Complete E-Question Bank For Paper-II CM - Chapter 8 To 16 - of BSNL LDCE EXAM 2015 Final PDF

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CHAPTER 8. CDMA 2001 X & EVDO

Note: For Exam Point of view, Correct Answer of Question with Explanation(wherever required) is marked
in Bold Text which is given in the Question, it will save your time during revision of Chapter.
1. What is the uplink frequency or Reverse direction (MS to BTS) for CDMA WLL?
(a) 824-849 MHz
(b) 834-859 MHz
(c) 869-894 MHz
(d) 879-904 MHz
2. What is the downlink frequency or Forward direction (BTS to MS) for CDMA WLL?
(a) 824-849 MHz
(b) 834-859 MHz
(c) 869-894 MHz
(d) 879-904 MHz
3. What is the RF carrier Bandwidth in CDMA WLL?
(a) 125 MHz
(b) 1.25 MHz
(c) 250 MHZ
(d) none of the above
4. What is the Duplex Separation in CDMA WLL?
(a) 25 MHz
(b) 25 MHz
(c) 45 MHz
(d) 250 MHz
5. CDMA is a ____________technology, allowing many users to occupy the same time and
frequency allocations in a given band/space.
(a) spread spectrum
(b) OFDMA
(c) Future
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6. What is the duplexing method used in CDMA WLL?

(a) TDD
(b) FDD
(c) Both 1 & 2
7. What is the Access Channels per carrier per sector ?
(a) 10 Chls (3 sectors)
(b) 13 Chls (3 sectors)
(c) 26 Chls (3 sectors)
(d) 40 Chls (3 sectors)
8. BSS (V5.0) can provide up to _______E1s to be connected with LE

(a) 48
(b) 96
(c) 240
(d) 480
9. BSS (V5.0) can can support up to ________ selectors/vocoders.
(a) 420
(b) 4800
(c) 7200
10. Which of this Performs message handling function for transparent message transfer between
BTS-BSC-switching office such as location registration and supplementary service during call.
(a) MS
(b) BTS
(c) BSC
(d) MSc
11. Which of this voice coding is used in CDMA WLL?
(a) 8/13 Kbps QCELP
(b) 8Kbps EVRC
(c) Both 1 & 2
12. The ________ is a block which provides the communication paths of voice packets and
control packets within the Standard BTS Type, or between the BTS and the BSC.
(a) TCP
(b) BHI
(c) CCB
(d) LPA
Explanation: BACKHAUL INTERFACE
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13. What is correct about CDMA Technology?

(a) A single frequency channel is used in all sectors of BTS either in Reverse of forward
direction
(b) Frequency reuse concept is not applied in CDMA
(c) Walsh code is used to separate traffic channel
(d) All of these
14. In CDMA 1x which register stores information regarding supplementary service; current
location information of the subscriber for call route establishment:
(a) VLR
(b)HLR
(c) AUC
(d) EIR
15. What is the Interface between HLR and SC in CDMA 2000 1x Technology:
(a) A
(b) C
(c) N
(d) Q
16. What is the Interface between OMC and MSC, OMC and BSC in CDMA 2000 1x
Technology:
(a) Q, N
(b) Q,C
(c)Q,Q
(d) Q,A
17. What is highest data transmission rate of 1x EV-DO:
(a) Upto 3.1 Mb/s (b) Upto 384 Kb/s
(c) Upto 7.2 Mb/s
(d) Upto 144 Kb/s
18. _________ does not accommodate any supplementary service except for IWF.
(a) BTS
(b) BSC
(c) MSC
19. A maximum of _______ BTSs can be accommodated into one base station controller (BSC)
(a) 4
(b) 12
(c) 48
(d) 90
20. Maximum of _______ can be interworked with one transmission line in the daisy chain for
the sake of efficient use of transmission lines.
(a) 2BTS
(b) 4BTS
(c) 8BTS
(d) 10BTS
21. Which of this is the function of the BTS?
(a) call control
(b) monitoring power and environments
(c) maintenance functions concering mobile stations
(d) All of the above
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22. The CDMA system has a soft capacity limit. That is increasing the number of users will
__________ the system performance.
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) stabilise
(d) None of the above
23. GSM is a widely spread standard and CDMA is a __________technology.
(a) Owned
(b) proprietry
(c) Patented
24. CDMA base station consumes ___________ power than GSM and also covers a _______
distance.
(a) more, large
(b) less, large
(c) less, less
25.The access method used in CDMA is CDMA while in GSM it is _______________.
(a) FDMA
(b) CDMA
(c) TDMA
26. In CDMA operator locking is provided by ESN while in GSM it is __________
(a) SIM
(b) RUIM
(c) UNlockable
27.In GSM Handset interoperability is provided by _______and in CDMA it is _________.
(a) SIM, ESN
(b) SIM, RUIM
(c) RUIM, SIM
(d) ESN, SIM
28. In GSM handoff is _________ while in CDMA it is ___________.
(a) hard, hard
(b) soft, hard
(c) hard, soft
(d) soft, soft
29. Various factors such as echoes, call dropping, or voice distortion are almost non-existent in
______, whereas in ________, there is a high probability of errors.
(a) GSM, CDMA
(b) CDMA, GSM
(c) GSM, CorDECT
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30. What is time interval for checking signal strength power level of MS by BTS in Closed loop
power control in reverse link of CDMA technology?
(a) 1.25 ms
(b) (b)5 ms
(c) 5 ms
(d) 10 ms
31. High-powered GSM signals have been shown to cause ____________of CDMA receivers
due to CDMAs reliance upon broadcasting across its entire available band.
(a) overloading
(b) jamming
(c) Both 1 & 2
32. In general, Spread Spectrum communications is distinguished by which of these elements?
(a) The signal occupies a bandwidth much greater than that which is necessary to send the
information
(b) The bandwidth is spread by means of a code which is independent of the data
(c) The receiver synchronizes to the code to recover the data
33. Which of this is the way to spread the bandwidth of the signal:
(a) Frequency hopping
(b) Time hopping
(c) Direct sequence
34. The digital data is directly coded at a much higher frequency. The code is generated pseudorandomly, the receiver knows how to generate the same code, and correlates the received signal
with that code to extract the data. Which type of spread spectrum is this?
(b) Time hopping
(c) Direct sequence
35. The signal is transmitted in short bursts pseudo-randomly, and the receiver knows before
hand when to expect the burst. Which type of spread spectrum is this?
(b) Time hopping
(c) Direct Sequence
36. In CDMA, the pseudo-random code must have the following property
(a) It must be deterministic
(b) It must appear random to a listener without prior knowledge of the code
(c) The code must have a long period
37. What will be the correlation of two codes ,if the two codes are identical ?
(a) 0
(b) 0.5
(c) 1
(d) infinite
Explanation: It equals 0 of the two codes have nothing in common
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38. The bit rate of the PN code is called

(a) Chipping Frequency (fc)
(b) Information rate (fi)
(c) Chip
(d) Epoch
39. One bit of the PN code is called
(a) chipping frequency
(b) information rate
(c) chip
(d) Epoch
40. What are enhancement of CDMA 2001 x over IS-95
(a) Enhanced voice Quality
(b) Better Voice capacity
Faster forward power control
(d) Pilot in Reverse link
(e) All of these
41. CDMA technology is inherently resistant to
(a) interference
(c) Both 1 & 2
(b) jamming
42. In CDMA, the system uses ______for the Forward and Reverse links
(a) FDD
(b) TDD
(c) Both 1 & 2
43. Which of this channel is unidirectional?
(a) Broadcast
(b) Call Setup
(c) Assigned (d) None of the above
44Communication Standards for CDMA , the spread spectrum signal rate is
(a) 2.048Mbit/s
(b) 1.4444Mbit/s
(c) 1.2288Mbit/s
45. Which of this is a reverse channel?
1. Pilot
(b) Sync
(c) Paging
(d) Access
46. Which of this is forward channel?
(a) Pilot
(b) Sync
(c) Paging
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47. Which of these Obtains a phase offset by short PN sequences, in order to identify different
base stations?
(a) Pilot
(b) Sync
(c) Paging
(d) Access
48. Once the mobile station accepts the _________, a traffic channel is assigned by the base
station for the mobile station to use.
(a) pilot
(b) page
(c) access channel
49. Although a sector can have up to seven paging channels, and each paging channel can have
up to 32 access channels, nearly all systems today use only _______paging channel per sector
and only ________access channel per paging channel.
(a) one, one
(b) one, three
(c) three, one
50. Reverse Traffic Channel is :
1. used when a call is in progress to send
(b) Response to commands/queries from the base station
(c) Requests to the base station
51. Which of these Respond to Paging Channel messages?
1. pilot
(b) forward traffic
(c) reverse traffic
(d) access
52. The paging channel originates at the ___________.
1. BSC
(b) base station
(c) MS
53. RUIM Full form is Removable User Interface Module.
True/False
54. EVDO full form is Evolution for data optimized
True/False
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CHAPTER9. Wi-Fi & WiMAX

1. What is IEEE standard of Wi-Fi(a) 802.3

(b) 802.11 a (c) 802.11b
(d) 802.16
2. Is 802.a and 802.b compatible with each other?
True/False
3. Wi-Fi is primarily a __________ technology designed to provide in-building broadband

coverage.
(a) LAN
(b) WAN
(c) MAN
4. Wi-Fi is based on _______________specification.
(a) IEEE 811.11 (b) IEEE 802.11 (c) IEEE 902.11
(d) IEEE 922.11
5. Because of the shared media operation, all Wi-Fi networks are ___________.
(a) simplex
(b) half duplex
(c) full duplex
6. All Wi-Fi networks are contention-based ___________ systems where the access point and
the mobile stations all vie for use of the same channel.
(a) TDD
(b) FDD
(c) Both 1 & 2
7. An RC4-based 40-or 104-bit encryption with a static key is called ____________________
(a) Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP)
(b) Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA)
(c) IEEE 80(b)11i/WPA2
8. In Wi-Fi, which version operates in the 5GHz band frequency(a) 802.11a (b) 802.11b (c) 802.11d (d) 802.11e
9. In Wi-Fi this uses the 40 or 104-bit WEP key, but it changes the key on each packet. Which
type of encryption is this called?
(c) IEEE 80(b)11i/WPA2
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10. Which of these are the encryption techniques used in Wi-Fi?

(c) IEEE 802.11i/WPA2
11. Which IEEE 802.11 standards provides data rates up to 54 Mbps in the 2.4 GHz band(a) 802.11a (b) 802.11b (c) 802.11g (d) 802.11d
12. The 802.11b radio link uses a ____________called complementary coded keying (CCK).
(a) OFDM
(b) direct sequence spread spectrum technique
(c) Both 1 & 2
13.The 802.11a and g systems use 64-channel _______________.
(a) OFDM
(b) direct sequence spread spectrum
(c) Both 1 & 2
14. Which of these are most important items which makes Wi-Fi working in your laptop or
desktop?
(a) Radio Signals
(b) Wi-Fi Card
(c) Hotspots
(d) All of the
above
15. A Wi-Fi hotspot is created by installing a/an ______________to an internet connection.
(a) router
(b) access point
(c) antenna
16. Some Hotspots require WEP key to connect that is the connection is considered to be
______________.
(a) profitable
(b) public
(c) secure
17. Which encryption is more secured(a) WEP
(b)WPA
(c) both
(d) None
18. The Wi-Fi standards define a fixed channel bandwidth of _______for 802.11b and
___________for either 802.11a or g networks.
(a) 25 MHz ,25 MHz
(b) 20 MHz ,20 MHz
(c) 25 MHz , 20 MHz
(d) 20 MHz ,25 MHz
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19.What is the modulation technique used in Wi-Fi?

(a) FSK
(b) QPSK
(c) FM
(d) PCM
20. What is the access protocol used in Wi-Fi?

(a) CDMA
(b) TDMA
(c) CSMA/CA
(d) CSMA/CD
21. WiFi make use of adaptive modulation and varying levels of __________________ to
optimize transmission rate and error performance.
(a) double error correction
(b) backward error correction
(c) forward error correction
22. Which of these are issues which are assumed to be the cause of the sluggish adoption of WiFi technology?
(a) Security Problems
(b) Compatibility and Interpretability
(c) Billing Issues
23. Which of this pertains to wireless LANs and provides 20+ Mbps in the 2.4-GHz band.
(a) 802.11
(b) 802.11a
(c) 802.11b (d) 802.11g
24. Which device operates in 2.4 GHz band(a) Bluetooth
(b) Cordless phone
(c) Microwave Oven
(d) All of these
25. The standard (IEEE 802) format for printing MAC-48 addresses in humanly-friendly form is
_________, separated by hyphens (-) or colons (:)
(a) twelve groups of four hexadecimal digits
(b) six groups of two hexadecimal digits
(c) two groups of six hexadecimal digits
26. MAC Address is for__________
(a) PC
(b) Modem
(c) Wi-Fi Network (d) None of the above
27. WEP encryption relies on a secret key that is shared between the ______________ and the
wireless access point.
(a) mobile station
(b) modem (c) ISP (d) None of the above
28. What is the full form of MAC address?
(a) Media Authentication Controller
(b) Mobile Access Control
(c) Media Access Control
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29. What is the full form of WPA?

(a) Wi-Fi Protected Area
(c) Wireless Protected Access
30. What is the full form of Wi-Fi?
(a) WLL Fidelity
(c) Wireless Fidelity
(b) Wi-Fi Protected Access

(b) Wireless Fixed

(d) Wireless Feasible
31. Which of the802.11e standard operating modes is optional?

(a) Wi-Fi Multimedia Extensions (WME)
(b) Wi-Fi Scheduled Multimedia (WSM)
(c) Both 1 & 2
32. Which of the 802.11 standard is used to receive the regulatory information required to
configure itself
properly to operate anywhere on earth.
a) 802.11 a
(b) 802.11b
(c) 802.11d (d) 802.11e
WiMax
33. WiMAX is a
(a) broaband technology
(b) leased line technology
(c) mobile technology
34. What is technology acronym for WiMAX?
(a) Wireless Interoperability for Microwave Access
(b) Worldwide Interoperability for Microwave Access
(c) Worldwide Interoperability for Mobile Access
35. WiMAX is based on Wireless ________________
(a) LAN technology
(b) WAN technology
(c) MAN technology
36. WiMAX works at __________and can peak up to 100 Mbps in a 20 MHz channel.
(a) 1 bps/Hz
(b) 2 bps/Hz
(c) 5 bps/Hz
(d) 10 bps/Hz
37. What is the channel bandwidth for WiMAX?
(a) Adjustable 1.25 MHz to 20 MHz
(b) 25 MHz
(c) 20 MHz
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38. What is the radio technology used in WiMAX?

(a) DSSS
(b) OFDM (256-channels)
(c) OFDM(64-channels)
39. WiMAX is based on IEEE_________specification and it is expected to deliver high quality
broadband services.
(a) 802.11
(b) 802.16
(c) 802.22
(d) 801.16
40. A wireless communications system allows users to access information beyond their desk and
conduct business from anywhere without having wire connectivity. This characteristic is called
(a) Reachability
(b) Mobility
(c) Simplicity
(d) Maintainability
41. Wireless communications systems enable people to be better connected and reachable
without any limitation of any location.This characteristic is called
(a) Mobility
(b) Simplicity
(c) Reachability
(d) Maintainability
42. Wireless communication system are easy and fast to deploy in comparison of cabled
network. This characteristic is called
(a) Mobility:
(b) Reachability
(c) Simplicity
(d) Maintainability
43. Which of this is not a part of Wi MAX network?
(a) Base station (BS)
(b) access service network (ASN)
(c) Connectivity service network (CSN)
(d) Radio Network
Controllerb(RNC)
44. IEEE 802.16-2004 and IEEE 802.16e-2005 supports _________________, which allows for
a low-cost system implementation.
(a) TDD
(b) FDD
(c) half-duplex FDD
45. Which of these coding schemes is supported by WiMAX?
(a) hoffman codes (b) convolutional codes (c) BSD codes (d) gray codes
46. ________________is an effective mechanism to maximize throughput in a time-varying
channel.
(a) Link-layer retransmissions
(b) Adaptive modulation and coding (AMC)
(c) Robust security
(d) OFDM-based physical layer
47. Which of these are the Issues with Wireless Networks?
(a) Quality of Service (QoS) (b) Security Risk (c) Reachable Range (d) All of the above
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48. Which of this network is an independent local area network that is not connected to a wired
infrastructure and in which all stations are connected directly to one another?
(a) Point-to-point bridge
(b) Point-to-multipoint bridge
(c) Mesh or ad hoc network
49. What is the spectrum used in Wi MAX for IEEE 802.16 ?
(a) 2-11 GHZ
(b) 10-66 GHZ
(c) <6GHZ
50. What is the spectrum used in Wi MAX for IEEE 802.16a ?
(a) 2-11 GHZ
(b) 10-66 GHZ
(c) <6GHZ
51. What is the spectrum used in Wi MAX for IEEE 802.16e ?

. 2-11 GHZ
(b) 10-66 GHZ
(c) <6GHZ
52. Which service is covered under IEEE 802.16 Standards related to WiMAX?
(a) GSM
(b) Bluetooth
(c) WLL
(d) FTTH
53. Which of this encryption is supported by Wi MAX?
(a) AES (Advanced Encryption Standard)
(b) 3DES (Triple Data Encryption Standard)
(c) Both 1 & 2
(d) None of thebove
54. Which company has more than 1/3 rd share in Worldwide broadband?
(a)Samsung
(b) Ericson
(c) Alcatel
(d) Nokia
55. The 128-bit or 256-bit key used for deriving the cipher is generated during the
__________________ phase and is periodically refreshed for additional protection.
(a) authentication
(b) accounting
(c) registering
56. WiMAX terminal devices come with built-in X.509 digital certificates that contain their
public key and _____________.
(a) IP address
(b) MAC address
(c) IMSI
(d) ESN
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57. The___________________,which comprises one or more base stations and one or more ASN
gateways that form the radio access network at the edge.
58. __________________, which provides IP connectivity and all the IP core network functions.
59. WiMAX is standardized by 3GPP.
True/False
60. Which handover is mandatory for WiMax Technology?

(a) Hard Handover (HHO)
(b) Fast Base Station Switching (FBSS)
(c) Macro Diversity Ho (MDHO)
(d) All of these
61. Which company has supplied WiMax equipment to BSNL?
(a) Ericsson
(b) HCL
(c) M/s Aperto Network
(d) Alcatel
62. In India, BSNL is using which type of WiMAx certified products?

(a) 802.11
(b) 802.16 a (c) 802.16 e-2005
(d) 802.16e-2008
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CHAPTER 10. MNP (Mobile Number Portability)

1. In India Which type of MNP system is used for Mobile number portability :
(a) Recipient led porting system
(b) Donor- led Porting System
(c) Channel led porting system
(d) All of these
2. Which is best defines Donor led porting system:
(a)In this system, customer contact to current network (donor) for porting out code, in this
process donor has a opportunity to winning back the customers.
(b) In this system, customer contact to new network (recipient) which then sends number porting
request to current network.
(c) Both are correct
(d) both are wrong statement
3. In which country , Recipient led system is used:
(a) UK
(b) America
(c) India
(d) European country
4. If a Resident of Delhi wants to port out from one operator to other operator , then what is
minimum time frame to accept port request by Donor operator:
(a) 30 Min
(b) 7 Days
(c) 15 Days
(d) 30 Days
5. In which year, MNP was started in India:

(a) June 2005
(b) January 2011
(c) Oct 2013
(d) It was started since 1 Oct 2000 in BSNL
6. What is the time limit of porting out in J&K, Assam state?

(a) 30 Min
(b) 7 Days
(c) 15 Days
(d) 30 Days
7. Presently MNP is allowed within same circle/state, inter circle is yet to be started; However
Customer may migrate from CDMA to Gm & vice versa.
True/False
8. After port in MNP, customer has to remain at least for 90 days with new operator. After 90
days he/she become eligible for porting to another operator.
True/False
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9. What is the format for sending SMS for port out:

(a) PORT<Mob. No.> SMS to 1900 then customer receive UPC code.
(b) PORT<Mob. No.> SMS to 1909 then customer receive UPC code.
(c) PORT IN<Mob. No.> SMS to 1507 then customer receive UPC code.
(d) PORT OUT<Mob. No.> SMS to 1500 then customer receive MNP code.
10. What is the ceiling charge for MNP as per TRAI guideline?
(a) Rs. 19
(b) Rs. 50
(c) Rs.100
(d) Rs. 500
11. Consumer can withdraw porting request within 24 Hrs of submitting their request.
True/False
12. In J&K, SMS is not allowed from Prepaid Mobile service, hence for Prepaid MNP, call 1900
instead of SMS.
True/False
13. What is the validity period (Except J&K,Assam & NE) of system generated UPC code for
MNP?
(a) 1 day
(b) 7 days
(c) 15 days (d) 30 days
Explanation: In J&K,Assam & NE UPC validity time is 30 days.
14. For MNP entire country is divided in two zones, zone1& Zone2. Rajasthan falls in Zone 1
which Tamilnadu falls in Zone 2.
True/False
15. MCHA (Mobile number portability Clearing housing administrator) license for Zone 1 is
with M/s Syniverse Technology.
True/False
16. MCHA (Mobile number portability Clearing housing administrator) license for Zone 2 is
with M/s Interconnection Telecom solution India Pvt. Ltd.
True/False
Important Abbreviations:
LSA: License Service Area
LNPD: Local number Portability database, it is maintained by SSTP.
LRN: Location Routing Number
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CHAPTERS11. NATIONAL/INTERNATIONAL ROAMING

1. In Case of PLMN registration on MS, the registered PLMN Identity is stored in ______
(a) MS Internal Memory
(b) External memory
SIM card memory
(d) PLMN identity is never stored on MS
2. Which service status appears in MS when there are one or more PLMN available and
allowable but LU (Location update) failure made registration on those PLMN unsuccessful or an
entry in a forbidden LAI:
(a) Normal Network active state
(b) Limited service state
SOS calls only state
(d) None
3. In PLMN selector what is the minimum value of received signal level for other PLMNs except
from HPLMN:
(a) -110dBm (b) -85 dBm (c) -43 dBm (d) None
4. During the National Roaming, which value is stored in SIM so that MS can periodically
attempt to obtain service from on its HPLMN (Home PLMN):
(a) VPLMN
(b) EF HPLMN
(c) AB HPLMN
(d) 30 Min
5. What is the range of EF HPLMN minutes?
(a) either 6 minutes to 8 Hours in 6 minutes step & in case of no value, default 30 min is
used,
(b) either 8 minutes to 8 Hours in 8 minutes step & in case of no value, default 60 min is used
120 min & in case of no value, default 60 min is used
(d) any one value can be used
6. Who is authorize to set EF HPLMN value in case of National Roaming/
(a) TRAI
(b) DoT
(c) Service Provider of SIM
(d) ITU
7. It is possible to define National Roaming with a foreign operator (with another MCC). This
leads desired behavior at borders between countries.
True/False
Explanation: Because two MCC is not allowed in one country
8. At the border (entrance area), Cells should be set up on all major entrances to the country as
well as high signal strength levels are also important at the actual border.
True/False
9. National Roaming is allowed and activated on basis of;
(a) BTS
(b) LA
(c) MSC
(d) GGSN
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10. ACCMIN (minimum received signal level for network access) should be set as low as
possible. This corresponds to 110 dBm.
True/False
11. CMTS full form is Cellular Mobile Telephone service
True/False
12. Which company has provided facility for testing International Roaming services in BSNL:
(a) M/s Roamware, USA
(b) SigTel,UK
(c) M/s Ericsson, China
(d) None
13. For International Roaming, which circle is the Nodal Circle of BSNL & other circles are
piggy back on nodal network.
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Karnataka
(c) Kolkata
(d) Delhi
14. In which states in India, subscribers of foreign Operators are not permitted to roam:
(A) Assam ,J&K, North East
(b) Jharkhand, Telangana
J&K, Goa
(d) Assam, Kerala and J&K.
15. Which Circle is responsible for Financial Settlements with Foreign Operators for charges
during International Roaming of In-Roamer & Out Roamers:
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Karnataka
(c) Kolkata
(d) Delhi
16. During International Roaming local plans for GPRS/Blackberry are not valid and all data
usages are charged at the visited operator rates.
True/False
17. What are the Time frames for sending TAP files to foreign Operators including for CDRS in
MIU (Message Investigation Unit):
(a) Every 6 hours
(b) every24 hours
(c) every 36 Hours (d) every Hour
18. In case TAP files do not reach the foreign Operator 24-36 hrs they are liable to be rejected
and no payment made to the VPLMN.
True/False
19. IMSI format is MCC-MNC-MSIN, each code is in (3-2-10) length, its total code length is 15
digits.
True/False
20. In Triple IMSI SIM, one IMSI is used in HPLMN (W.B. in case of BSNL), second used by
Sponser network like Spice, third is used during VPLMN of overseas.
True/False
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CHAPTER 12.EARTHING AND POWER PLANT SYSTEM

1. The resistance of an earth electrode to earth is called

(a) Electrode resistance
(b) Earth resistance
(c) System resistance
2. Which type of Earthing is the most recommended Choice.
(a) Plate Earthing
(b) Spike Earthing
(c) Lead Earthing
3. A current which flows to earth or to extraneous conductive parts in a circuit which is
electrically sound.
(a) Spikes
(b) Earth Leakage Current
(c) Earthing
4. In order to ensure that the electrode is still in working order after 20 years, a factor of safety
of two would mean that the earth electrode must contain at least _________of steel.
(a) 5 kg
(b) 10 kg
(c) 20 kg
(d) 50 kg
5. Which of this consists of a bad strip 1 mm wide and 6 gms/square cm buried at a depth of
from 60 to 90 cms in continuous length?
(a) Spike earth electrode system
(b) Lead Strip Electrode System
(c) Earth plate electrode system
6. Corrosion mitigation earth comes under which category?
(a) Service Earthing Systems
(b) Protective Earthing System
(c) Both 1 & 2
7. Why is it necessary to earth all telecom? Equipments inclusive of transmitters, receivers and
associated equipments, Sheath of Telecom cable?
(a) To prevent or to reduce the risk of cross talk
(b) To complete earth return
(c) To provide direct connection to the earth for lightening protection.
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8. Power plant consists of

(a). Float Rectifier
(b) Battery Charger
Switching Cubicle
9. Full form of SMPS is Switch Mode Power Supply.
10. Which type of secondary cell is used in BSNL.
(a) Nickel-iron-alkaline
(b) lead-lead-acid type
Nickel-Cadmium alkaline
11. The capacity of a battery is 100 AH, it can be discharged at the rate of
(a) 10 Amps for 10 hours
(b) 100 Amps for 1 hours
2 Amps for 50 hours
12. What is the Open Circuit Voltage (OCV) of fully charged battery at 27 deg Cel.
(a) 2.0V
(b) 2.15V
2.25V
(d) 2.30V 2.
13. Which is/are correct statements?
(a) Spikes are used where space is not a problem
(b) Plate earthing is used space is limited but digging possible easily.
Strip earthing is used in Hilly Areas
(d) All of these
14. VRLA full form is Valve Regulated Lead Acid battery, it is free from maintenance. It is used
in BSNL in power plant.
True/False
15. The earth resistance of Earth electrode system for Electronic exchanges should be less than:
(a) 0.1 Ohms
(b) 0.2 Ohms
(c) 0.5 Ohms
(d) 2 Ohms
16. Earthing systems should be designed to achieve :
(a) adequate current carrying capacity
(b) adequate mechanical strength to withstand the rigors of service without fracturing.
(c) In the case of lightning protective earths adequate-surge-current carrying ability.
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17. The conductive mass of the earth, whose electric potential at any point is conventionally
taken is:
(a) zero
(b) one
(c) ten
(d) infinity
18. Which of this is not a Service Earthing Systems?
(a) switching equipment earth
(b) transmission equipment earth
(c) Lightning protective earth to provide protection against excessive voltage
(d) A.C. power supply earth
Explanation: Lightning protective earth to provide protection against excessive voltage is
Protective Earthing System
19. Which of these can be used as Earth Electrode Materials?
(a) Galvanized steel
(b) Plain steel
(c) Stainless steel
(d) Any of the above
20. Earthing Arrangement is consists of:
(a) Soil
(b) Earth Electrode & Earthing Lead
(c) Connecting wire to extend earth to equipment
21. Which of this system is generally used at all new auto exchange installations where adequate
space is available around the exchange building and where subsoil suitable for driving in pipes to
the prescribed depth exists?
(b) Lead strip electrode systems
22. A conductor or group of conductors in intimate contact with and providing an electrical
connection to earth.
(a) Earth Electrode
(b) Earthing Lead
(c) Earthing
23. A protective conductor connecting the main earthing terminal to an earth electrode or to
other means of earthing.
(a) Earth Electrode
(b) Earthing Lead
(c) Earthing
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24. Which of this is used when adequate space around the exchange building is available but
where rock is encountered at a depth less than 375 cm below ground level?
25. Which of this is employed when the layout of the exchange site is such that adequate space
is not available to install an earth electrode system of other type?
26. Earth electrode system should, as far as possible, be far removed from other similar earth in
area like AC, earth etc. and in no case should the separation between the two be less than?
(a) 225 cms
(b) 375 cms
(c) 450 cms
27. Earth plate electrode system consists of ___________ galvanized iron plates of 145 SWG 76
cms square arranged
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
28. In winter specific resistively of soil _______sharply with temperature near or below 0 deg C.
(a) Increases
(b) Decreases
(c) Remains same
29. In general, service-earthing systems should have a _________ D.C. resistance to the general
body of the earth, in order to ensure that the potential drop across the earth connection is low.
(a) High
(b) Low
(c) Moderate
30. The electrodes must be located in __________.
(a) made up soil
(b) undisturbed soil
(c) loose soil
(d) rubble
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31. The present standard for spike earth-electrode system consists of _________ 25.0 mm or
38.00 mm diameter G.I pipes, each of 275 or 375 cm length.
(a) two
(b) ten
(c) twenty
(d) fifty
32. Positive plate of VRLA cell is made up of Patented MFX alloy while Negative plate is of
lead calcium alloy.
True/False
33. In BSNL Exchanges, we use -48 V DC supply. It can be achieved by:
(a) Negative Terminal is earthed and positive terminal is connected through fuse.
(b) positive terminal is earthed and Negative Terminal is connected through fuse.
Both positive & negative terminal are connected through fuse
(d) Both positive & negative terminal are earthed
34. In case batteries are to be stored for longer duration, the batteries must be charged with
freshening voltage. Charging must be carried out at constant Voltage /potential at limited current
True/False
35. In float charging under normal condition, the batteries must be connected in parallel at
constant voltage charge and critical load circuits.
True/False
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CHAPTER 13.CHARGING & BILLING IN GSM/CDMA

1. WSC full form is Web Self care.
True/ False
2. With the help of CDR Project,_______billing system has possible, e-stapling or Single bill can
be issued to Corporate Customers having all India presence.
(a) Single
(b) Convergent
(c) KNN
(d) Dotsoft
3. CDR has feature for providing facility for Combo plans, flexible tariff plans of Landline,
Broadbad and Mobile.
True/False
4. Which interface is used between E-10 B Exchange and Local Exchange Router ( LE-Router)?
(a) MTE
(b) CES
(c) E1
(d) STM-1
5. Which interface is used between C-Dot Exchange and Local Exchange Router ( LE-Router)?
(a) MTE
(b) CES
(c) E1
(d) STM-1
6. A CDR file contains MO No, MT No, Duration, Time, Rate.
True/ False
7. CCN node (Customer Care Node) is used for subscriber creation.
True/ False
8. GSM subscriber is created through HLR console .
True/ False
Explanation: It is created in CCN.

9. Subscriber profile contains Mobile number and services.
True/ False
10. GPRS billing is based on __________

(a) Time
(b) Volume of data download/upload
(c) Both Time &Volume
(d) None
11. Voice call billing is based on _____________

(a) Time
(b) Volume of data download/upload
(c) Both Time &Volume
(d) None
12. What is name of the package used for subscriber creation in BSNL.
(a)Kanan FX (b) Pyro
(c) Sanchasoft
(d) Min Set
13. MSC and other value added services (VAS) servers are connected to MSC router that is
available at each MSC location. MSC routers are, in turn, connected to Central Router at
_______ site through _______ links.
(a) BSC, E1
TXG
(b) B&CCS, E1 (c) Aggregation Router, STM-1
(d) None
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14. The Central Router acts as an __________ for all the links from the MSCs. The Central
Router is connected to LAN switch of the B&CCS network
(a) Aggregator
(b) Mediation Server
(c) LE
(d) Cloud
(c) LE
(d) Cloud
15. Duplicate check is carried out by which server?

(a) Aggregator
16. The in-roamers CDRs are also rated as per configuration & TAPOUT files are generated for
different roaming partners.
True/False
17. The out roamer CDRs pre rated at_______ are received as TAPIN files. Such
TAPOUT/TAPIN files are nothing but Invoices raised between roaming partners.
(a) HPLMN
(b) VPLMN (c) EF PLMN
(d) IR
18.__________ server is not directly associated with subscriber billing. It generates Bill / Invoice
for other who used our network.
(a) Aggregator (b) Mediation Server (c) ICB(Inter Connect Bill)
(d) Cloud
19. Each exchange is connected to a router, which is called LE router. All new technology
switches such as OCB, EWSD, 5ESS, AXE, shall be connected using_______ cards and
___________Interface.
(a) V.35, E1
(b) X.25, Ethernet
(c) G.703, Ethernet
(d) Patch, STM-1
20. Which server performs the following jobs: Collection, Filtering, Conversion, Aggregation
and Dumping?
(a) Aggregator
(c) LE
(d) Cloud
21. Arrange in chronicle order, the various Routers are connected up to Mediation server, starting
from LE Server:
(a) LE ServerAggregator serverEdge ServerBackbone Server
(b) LE ServerEdge Server Aggregator server --Backbone Server
(c) LE ServerEdge Server --Backbone Server Aggregator server
(d) LE ServerBackbone Server Aggregator server-- Edge Server
22. TAPOUT files are generated for In-Roamers while TAPIN files are for Out-Roamers.
True/False
23.Error CDR files are put into log file(Bad directory).
True/False
24.Converted files by Billing and ICB servers are stored in Dumpers for end use which is pushed
Billing Server(BP) which provides CDR files.
True/False
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25. What is/are the main role of B&CCS?

(a) provides a platform to effective and accurate billing, efficient customer care services and
support for decision making.
(b) Collect CDR, raises alarm when subscriber doesnt pay bill, it can initiate for sending SMS
(c) Restoration of services once the bill is paid
(d) All of these
26. IUC (Inter usage charges) calculation is done at ICB(Inter connect bill) server.
True/False
27. What is/are the main functions of Mediation Device:

(a) Collection of (Call Data Record- CDRs),
(b) Mediation of CDRs
Distribution of CDRs
(d) All of these
28. What is the schedule of full backup in Server of BSNL:
(a) Daily
(b) Weekly (c) monthly (d) Bimonthly
29. CDR of prepaid services is not stored in Dumpers, it is stored in Ware house for future use
along with Postpaid CDR files.
True/False
30. IDS (Intrusion & Detection system) keep a log of IP addresses those have entered into the
network.
True/False
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Chapter 14. HSDPA, LTE, LTE A

UMTS :
WCDMA:
HSDPA:
HSUPA:
LTE:
LTE-A :
WIMAX:
Universal Mobile Telecommunication System

Wireless Code division Multiple Access
HIGH SPEED DOWNLOAD PACKET ACCESS
HIGH SPEED UPLINK PACKET ACCESS
LONG TERM EVOLUTION
LTE-ADVANCED
WORLDWIDE INTEROPERABILITY FOR MICROWAVE ACCESS
1. HSDPA uses only QPSK Modulation.

Explanation: It is also uses 16 QAM in addition to QPSK Modulation
True / False
2. EUL is an alternative name given to HSUPA systems.

Explanation: It is used for high Uplink speed, its max uplink speed is 1.4 Mbps
True / False
3. For LTE what is true about downlink and uplink direction multiplexing:
(a) OFDM (Orthogonal Frequency-Division Multiplexing) technology for downlink and
SC-FDMA (Single carrier Frequency Division Multiplexing) for Uplink.
(b) SC-FDMA for downlink and OFDM for Uplink.
(c) OFDMA in both directions
(d) QPSK in Downlink and 16 QAM in uplink
4. LTE is generally Known as 4G technology.
True / False
5. What will be name of 5G Technology which will be launched in 2018 having 1 Gbps
download speed:
(a) RAT (Radio Access Technology)
(b) ALL in one
Theme Air
(d) Power G
6. Wi-MAX is based on 802.16 standard of IEEE.
True / False
7. WiMAX is the standard of IEEE 802 and is comparable to LTE / LTE-A of 3GPP.
True / False
8. Which are Beyond 3G (B3G) technologies & they are technologies capable of providing
mobile Broadband:
(a) WCDMA, HSDPA
(b) HSUPA, HSPA+,HSPA
LTE, LTE-A, WiMAX
(d) All of these
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9. WiMAX work on ________connectivity and its base station on the average can cover between
____________ km.
(a) MAN,5-10 Km
(b) LAN, 100to 200 m
WAN, thousands Km
(d) None
10. What is the carrier bandwidth used in LTE?
(a) 200 KHz
(d) 63 MHz
(c) 1.4 MHz to 20 MHz
(d) 100 MHz
11. What is the peak data rates in LTE-A:

(a) Download upto 1 Gbps, Upload upto 500 Mbps
(b) Download upto 100Mbps, Upload upto 10 Mbps
Download upto 14.2 Mbps, Upload upto 1.4 Mbps
(d) None
12. The main differences between WCDMA and second-generation air interfaces are
(a) Bit rate of 2Mbps (spectrum of up to 5 MHz)
(b) Variable bit rate
Bit error rate of 10^-6
13. What is the spectrum used in WCDMA?
(a) 1.25MHz (b) 5 MHz
125MHz
(d) 250 MHz
14. Which of this is supported for increasing capacity in WCDMA?

(a) Downlink diversity
(b)Uplink diversity
Both 1 & 2
15. TDMA is widely used in which of the following?
(a) second generation
(b)2.5 generation
GSM
16. If we sample the voice by a rate of 9.6 Kbps then if the spreading factor is 64.The bit rate
would be
(a) 1.2288Mcps
(b) 0.6144Mcps
2.4576Mcps
Explanation: 64*9.6
17. Medium access control and link access control are part of
(a) physical layer
(b) link layer
network layer
(d) abstract layer
18. Which type of Duplexing techniques is used in LTE?
(a) TDD
(b) FDD
(c) Both TDD & FDD
TXG
(d) OFDD
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CHAPTER. 15. Intelligent Network in Mobile communication

SSP: Service Switching Point
SCP: Service Control Point
SIB: Service Independent Building Blocks
SDF: Specialized database function
SRF: Specialized resource function
MIN: Mobile Intelligent Network
INAP: Intelligent Network Application part
CAMEL: Customized Application for Mobile Enhanced logic
CAP: CAMEL Application Part
STP : Signaling transfer point
1. The two forms of mobile intelligent technology in GSM networks among the following
(i) INAP, (ii) EDGE, (iii) CAMEL, (iv) SIP, (v) SS7, (vi) SCP
(a) (i) and (vi) only
(i) and (iii) only
(b) (iii) and (iv) only

(d) (ii) and (v) only
2. Intelligent network conceptual model (INCP) consists of layers

(i) service plane,
(ii) Global Functional plane,
(iii) distributed functional plane, and
(iv) physical plane.
From above which is true:
(a) Service independent building block is related to service plane
(b) Service independent building block is related to Global functional plane
(c) Service independent building block is related to distributed functional plane
(d) Service independent building block is related to physical plane.
3. A call in progress is cut off when its account balance reaches zero. In which phase of CAMEL
this feature is a drawback?
(a) camel phase-I
(b) camel phase-II
both a and b together
(d) none of the above.
4. The Value added applications capabilities deployment for mobile intelligent network depends
on which two factors below,
(a) Mobile to PSTN connectivity
(b) Mobile call processing technology and mobile registry server
(c) Mobile deployment technology and mobile switching network
(d) Mobile networking technology and mobile intelligent network.
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5. Specialized Resource Function SRF is a functional capability found in

(a) ADSL modem
(b) PSTN phone instrument
(c) Voice Response Unit (VRU)
(d) data card
6. From below statement which is /are true:
(i) The two primary forms of mobile IN technology employed in GSM networks are the
Intelligent Network Application Part (INAP) and Customized Applications for Mobile network
Enhanced Logic (CAMEL).
(ii) INAP is a technology developed for fixed networks. CAMEL was designed strictly for
mobile networks.
(iii) INAP and CAMEL are both based on the Intelligent Network Conceptual Model (INCM).
(a) (i) &(ii)
(c) All three statements are correct
(b) (i)& (iii)

(d) none of statements are correct
7. Match the following IN center from locations:

IN Zone
Location
P. North
I. Chandigarh
Q. West
II. Pune
R. East
III. Kolkata
S. South
IV. Trichy, Hyderabad, Coimbutore
(a) P-I, Q-II, R-III, S-IV
(a) P-III, Q-II, R-I,S-IV
(b) P-II, Q-I,R-III,S-IV

(d) P-I, Q-III,R-II,S-IV
8. For, MIN connectivity, every MSC has signaling(SSCP) with SCP of its respective Zonal
MIN.
True/False
9. Voice and data roaming was possible due to CAMEL-III implementation.
True/False
10. In BSNL International Roaming is allowed for Postpaid Customers only.
True/False
11. In CAMEL-II, VRU(Voice response Unit) plays prompt about account recharge and low
balance.
True/False
12. BSNL has CDMA 1X 2000 & EVDO network across the country. ZTE make IN platform
has been installed at three locations namely Baroda, Kolkata and Bangalore.
True/False
13. Calling party is the person who dials IN number, and called party is the person who answer
the IN call.
True/False
14.One of the major advances that result from implementing intelligent networks is that
(a) computers no longer have control over the network
(b) wide-area service outages are much less likely
(c) services can be adapted to user needs more efficiently
(d) service providers are now limited to a single equipment provider
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15. A service control point (SCP) is

(a) a switch that is controlled by the intelligent network
(b) a database for various IN services
(c) a series of triggers that initiate controller actions
(d) an instance in time at which the network selects a service to initiate
16. To say that a network is intelligent means that it is
(a) Able to make decisions on its own
(b) Controlled by software on distributed computers
(c) Able to bridge the gap between user and supplier needs
(d) Controlled by microchips that are easily interchanged
17. The major functions of the service switching point (SSP) are to
(a) provide network access
(b) perform necessary switching
(c) allow access to AIN capabilities
18. Which of this service feature allows the called party to automatically call back the calling
party of the last call directed to the called party?
(a) ACB
(b) CU
(c) AUTZ
19. Which of this service feature allows a VPN user to access his or her VPN from any non-VPN
station in the PSTN by using a Personal Identification Number (PIN).
(a) Off-Net Calling (ONC)
(b) Off-Net Access (OFA)
(c) Private Numbering Plan (PNP)
(d) Multiway Calling (MWC)
20. The call model consists of
(a) point in calls (PICs)
(b) detection points (DPs)
(c) triggers
21. The SCP is connected to SSPs by the
(a) E1R2
(b) CCS7
(c) V5.2
(d) CAS
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22. CAMEL is used to :

(a) provide a standard for mobile intelligence across varying vendor equipment for GSM
network.
(b) provide advanced services to roaming mobile users of different vendors.
(c) both a and b are applicable
(d) none of the above.
23. CAMEL Phase one and Phase two were deployed in the year
(a) 2000 and 2001 respectively
(b) 1996 and 1999 respectively
(c) 1997 and 1998 respectively.
(d) 1998 and 1999 respectively.
24. The specialty of CAMEL phase II is that
(a) VRU plays prompt about account recharge, low amount balance.
(b) VRU does not play any announcement during low amount balance
VRU plays noise on account balance reaching zero.
(d) VRU plays prompt about account recharge, highest amount balance.
25. The reasons for deploying mobile IN technologies are to
(a) provide value added capabilities for cost reduction, improved service delivery
(b) rapid service creation and deployment
both a and b above
TXG
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CHAPTER 16. SECURITY FEATUES IN CDMA/GSM&

LAWFUL INTERCEPTION SYSTEM
Dear Aspirants,
Before going through Question Answer section of this chapter, please read carefully important
precautionary guideline for all mobile Users which are very useful to you personally apart from
Exam also, you can also share these precautions to all Subscribers, family members, friends etc.
PRECAUTIONARY GUIDELINES FOR ALL MOBILE USERS:
1. Keep distance Hold the cell phone away from body to the extent possible.
2. Use a headset (wired or Bluetooth) to keep the handset away from your head.
3. Please avoid making calls if phone battery is about 30% or less, the recharge battery
before making calls because in low battery condition, MS has to send power signal with high
power Signal so that it may reach upto BTS.
4. Do not press the phone handset against your head. Because Radio Frequency (RF) energy is
inversely proportional to the square of the distance from the source -- being very close increases
energy absorption much more.
5. Limit the length of mobile calls, i.e. call duration should be as minimum as possible.
6. Avoid make calls where Radio signal is weak:If the radio signal is weak, a mobile phone
will increase its transmission power. Find a strong signal and avoid movement Use your phone
where reception is good.(Timing Advance)
7. Let the call connect before putting the handset on your ear or start speaking and
listening A mobile phone first makes the communication at higher power and then
reduces power to an adequate level. More power is radiated during call connecting time.
During call set up power level of MS is about power level of BTS- Antenna after call
mature, power level decreases upto 1/6 th times, and then not harmful for body.
8. If you have a choice, use a landline (wired) phone, not a mobile phone.
9. When your phone is ON, don't carry it in chest/breast or pants pocket. When a mobile phone is
ON, it automatically transmits at high power every one or two minutes to check (poll) the
network.
10.Reduce mobile phone use by children as a younger person will likely have a longer lifetime
exposure to radiation from cell phones.
11. People having active medical implants should preferably keep the cell phone at least 15 cm
away from the implant.
12. Use text as compared to voice wherever possible.
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The VLR controls the allocation of new Temporary Mobile Subscriber Identity (TMSI) and
notify them to HLR. The TMSI will be updated frequently; this makes it very difficult for the
call to be traced and therefore provides a high degree of security for the subscriber. True/False
1.
2. The TMSI may be updated in which of situations:

(a) Call setup
(b) On entry to a new LAI
(c) On entry to a new VLR (d) All of these
3. The generation of the Kc is based on the crypto graphical algorithms A8, and the Ki. A8 is
located on the SIM.
True/False
4. The _____will be removed from the message by the BTS before sending it on to the MS, so
that _____ will never be sent on the air. When the MS receives this message it will be send the
message cipher mode complete in the cipher mode using the calculated Kc stored on the SIM
card.
(a) Kc, Kc
(b) Kc, Ki
(c) Kc, RAND
(d) A8, Kc
5. The quantity used to measure the rate at which RF energy is actually absorbed in a body is
called the ____________. It is usually expressed in units of watts per kilogram (W/kg) or
milliwatts per gram (mW/g).
(a) Specific Absorption Rate or SAR
(b) Radio Effect
RF law
(d) None
6. Exposure to very high RF intensities can result in heating of biological tissue and an increase
in body temperature.
True/False
7. Two
areas of the body, the ________and the ___________testes, are particularly vulnerable to
RF heating because of the relative lack of available blood flow to dissipate the excess heat load.
(a) Eye, Testes
(b) Lung, Heart
(c) Head, Heart
(d) Eye, Breast
8. When was International Commission of Non Ionization Radiation Program (ICNIRP) issued
guidelines in Telecommunication sector regarding basic restrictions and reference levels for
limiting EMF exposure from BTS towers (Base Trans-receiver station) & SAR level of Mobile
Handsets. (a) 2000
(b) 2001
(c)2008
(d) 2015
9. DoT notified for implementation of revised SAR level for mobile handsets _______measured
over 1 gram of tissue effective from 1st Sept 2012
(a) 1.6 W/ kg (b) 2 W/Kg (c) 5 W/kg
(d) 1.6 KW/Kg
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10. Department of Telecommunication notified for seeking compliance to ______ level of

manufactured as well as imported Mobile Handsets to __________________. DoT also notified
to the Ministry of Finance, Department of Revenue for necessary action for compliance of
________________ guidelines.
(a) 2 W/Kg, ICNIRP
(b) 1.6W/Kg, ITU
(c) 3 W/Kg, TRAI
(d) None
11. Radio Frequency (RF) energy is inversely proportional to the ________ of the distance from
the source being very close increases energy absorption much more:
(a) Root
(b) Square (c) 1/10 th
(d) 1/3 th
Important Diagram related to Ciphering process (Keep in mind)
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PAPER- II.CM (CONSUMER MOBILITY)- OPTIONAL STREAM

CHAPTER 8. CDMA 2001 X & EVDO

6. What is the duplexing method used in CDMA WLL?

8. BSS (V5.0) can provide up to _______E1s to be connected with LE

13. What is correct about CDMA Technology?

(d) Upto 144 Kb/s

38. The bit rate of the PN code is called

54. EVDO full form is Evolution for data optimized

CHAPTER9. Wi-Fi & WiMAX

1. What is IEEE standard of Wi-Fi(a) 802.3

2. Is 802.a and 802.b compatible with each other?

3. Wi-Fi is primarily a __________ technology designed to provide in-building broadband

(d) IEEE 922.11

10. Which of these are the encryption techniques used in Wi-Fi?

19.What is the modulation technique used in Wi-Fi?

20. What is the access protocol used in Wi-Fi?

(c) Microwave Oven

(d) All of these

29. What is the full form of WPA?

(b) Wi-Fi Protected Access

(b) Wireless Fixed

31. Which of the802.11e standard operating modes is optional?

38. What is the radio technology used in WiMAX?

51. What is the spectrum used in Wi MAX for IEEE 802.16e ?

59. WiMAX is standardized by 3GPP.

60. Which handover is mandatory for WiMax Technology?

62. In India, BSNL is using which type of WiMAx certified products?

CHAPTER 10. MNP (Mobile Number Portability)

(d) European country

5. In which year, MNP was started in India:

(b) January 2011

(c) Oct 2013

(d) It was started since 1 Oct 2000 in BSNL

6. What is the time limit of porting out in J&K, Assam state?

9. What is the format for sending SMS for port out:

(d) Rs. 500

CHAPTERS11. NATIONAL/INTERNATIONAL ROAMING

CHAPTER 12.EARTHING AND POWER PLANT SYSTEM

1. The resistance of an earth electrode to earth is called

8. Power plant consists of

CHAPTER 13.CHARGING & BILLING IN GSM/CDMA

1. WSC full form is Web Self care.

7. CCN node (Customer Care Node) is used for subscriber creation.

8. GSM subscriber is created through HLR console .

Explanation: It is created in CCN.

10. GPRS billing is based on __________

(b) Volume of data download/upload

(c) Both Time &Volume

11. Voice call billing is based on _____________

(b) Volume of data download/upload

(c) Both Time &Volume

(b) B&CCS, E1 (c) Aggregation Router, STM-1

(b) Mediation Server

15. Duplicate check is carried out by which server?

(b) Mediation Server

(b) VPLMN (c) EF PLMN