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ASAT

(ALLEN Scholarship Cum Admission Test)

(ACADEMIC SESSION 2015-16)

NURTURE COURSE
(FOR X to XI MOVING STUDENTS)

Corporate Office
ALLEN CAREER INSTITUTE
SANKALP, CP-6, Indra Vihar, Kota (Rajasthan)-324005
+91-744-2436001

info@allen.ac.in

www.allen.ac.in

INSTRUCTIONS (funs Z'k )

Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.
i;k bu funs Z' kks a dks /;ku ls i<+ s aA vkidks 5 feuV fo'ks "k :i ls bl dke ds fy, fn;s x;s gSa A
Things NOT ALLOWED in EXAM HALL : Blank Paper, clipboard, log table, slide rule, calculator, camera, mobile and any electronic or
electrical gadget. If you are carrying any of these then keep them at a place specified by invigilator at your own risk
ijh{kk d{k es a oLrq ys tkus dh vuq e fr ugha gSa : dksjs dkxt] fDyi cksMZ] ykWx rkfydk] LykbM :y] dSYdqyVs j] dSejk] lsyQksu] vkSj fdlh Hkh izdkj

ds bysDVkWfud midj.kA vki buesa ls fdlh Hkh oLrq dks ys tk jgs gSa rks vkids vius tksf[ke ij fujh{kd }kjk fufnZ"V LFkku ij j[kus ds fy, mUgsa nhft;sA
1. This booklet is your Question Paper. DO NOT break seal of
Booklet until the invigilator instructs to do so.
2. Fill your Form No. in the space provided on the top of this page.
3. The Answer Sheet is provided to you separately which is a
machine readable Optical Response Sheet (ORS). You have to
mark your answers in the ORS by darkening bubble, as per
your answer choice, by using black & blue ball point pen.
4. Total Questions to be Attempted 80. Part-I : 20 Questions
& Part-II : 60 Questions.
5. After breaking the Question Paper seal, check the following :
a. There are 25 pages in the booklet containing question
no. 1 to 100 under 2 Parts i.e. Part-I & Part-II.
b. Part-I contains total 20 questions of IQ (Mental Ability).
c. Part-II contains total 80 questions under 4 sections
which are-Section (A) : Physics, Section (B): Chemistry,
Section (C): Mathematics* & Section (D): Biology*.
*Important: You have to attempt ANY ONE SECTION only
out of Section(C): Mathematics and Section (D) : Biology.
DO NOT attempt both sections.
6. Marking Scheme :
a. If darkened bubble is RIGHT answer : 4 Marks.
b. If no bubble is darkened in any question: No Mark.
c. Only for part - II : If darkened bubble is WRONG answer:
-1 Mark (Minus One Mark).
7. Think wisely before darkening bubble as there is negative
marking for wrong answer.
8. If you are found involved in cheating or disturbing others
then your ORS will be cancelled.
9. Do not put any stain on ORS and hand it over back properly
to the invigilator.

1. ;g iqfLrdk vkidk iz'u&i= gSA bldh eqgj rc rd u rksM+s tc rd

fujh{kd ds }kjk bldk funZ's k u fn;k tk;sA

2. ist ds ijh fgLls ij fn;s x;s LFkku ij viuk QkWeZ uaEcj Hkfj;sA
3. mkj i=] ,d ;a=&Js.khdj.k ;ksX; i= (ORS) gS tks fd vyx ls fn;s

tk;saxsA vkidks viuk mkj ORS mkj iqfLrdk esa dkys o uhys ckWy
ikbUV dye ls mfpr xksys dks xgjk djds nsuk gAS
4. dqy 80 iz'u gy djus gSaA Hkkx -I : 20 iz'u o Hkkx -II : 60 iz'u.
5. bl iqfLrdk dh eqgj rksM+us ds i'pkr d`i;k tkp ysa fd :
a. iqfLrdk esa 25 i` " B gSaA iz'u la[;k 1 ls 100 esa 2 Hkkx gSa] Hkkx-I o
Hkkx-II
b. Hkkx-I esa dqy 20 iz'u IQ (ekufld ;ksX;rk) ds gSaA
c. Hkkx-II ds dqy 80 iz'u 4 [k.Mksa esa gSA ftlesa [k.M (A) : HkkSf rdh,
[k.M (B): jlk;u, [k.M (C): xf.kr * o [k.M (D) : tho foKku* gAS
*egRoiw . kZ : [k.M (C): xf.kr rFkk [k.M (D) : tho foKku es a

6.

7.
8.
9.

ls fdlh ,d [k.M dk p;u djuk gSA


nksuks a [k.Mksa dks gy ugha djs aA
vad u ;kst uk :
a. lgh mkj okys cqycqys dks dkyk djus ij : 4 va d
b. dksbZ Hkh cqycqyk dkyk ugha djus ij : dks bZ vad ugha
c. ds o y [k.M- II ds fy, : xyr mkj okys cqycqys dks dkyk djus
ij -1 va d (.kkRed ,d va d).
cqycqyk dkyk djus ls igys Bhd izdkj ls tkap ysa ] xyr mkj ij
.kkRed vad gSA
;fn vki udy vFkok ckrsa djrs gq, ik;s x;s rks ORS dks fujLr dj
fn;k tk;sxkA
ORS ij fdlh Hkh izdkj dk nkx /kCck ugha yxk;sa o lgh rjhds ls
fujh{kd dks lksasiAs

Sample question for ASAT : Nurture Course

PART - I
IQ (MENTAL ABILITY)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.
bl [k.M eas 20 cgqfodYi iz'u gSA izR;sd iz'u esa pkj fodYi (1), (2), (3) vkjS (4) gaS ftuesa ls dso y ,d lgh gAS
fn;s x;s iz'u esa ,d la[;k J`a[kyk nh x;h gS ftldk ,d
1.
In the following question, a number series is 1.

2.

given with one term missing. Choose the

in xk;c gAS fn;s x;s fodYiksa esa ls lgh fodYi dk pquko

correct alternative that will continue the same

dhft;sA

pattern and replace the question mark in the

9, 27, 31, 155, 161, 1127, ?

given series.

(1) 316

9, 27, 31, 155, 161, 1127, ?

(2) 1135

(1) 316

(2) 1135

(3) 1288

(3) 1288

(4) 2254

(4) 2254

A clock is set to show the correct time at 11

2.

a.m. The clock gains 12 minutes in 12 hours.

og lgh le; n'kkZrh gAS ;g ?kM+h 12 ?kUVksa esa 12 feuV vkxs

What will be the true time when the clock

gks tkrh gAS rks NBsa fnu tc ?kM+h 1 p.m. dk le; n'kkZ jgh

th

3.

,d ?kM+h dks bl izdkj fu/kkZfjr fd;k x;k fd 11 a.m. ij

indicates 1 p.m. on the 6 day?

gS rks ml oDr lgh le; D;k gksxk ?

(1) 10 a.m.

(2) 11 a.m.

(1) 10 a.m.

(2) 11 a.m.

(3) 12 noon

(4) None of these

(3) 12 noon

(4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

Which day can be the first day and last day of


any century?
(1) Monday

(2) Tuesday

(3) Friday

(4) Wednesday

Direction (Q.4 & Q.5) The following questions


are based on the diagram given below. In the
diagram, circle represents tall children, the
square represents obese children, rectangle
represents the energetic children and the
triangle represents girl children. Study the
diagram and answer the questions that follow.

3.

dkSulk fnu fdlh Hkh 'krkCnh o"kZ dk izFke vkjS vfUre fnu
gks ldrk gS ?
(1) lkseokj
(3) 'kqokj

(2) eaxyokj
(4) cq/kokj

funsZ ' k (Q.4 & Q.5) fuEufyf[kr iz'u fn;s x;s fp= ij
vk/kkfjr gaSA fp= esa o`k yEcs cPpksa dks n'kkZrk g]S oxZ eksVs
cPpksa dks n'kkZrk g]S vk;r deZB cPpksa dks n'kkZrk gS vkjS f=Hkqt
cfPp;ksa dks n'kkZrk gAS fn;s x;s fp= dk v/;;u djsa vkSj
fuEu iz'uksa ds lgh mkj nsaA
Energetic

Energetic

Girls

Girls

8
9

11
10

Obese
14

3
12

5
2 1 6
13

11

Tall

15

Tall

15

10

Obese
14

4
3
12

5
2 1 6
13

1/25

Sample question for ASAT : Nurture Course


4.

Which areas represent energetic children who

4.

are not obese ?

5.

gSA

(1) 1, 13 and 15

(2) 13 and 15

(1) 1, 13 rFkk 15

(2) 13 rFkk 15

(3) 1, 11 and 15

(4) 6, 13 and 15

(3) 1, 11 rFkk 15

(4) 6, 13 rFkk 15

Which of the following areas represent obese and

5.

cfPp;k gaS vkjS uk gh yEcs gaS ?

(1) 2 and 12

(2) 3 and 10

(1) 2 rFkk 12

(2) 3 rFkk 10

(3) 2 and 3

(4) 11 and 12

(3) 2 rFkk 3

(4) 11 rFkk 12

Direction (Q.6 & Q.7): P, Q, R, S, T, V and

funsZ ' k (Q.6 ,oa Q.7): P, Q, R, S, T, V vkjS W rhu

W are travelling in three different vehicles.

vyx&vyx okguksa ls ;k=k dj jgs gAS izR;sd okgu I, II

There are at least two passengers in each

vkjS III esa de ls de nks ;k=h gaS vkjS muesa ls dsoy ,d

vehicle I, II & III and only one of them is a male.

iq:"k ;k=h gSA ;kf=;ksa esa 2 bUthfu;lZ] 2 MkWDVj rFkk

There are two engineers, two doctors and three

3 v/;kid gaSA

teachers among them.

(i) R ,d efgyk MkWDVj gS tks fd nks cguksa, P rFkk V ds

lkFk ;k=k ugha djrh gAS


(ii) Q ,d iq:"k bUthfu;j gS tks fd dsoy W ds lkFk ;k=k

with the pair of sisters, P and V

djrk gS tks fd ,d v/;kid gS vkSj okgu I esa gAS

(ii) Q, a male engineer, travels with only W, a

(iii) S ,d iq:"k MkWDVj gAS

teacher in vehicle I.

(iv) nks O;fDr tks fd ,d gh is'ks esa gaS ,d gh okgu esa ;k=k

(iii) S is a male doctor.

ugha djrs gAS

(iv) Two persons belonging to the same

(v) P bUthfu;j ugha gS vk Sj okgu II esa ;k=k djrk

profession do not travel in the same vehicle.

gSA

(v) P is not an engineer and travels in vehicle II

7.

Which of the following is not correct?

6.

fuEu esa dkuS lk lR; ugha g?S

(1) T-Male Teacher

(1) T-iq:"k v/;kid

(2) Q-Male Engineer

(2) Q-iq:"k bUthfu;j

(3) W-Female Teacher

(3) W-efgyk v/;kid

(4) V-Female Teacher

(4) V-efgyk v/;kid

How many lady members are there among


them?
(1) Three
(2) Four

2/25

dkSulk {ks= eksVs vkSj deZB cPpksa dks n'kkZrk g]S tks fd uk rks

energetic children, who are neither girls nor tall ?

(i) R is a lady doctor and she does not travel

6.

dk Su lk {ks = deZ B cPpks a dks n'kkZ rk g S tks eks V s ugha

7.

;kf=;ksa ds lewg esa fdruh efgyk lnL; gaS ?


(1) rhu
(2) pkj

(3) Three or Four

(3) rhu vkjS pkj

(4) Data inadequate

(4) vkadM+as vi;kZIr

Sample question for ASAT : Nurture Course


Direction (Q.8 & Q.9) : In a certain code language if
pit na sa means you are welcome
na ho pa la means They are very good
ka da la means who is good
od ho pit la means they welcome good
people
8.

9.

10.

Which of the following means people in that


code language?
(1) ho

(2) pit

(3) la

(4) od

8.

funsZ ' k (Q.8 ,oa Q.9) : ,d [kkl dwV Hkk"kk esa] ;fn
pit na sa vFkkZr~ vkidk Lokxr gaS
na ho pa la vFkkZr~ os cgqr vPNs gaS
ka da la vFkkZr~ dkSu vPNk gaS
od ho pit la vFkkZr~ os vPNs yksxksa dk Lokxr djrs
gaS
fuEu es a ls fdl dk vFkZ dw V Hkk"kk es a yks x
gS ?
(1) ho
(3) la

Which of the following means very in that


code language?

9.

(2) pit
(4) od

fuEu es a ls fdl dk vFkZ dw V Hkk"kk es a cgq r


gS ?

(1) na

(2) da

(1) na

(2) da

(3) pa

(4) data inadequate

(3) pa

(4) vkdM+s vi;kZIr

A watch, which gains uniformly, is 2 min, slow

,d ?kM+h tks ,d lh xfr ls vkxs py jgh g]S jfookj nksigj


dks 2 min /khes Fkh vkSj vkus okys jfookj dks 2 PM ij
fast at 2 PM on the following Sunday. When
4 min 48 ld
S .M vkxs py jgh Fkh rks ;g fdl le; ij
was it correct ?
lgh Fkh ?
(1) 2 : 00 PM on Tuesday
(1) eaxyokj dks 2 : 00 PM ij
(2) lkseokj dks nksigj 12 ij
(2) 12 Noon on Monday
(3)
eaxyokj dks 2 : 00 AM ij
(3) 2 : 00 AM on Tuesday
(4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
(4) None of these
11. The following question consists of a set of three 11. fn;s x;s iz'u esa X, Y vkjS Z rhu fp= gaS] tks fd ,d dkxt
figures X, Y and Z showing a sequence of
ds VqdM+ksa dks eksM+us dh Ja`[kyk dks n'kkZrs gaAS fp= (Z) eksM+s
folding of a piece of paper. Fig (Z) shows the
x;s dkxt dks dkVus dk rjhdk n'kkZrk gAS bu rhu iz'u fp=ksa
manner in which the folded paper has been cut.
ds lkFk pkj mkj fp= fn;s x;s gaS ftuesa ls vkidks ml lgh
These three figures are followed by four answer
fp= dk pquko djuk g]S tks fd fp= (Z) okys eqM+s dkxt
figures from which you have to choose a figure
dks ;fn okil Qy
S k fn;k tk;s] ds leku gksA
which would most closely resemble the
10.

at noon on Sunday, and is 4 min 48 seconds

unfolded form of fig. (Z).

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
3/25

Sample question for ASAT : Nurture Course


12.

In a coded language:
= 10,

= 8,

= 10,

= 20,

= 35,

= 20,

= 35,

rc

(1) 2

(2) 4

(3) 7

(4) 5

Pointing out to a lady, a girl said She is the


daughter-in-law of the grand mother of my fathers

13.

(1) Sister-in-law
(2) Mother
(3) Aunt

15.

(4) Cousin
There are two circular concentric rings, with
26 sectors on each ring marked A to Z.
Sectors on outer and inner circles match in a
perfect size fit. Whereas the outer ring contains
the sectors marked clockwise, the inner ring has
sectors marked anticlockwise, such that sectors
marked A on both the circles are coinciding at
present, B on the outer circle coincides with Z
on the inner circle and so on. If the outer circle
is rotated clockwise by two sectors from the
original position, how many alphabets will
coincide on both the circles ?
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) None of these
Direction : In the given question a dots are placed
in the figure marked as (X), this figure is followed
by four alternatives marked as (1), (2), (3) and (4).
One out of these four options contains the common
region to circle, squares triangle similar to that of
marked by dot in figure (X). Select that option.

(1)

14.

(2) 4
(4) 5

,d efgyk dh vksj b'kkjk djrs gq;s ,d yM+dh dgrh gS fd


og esjs firk ds bdykSrs iq= dh nknh dh iq= o/kq gSA ml
efgyk dk yM+dh ds lkFk D;k fj'rk gS ?
(1) uun
(2) ekrk
(3) pkph
(4) HkkbZ ;k cgu
nks ladsUh o`kkdkj xksys gaS tks fd izR;sd xksys ij 26 txg
A ls Z vafdr gAS izR;sd xksys ds lHkh Hkkx ck vkSj
vkUrfjd xksys ls ,d ne lgh lgh vkdkj esa lgh cBS rs gaSA
tcfd ck xksys esa lHkh Hkkx] cka;as ls nka;sa vkSj vkUrfjd
xksys esa nka;sa ls cka;s bl izdkj vafdr gaS fd xksyksa dk og Hkkx
tks A }kjk vafdr gaS orZeku esa ,d lkFk iM+sa ga]S vkjS B ck
xksys dk vkSj Z vkUrfjd xksys dk ,d lkFk iM+sa gaAS
;fn ck xksys dks viuh okLrfod voLFkk ls ?kM+h dh lqbZ
dh fn'kk esa nks Hkkx ?kqek;k x;k gaS rks nksuksa o`kksa ds fdrus v{kj
,d lkFk iM+xs as ?
(1) 1
(3) 3

15.

(2) 2
(4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

funs Z' k % fn;s x;s iz'u esa fp= (X) fcUnqvksa }kjk vafdr gS
blds lkFk pkj od
S fYid fp= (1), (2), (3) vkjS (4) fn;s
x;s gaSA fn;s x;s fodYiksa esa ls ,d fp= esa o`r] oxZ rFkk
f=Hkqt dk mHk;fu"B {ks= Bhd mlh izdkj ls iznf'kZr gS tl
S k
fd fp= (X) esa fcUnqvksa }kjk fpfUgr gAS og fodYi pqfu;s

(X)

(X)

4/25

(1) 2
(3) 7

only son How is the lady related to the girl ?

14.

,d dwV Hkk"kk esa :

= 8,

Then

13.

12.

(2)

(3)

(4)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Sample question for ASAT : Nurture Course


16.

17.

Find the minimum cuts required to divide a


cube in 125 cubes ?
(1) 8
(2) 10
(3) 12
(4) 15

16.

Is country X's GDP higher than country Y's

17.

,d ?ku dks 125 ?kuksa esa ckaVus ds fy;s U;wure fdruh ckj
dkVuk iM+sxk ?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

GDP ?

D;k ns'k X's dh dqy ?kjsyw vk; ns'k Y's dh dqy ?kjsyw vk;
ls T;knk gS ?

(A) GDP's of the countries X and Y have grown

(A) ns'k X rFkk Y dh dqy ?kjsyw vk; fiNys ikap o"kksZ

over the past 5 years at compounded annual

esa e'k% 5% rFkk 6% ds po`f nj ls c<+h gaSA

rate of 5% and 6% respectively.

(B) ikap o"kZ igys ns'k X dh dqy ?kjsyw vk; ns'k Y ls T;knk FkhA

(B) 5 years ago, GDP of country X was higher


than that of country Y.

(1) ;fn iz'u dk mkj nksuksa esa ls ,d gh dFku }kjk fn;k tkuk

(1) If the question can be answered by one of

gAS nwljs ls ughaA

the statements alone and not by the other.

(2) ;fn iz'u dk mkj fdlh Hkh ,d dFku }kjk fn;k tkuk gAS

(2) If the question can be answered by using


either statement alone

(3) ;fn iz'u dk mkj nksuksa dFkuksa dk iz;ksx dj fn;k tk ldrk

(3) If the question can be answered by using

gks ysfdu fdlh Hkh ,d dFku ds }kjk ugha fn;k tk


ldrkA

both the statements together, but cannot be


answered by using either statements alone.

(4) ;fn iz'u dk mkj nksuksa dFkuksa dk iz;ksx djds Hkh ugha

(4) If the question cannot be answered even by

fn;k tk ldrk

using both the statements together.


18.

8
10
12
15

different letters in the problem below, so that

fn;s x;s iz'u esa izR;sd v{kj dh txg vad (0, 1, 2.....,9)
izfrLFkkfir dhft;s] rkfd le:ih tksM+ lgh gksA rFkk

the corresponding addition is correct and it

ifj.kkeLo:i MONEY dk vf/kdre lEHkkfor eku

results in the maximum possible value of

gksA

Substitute different digits (0, 1, 2.....,9) for

18.

MONEY.

ifj.kkeLo:i 'MONEY' dk eku gksxk


(1) 10364
The resulting value of 'MONEY' is

(2) 10563

(1) 10364

(2) 10563

(3) 10978

(3) 10978

(4) None of these

(4) dksbZ ugha

5/25

Sample question for ASAT : Nurture Course


19.

Following question has a set of four statements.

19.

Each statement has three segments. Choose the


alternative where the third segment in the

rhu Hkkx gSaA og fodYi pqfu;s ftlesa fd dFku dk rhljk


Hkkx rdZlxa r gks ftlesa igys nksuksa Hkkxksa dk iz;ksx fd;k x;k

statement can be logically deduced using both

gks ysfdu dsoy ,d Hkkx dk ughaA

the preceding two but not just from one of them.

(A) Mk;uklksj iwoZ ,frgkfld jpuk gAS leqh Hkl


Sa Mk;uklksj

(A) Dinosaurs are pre-historic creatures. Water-

ugha gAS leqh HkaSl iwoZ ,frgkfld jpuk ugha gAS

buffaloes are not dinosaurs. Water buffaloes

(B) lHkh jktufS rK [kqys fny okys gAaS dksbZ Hkh [kqys fnu okyk

are not pre-historic creatures.

exjePN ugha gSA dksbZ Hkh exjePN jktuSfrK ugha

(B) All politicians are frank. No frank people

gSA

are crocodiles. No crocodiles are

(C) dksbZ ghjk LQqfVd ugha gAS dksbZ Hkh nwf/k;k iRFkj LQqfVd

politicians.

ugha gAS ghjs nwf/k;k iRFkj gaAS

(C) No diamond is quartz. No opal is quartz.


Diamonds are opals.

(D) lHkh cUnj dsys ds leku gaSA dqN GI Joes dsys ds

(D) All monkeys like bananas. Some GI Joes

leku gaAS dqN GI Joes cUnj gaAS

like bananas. Some GI Joes are monkeys.

(1) dsoy C

(1) C only

(2) dsoy B

(2) B only

20.

6/25

fuEufyf[kr iz'u pkj dFkuksa dk lewg gSA izR;sd dFku ds

(3) A and D

(3) A rFkk D

(4) B and C

(4) B rFkk C

Mr. Raghav went in his car to meet his friend

20.

fe- jk?ko viuh dkj ls vius nksLr tkWu ls feyus x;sA igys

John. He drove 30 km towards north and then

mUgksuas 30 km mkj dh vksj fQj 40 km if'pe dh vksj dkj

40 km towards west. He then turned to south and

pykbZ] rRi'pkr~ dkj nf{k.k fn'kk esa eksMh+ vkjS 8 km pykbZ

covered 8 km. Further he turned to east and moved

fQj dkj iwoZ fn'kk esa eksM+h vkSj 26 km pykbZA vUr esa dkj

26 km. Finally he turned right and drove 10 km and

dks nk;ha vksj eksM+k vkSj 10 km ys x;k vkjS fQj cka;h vkjS

then turned left to travel 19 km. How far and in

eksM+k vksj 19 km ys x;kA vc og viuh izkjfEHkd fLFkfr ls

which direction is he from the starting point?

fdruh nwj rFkk fdl fn'kk esa gAS

(1) East of starting point, 5 km

(1) izkjfEHkd fLFkfr ds iwoZ, 5 km

(2) East of starting point, 13 km

(2) izkjfEHkd fLFkfr ds iwoZ, 13 km

(3) North-East of starting point, 13 km

(3) izkjfEHkd fLFkfr ds mkj iwoZ, 13 km

(4) North-East of starting point, 5 km

(4) izkjfEHkd fLFkfr ds mkj iwoZ, 5 km

Sample question for ASAT : Nurture Course

PART-II
SECTION-A : PHYSICS
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.

bl [k.M eas 20 cgqfodYi iz'u gSA izR;sd iz'u esa pkj fodYi (1), (2), (3) vkjS (4) gaS ftuesa ls dso y ,d lgh gAS
21. All the bulbs below are identical. Which bulb(s) 21. uhps fn[kk;s x;s cYc ,d leku gks rks dkuS lk cYc T;knk
light(s) most brightly ?
jks'kuh nsxh ?
1

22.

23.

What is the total resistance, between A and B


in the circuit shown in the given figure.

22.

(1) ds oy 1

(2) ds oy 2

(3) 3 and 4

(4) 1 and 5

,d rkez vkSj tesZfu;e ds VqdM+ksa dks lkekU; rki ls 80 K


rd B.Mk fd;k tkrk g]S rks izfrjks/k
(1) nksuksa dk c<+sxk
(2) nksuksa dk ?kVsxk
(3) rkez dk c<+sxk] tesZfu;e dk ?kVsxkA
(4) rkez dk ?kVsxk] tesZfu;e dk c<sxkA

23.

fn;s x;s fp= esa A vkjS B ds chp dqy izfrjks/k gS


(1) 4 W

(1) 4 W

(2) 5 W

(2) 5 W

24.

4
2

(1) 1 only
(2) 2 only
(3) 3 and 4
(4) 1 and 5
A piece of copper and another of germanium
are cooled from room temperature to 80 K. The
resistance of
(1) Each of them increases
(2) Each of them decreases
(3) Copper increases and that of germanium
decreases
(4) Copper decreases and that of germanium
increases

(3) 2 W

(3) 2 W

(4) 9 W

(4) 9 W

(1) to your left

,d rkj dks ?kqM+uky pqEcd ds /kzqoksa ds e/; /okZ/kj :i


ls bl izdkj j[kk x;k gS fd mkjh /kzqo vkids cka;h vkSj o
nf{k.kh /kzqo nka;h vksj gAS blesa fn"V (DC) /kkjk ij dh
vksj cg jgh gS rks bl ij yxus okys cy ds dkj.k ;g fuEu
rjg ls fo{ksfir gksxkA
(1) vkids cka;h vksj

(2) to your right

(2) vkids nka;h vksj

(3) away from you

(3) vkils nwj dh vksj

A wire is placed vertically between the poles


of a horse-shoe magnet, such that the north pole
is to your left and south pole is to your right.
It carries a direct current flowing upwards then
it will experience a force tending to deflect it

(4) towards you

24.

(4) vkidh vksj

7/25

Sample question for ASAT : Nurture Course

26.

27.

fLop pkyq djus rFkk cUn djus ij e'k% A rFkk B ds


e/; rqY; izfrjks/k dk vuqikr gksxkA

3
8

(2)

5
8

(1)

3
8

(2)

5
8

(3)

7
8

(4)

9
8

(3)

7
8

(4)

9
8

A charged particle moves through a region of


magnetic field pointing in the direction
perpendicular to its direction of velocity. Then
during its subsequent motion,
(1) Its momentum changes but the kinetic
energy remains constant.
(2) Its momentum and kinetic energy both
changes.
(3) Its momentum and kinetic energy both
remains constant.
(4) Its kinetic energy changes but the
momentum remains constant.
A body starts performing uniform circular
motion such that it covers 100 rounds per min.
Then the minimum time after which its average
velocity will be zero is
(1) 0.5 s
(2) 0.6 s
(3) 0.7 s
(4) 0.8 s
For a body of 50 kg mass, the velocity-time
graph is shown in figure. Then force acting on
the body is

26.

,d vkosf'kr d.k ,d pqEcdh; {ks= ls xqtjrk gS tks fd blds


osx dh fn'kk ds yEcor~ fn'kk esa gAS rc bldh xfr ds
nkjS ku &
(1) laosx ifjorr gksxk ijUrq xfrt tkZ vifjorr

jgsx hA
(2) laosx ,oa xfrt tkZ nksuksa ifjorr gksxhA
(3) laoxs ,oa xfrt tkZ nksuksa fu;r gksxhA
(4) bldh xfrt tkZ ifjorr gksxh ysfdu laox
s fu;r

jgsxkA
27.

28.

,d d.k o`kkdkj iFk esa xfr djuk vkjEHk djrk gS ,oa izfr
feuV 100 pDdj yxkrk gAS Kkr dhft;s og de ls de
le; ftlesa vkl
S r osx 'kwU ; gksxk
(1) 0.5 s

(2) 0.6 s

(3) 0.7 s

(4) 0.8 s

,d oLrq] ftldk O;eku 50 kg g]S dk osx & le; xzkQ


fn;k x;k gAS oLrq ij yx jgk cy gksxkA

0.5

0.5
1

8/25

25.

(1)

Velocity (m/s)

28.

The ratio of equivalent resistance across A and


B when switch is open to that when switch is
closed is

Velocity (m/s)

25.

t(s)

t(s)

(1) 25 N

(2) 50 N

(1) 25 N

(2) 50 N

(3) 12.5 N

(4) 100 N

(3) 12.5 N

(4) 100 N

Sample question for ASAT : Nurture Course


29.

30.

31.

Superconductors are materials that appear to


exhibit no resistance. Therefore, electrons
passing through a superconductor will
(1) generate no current
(2) generate no heat
(3) increase the currents power
(4) decrease the electrons charge
A conductor with rectangular cross-section has
dimensions (a 2a 4a) as shown in figure.
Resistance across AB is x, across CD is y and
across EF is z. Then

(1) x = y = z

(2) x > y > z

(3) y > z > x

(4) x > z > y

Flemings right hand rule gives


(1) The magnitude of induced current

29.

30.

(1) x = y = z
(3) y > z > x
31.

(2) The magnitude of the magnetic field

(4) izsfjr /kkjk dh fn'kk o ifjek.k nksuksa dks


32.

perpendicular to a long wire XY carrying a


current I. The direction of force on PQ will be
P

(1) towards right


(2) towards left
(3) upwards
(4) downwards
In SONAR, we use
(1) ultrasonic waves
(2) infrasonic waves
(3) radio waves
(4) audible sound waves

33.

,d rkj PQ ftlesa /kkjk 'i' izokfgr gks jgh g]S dks ,d yEcs
rkj XY ftlesa /kkjk I g]S ds yEcor~ fp=kuqlkj j[kk tkrk
gAS PQ ij yx jgs cy dh fn'kk gksxhA
Y

Y
I

ysfeax ds nka;s gkFk dk fu;e D;k crkrk gAS


(1) izsfjr /kkjk dk ifjek.k
(3) izsfjr /kkjk dh fn'kk

(4) Both magnitude and direction of the


induced current
A wire PQ carrying a current 'i' is placed

(2) x > y > z


(4) x > z > y

(2) pqEcdh; {ks= dk ifjek.k

(3) The direction of induced current

32.

vfrpkyd os inkFkZ gS tks dksbZ izfrjks/k ugha n'kkZrs gSaA blfy;s


vfrpkyd ls xqtjus okys bysDVkWu &
(1) dksbZ /kkjk mRiUu ugha djrsA
(2) dksbZ "ek mRiUu ugha gksxhA
(3) /kkjk dk lkeF;Z c<+k;sxsA
(4) bysDVkWu dk vkos'k ?kVk;sxsA
,d pkyd tks fd vk;rkdkj vuqizLFkdkV dk gS ftldh
foek;sa (a 2a 4a) fp= esa n'kkZ;h x;h gS AB ds
e/; izfrjks/k x g,S CD ds e/; y gS rFkk EF ds e/; z
g]S rks &

33.

(1) nka;h vksj


(2) cka;h vksj
(3) ij dh vksj
(4) uhps dh vksj
lksukj (SONAR) esa mi;ksx yh tkrh gAS
(1) vYVklksfud rjaxas
(2) bUklksfud rjaxsa
(3) jsfM;ks rjaxsa
(4) JO; /ofu rjaxsa
9/25

Sample question for ASAT : Nurture Course


34.

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

34.

fuEu esa ls dkSulk dFku vlR; gksxk ?


(1) ;fn oLrq dk osx ifjorZu'khy gS rks bldk Roj.k 'kwU;
ugha gksxkA
(2) ;fn oLrq dh pky ifjorZu'khy gS rks bldk Roj.k 'kwU;
ugha gksxkA
(3) ;fn oLrq dk Roj.k g S rks bldh pky ifjorr
gksx hA
(4) ;fn oLrq dk Roj.k gS rks bldk os x ifjorr
gksxkA

35.

,d xsan ftldk dqN O;eku gS] v0 osx ls {kfS rt ry esa xfr


dj jgh gAS xsna fdlh vU; xans ls] tks fLFkj j[kh gS rFkk O;eku
pkj xquk g]S ls Vdjkrh gAS izFke xsan Vdjkus ds i'pkr~ rqjUr
fLFkj voLFkk esa vk tkrh gS] rks f}rh; xs a n dk os x

(1) If the velocity of a body changes, it must


have some acceleration.
(2) If the speed of a body changes, it must have
some acceleration.
(3) If the body has acceleration, its speed must
change.
(4) If the body has acceleration, its velocity
must change.
35.

A ball having a certain mass is moving with a


velocity v 0 on a horizontal surface. The ball
collides with a stationary ball having four times
its mass. The first ball immediately comes to rest
after collision then with what velocity will the

36.

crkbZ;sA (?k"kZ.k jfgr lrg ekurs gq;)s

second ball move? (Assume frictionless surfaces)


(1) 0.25 v 0
(2) 0.5 v0

(1) 0.25 v 0

(2) 0.5 v0

(3) 4 v0

(3) 4 v0

(4) v0

(4) v0

Ananya is travelling to visit her grandmother.


First, she travels at an average speed of 12 km/h
for 10 km. Then she travels at 8.0 km/h for
another 1.25 h. Calculate her average speed for
the entire trip to her grandma's house.
(1) 3.2 km/h

36.

vuU;k viuh nknh ls feyus tk jgh gAS izFke] og vkl


S r pky
12 km/h ls 10 km r; djrh gSA blds ckn vxys
1.25 ?k.Vs ds fy;s 8.0 km/h ls pyrh gAS iwjh xfr ds

nkjS ku mldh vkSlr pky crkbZ;sA


(1) 3.2 km/h

(2) 4.4 km/h

(2) 4.4 km/h

(3) 9.6 km/h

(3) 9.6 km/h

(4) 19.2 km/h

(4) 19.2 km/h

Comprehension for (Q.No.37 & Q.No.38)


A rotating device is shown in figure, answer
the following questions :

vuqP Ns n (iz- 37 ,oa iz - 38) ds fy, :fp= esa ,d ?kwf.kZr ;qfDr n'kkZ;h xbZ gS
fuEu iz'uksa ds mkj nhft,A
C

C2

C2
B1

B2

B1

B2
C1

C1
+
P

10/25

Sample question for ASAT : Nurture Course


37.

37.

The device shown in figure is :


(1) A dc motor
(2) An ac motor
(3) An ac generator
(4) A dc generator

38.

In the given figure the direction of force

38.

acting on arm AB is :

fp= esa n'kkZ;h ;qfDr gS :


(1) dc eksVj
(2) ac eksVj
(3) ac tfu=
(4) dc tfu=
fn;s x;s fp= esa Hkqtk AB ij dk;Zjr cy dh fn'kk gS :
(1) vUnj dh vksj (dkxt ds vUnj)

(1) Inwards (into the paper)


(2) Outwards (out of paper)

(2) ckgj dh vksj (dkxt ds ckgj)


(3) ck;ha vksj

(3) Leftwards
(4) No force will act on arm AB
Comprehension for (Q.No.39 & Q.No.40)

(4) AB Hkqtk ij dksbZ cy ugha


vuq P Ns n (iz-39 ,oa iz-40) ds fy, :-

There are three charges placed as shown in

fp= esa rhu vkos'k n'kkZ,s x;s gAS nks utnhdh vkos'kksa ds
e/; nwjh d gAS

figure. The distances between two nearby


charges are d.

d
Q

39.

40.

d
Q/2

The force on 2Q will be

Q/2

39.

2Q ij cy gksxk

(1)

KQ 2
2d 2

ck;ha vksj

KQ 2
(2)
towards right
2d 2

(2)

KQ 2
2d 2

nk;ha vksj

3KQ 2
(3)
towards right
2d 2

(3)

3KQ 2
2d 2

(4) zero

(4) 'kwU;
40.

nk;ha vksj

Q/2 ij cy gksxk

(1)

KQ 2
towards left
2d 2

(1)

KQ 2
2d 2

ck;ha vksj

(2)

KQ 2
towards right
2d 2

(2)

KQ 2
2d 2

nk;ha vksj

(3)

3KQ 2
towards right
2d 2

(3)

3KQ 2
2d 2

(4) zero

2Q

2Q

KQ 2
(1)
towards left
2d 2

The force on Q/2 will be

nk;ha vksj

(4) 'kwU;
11/25

Sample question for ASAT : Nurture Course

SECTION-B : CHEMISTRY
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

bl [k.M eas 20 cgqfodYi iz'u gaSA izR;sd iz'u esa pkj fodYi (1), (2), (3) vkjS (4) gaS ftuesa ls dso y ,d lgh gAS
41.

(3) NaCl and H2 S

ok"i'khy nzo j[krk gS :


(1) de DoFkukad rFkk nqcZy vUrjd.kh; cy
(2) mPp DoFkukad rFkk nqcZy vUrjd.kh; cy
(3) mPp DoFkukad rFkk izcy vUrjd.kh; cy
(4) fuEu DoFkukad rFkk izcy vUrjd.kh; cy
fuEu esa ls dkuS lk foy;u gS ?
(1) 14 djS Vs lksuk
(2) yo.kh; ikuh
(3) dkcksZusVM
s ikuh
(4) lHkh
tc lksfM;e ckbZ lYQkbV] gkbMksDyksfjd vEy ls vfHkf;k
djrs gS rks tks inkFkZ curk gS :
(1) NaCl, H2O rFkk SO2
(2) Na2SO4 rFkk NaCl
(3) NaCl rFkk H2 S

(4) No reaction takes place

(4) No reaction takes place

A volatile liquid has :

41.

(1) low boiling point and weaker interparticle forces


(2) high boiling point and weaker interparticle forces.
(3) high boiling point and stronger interparticle forces
(4) low boiling point and stronger interparticle forces.
42.

42.

Which of these is a solution ?


(1) 14 Carat Gold
(2) Salted water
(3) Carbonated water
(4) All of these

43.

When

sodium

bisulphite

reacts

with

43.

hydrochloric acid, the products formed are :


(1) NaCl, H2O and SO2
(2) Na2SO 4 and NaCl

44.

When ferric chloride reacts with aq. NaOH, a

44.

....................................... coloured ppt is


formed,

45.

12/25

whose

chemical

formula

is

tc Qsfjd DyksjkbM dh vfHkf;k tyh; NaOH, ls djk;h


tkrh g]S rc ....................................... jaxhu vo{ksi
iz k Ir gks r k g S vk S j mldk jklk;fud lw = gks x kA

:........................................

........................................

(1) Brown, Fe(OH)2

(1) Hkw jk, Fe(OH)2

(2) Green, Fe(OH)2

(2) gjk , Fe(OH)2

(3) Green, Fe(OH)3

(3) gjk , Fe(OH)3

(4) Brown, Fe(OH)3

(4) Hkw jk, Fe(OH)3

Number of molecules in 500 ml of each H2, O2

45.

STP ij H2, O2 rFkk CO2 izR;sd ds 500 ml fyVj esa

and CO 2 at STP are in the order

mifLFkr v.kqvksa dh la[;k &

(1) H2 < O2 < CO2

(1) H2 < O2 < CO2

(2) H2 > O2 > CO2

(2) H2 > O2 > CO2

(3) H2 = O2 = CO2

(3) H2 = O2 = CO2

(4) H2 > O2 CO2

(4) H2 > O2 CO2

Sample question for ASAT : Nurture Course


46.

47.

the reaction given below are CORRECT?

fuEu esa ls dkuS lk dFku nh x;h vfHkf;k dh fy;s lgh


gksxk?

MnO2 + 4 HCl MnCl2 + 2H2O + Cl 2

MnO2 + 4 HCl MnCl2 + 2H2O + Cl 2

(I) Manganese oxide is oxidised

(I) eXS uht vkWDlkbM vkWDlhd`r gksxkA

(II) Hydrogen Chloride is reduced

(II) gkbMkstu DyksjkbM vipf;r gksxkA

(III) Manganese oxide is oxidising agent

(III) eXS uht vkWDlkbM vkWDlhdkjh vfHkdeZd gAS

(IV) Hydrogen Chloride is reducing agent

(IV) gkbMkstu DyksjkbM vipk;d vfHkdeZd gAS

(1) I and II

(2) III and IV

(1) I rFkk II

(2) III rFkk IV

(3) II and IV

(4) I, II, III and IV

(3) II rFkk IV

(4) I, II, III rFkk IV

Which among the following statements about

Which of the following statements is

46.

47.

INCORRECT ?

(1) HPO42 , H2 PO4 dk la;qXeh {kkj gAS

(1) The conjugate base of H2 PO4 is HPO4 .

(2) 1 eksyj HCl ds pH dk eku 'kwU; gAS

(2) The pH of 1 M HCl is 0.

(3) H3PO3 ,d f={kkjdh; vEy gS

(3) H3PO3 is a tribasic acid.

(4) 'kq ty esa 298 K rki ij H+ vk;u dh lka rk

(4) The concentration of H+ ions in pure water


is 107 mol L1 at 298 K.
48.

107 mol L1 gksrh gSA

Which of the following has arranged in order


of increasing oxidation numbers of nitrogen?

fuEu esa ls ukbVkstu ds c<+rs gq, vkWDlhdj.k vad dk e


gksxk?

(1) NH3 < N2O5 <NO < N2

(1) NH3 < N2O5 <NO < N2

(2) NO2 < NO3 <NO2 < N3


+

49.

48.

(2) NO2 + < NO3 <NO2 < N3

(3) NH4 + < N2 H4 < NH2OH < N2 O

(3) NH4 + < N2 H4 < NH2OH < N2 O

(4) NO2 < NaN3 < NH4 + < N2 O

(4) NO2 < NaN3 < NH4 + < N2 O

Which among the following statements is


INCORRECT for magnesium metal?

fuEu esa ls eXS uhf'k;e /kkrq ds fy;s dkSulk dFku xyr


gS?

(1) It burns in oxygen with a dazzling white

(1) ;g vkWDlhtu ds lkFk tykus ij pednkj lQsn ykS nsrk

49.

flame.

gSA

(2) It reacts with cold water to form magnesium

(2) ;g B.M+s ikuh ds lkFk eXS uhf'k;e vkWDlkbM dk fuekZ.k

oxide and evolves hydrogen gas.

rFkk gkbMkt
s u xSl dks fu"dkflr djrk gAS

(3) It reacts with hot water to form magnesium

(3) ;g xeZ ikuh ds lkFk eSXuhf'k;e gkbMkWDlkbM dk fuekZ.k

hydroxide and evolves hydrogen gas.

rFkk gkbMkt
s u xSl dks fu"dkflr djrk gAS

(4) It reacts with steam to form magnesium

(4) ;g Hkki ds lkFk eSXuhf'k;e vkWDlkbM dk fuekZ.k rFkk

oxide and evolves hydrogen gas.


50.

fuEu esa ls dkuS lk dFku xyr gS ?

For a reaction A + 2 B C, the amount of C


formed by starting the reaction with 5 moles of
A and 8 moles of B is

gkbMkstu xSl dks fu"dkflr djrk gAS


50.

fuEu vfHkf;k A + 2 B C esa izkjfEHkd eksyksa dh la[;k


A dh 5 rFkk B dh 8 yh tkrh gS rks C dh ek=k D;k
cusxhA

(1) 5 moles

(2) 8 moles

(1) 5 moles

(2) 8 moles

(3) 16 moles

(4) 4 moles

(3) 16 moles

(4) 4 moles
13/25

Sample question for ASAT : Nurture Course


51.

Which of the following metals are refined by

51.

electrolytic refining?

52.

(i) Au

(ii) Cu

(i) Au

(ii) Cu

(iii) Zn

(iv) K

(iii) Zn

(iv) K

(1) (i) and (ii)

(2) (ii) and (iii)

(1) (i) rFkk (ii)

(2) (ii) rFkk (iii)

(3) (i), (ii), (iii)

(4) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(3) (i), (ii), (iii)

(4) (ii), (iii) rFkk (iv)

How many moles of ferric alum (NH4 )2 SO 4

52.

54.

of Fe containing 0.0056 g of it ?
[Atomic mass of Fe = 56 u]

[Fe dk ijek.kq O;eku = 56 u]

(1) 10 4 mol

(2) 0.5 104 mol

(1) 10 4 mol

(2) 0.5 104 mol

(3) 0.33 104 mol

(4) 2 104 mol

(3) 0.33 104 mol

(4) 2 104 mol

mole of CrO5 in the following reaction?

fuEu vfHkf;k esa ,d eksy CrO5 ysus ij O2 ds fdrus eksy


eqDr gksxsaA

CrO5 + H2 SO4 Cr2 (SO4)3 + H2O + O2

CrO5 + H2 SO4 Cr2 (SO4)3 + H2O + O2

(1) 4.5

(2) 2.5

(1) 4.5

(2) 2.5

(3) 1.25

(4) None of these

(3) 1.25

(4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

How many moles of O2 will be liberated by one

53.

the following is not used as the dental filling?

vxj vkids nkrks dk fxjuk ;k {k; gksuk 'kq: gks x;k g]S vkSj
nUr fpfdRld us vkidks nUr HkjkbZ dk lq>ko fn;k gS rks fuEu
esa ls dkuS lk nUr HkjkbZ ds fy, mi;ksx esa ugha ysxsa ?

(1) Gold

(1) lksuk

(2) Sorel's cement

(2) lksjy
s lhesUV

(3) Zinc oxychloride

(3) ftad vkWDlhDyksjkbM

(4) Zinc

(4) ftad

If your teeth start decaying, the dentist may

54.

advise you to have your teeth filled. Which of

55.

14/25

Fe (vk;ju) ds 0.0056 g ds ,d uewus ls fdrus eksy

Qsfjd ,ye (NH4)2SO4 Fe2(SO4)324H2O ds cuk


ldrs gAS

Fe2(SO4)324H2O can be made from the sample

53.

buesa ls dkuS lk /kkrq,as o|


S rq vi?kVuh ifj"dj.k ls ifj"d`r dh
tkrh gS ?

Bleaching powder has several uses, some of


which are mentioned here. Pick the false one?

fojatd pw.kZ (Cyhfpaax ikmMj) ds dbZ mi;ksx g]S ftuesa ls


dqN uhps fn;s x;s g]S xyr dks pqfu;s ?

(1) For decolourising sugar

(1) 'kdZjk dk fojatdhdj.k

(2) For bleaching paper pulp

(2) isij iYi dk fojatu

(3) For sterilizing water

(3) ikuh ds jksxk.kquk'ku ds fy;s

(4) For making chloroform

(4) DyksjksQkeZ cukus ds fy;s

55.

Sample question for ASAT : Nurture Course


56.

5.85 g of NaCl was treated with concentrated

56.

H2SO4 and the gas evolved was passed into a


obtained was filtered, dried and weighed.

x;k vkjS fu"dkflr xlS dks flYoj ukbVVs ds foy;u ls xqtkjk


x;kA izkIr lQsn vo{ksi dks Nkuk tkrk g]S lq[kk;k tkrk gS
rFkk Hkkj djrs gaAS ;fn vfHkf;k lEiw.kZ gksrh gS rks vo{ksi

Assuming complete reaction, how many grams

dk fdrus xzke izkIr gksxkA

of precipitate was obtained ?

[Ag dk ijek.kq O;eku = 108 u, Na = 23 u &

[Atomic mass of Ag = 108 u, Na = 23 u &

Cl = 35.5 u]

solution of silver nitrate. The white precipitate

Cl = 35.5 u]
(1) 10.8g

(2) 14.35g

(3) 35.5g

(4) 3.65g

Comprehension for (Q.No.57 & Q.No.58)


500 mL solution of hydrochloric acid is made
by dissolving 3.65 gram HCl in distilled water.
57.

What is the molarity of chloride ions in the solution?


(1) 0.01 M (2) 0.02 M (3) 0.2 M

58.

(1) zero
(3) 5 10

(2) 5 10
14

12

58.

(4) can not be calculated

Comprehension for (Q.No.59 & Q.No.60)


motion in solar system. Therefore, Rutherfords

60.

(3) 35.5g

(4) 3.65g

(4) 0.1 M

bl foy;u esa gkbMksDlkbM vk;u dh eksyjrk D;k gksxh :(1) 'kqU;

(2) 5 1012 M

(3) 5 1014

(4) can not be calculated

vuq P Ns n (iz-59 o iz-60) ds fy, :-

Rutherfords atomic model resembles the planetary


model of atom is also called planetary model.
When alpha particles are sent through a thin
metal foil only one out of ten thousand of them
is reversed. This observation led to the
conclusion that
(1) An extremely small positively charged particles
are concentrated at the centre of the atom
(2) more number of electrons are revolving
around the nucleus of the atom
(3) unit positive charge is only present in an atom
(4) a massive sphere with more negative charge
and unit positive charge is present at the centre
of the atom
Which of the following concepts was not
considered in Rutherfords atomic model ?
(1) the electrical neutrality of atom
(2) the quantization of energy
(3) electrons revolve around nucleus at very
high speeds
(4) existence of nuclear forces of attraction on
the electrons

(2) 14.35g

(1) 0.01 M (2) 0.02 M (3) 0.2 M

(4) 0.1 M

The molarity of the hydroxide ions in this

(1) 10.8g

vuq P Ns n (iz-57 o iz-58) ds fy, :3.65 gram HCl dks 'kq ty esa foys; djds HCl
gkbMksDyksjhd vEy dk 500 mL foy;u cuk;k x;kA
57. foy;u esa DyksjkbM vk;u dh eksyjrk D;k gS ?

solution will be :-

59.

NaCl ds 5.85 g dks lka H2SO4 ds lkFk mipkfjr fd;k

59.

60.

jnjQksMZ dk ijek.kq izfrj{kk lw;Z ra= esa x`g ds ?kw.kZu ds leku


gAS blfy, jnjQksMZ ijek.kq izfr:i dks x`g izfr:i Hkh dgrs
gSA
iryh /kkrq ikh esa ls tc a d.kksa dks izdhf.kZr fd;k rc
10,000 esa ls ,d a-d.k mlh fn'kk esa ykSV tkrk gS bl
?kVuk ls fu'd"kZ fudyrk gS %
(1) ijek.kq ds dsUnz esa vfrlw{e /kukosf'kr d.k mifLFkr
gksrs gAS
(2) ijek.kq ds ukfHkd ds pkjks vksj bysDVkWu ?kwf.kZr djrs gAS
(3) ijek.kq esa dsoy ,dy bdkbZ /kukos'k gksrk gAS
(4) ijek.kq ds dsUnz esa xksykdkj nzO;eku ;qDr vf/kd
.kkRed vkos'k rFkk bdkbZ /kukos'k mifLFkr gksrk gS
jnjQksMZ esa ijek.kq ekWMy (izfr:i) esa fuEu esa ls dkuS lh
vfHk/kkj.kk ugha yh x;h Fkh ?
(1) ijek.kq dh fo|qr mnklhurk
(2) tkZ dk DokaVhdj.k
(3) ukfHkd ds pkjks vksj bysDVkWu mPp osx ls xfr djrs gaAS
(4) bysDVkuW ksa ij ukfHkdh; vkd"kZ.k cy dk vfLrRo gksrk gAS
15/25

Sample question for ASAT : Nurture Course

Attempt any one of the section C or D


Section C or D esa ls dsoy ,d gh section djuk gSA
SECTION-C : MATHEMATICS
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.

bl [k.M eas 20 cgqfodYi iz'u gAS izR;sd iz'u esa pkj fodYi (1), (2), (3) vkjS (4) gaS ftuesa ls dso y ,d lgh gS
61. a, b, c are three real numbers such that 61. a, b, c rhu okLrfod la [ ;k,s a bl iz d kj g S fd
2

a + b + c = 7, a + b
3

62.

a + b + c = 7, a2 + b2 + c2 = 35 vkjS a3 + b3 + c3 = 151

+ c = 35 and

a + b + c = 151. Find the value of abc.

gAS abc dk eku Kkr dhft,A

(1) 12

(2) 14

(1) 12

(2) 14

(3) 15

(4) 13

(3) 15

(4) 13

In the given figure, O is the centre and AB is

62.

uhps ,d fp= fn;k x;k g]S ftlesa O dsUnz rFkk AB o`r dk

a diameter of the circle. AC and BD when

O;kl gAS AC rFkk BD dks c<+kus ij ;g E ij feyrs gAS

produced, meet at E. If COD = 50, then

;fn COD = 50, rc CED =________?

CED =________?
A
C

E
O

50

50

63.

(1) 100

(2) 65

(3) 130

(4) None of these

If A + B = 225, then the value of (1 + tan A)

63.

16/25

(2) 65

(3) 130

(4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

;fn A + B = 225, rc (1 + tan A) (1 + tan B)


dk eku gksxk\

(1 + tan B) is

64.

(1) 100

(1) 1

(2) 3

(1) 1

(2) 3

(3) 2

(4) 4

(3) 2

(4) 4

Value of (a c) [(a b)2 + (b c)2 (a b)

64.

(a c) [(a b)2 + (b c)2 (a b) (bc)] + (ca)3

(b c)] + (c a)3 is equal to

dk eku cjkcj gksxk&

(1) 3(a b) (b c) (c a)

(1) 3(a b) (b c) (c a)

(2) (a b) (b c) (c a)

(2) (a b) (b c) (c a)

(3) (a b)3 (b c)3 (c a)3

(3) (a b)3 (b c)3 (c a)3

(4) None of these

(4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

Sample question for ASAT : Nurture Course


65.

The value of m if 2xm + x3 3x2 26 leaves

65.

dks x 2 }kjk foHkkftr djus ij 'ks " kQy 226


vkrk gks %

a remainder of 226 when it is divided by


x 2.

66.

(1) 0

(2) 7

(1) 0

(2) 7

(3) 10

(4) All of these

(3) 10

(4) mijksDr lHkh

If 20 men take 30 days to complete a job, in

66.

how many days can 25 men complete the


job ?

67.

(1) 23

(2) 24

(3) 25

(4) 26

The remainder when x 1999 is divided by

67.

x2 1 is

68.

(1) 23

(2) 24

(3) 25

(4) 26

;fn x1999 dks x2 1 }kjk foHkkftr fd;k tkrk gS rks 'ks"kQy


gS -

(2) 3x

(1) x

(2) 3x

(3) x

(4) None of these

(3) x

(4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

If tan q = -

and q lies in the II quadrant,


5
then the value of cos q is
5

(2)

(3)

-1
6

If

a = b+ c and

68.

- 5

(1)

(3)

(4) Both (1) and (2)


c are three

a, b and

(1)

a is dissimilar to

(2)

b and

b and

c are similar to

;fn tan q = -

1
vkSj q f}rh; prqFkk 'k esa gS rc
5

cos q dk eku Kkr dhft,A

69.

surds, then

c
a

(2)

6
-1
6

- 5
6

(4) (1) o (2) nksuksaA

;fn
rc

a = b+ c ,

(1)

a dk eku

(2)

b o

(3) dsoy

(3) Only b is similar to a


(4) None of these
70.

;fn 20 O;fDr feydj fdlh dk;Z dks 30 fnu esa iw.kZ


djrs gS rks 25 O;fDr blh dk;Z dks iwjk djus esa fdrus fnu
ysxas ?

(1) x

(1)

69.

m dk eku Kkr dhft, ;fn 2xm + x3 3x2 26

a, b o

b o

c rhu dj.kh gS

c ds leku ugha gAS

c dk eku a ds leku gAS


b dk eku gh

a ds leku gAS

(4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

and P(3) = 9, then find P(x).

fdlh rhu ?kkr ds cgqin ds vf/kdre ?kkr dk xq.kkad 2006


gS ekuk P(1) = 5, P(2) = 7 rFkk P(3) = 9 rks P(x) dk
eku gksxkA

(1) 2006 (x1) (x2) (x 3) + 2x + 3

(1) 2006 (x1) (x2) (x 3) + 2x + 3

(2) 2006 (x1) (x2) (x 3) + 2x + 1

(2) 2006 (x1) (x2) (x 3) + 2x + 1

(3) 2006 (x1) (x2) (x 3) + 2x 1

(3) 2006 (x1) (x2) (x 3) + 2x 1

(4) 2006 (x2) (x3) (x 1) ( 2x 3)

(4) 2006 (x2) (x3) (x 1) ( 2x 3)

The leading coefficient of a polynomial P(x) of


degree 3 is 2006. Suppose that P(1) = 5, P(2) = 7

70.

17/25

Sample question for ASAT : Nurture Course


71.

72.

If the difference between the roots of the equa-

71.

tion x2 + px + 8 = 0 is 2, then p =

rc p dk eku gksxk -

(1) 2

(2) 4

(1) 2

(2) 4

(3) 6

(4) 8

(3) 6

(4) 8

Let a and b be the roots of the equation

72.

(xa)(xb) = c, c 0, then the roots of the

74.

75.

(1) a, c

(2) b, c

(3) a, b

(4) a+c, b+c

p is a prime number and (p2 + 3) is also a prime

;fn a o b lehdj.k (xa)(xb) = c, c 0 ds ewy


g]S rks lehdj.k (xa)(xb) + c = 0 ds ewy gksxs -

equation (xa)(xb) + c = 0 are

73.

;fn lehdj.k x2 + px + 8 = 0 ds ewyksa dk vUrj 2 gS

73.

(1) a, c

(2) b, c

(3) a, b

(4) a+c, b+c

;fn p rFkk (p2 + 3) vHkkT; la[;k, gks] rks p ds laHko ekuksa

number. The number of numbers that p can

dh la[;k gks ldrh gS -

assume is

(1) 3

(1) 3

(2) 2

(2) 2

(3) 1

(4) can't say

(3) 1

If f(x) = cos 2 x + sec2 x, its value always is

74.

(4) dg ugha ldrs

;fn f(x) = cos2x + sec2 x, rc bldk eku lnoS gksxk -

(1) f(x) < 1

(1) f(x) < 1

(2) f(x) = 1

(2) f(x) = 1

(3) 2 > f(x) > 1

(3) 2 > f(x) > 1

(4) f(x) 2

(4) f(x) 2

In the given figure, P and Q are the mid-points


of AC and AB. Also PG = GR and HQ = HR.
What is the ratio of area of DPQR to area of
DABC ?

75.

fn, x, fp= esa AC rFkk AB ds e/; fcUnq e'k% P rFkk


Q gS rFkk PG = GR ,oa HQ = HR gAS f=Hkqt PQR rFkk
f=Hkqt ABC ds {kS=Qyksa dk vuqikr gS ?
C

C
P

H
A

18/25

(1)

1
2

(2)

2
3

(3)

3
5

(4) None of these

(1)

1
2

(2)

2
3

(3)

3
5

(4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

Sample question for ASAT : Nurture Course


76.

In the adjoining figure O is the centre of the

76.

circle with radius r. AB, CD and EF are the


diameters of the circle. OAF = OCB = 60.

fn, x, fp= esa o`k dk dsUnz O rFkk f=T;k r gAS AB, CD


rFkk EF o`k ds O;kl gS ,oa OAF = OCB = 60 g]S
rks Nk;kafdr Hkkx dk {ks=Qy Kkr dhft, ?

What is the area of the shaded region ?


D

D
A

60

60

r2
2 3
(3) 3 p - 3

r2
3 3
(2) 2 p - 4

(4) data insufficient

r2
2 3
(3) 3 p - 3

(4) vkadM+as vi;kZIr

x|ka'k (iz-la- 77 ,oa iz-la- 78 ds fy,)


fn;s x;s fp = esa] Hkqtk BC dk e/; fcUnq D gS rFkk
;fn BC = a, AC = b, AB=c, ED= x, AD = p rFkk
AE = h gAS
A

(1) 2
78.

c2 + ax
(1) p2

p
x

a
2

(3) 8

77.
(4) 16

a
is equal to 4

b 2 - p 2 - ax =

(1) 2
78.

c2 + ax

(4) None of these

(3) 2

Value of a is :
(2) 1

(3) 1

(4) None of these

For the above quadratic equation :

a2
k

a
4

a
2

gks] rks k dk eku gS (3) 8

(4) 16

dk eku gS (2) 2p2

(4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

x|ka'k (iz-la- 79 ,oa iz-la- 80 ds fy,)

79.

(1) 1

(2) 4

(1) p2

Let us consider a quadratic equation


x2 + 3ax + 2a2 = 0. If the equation has roots a,
b and it is given that a2 + b2 = 5

80.

;fn

(2) 2p2

Comprehension for (Q.No.79 & Q.No.80)

79.

a2
then k is k

(2) 4

p2
(3) 2

r2
3 3
(1) 2 p - 2

If b 2 - p 2 - ax =

60

r2
3 3
(2) 2 p - 4

In the given figure, D is the midpoint of side


BC and If BC = a, AC = b, AB=c, ED= x,
AD = p and AE = h.

77.

Comprehension for (Q.No.77 & Q.No.78)

60

r2
3 3
(1) 2 p - 2

ekuk ,d f}?kkr lehdj.k x2 + 3ax + 2a2 = 0 gS ;fn


lehdj.k ds ewy a rFkk b gS rFkk a2 + b2 = 5 fn;k
x;k gAS
a dk eku gS :
(1) 1
(3) 1

80.

(2) 1
(4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

fn;s x;s lehdj.k ds fy, :

(1) D > 0

(2) D < 0

(1) D > 0

(2) D < 0

(3) D = 0

(4) None of these

(3) D = 0

(4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha


19/25

Sample question for ASAT : Nurture Course

SECTION-D : BIOLOGY
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.

bl [k.M eas 20 cgqfodYi iz'u gSA izR;sd iz'u esa pkj fodYi (1), (2), (3) vkjS (4) gaS ftuesa ls dso y ,d lgh gAS
81.

Among mammals, which one plays a


significant role in the digestion of milk proteins?
(1) Pepsin

81.

(2) Rennin
(3) Trypsin
(4) Amylase
82.

Match Column - I with Column - II and select


the correct option.
(A) Plantae
1. Archaebacteria
(B) Fungi

2. Euglenoids

(C) Protista

3. Phycomycetes

(D) Monera

4. Bryophyta

82.

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

(1) A - 4, B - 3, C - 2, D - 1
(2) A - 1, B - 2, C - 3, D - 4

83.

84.

(3) A - 3, B - 4, C - 2, D - 1
(4) A - 4, B - 2, C - 3, D - 1
The term water-pollution can be defined in
several ways. Which of the following
statements does not give the correct definition ?
(1) The addition of undesirable substances in
water bodies.
(2) The removal of desirable substances from
water bodies.
(3) A change in pressure of the water bodies.
(4) A change in temperature of the water bodies.
Identify the missing labels in the diagram
below.

Cell divisions
Diploid cells
(2n) Reproductive cells
develop

Male gamete Female gamete


(sperm)
(egg)
Cell divisions

2
Cell divisions

3
Nature gametophyte

20/25

83.

84.

A
A
A
A

4,
1,
3,
4,

B
B
B
B

3,
2,
4,
2,

C
C
C
C

2,
3,
2,
3,

D
D
D
D

1
4
1
1

ty&iznw"k.k dks fofHkk rjhds ls ifjHkkf"kr dj ldrs gAS


fuEu esa ls dkSulk dFku ty iznw"k.k dks lgh ifjHkkf"kr ugha
djrk ?
(1) vuqi;qDr inkFkks dk ty lewg esa feykuk
(2) ty lewg ls okafNr inkFkks dks gVkuk
(3) ty lewg ds nkc esa ifjorZu gksukA
(4) ty lewg ds rkieku esa ifjorZu gksukA
uhps fn, x , fp= esa [kkyh txg ij lgh mkj dks
igpkfu,\
1

1
Cell divisions

Lru/kkfj;ks esa nqX/k izksVhu ds ikpu esa dkuS lk egRoiw.kZ Hkwfedk


fuHkkrk gS ?
(1) isfIlu
(2) jsuhu
(3) fVfIlu
(4) ,ekbyst
LrEHk-I dks LrEHk-II ls feyku dhft,A vkSj lgh mkj dk
p;u djsaA
(A) ikni
1. vkdhZcDS Vhfj;k
(B) dod
2. ;wXyhuksbM~l
(C) izkfs VLVk
3. QkbdksekblhVht
(D) eksusjk
4. czk;ksQkbVk

Cell divisions

Cell divisions
Diploid cells
(2n) Reproductive cells
develop

Male gamete Female gamete


(sperm)
(egg)
Cell divisions

2
Cell divisions

3
Nature gametophyte

Sample question for ASAT : Nurture Course


(1) 1-meiosis forms spores; 2-zygote forms;
3-diploid; 4-sporophyte
(2) 1-sporophyte; 2-meiosis forms spores;
3-haploid; 4-zygote forms
(3) 1-sporophyte; 2-meiosis forms spores;
3-diploid; 4-zygote forms
(4) 1-zygote forms; 2-sporophyte; 3-diploid;
4-meiosis forms spores
85.

The diagram below shows part of the carbon


cycle.

(1) 1-v/kZ lw=h foHkktu ls chtk.kq ; 2-;q Xeut cuuk ;


3-f}x qf.kr; 4-fctk.kqn~fHkn
(2) 1-fotk.kq n~ f Hkn; 2- v/kZ lw= h foHkktu ls chtk.kq ;
3-vxqf.kr; 4-;qXeut cuuk
(3) 1-fctk.kq n~ f Hkn~ ; 2-v/kZ l w = h foHkktu ls chtk.kq ;
3-f}xqf.kr; 4-;qXeut cuuk
(4) 1-;q X eut cuuk ; 2- fctk.kq n ~ f Hkn ; 3- f}x q f .kr;
4-v/kZlw=h foHkktu ls chtk.kq cuukA
85.

Atmospheric
CO2

Atmospheric
CO2

Organic
compounds

Organic
compounds

Carbon
compounds
in soil

Carbon
compounds
in soil

Fossil fuels
Fossil fuels

If many trees are removed from a forest by


logging, what is the most immediate effect on
the carbon cycle in that forest?
(1) Increased rates of decomposition
(2) Decreased use of atmospheric CO 2
(3) Decreased combustion of fossil fuels
(4) Increased production of organic compounds
86.

uhps fn;k x;k fp= dkcZu p dks iznf'kZr djrk gS :-

The diagram below shows the locations of the


pituitary gland and the kidneys in the human

86.

;fn dVkbZ djus ls taxy ds cgqr ls o`{kksa dks gVk fn;k tkrk
gS rks ml taxy esa dkcZu p ij gksus okyk rqjUr izHkko D;k
gksxk ?
(1) vi?kVu dh nj c<+ tkukA
(2) okrkoj.kh; CO2 dk mi;ksx de gks tk,xkA
(3) thok'eh; b/ku dk ngu de gks tk,xkA
(4) dkcZfud inkFkks dk mRiknu c<+ tk,xkA
uhps fn, ekuo 'kjhj ds fp= esa ih;w"k xzfUFk ,oa o`Dd dh
fLFkfr dks n'kkZ;k x;k gAS

body.
Pituitary
gland

Kidney

Pituitary
gland

Kidney

21/25

Sample question for ASAT : Nurture Course


The pituitary gland can release a substance into

substance is an example of

ih;w"k xzfUFk ls ,d inkFkZ L=kfor gksrk gS tks jDr izokg ls


gksrk gqvk o`Dd dh y{; dksf'kdk dks vf/kd ikuhvo'kksf"kr
djus ds fy, lwpuk nsrk gSA L=kfor inkFkZ fuEu esa ls mnkgj.k
gS fdldk --------- ?

(1) An enzyme

(1) ,d ,Utkbe

(2) ,d gkWeksZu

(3) ,d U;wjksVkWlehVj

(4) ,d foVkehu

the bloodstream that signals target cells in the


kidneys to reabsorb more water. The released
(2) A hormone

(3) A neurotransmitter (4) A vitamin


87.

88.

During which stage of the cell cycle does the


cell duplicate its DNA?

87.

dksf'kdk p dh fdl voLFkk esa dksf'kdk vius DNA dk


izfrrhdj.k djrh gS ?

(1) M stage

(2) G1 stage

(1) M voLFkk

(2) G1 voLFkk

(3) S stage

(4) G2 stage

(3) S voLFkk

(4) G2 voLFkk

Predict what will happen as an impulse travels

88.

ls gksrk gqvk xqtjsxk ?

along the axon in the diagram below.


Resting potential

Inside
cell

Outside
cell

uhps fn, x, fp= esa lksfp, D;k gksxk tc ,d vkosx ,DlkWu


Resting potential

Inside
cell

[Na ] [K ]

Outside
cell

[Na ] [K ]

[Na ] [K ]

[Na ] [K ]

(1) More potassium will move into the cell.


(1) vf/kd ikSVsf'k;e dksf'kdk ds vUnj tk,xkA

(2) More sodium will move into the cell.

89.

(2) vf/kd lksfM+;e dksf'kdk ds vUnj tk,xkA

(3) Both sodium and potassium will move out


of the cell.

(3) lksfM;e ,oa ikVS sf'k;e dksf'kdk ds ckgj tk,xkA

(4) Sodium will move out of the cell.

(4) lksfM;e dksf'kdk ds ckgj tk,xkA

What is produced by the structure labelled


A in the illustration?

89.

lajpuk A dks fp= esa n'kkZ;k x;k gAS bl lajpuk ls D;k mRik
gksrk gS ?
A

(1) Rhizoids
(3) Spores
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(2) Thallose leaves


(4) Rhizomes

(1) ewykxz
(3) chtk.kq

(2) Fky
S l ikh
(4) izdUn

Sample question for ASAT : Nurture Course


90.

Which process is taking place in this diagram?

90.

fn, x, fp= esa dkuS lh izf;k gks jgh gS ?

Ribs
Diaphragm

Ribs
Diaphragm

91.

92.

(1) Inhalation; the diaphragm is contracting.


(2) Exhalation; the diaphragm is relaxing.
(3) Inhalation; the chest cavity is reduced.
(4) Exhalation; the rib cage is expanding.
Two arteries and two veins are labelled in the
diagram.Which two are veins?

(1) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) B and D
(4) C and D
Which reaction takes place in the stroma (2) of
the chloroplast?

(1) Glycolysis
(2) Light-dependent reaction
(3) Light-independent reaction
(4) Krebs cycle
93. Arteries (1) Carry blood away from heart ,are thick
walled and contain valve
(2) Carry blood away from heart ,are thick
walled and Lack valve
(3) Carry blood towards heart ,are thin walled
and contain valve
(4) Carry blood towards heart ,are thin walled
and lack valve
94. Which of the following bacterial component is
made up of DNA?
(1) Ribosome
(2) Plasmid
(3) Lysosomes
(4) Protein

vUr% 'olu ; Mk;kWe ladqfpr gks jgk gAS


fu% 'olu; Mk;kWe f'kfFky gks jgk gAS
vUr% 'olu; o{kh; xqgk dk de gksuk
fu% 'olu; ilyh fiatjk Qy
S uk
fn, x, fp= esa nks /keuh;k o nks f'kjk,sa n'kkZ;h xbZ gAS dkuS lh
nks f'kjk,sa gS ?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

91.

92.

(1) A ,oa B
(3) B ,oa D

(2) B ,oa C
(4) C ,oa D

fuEu esa ls dkSulh f;k gfjr yod ds LVksek esa gksrh gS ?

(1) XykbQksykbfll
(2) izdk'k vk/kkfjr vfHkf;k
(3) izdk'k&lora= vfHkf;k
(4) sc p
93. /keuh;ka (1) jDr dks n; ls nwj] eksVh fHkfk o okYo okyh
(2) jDr dks n; ls nwj] eksVh fHkfk o fcuk okYo okyh
(3) jDr dks n; dh rjQ] iryh fHkfk o okYo okyh
(4) jDr dks n; dh rjQ] iryh fHkfk o fcuk okYo okyh
94.

fuEu esa ls dkSulk thok.kq oh; ?kVd DNA dk cuk


gksrk gS ?
(1) jkbckslkse
(2) IyktfeM
(3) ykblkslkse
(4) izkVs hu

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Sample question for ASAT : Nurture Course


Comprehension for (Q.No.95 to Q.No.97)

x |ka'k (iz-la- 95 ls iz-la- 97 ds fy,)

About 1% of the total sun's energy reaching


the earth is used up by the plants in the process
of photosynthesis and stored as chemical
energy of food. There is a continuous transfer
of energy from one trophic level of organisms
to the next in a food chain (producer to
herbivore to carnivore and so on). At each
trophic level, some of the energy is utilized by
the organisms for their metabolic activities like
respiration and growth. A part of the energy is
lost at each energy transfer in various tropic
levels. The amount of energy available
gradually decreases. Only 10% of the energy
entering a particular trophic level of organisms
is available for transfer to the next higher
trophic level. The flow of energy is in single
direction because the energy lost as heat from
the living organisms of a food chain cannot be
reused by plants in photosynthesis.
T1
T2
T3
T4
T5
GrassInsectsFrogsSnakesEagle
1000 cal.
100 cal. 10 cal. 1cal. 0.1 cal.
95.

In the above food chain total amount of solar

lw;Z izdk'k tkZ dh dqy tkZ dk 1% i`Foh lrg rd


igqprh gS ftldk mi;ksx ik/S ks izdk'k la'ys"k.k ds fy, djrs
gaS vkjS Hkkstu ds fy, jklk;fud tkZ ds :i esa laxzfgr djrs
gAS Hkkstu [kk| J`a[kyk esa bl tkZ dk ,d iks"k.k Lrj ls
nw l jh iks " k.k Lrj rd LFkkukUrj.k gks r k g S
(mRiknd 'kkdkgkjh ekalkgkjh ,oa e'k% ) izR;sd

iks"k.k Lrj ij ml tkZ dk dqN Hkkx] izk.kh }kjk mikip;h


f;k, tl
S s 'olu o o`f esa dke esa ysrs gAS tkZ dk Lrj
lrr~ de gksrk tkrk gAS tl
S s&tl
S s ;s vkxs ds iks"k.k Lrj dks
LFkkukUrfjr gksrh gAS dsoy tkZ dk 10% Hkkx vkxs ds
iks"k.k Lrj rd igqp ikrh gS tkZ dk izokg ,d fn'kk esa gksrk
gS D;ksafd "ek ds :i esa kflr tkZ [kk| J`a[kyk esa ikni
}kjk izdk'k la'ys"k.k esa mi;ksx ugha dh tk ldrh gS
T1
1000 cal.
95.

by producers is-

97.

T4

T5

100 cal.

10 cal.

1cal.

(2) 10%

(1) 1%

(2) 10%

(3) 99%

(4) 90%

(3) 99%

(4) 90%

Total amount of energy available at Herbivore

96.

'kkdkgkjh Lrj ij mifLFkr tkZ dk dqy Hkkx tks vkxs ds

level for next trophic level is:

iks"k.k Lrj ds fy, mifLFkr gS :

(1) 100 cal.

(2) 1000 cal.

(1) 100 cal.

(2) 1000 cal.

(3) 10 cal.

(4) 90 cal.

(3) 10 cal.

(4) 90 cal.

In the above food chain primary consumer and

97.

mijksDr [kk| Ja[` kyk esa izkFkfed miHkksDrk vkjS f}rh; ekalkgkjh

secondary carnivore is(respectively)-

e'k% gS -

(1) Insect and frog

(1) dhV vkjS es<+d

(2) Frog and Snake

(2) es<+d vkjS lkai

(4) None of the above

0.1 cal.

mijksDr [kk| J`a[kyk esa lw;Z tkZ dh fdruk % Hkkx i`Foh


ij vk ikrh gS tks mRikndks }kjk [kk| inkFkZ esa cnyh
tkrh gS -

(1) 1%

(3) Insect and Snake

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T3

?kkal dhV esa<+d lkai phy

energy perceived on earth converted to food

96.

T2

(3) dhV vkSj lkai


(4) mijksDr esa ls dksbZ ugha

Comprehension for (Q.No.98 to Q.No.100)


The eukaryotes include all the protists, plants,
animals and fungi. In eukaryotic cells there is
an extensive compartmentalization of
cytoplasm through the presence of membrane
bound organelles. Eukaryotic cells possess an
organised nucleus with a nuclear envelope. In
addition, eukaryotic cells have a variety of
complex locomotory and cytoskeletal
structures. Their genetic material is organised
into chromosomes. All eukaryotic cells are not
identical. Plant and animal cells are different
as the former possess cell walls, plastids and a
large central vacuole which are absent in animal
cells. On the other hand, animal cells have
centrioles which are absent in plant cells.
98. Membrane bound cell organelles are found in(1) Bacteria
(2) fungi
(3) Blue green algae
(4) Virus
99. Presence of plastids are characterstic feature of(1) Plants
(2) animals
(3) Fungi
(4) Bacteria
100. Nucleus is peripheral in plant cell due to
presence of(1) Central large vacuole
(2) Mitochondria
(3) Plasma membrane
(4) Ribosome

Sample question for ASAT : Nurture Course


x|ka'k (iz-la- 98 ls iz-la- 100 ds fy,)
;wdfS jvksVl
~ esa lHkh izkfs VLV] ikni] tUrq rFkk dod lfEefyr
gAS ;wdfS jvksfVd dksf'kdkvksa esa f>Yyh vkLrkfjr dksf'kdkaxksa
dh mifLFkfr ls dksf'kdk O; dk foLr`r foHkktu gksrk gAS
;wdSfj;ksfVd dksf'kdkvksa esa dsUdh; vkoj.k ds lkFk ,d
lax fBr ds Ud gksr k g SA blds vykok ;w dfS j;ks fVd
dksf'kdkvks esa tfVy pkyd rFkk dksf'kdk fiatj lajpukvksa
dh fofHkUu fdLesa gksrh gaAS vkuqokaf'kd inkFkZ xq.klq=ksa esa
O;ofLFkr gksrk gAS lHkh ;wdSfj;ksfVd dksf'kdk, leku ugha
gAS ikni rFkk tUrq dksf'kdk, fHkUu gaS D;ksfa d ikniksa esa dksf'kdk
fHkfk] yod rFkk ,d cM+h dsUdh; fjfDrdk mifLFkr gksrh
gS tks fd tUrq dksf'kdkvksa esa ;s vuqifLFkr gksrs gAS tcfd
tUrq dksf'kdk esa rkjddsU gksrk gS tks ikni dksf'kdkvksa esa
vuqifLFkr gksrk gAS
98. f>Yyh vkLrkfjr dksf'kdkax feyrs g-aS
(1) thok.kq
(2) dod
(3) uhy&gfjr 'ko
S ky
(4) fo"kk.kq
99. yodksa dk ik;k tkuk fdldk vfHkyk{kf.kd xq.k g-S
(1) ikni
(2) tUrq
(3) dod
(4) thok.kq
100. ikni dksf'kdk esa dsUd fdldh mifLFkfr ds dkj.k ifjkh;
gksrk gS (1) cM+h dsUdh; fjfDrdk
(2) lw=df.kdk
(3) IykTek f>Yyh
(4) jkbckslkse

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