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maxillary 2 molar?
A. Vertical
B. Mesial and Lingual
C. Mesial and Facial
D. Distal and Facial
E. Distal and Lingual
2) The superior joint cavity of the TMJ joint is bordered by:
A) Glenoid fossa ans the condyle.
B) Mandibular fossa and the superior surface of the disc.
C) Mandibluar fossa and the superior surface of the condyle.
D) Inferior surface of the disc and the superior of the condyle.
E) Superior surface of the disc and the superior surface of the condyle.
3) Which of the following statements best describes the "compensating occlusal
curvature?"
A) The line beginning at the tip of the canines and following the facial cusps of
posterior teeth, as viewed from the facial aspect.
B) The inclination of teeth in relation to the vertical long axis of the body.
C) Any prominent ridge of enamel immediately above the cervical line of the
crown of tooth.
D) A notably pointed or rounded eminence on or near the masticating surface of
tooth.
E) The spherical composite arrangement fo the occlusal surfaces and incisal edges
of the teeth in both dental arches.
4) The MOST convex incisal angle on anterior teeth is found on which angel of which
incisior?
A) Distoincisal -- Maxillary lateral
B) Distoincisal -- Mandibular lateral
C) Distoincisal -- Mandibular central
D) Mesioncisal -- Maxillary lateral
E) Mesioncisal -- Maxillary central
Anatomy
10) Which of the following represents a well-vascularized structure in the
temporomandibular joint?
A. Retrodiscal tissues
B. Fibrous covering of the condyle
C. Central portion of the articular disc
D. Fibrous covering of the articular eminence
E. Fibrous covering of the condylar surface
11) In hydrocephalus, excess cerebral spinal fluid is found within which of the following?
A. Ventricle
B. Subdural space
C. Cisterna magna
D. Subarachnoid space
E. Superior sagittal sinus
12) If a tooth is out of occlusion for an extended period of time, then the
A. PDL width decreases
B. Bone lining the alveolus thickens
C. Tooth always ankyloses to the alveolus
D. PDL fiber bundles reverse their orientation
E. Tooth hypererupts as a result of increased dentin production
13) Which of the following is located extracellularly?
A. Lysosomes
B. Microtubules
C. Tonofibril
D. Glycocalyx
E. Keratohyalin granules
14) In erythropoiesis, which of the following increases from the proerythroblast to the
mature erythrocyte?
A. Cell size
B. Phagocytic ability
C. Cytoplasmic acidophilia
D. Cytoplasmic basophilia
Dental Anatomy
15) Which of the following anatomic factors will restrict the amount of lateral shift that
can occur on a working condyle?
A. Medial wall of the articular fossa on the working side
B. Superior wall of the articular fossa on the non-working side
C. Capsular ligaments
D. Stylohyoid ligament
E. Stylomandibular ligament
16) A patient has an extremely wide, notched tooth in the mandibular left central incisor
position. Clinical and radiographic examinations reveal 28 teeth have erupted, but four
third molars have not erupted. Which of the following conditions exists?
A. Fusion
B. Dens in dente
C. Concrescence
D. Dilaceration
E. Gemination
Micro & Path
17) Which of the following statements describes an example of innate immunity?
A. An allergic reaction to insect venom
B. The classical pathway of complement
C. The destruction of virus-infected cells by T-killer cells
D. The production of IgG in response to insect venom
E. The alternative pathway of complement
18) The epidemic of HIV-related disease bears major responsibility for the resurgence of
which respiratory pathogen?
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Hemophilus infuenzae
C. Streptococcus pyogenes
D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
E. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
19) Which of the folliwng represents a risk factor for the development of endometrial
carcinoma?
A. HPV infection
B. Endometriosis
C. Multiple leiomyomas
D. Multiple pregnancies
E. Hyperestrogenism
20) Which of the following types of bronchogenic carcinoma is MOST commonly
associated with paraneoplastic syndrome?
A. Small cell
B. Large cell
C. Mesothelioma
D. Squamous cell
E. Adenocarcinoma
21) Each of the following statements about lymphocyte activation is correct EXCEPT
one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?
A. Interelukin 5 is a B cell growth and differentiation factor.
B. Interleukin 2 stimulates proliferation of T and B lymphocytes.
C. B lymphocytes recognize antigen on the surface of antigen presenting cells in
the context of HLA-D molecules
D. T lymphocytes recognize antigen on the surface of antigen presenting cells in
the context of HLA-B molecules.
22) In essential hypertension, which of the following represents the classic autopsy
finding in the kindney?
A. Pyelonephritis
B. Glomerulonephritis
C. Benign nephrosclerosis
D. Renal artery stenosis
E. Renal infraction
23) Aspiration of food can result in each of the following conditions EXCEPT one.
Which one is this EXCEPTION?
A. Pneumonia
B. Pneumothorax
C. Lung abscess
D. Atelectasis
E. Asphyxiation
24) Each of the following is a type of inflammatory exudates EXCEPT one. Which one is
the EXCEPTION?
A. Serous
B. Fibrous
C. Purulent
D. Fibrinous
E. Pseudomembranous
Biochem
25) The main route of calcium excretion from a normal human adult is
A. urine.
B. Sweat
C. Saliva
D. Feces
E. Tears
26) Atropine prevents the secration of saliva resulting from stimulation of the chorda
tympani because it
A. denatures the salivary gland proteins.
B. Prevents the action of acetylcholine on the secreting cells
C. Prevents release of acetylcholine by parasympathetic postganglionic fibers
D. Prevents release of acetylcholine by sympathetic postganglionic fibers
E. Prevents release of acetylchonie in autonomic ganglia
27) An analysis of an EKG shows P-waves occurring in the S-T segment. This would
indicate ectopic beats originating in the
A. atria
B. A-V node
C. Lower portion of the bundle of His
D. Upper portion of the bundle of His
28) Which of the following enzymes synthesizes polynucleotide chains from nucleotides
and does NOT required a primer chain?
A. Ligase
B. Exonuclease
C. Endonuclease
D. DNA polymerase
E. RNA polymerase
29) Which of the following types of blotting can be used to identify DNA restriction
fragments?
A. Eastern
B. Southern
C. Northern
D. Western
30) Which of the following is a nucleotide?
A. Urate
B. Uracil
C. Ribose
D. Adenosine
E. Thymidylate
31) Which of the following enzymes seals nicks in DNA?
A. Ligase
B. Exonuclease
C. Endonuclease
D. DNA polymerase
E. RNA polymerase
32) Each of the following coenzymes is a component of the pyruvate dehydrogenase
complex EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?
A. NAD
B. Biotin
C. Coenzyme A
D. Lipoic acid
E. Thiamine pyrophosphate
33) The cell membrane is LEAST permeable to which of the following substances?
A. O2
B. CO2
C. H2O
D. Sodium
E. Ethanol
34) How many nucleotides are needed to code for protein with 150 amino acids?
A. 50
B. 150
C. 300
D. 450
E. 600
b. Hyanline
c. Periostium
d. Collagenous tissue
69] What syndrome is characterized by, increased succeptibility to infection, retinal
something?
A. Gardner sydrome
B. Hypothyrodism
C. Hypopitutaryism
D. Hyperthyrodism....
70] What characterizes Albers-Jeheurs syndrome?
71] Primate space in lower is between?
72] Derivatives of phrayngeal arch concerned to tongue
73] Mesiobuccal cusp of max molar occludes where?
74] If post crossbite which cusps would contact in mediotusive movement.?