benzene is 2.37
kJ/mol. [molar mass = 78.0 g/mol)
a) 8.25 kJ
d) 0.759 kJ
b) 59.3 kJ
e) none of these
c) 4625 kJ
13. What type of solid(s) can contain covalent bonds?
a) molecular
d) network
b) metallic
e) all but b
c) ionic
14. Which type of solid generally has the highest melting point?
a) metallic
c) molecular
b) ionic
d) network
15. Which substance below exhibits the weakest IMFs?
a) IF3

b) SO2

c) CO2

d) SiO2 e) PH3

16. During the condensing of a liquid, the kinetic energy _____ and the potential energy ______.
a) stays the same, increases
b) increases, decreases
c) increases, increases
d) decreases, stays the same
e) stays the same, decreases

17. The phase diagram of a substance is given below. What occurs when the substance is heated from 100
C to 120 C at 3 atm pressure?

a) it melts
b) it sublimes
c) it boils

d) it freezes
e) no phase
change occurs

18. A typical phase diagram for a substance is given below. At what point on the diagram do solid and
liquid exist at equilibrium?

a) A

b) B

c) C

d) D

e) E

19. Which one of the following as solids has a crystal structure containing discrete (separate) molecules?
a) potassium
d) carborundum, SiC
b) glass
e) hydrogen
c) quartz
20. The heat of sublimation of a compound equals
a) heat of fusion plus heat of vaporization
b) heat of ionization plus heat of crystallization
c) heat of vaporization minus heat of fusion
d) heat of vaporization plus heat of crystallization
e) heat of crystallization plus heat of vaporization

21. The normal boiling point of a liquid

a) is 100 C at 1 atm pressure.
b) is the temperature at which the vapor pressure is 1 atm.
c) is the temperature at which liquid and vapor are in equilibrium.
d) is the temperature at which the vapor pressure equals the external pressure.
e) is the temperature at which there is a continuous formation of gaseous bubbles in the liquid.
22. The vapor pressure of a liquid increases with an increase of temperature. Which of the following best
explains this increase?
a) The average kinetic energy of molecules is greater, thus more molecules can enter the gaseous state.
b) The number of gaseous molecules above the liquid remains constant but these molecules have
greater average kinetic energy.
c) the faster moving molecules in the liquid exert a greater pressure.
d) All the molecules have greater kinetic energies.
e) The intermolecular forces between the molecules becomes less at higher temperatures.
23. Which of the following indicates very strong intermolecular forces of attraction in a liquid?
a) A very low boiling point.
b) A very low critical temperature.
c) A very low heat of vaporization.
d) A very low vapor pressure.
e) A very low surface tension.
24. The compounds Br2 and ICl have almost identical molecular weights, yet ICl boils at 97C and Br2
boils at 59 C. The best explanation for the difference is
a) ICl is an ionic compound and Br2 is covalent.
b) ICl is a nonpolar molecule and Br2 is polar.
c) ICl has a longer bond than that in Br2 .
d) ICl has a measurable dipole moment (is polar) and Br2 does not (is nonpolar).
e) ICl has a stronger bond than that in Br2 .

25. In some compounds the hydrogen atom is covalently bonded to one atom and simultaneously attracted
to another atom in another molecule by an electrostatic interaction. This interaction can occur when
hydrogen is bonded to
a) Cl

b) Si

c) N

d) C

e) Br

26. Which of the following compounds shows an abnormal boiling point due to hydrogen bonding?
a) CH3NH2
d) CH3Cl
b) CH3OCH3
e) HCl
c) CH3SH
27. Which of the following has the lowest boiling point?
a) H2O
d) H2Te
b) H2S
e) NH3
c) H2Se
28. Which of the following would be expected to have the highest heat of vaporization?
a) H2O
c) HF
b) NH3
d) all three are the same
29. Which element is considered a covalent/network solid?
a) Cr

b) O

c) Xe

d) B

e) Na

30. Which one of the following compounds has intermolecular forces different than the others?
a) quartz, SiO2
d) C(graphite)
b) C(diamond)
e) silicon carbide, SiC
c) carbon dioxide, CO2