MULTIPLE CHOICE.

Choose the one alternative

that best completes the statement or answers the
question.
1) Plasma is closest in composition to 1) _______
A) sterile water.
B) urine.
C) CSF.
D) interstitial fluid.
E) isotonic saline solution.
2) The percent fraction of formed elements relative to
whole blood is the 2) _______
A) differential cell count.
B) specific gravity.
C) hematocrit.
D) viscosity.
E) packed volume.
3) Which of the following is a function of the blood?
3) _______
A) defense against toxins and pathogens
B) transport of body heat
C) transport of nutrients and wastes
D) transport of gases
E) All of the answers are correct.
4) Which of the following statements about blood is
false? 4) _______
A) Blood contains buffers that control pH.
B) Cells in blood comprise the formed elements.
C) Blood is about 55 percent plasma.
D) The normal pH of blood is 6.8 to 7.0.
E) Blood is more viscous than water.
5) Formed elements make up about what percentage
of blood? 5) _______
A) 30 percent B) 20 percent C) 45 percent D) 60
percent E) 55 percent

6) Consider these results from a blood lab test. Which

value is most likely abnormal? 6) _______
A) hemoglobin10.7 g/100 ml
B) RBCs5.2 million/l
C) hematocrit44 percent
D) platelets280,000/l
E) leukocytes8600/l
7) The total volume of blood in the body of a 76-kg
man is approximately ________ liters. 7) _______
A) 6 to 8 B) 4.4 C) 10 D) 3.8 E) 5.3
8) The most abundant component of plasma is 8)
_______
A) ions. B) nutrients. C) water. D) gases. E) proteins.
9) A person who has a low blood volume is said to be
9) _______
A) hypervolemic.
B) normovolemic.
C) isovolemic.
D) hypovolemic.
E) antivolemic.
10) The chief difference between plasma and
interstitial fluid involves the 10) ______
A) concentration of glucose.
B) concentration of nitrogen wastes.
C) concentration of electrolytes.
D) concentration of proteins.
E) concentration of water.
11) A typical adult hematocrit is 11) ______
A) 75. B) 85. C) 65. D) 25. E) 45.
12) Plasma composes about ________ percent of

whole blood and water composes ________ percent of

the plasma volume. 12) ______
A) 92; 55 B) 50; 50 C) 92; 7 D) 55; 92 E) 45; 55
13) Thyroid-binding globulin is an example of which
kind of plasma protein? 13) ______
A) apolipoprotein
B) transport albumin
C) metalloprotein
D) hormone-binding
E) steroid-binding
14) Transferrin is an example of which kind of plasma
protein? 14) ______
A) hormone-binding protein
B) apolipoprotein
C) transport albumin
D) steroid-binding protein
E) metalloprotein
15) Which plasma protein transports fatty acids and
some hormones? 15) ______
A) translipin
B) gamma globulin
C) albumin
D) steroid-binding protein
E) hormone-binding protein
16) Which organ secretes most of the plasma proteins?
16) ______
A) pancreas B) heart C) brain D) liver E) kidney
17) The most abundant proteins in blood plasma are
17) ______
A) transport proteins.
B) albumins.
C) lipoproteins.
D) fibrinogens.

E) globulins.

E) a gene for adult hemoglobin is abnormal.

18) Plasma proteins essential in body defense are the

18) ______
A) albumins.
B) lipoproteins.
C) metalloproteins.
D) fibrinogens.
E) immunoglobulins.

23) When a person who lives at sea level vacations in

the Rocky Mountains, you would expect 23) ______
A) an increase in red blood cell production.
B) the release of erythropoietin.
C) a drop in oxygen levels.
D) a rise in hematocrit.
E) All of the answers are correct.

19) A plasma protein essential for blood coagulation

is 19) ______
A) lipoprotein C.
B) fibrinogen.
C) metalloprotein D.
D) albumin alpha.
E) immunoglobulin A.

24) Surgical removal of the stomach could cause 24)

______
A) thrombocytopenia.
B) jaundice.
C) pernicious anemia.
D) hemophilia.
E) leukocytosis.

20) All the circulating red blood cells in an adult

originate in the 20) ______
A) red bone marrow.
B) heart.
C) lymph tissue.
D) thymus.
E) spleen.

25) Mary is tested for the amount of hemoglobin in

her blood. The test results indicate that her
hemoglobin level is 16 g/dL of blood. This value
indicates that 25) ______
A) she has fewer red blood cells than normal.
B) she may be suffering from a form of leukemia.
C) her hemoglobin level is normal.
D) she is suffering from anemia.
E) her hematocrit is probably lower than normal.

21) Red blood cell production is regulated by the

hormone 21) ______
A) erythropoietin.
B) thymosin.
C) renin.
D) angiotensin.
E) M-CSF.
22) The disease sickle cell anemia is an example of
what can happen if 22) ______
A) red blood cells bind too much oxygen.
B) the diet is deficient in iron.
C) hemolysis is prevented by a mutated gene.
D) there is insufficient heme in the hemoglobin.

26) The level of erythropoietin in the blood would rise

due to all of the following, except 26) ______
A) during anemia.
B) at high altitudes.
C) during periods of fasting.
D) when blood flow to the kidneys is disrupted.
E) as a consequence of hemorrhage.
27) The average life span of a red blood cell is 27)
______
A) 4 months.
B) many years.
C) 1 month.

D) about 1 year.
E) 24 hours.
28) The function of red blood cells is to 28) ______
A) carry carbon dioxide from the lungs to the body's
cells.
B) carry oxygen from the cells to the lungs.
C) carry nutrients from the digestive system to the
body's cells.
D) defend the body against infectious organisms.
E) carry oxygen to the cells and then carry away
carbon dioxide.
29) Eileen is a strict vegan and therefore eats no
animal products. She develops an anemia that her
doctor thinks is caused by a nutritional deficiency.
Which of the following is the likeliest candidate? 29)
______
A) vitamin B12 deficiency
B) iron deficiency
C) vitamin B6 deficiency
D) vitamin K deficiency
E) lack of intrinsic factor
30) In adults, the only site of red blood cell
production, and the primary site of white blood cell
formation, is the 30) ______
A) liver.
B) thymus.
C) spleen.
D) yellow bone marrow.
E) red bone marrow.
31) Each heme ring in hemoglobin encloses an atom
of 31) ______
A) magnesium.
B) sodium.
C) calcium.
D) copper.
E) iron.

32) More than 95 percent of the protein in a red blood

cell is 32) ______
A) hemoglobin.
B) immunoglobulin.
C) fibrinogen.
D) albumin.
E) porphyrin.
33) The function of hemoglobin is to 33) ______
A) stimulate erythropoiesis.
B) carry dissolved blood gases.
C) aid in the process of blood clotting.
D) produce antibodies.
E) carry bicarbonate ion.
34) ________ is a condition in which the oxygencarrying capacity of the blood is reduced. 34) ______
A) Leukemia
B) Polycythemia
C) Anemia
D) Leukopenia
E) Thrombocytopenia
35) Pernicious anemia caused by a lack of intrinsic
factor is specifically treated by 35) ______
A) blood transfusion.
B) injections of iron.
C) oral doses of vitamin B12.
D) injections of vitamin B12.
E) oral doses of iron.

36) A bruise appears as a greenish spot in the skin

because 36) ______
A) dead white blood cells accumulate at the site of
injury.
B) hemoglobin has leaked from the blood into the
injury and hemoglobin has a green color.
C) red blood cells are green when they leave
circulation.

D) bilirubin from hemoglobin recycling has built-up

in the bruise.
E) the heme group in the hemoglobin has broken
down into biliverdin.

B) erythrocytosis.
C) hemocytosis.
D) erythropenia.
E) erythropoiesis.

37) Aged and damaged erythrocytes are broken down

by macrophages in the 37) ______
A) bone marrow.
B) liver.
C) spleen.
D) digestive tract.
E) spleen, liver, and bone marrow.

42) ________ are immature erythrocytes that are

present in the circulation. 42) ______
A) Myeloblasts
B) Erythroblasts
C) Band cells
D) Reticulocytes
E) Normoblasts

38) The waste product bilirubin is produced from 38)

______
A) iron found in hemoglobin molecules.
B) globin chains of hemoglobin.
C) heme molecules plus iron.
D) heme molecules lacking iron.
E) abnormal proteins found in red blood cells.

43) Each hemoglobin molecule contains 43) ______

A) one heme group.
B) one alpha and one beta chain.
C) four iron atoms.
D) four alpha chains.
E) a molecule of oxygen and a molecule of carbon
dioxide.

39) Most of the iron that is removed from degraded

hemoglobin is 39) ______
A) recycled to the red bone marrow.
B) excreted by the liver.
C) excreted by the kidneys.
D) excreted by the intestines.
E) stored in yellow bone marrow.

44) The yellow color that is visible in the eyes and skin
in jaundice results from 44) ______
A) the recycling of hemoglobin.
B) excessive amounts of bilirubin in the plasma.
C) extensive breakdown of RBCs.
D) destruction of hemoglobin.
E) All of the answers are correct.

40) In adults, red bone marrow is located in the 40)

______
A) sternum and ribs.
B) body of vertebrae.
C) proximal epiphyses of long bones.
D) iliac crest.
E) All of the answers are correct.

45) Which of the following blood count values would

be a sign of anemia? 45) ______
A) 5.5 million RBC
B) 400,000 platelets
C) 3.5 million RBC
D) 10,000 WBC
E) A and D taken together

41) The process of red blood cell production is called

41) ______
A) hematopenia.

46) Bill wants to determine his blood type, so he takes

a few drops of blood from a puncture wound in his
finger and mixes it with various antisera. His blood

cells agglutinate when mixed with the anti-A sera but

not with the anti-B or anti-D sera. This means 46)
______
A) Bill's plasma contains B antibodies.
B) Bill could receive type B-negative blood in a
transfusion.
C) Bill's red blood cells contain the O surface antigen.
D) Bill could donate blood to an individual with type
O blood.
E) Bill is Rh positive.
47) A person's blood type is determined largely by the
47) ______
A) volume of the RBCs.
B) shape of the RBCs.
C) chemical character of the hemoglobin.
D) presence of specific glycoproteins on the cell
membrane.
E) size of the RBCs.
48) People with type AB blood are considered the
"universal recipient" for transfusions because 48)
______
A) their blood cells lack A and B antigens.
B) their blood lacks A or B agglutinins.
C) they are usually Rh negative.
D) their blood is plentiful in A and B agglutinins.
E) they usually have very strong immune systems.
49) Blood type is identified primarily by 49) ______
A) the Rh blood group.
B) the Kahn blood group.
C) the ABO blood group.
D) both the ABO and Rh blood groups.
E) the HB blood system.
50) Type AB blood has which of the following
characteristics: 50) ______
A) RBCs have the Rh positive antigens and the anti-D
plasma antibodies.
B) RBCs have the A antigen and the plasma has the

anti-B antibody.
C) RBCs have both the A & B surface antigens and no
ABO plasma antibodies.
D) RBCs have the A and the B surface antigens and
the plasma has anti-A and anti-B antibodies.
E) RBCs have no surface antigens and both anti-A and
anti-B antibodies in the plasma.
51) Anti-D antibodies are present in the blood of 51)
______
A) all individuals with type AB blood.
B) all Rh negative individuals.
C) Rh negative individuals who have been exposed to
the D surface antigen.
D) all Rh positive individuals.
E) Rh positive individuals who have been exposed to
the D surface antigen.
52) Antigens of the surface of red blood cells are also
called ________ and antibodies in the blood plasma
are also called ________. 52) ______
A) T-cells; B-cells
B) serum; plasma
C) erythrogens; antibiotics
D) agglutinogens; agglutinins
E) agglutinins; agglutinogens
53) Which of the following combinations may result in
the hemolytic disease of the newborn: 53) ______
A) mother type A+, baby type O+
B) mother Rh negative, baby Rh negative
C) mother Rh positive, baby Rh negative
D) mother Rh negative, baby Rh positive
E) None of the answers are correct.
54) Granulocytes form in 54) ______
A) the spleen.
B) red bone marrow.
C) the thymus.
D) the intestines.
E) yellow bone marrow.

55) All of the following are true of neutrophils, except

that they are 55) ______
A) also known as polymorphonuclear leukocytes.
B) important in coagulation.
C) phagocytic.
D) active in fighting bacterial infections.
E) granular leukocytes.
56) The most numerous white blood cells in
peripheral circulation are the 56) ______
A) lymphocytes.
B) neutrophils.
C) basophils.
D) monocytes.
E) eosinophils.
57) White blood cells that release histamine at the site
of an injury are 57) ______
A) lymphocytes.
B) basophils.
C) eosinophils.
D) neutrophils.
E) monocytes.
58) ________ are large phagocytic white cells that
spend most of their time outside the blood as fixed
and free phagocytic cells. 58) ______
A) Eosinophils
B) Monocytes
C) Lymphocytes
D) Neutrophils
E) Basophils
59) White blood cells that are increased in allergic
individuals are the 59) ______
A) monocytes.
B) neutrophils.
C) eosinophils.
D) lymphocytes.
E) basophils.

60) The most numerous WBCs in a differential count

of a healthy individual are 60) ______
A) monocytes.
B) basophils.
C) leukocytes.
D) neutrophils.
E) lymphocytes.

65) An infected wound contains typically contains 65)

______
A) tissue fluids.
B) pus.
C) cellular debris.
D) dead neutrophils.
E) All of the answers are correct.

70) Which of the following is true of eosinophils? 70)

______
A) allergic patients have many
B) have bilobed nucleus
C) granules stain with eosin dyes
D) constitute about 2 to 4 percent of WBCs
E) All of the answers are correct.

61) Which of the following is not true of neutrophils?

61) ______
A) can make hydrogen peroxide
B) attracted to complement-coated bacteria
C) can exit capillaries
D) can destroy bacteria
E) less abundant than lymphocytes

66) Which of the following is not true of monocytes?

66) ______
A) can phagocytize bacteria
B) enter tissues and wander
C) about same size as basophils
D) become macrophages
E) are long lived

62) Which of these descriptions best matches the term

B lymphocytes? 62) ______
A) helper cells are one type
B) produce antibodies in response to antigens
C) adhere to collagen beneath endothelium
D) often elevated in allergic individuals
E) kill bacteria using hydrogen peroxide

67) During a bacterial infection you would expect to

see increased numbers of 67) ______
A) eosinophils.
B) neutrophils.
C) basophils.
D) thrombocytes.
E) reticulocytes.

71) A patient has an infected puncture wound to her

foot. Which type of white blood cell would you expect
to be elevated in a differential white cell count? 71)
______
A) eosinophils
B) basophils
C) lymphocytes
D) neutrophils
E) monocytes

63) Which of the following is true of basophils? 63)

______
A) granules contain heparin
B) granules contain histamine
C) constitute about 1 percent of WBCs
D) attract other defense cells
E) All of the answers are correct.

68) The blood cells involved in specific immunity are

the: 68) ______
A) monocytes
B) neutrophils
C) basophils
D) lymphocytes
E) erythrocytes

64) Which of these descriptions best matches the term

T lymphocytes? 64) ______
A) adhere to collagen beneath endothelium
B) are involved in cell mediated immunity
C) often elevated in allergic individuals
D) kill bacteria using hydrogen peroxide
E) produce antibodies in response to antigens

69) Non-specific immunity, such as phagocytosis, is a

function of which blood cells? 69) ______
A) lymphocytes and monocytes
B) basophils and eosinophils
C) lymphocytes
D) neutrophils, eosinophils, and monocytes
E) platelets

Figure 19-1 The Origins and Differentiation of Formed Elements

Use Figure 19-1 to answer the following questions:
72) Identify the cell labeled "5." 72) ______
A) eosinophil
B) monocyte
C) basophil
D) lymphocyte
E) erythrocyte
73) Identify the cell labeled "6." 73) ______
A) lymphocyte
B) eosinophil
C) monocyte
D) basophil
E) erythrocyte
74) Identify the cell labeled "4." 74) ______
A) monocyte
B) neutrophil

C) platelet
D) basophil
E) lymphocyte
75) Identify the cell labeled "3." 75) ______
A) monocyte
B) erythrocyte
C) basophil
D) lymphocyte
E) eosinophil
76) Identify the cell labeled "2." 76) ______
A) lymphocyte
B) neutrophil
C) eosinophil
D) monocyte
E) basophil
77) The function of platelets is to assist in the 77)
______
A) transport of blood gases such as oxygen.
B) destruction of bacteria.
C) process called hemostasis.
D) removal of worn out red blood cells.
E) immune response during an infection.
78) Platelets are pinched off from giant
multinucleated cells in the bone marrow called 78)
______
A) myeloblasts.
B) megakaryocytes.
C) normoblasts.
D) lymphoblasts.
E) erythroblasts.
79) Platelets are 79) ______
A) large cells with a prominent, concave nucleus.
B) blue cells that have a nucleus.
C) cytoplasmic fragments of large cells.
D) tiny cells with a polynucleus.
E) red cells that lack a nucleus.

80) In case of hemorrhage, platelets are stored as a

reserve in 80) ______
A) bone marrow.
B) the kidneys.
C) the thymus gland.
D) the heart.
E) the spleen.
81) Which of these descriptions best matches the
function of platelets? 81) ______
A) helper cells are one type
B) produce antibodies in response to antigens
C) kill bacteria using hydrogen peroxide
D) adhere to collagen beneath endothelium
E) often elevated in allergic individuals
82) A person whose platelet count is 40,000/l is
suffering from 82) ______
A) thrombocytosis.
B) hemocytosis.
C) leukocytosis.
D) leukopenia.
E) thrombocytopenia.
83) ________ involves a cascade of reactions leading to
the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin. 83) ______
A) Fibrinolysis
B) Vascular spasm
C) Retraction
D) Coagulation
E) The platelet phase
84) Most of the protein factors that are required for
clotting are synthesized by 84) ______
A) platelets.
B) megakaryocytes.
C) the liver.
D) the spleen.
E) the kidneys.

85) The extrinsic pathway of coagulation is initiated

by the 85) ______
A) activation of Factor VII exposed to collagen.
B) release of tissue factor (Factor III) by damaged
endothelium.
C) release of heparin from the liver.
D) conversion of prothrombin to thrombin.
E) sticking of platelets to damaged tissue.
86) The intrinsic pathway of coagulation is activated
by the 86) ______
A) release of heparin from the liver.
B) conversion of prothrombin to thrombin.
C) activation of Factor XII exposed to collagen.
D) release of tissue factor (Factor III) by damaged
endothelium.
E) sticking of platelets to damaged tissue.
87) The common pathway of coagulation begins with
the 87) ______
A) conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin.
B) activation of a proenzyme exposed to collagen.
C) conversion of Factor X to prothrombinase.
D) release of tissue factor by damaged endothelium.
E) sticking of platelets to damaged tissue.
88) The process of fibrinolysis 88) ______
A) draws torn edges of damaged tissue closer
together.
B) forms thrombi.
C) activates fibrinogen.
D) forms emboli.
E) dissolves clots.
89) The enzyme that can digest fibrin and dissolve a
clot is 89) ______
A) phosphokinase.
B) thrombin.
C) plasmin.
D) heparin.

E) fibrinase.
90) Tissue factor (Factor III) is a factor in the ________
pathway. 90) ______
A) intrinsic
B) common
C) extrinsic
D) fibrinolytic
E) retraction
91) Plasma thromboplastin is a factor in the ________
pathway. 91) ______
A) retraction
B) extrinsic
C) fibrinolytic
D) intrinsic
E) common
92) A substance that activates plasminogen might be
useful to 92) ______
A) cause clot dissolution to proceed faster.
B) initiate clot formation.
C) cause clots to form faster.
D) mimic heparin.
E) recruit neutrophils to an infection.
93) How would removal of calcium ions from a blood
sample affect coagulation? 93) ______
A) more blood cells would be produced
B) coagulation would be prevented
C) the coagulation pathway would be more sensitive
to activation
D) coagulation would occur only in Rh positive
individuals
E) no important effect because magnesium can
substitute for calcium
94) Which of the following vitamins is needed for the
formation of clotting factors? 94) ______
A) vitamin E
B) vitamin B

C) vitamin A
D) vitamin K
E) vitamin D

C) fibrinogen-converting enzyme.
D) factor VIII.
E) prothrombinase.

95) A moving blood clot is called a(n) 95) ______

A) procoagulant.
B) thrombus.
C) embolus.
D) plaque.
E) platelet plug.

100) A digestive disorder that impairs a person's

ability to absorb vitamin K will result in 100) _____
A) low levels of Factor X.
B) prolonged bleeding.
C) low levels of thromboplastin.
D) low levels of prothrombin.
E) All of the answers are correct.

96) Areas in a vessel wall where large quantities of

lipid accumulate are called 96) ______
A) clots.
B) emboli.
C) thrombi.
D) occlusions.
E) plaques.

101) The heart beats approximately ________ times

each day. 101) _____
A) 100,000
B) 10,000
C) 10,000,000
D) 1,000
E) 1,000,000

97) People who suffer from hemophilia A fail to

produce a functional Factor VIII; as a result 97)
______
A) they lack a functional intrinsic pathway.
B) they lack a functional extrinsic pathway.
C) their coagulation times are much longer than
normal.
D) their coagulation times are too quick.
E) they lack a functional common pathway.

102) The structure that permits blood flow from the

right atrium to the left atrium in the fetal circulation is
the 102) _____
A) fossa ovalis.
B) foramen ovale.
C) coronary sinus.
D) ligamentum arteriosus.
E) interatrial septum.

98) What are common sources of vitamin K? 98)

______
A) whole grains
B) green vegetables
C) organ meats
D) intestinal bacteria
E) All of answers are correct.

103) Blood leaves the right ventricle by passing

through the 103) _____
A) aortic valve.
B) mitral valve.
C) bicuspid valve.
D) tricuspid valve.
E) pulmonary valve.

99) The conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin is catalyzed

by the enzyme 99) ______
A) thrombin.
B) plasmin.

104) Intercalated discs serve to transfer ________ from

cell to cell. 104) _____
A) the force of contraction

B) ionic currents
C) action potentials
D) electrical signals
E) All of the answers are correct.

B) pericardial space.
C) ventral cavity.
D) mediastinum.
E) cardiac notch.

105) The atrioventricular valves permit blood flow

105) _____
A) in one direction only.
B) in opposite directions on the right and left.
C) from a ventricle to an atrium.
D) in both directions.
E) in many directions.

110) The cusps (leaflets) of atrioventricular valves

attach directly to 110) _____
A) papillary muscles.
B) chordae tendineae.
C) interatrial septa.
D) trabeculae carneae.
E) coronary sulci.

106) Blood returning to the heart from the systemic

circuit first enters the 106) _____
A) right atrium.
B) right ventricle.
C) left atrium.
D) conus arteriosus.
E) left ventricle.

111) Contractions of the papillary muscles 111) _____

A) close the atrioventricular valves.
B) prevent the atrioventricular valves from reversing
into the atria.
C) eject blood from the ventricles.
D) close the semilunar valves.
E) eject blood from the atria into the ventricles.

107) Blood returning to the heart from the pulmonary

circuit first enters the 107) _____
A) left atrium.
B) conus arteriosus.
C) right ventricle.
D) right atrium.
E) left ventricle.

112) The visceral pericardium is the same as the 112)

_____
A) mediastinum.
B) epicardium.
C) myocardium.
D) parietal pericardium.
E) endocardium.

108) The earlike extension of the atrium is the 108)

_____
A) coronary sinus.
B) auricle.
C) atricle.
D) coronary sulcus.
E) ventricle.

113) Most of the middle layer in the heart wall is

composed of 113) _____
A) cardiac muscle cells.
B) fibrocytes.
C) smooth muscle cells.
D) chondrocytes.
E) epitheliocytes.

109) In the middle of the thoracic cavity is a region

occupied by the heart, great vessels, thymus,
esophagus, and trachea called the 109) _____
A) pleural space.

114) The left ventricle pumps blood to the 114) _____

A) right ventricle.
B) aorta.
C) pulmonary circuit.

D) lungs.
E) right atrium.
115) The right ventricle pumps blood to the 115)
_____
A) right and left lungs.
B) aorta.
C) right atrium.
D) left atrium.
E) left ventricle.
116) The right atrium receives blood from the 116)
_____
A) systemic circuit.
B) superior vena cava.
C) inferior vena cava.
D) coronary sinus.
E) All of the answers are correct.
117) When a blood clot forms on a ruptured plaque in
a coronary artery, the condition is referred to as a(n)
117) _____
A) coronary thrombosis.
B) angina pectoris.
C) coronary spasm.
D) myocardial infarction.
E) pulmonary embolism.
118) Cardiac cells damaged by infarction will show
which of the following? 118) _____
A) release of enzymes into the circulation
B) release of CK-MB into the circulation
C) release of troponin T and I into the circulation
D) switch to anaerobic metabolism
E) All of the answers are correct.
119) Blood flowing into the heart from the venae
cavae flows next through the ________ valve. 119)
_____
A) aortic semilunar

B) mitral
C) bicuspid
D) pulmonary semilunar
E) tricuspid

backward flow into the 125) _____

A) pulmonary trunk.
B) aorta.
C) left atrium.
D) pulmonary veins.
E) right ventricle.

pulmonary circuit? 130) _____

A) right ventricle, pulmonary trunk, left atrium
B) left ventricle, pulmonary veins, right atrium
C) right ventricle, pulmonary veins, aorta
D) inferior vena cava, right atrium, aorta
E) superior vena cava, right atrium, left ventricle

121) There are ________ pulmonary veins. 121) _____

A) 6 B) 2 C) 12 D) 8 E) 4

126) The bicuspid or mitral valve is located 126)

_____
A) where the venae cavae join the right atrium.
B) between the right atrium and right ventricle.
C) between the left atrium and left ventricle.
D) in the opening of the pulmonary trunk.
E) in the opening of the aorta.

131) The right pulmonary veins carry ________ blood

to the ________ . 131) _____
A) deoxygenated; right atrium
B) deoxygenated; superior vena cava
C) deoxygenated; left atrium
D) oxygenated; right lung
E) oxygenated; left atrium

122) When the semilunar valves close, the AV valves

then 122) _____
A) close.
B) make the third heart sound.
C) contract.
D) open.
E) prolapse.

127) The ________ valve prevents backward flow into

the left atrium. 127) _____
A) tricuspid
B) bicuspid
C) pulmonic
D) semilunar
E) semicaval

132) The following is a list of vessels and structures

that are associated with the heart.

123) The ________ deliver(s) blood to the

myocardium. 123) _____
A) cardiac veins
B) superior vena cava
C) coronary sinus
D) carotid arteries
E) coronary arteries

128) The function of an atrium is to 128) _____

A) pump blood into the systemic circuit.
B) collect blood then pump it to the ventricle.
C) collect blood.
D) pump blood to the lungs.
E) pump blood to the ventricle.

120) Coronary veins empty into the 120) _____

A) left ventricle.
B) conus arteriosus.
C) left atrium.
D) right ventricle.
E) right atrium.

124) Blood is supplied to the left atrium by the 124)

_____
A) brachiocephalic artery.
B) pulmonary arteries.
C) left coronary artery.
D) phrenic arteries.
E) right coronary artery.
125) The pulmonary semilunar valve prevents

129) Compared to the right ventricle, the left ventricle

has all the following characteristics, except that it
129) _____
A) has a thicker wall.
B) produces about four to six times more pressure
when it contracts.
C) works harder.
D) pumps a greater volume.
E) is round in cross section.
130) Which of the following are involved in the

1. right atrium
2. left atrium
3. right ventricle
4. left ventricle
5. venae cavae
6. aorta
7. pulmonary trunk
8. pulmonary veins
What is the correct order for the flow of blood entering from the systemic
circulation? 132) _____
A) 5, 3, 1, 7, 8, 4, 2, 6
B) 1, 7, 3, 8, 2, 4, 6, 5
C) 5, 1, 3, 8, 7, 2, 4, 6
D) 1, 2, 7, 8, 3, 4, 6, 5
E) 5, 1, 3, 7, 8, 2, 4, 6
133) The pulmonary arteries carry blood to the 133)
_____
A) intestines.
B) liver.
C) lungs.
D) brain.

E) heart.

E) aorta.

134) The pulmonary veins carry blood to the 134)

_____
A) heart.
B) lungs.
C) intestines.
D) liver.
E) brain.

139) The circumflex branch and the anterior

interventricular artery are branches of the 139) _____
A) right coronary artery.
B) coronary sinus.
C) interventricular artery.
D) aorta.
E) left coronary artery.

135) The foramen ovale in the fetal heart is located in

the 135) _____
A) left atrium.
B) right ventricle.
C) left ventricle.
D) interatrial septum.
E) right atrium.

140) The great and middle cardiac veins drain blood

into the 140) _____
A) coronary sinus.
B) aorta.
C) coronary sulcus.
D) inferior vena cava.
E) superior vena cava.

136) Blood is supplied to the myocardium by 136)

_____
A) the coronary arteries.
B) the coronary sinus.
C) contact with blood in the pumping chambers.
D) arteries that branch from the pulmonary arteries.
E) arteries that branch off the subclavian arteries.

141) In cardiac muscle, the fast depolarization phase

of the action potential is the result of 141) _____
A) increased membrane permeability to potassium
ions.
B) increased membrane permeability to sodium ions.
C) increased membrane permeability to chloride ions.
D) decreased membrane permeability to calcium ions.
E) decreased membrane permeability to sodium ions.

137) The first blood vessels to branch from the aorta

are the ________ arteries. 137) _____
A) subclavian
B) pulmonary
C) circumflex
D) coronary
E) carotid
138) The marginal branch and posterior
interventricular branch are branches of the 138)
_____
A) coronary sinus.
B) left coronary artery.
C) circumflex artery.
D) right coronary artery.

142) The long plateau phase of the cardiac muscle

action potential is due to 142) _____
A) increased membrane permeability to sodium ions.
B) movement of fewer sodium ions across the cell
membrane.
C) calcium channels remaining open.
D) increased membrane permeability to potassium
ion.
E) decrease in the amount of calcium diffusing across
the membrane.
143) In cardiac muscle 143) _____
A) about 20 percent of the calcium ion required for
contraction comes from outside the cell.

B) calcium ions play an important role in repolarizing

the membrane after the depolarization phase.
C) calcium ions do not bind to troponin molecules.
D) calcium ions play no role in the process of
contraction.
E) calcium ions are not released from the
sarcoplasmic reticulum.

Figure 20-1 The Heart

Use Figure 20-1 to answer the following questions:
144) Identify the structure labeled "19." 144) _____
A) bicuspid valve
B) ligamentum arteriosum
C) aortic semilunar valve
D) pulmonary semilunar valve
E) tricuspid valve
145) Identify the structure labeled "8." 145) _____
A) moderator band
B) trabeculae carneae
C) pectinate muscles
D) papillary muscles
E) chordae tendineae
146) Identify the structure labeled "6." 146) _____
A) pulmonary semilunar valve
B) bicuspid valve
C) aortic semilunar valve
D) cusp of tricuspid valve
E) ligamentum arteriosum
147) Which chamber receives oxygenated blood from
the pulmonary circuit? 147) _____
A) 5
B) 16
C) 13
D) 10
E) both 5 and 16

148) Identify the structure labeled "21." 148) _____

A) bicuspid valve
B) ligamentum arteriosum
C) aortic semilunar valve
D) tricuspid valve
E) pulmonary semilunar valve
149) Abnormally slow depolarization of the ventricles
would most change the shape of the ________ in an
ECG tracing. 149) _____
A) P-R interval
B) QRS complex
C) R-T interval
D) T wave
E) P wave
150) If the pacemaker cells in the SA node become
more permeable to potassium ions, the 150) _____
A) heart rate will decrease.
B) cells will hyperpolarize.
C) cells will depolarize.
D) heart rate will increase.
E) heart rate will decrease and cells will
hyperpolarize.
151) If the connection between the SA node and AV
node becomes blocked, 151) _____
A) cardiac output will increase.
B) the ventricular beat will remain unchanged.
C) the atria will contract more forcefully.
D) the ventricles will beat faster.
E) the ventricles will beat more slowly.
152) The following are structural components of the
conducting system of the heart.
1. Purkinje fibers
2. AV bundle
3. AV node

4. SA node
5. bundle branches

brain to the heart.

D) can spontaneously depolarize.
E) All of the answers are correct.
The sequence in which excitation would move through this system is 152) _____
A) 3, 2, 4, 5, 1.
157) Put in correct order the sequence in which
B) 4, 3, 2, 5, 1.
excitation would move through the conducting
C) 3, 5, 4, 2, 1.
system of the heart:
D) 1, 4, 3, 2, 5.
1. Purkinje fibers
E) 4, 2, 3, 5, 1.
2. AV bundle
branches

153) The P wave of the electrocardiogram is a signal

from 153) _____
A) depolarization of the SA node.
B) depolarization of the AV node.
C) depolarization of the atria.
D) depolarization of the ventricles.
E) repolarization of the atria.
154) If there is a complete block between the SA node
and the AV node, how would the ECG be affected?
154) _____
A) The P-R interval will be shorter.
B) There will be much bigger P waves.
C) The rate of P waves will be faster than the rate of
QRS complexes.
D) The QRS duration will be longer.
E) The ventricles will stop beating.
155) Depolarization of the ventricles is represented on
an electrocardiogram by the 155) _____
A) P wave.
B) PR complex.
C) T wave.
D) QRS complex.
E) S wave.
156) Pacemaker cells in the SA node 156) _____
A) have a well-defined resting potential.
B) also contract with the rest of the cells in the heart
wall.
C) are special neurons that convey signals from the

A) 3, 5, 4, 2, 1.
B) 4, 2, 3, 5, 1.
C) 4, 3, 2, 5, 1.
D) 1, 4, 3, 2, 5.
E) 3, 2, 4, 5, 1.

3. AV node 157) _____

158) A heart murmur might be caused by 158) _____

A) aortic valve insufficiency.
B) swirling of blood in the ventricle.
C) mitral valve insufficiency.
D) pulmonic valve insufficiency.
E) All of the answers are correct.
159) The systolic part (both atrial and ventricular) of a
cardiac cycle lasts on average 159) _____
A) 3 seconds.
B) 800 msec.
C) 370 msec.
D) 100 msec.
E) 5 seconds.
160) At a heart rate of 60 beats/minute, a cardiac cycle
lasts 160) _____
A) 630 milliseconds.
B) 60 seconds.
C) 370 milliseconds.
D) 1 second.
E) 60 milliseconds.
161) The first heart sound is heard when the 161)

4. SA node
5. b

_____
A) semilunar valves close.
B) AV valves close.
C) blood enters the aorta.
D) AV valves open.
E) atria contract.
162) The first heart sound ("lub") 162) _____
A) is associated with atrial systole.
B) is associated with opening of the aortic valve.
C) is associated with closing of the aortic valve.
D) is associated with closing of the mitral valve.
E) is associated with opening of the mitral valve.
163) The phase in the cardiac cycle when the mitral
valve is closed and the aortic valve is open is the 163)
_____
A) atrial systole.
B) dicrotic phase.
C) late diastolic filling phase.
D) systolic ejection phase.
E) early diastolic filling phase.
164) Pacemaker cells isolated from the SA node
generate action potentials at ________ beats per
minute. 164) _____
A) 80100 B) 2040 C) 100140 D) 4060 E) 140
180
165) ________ is to slow heart rate as ________ is to
fast heart rate. 165) _____
A) Tachycardia; bradycardia
B) Cardiac tamponade; bradycardia
C) Bradycardia; tachycardia
D) Bradycardia; cardiomyopathy
E) Angina; infarction
166) Depolarization of the atria corresponds to the
EKG's 166) _____
A) P wave.

B) S-T segment.
C) T wave.
D) QRS complex.
E) QT interval.
167) The T wave on an ECG tracing represents 167)
_____
A) atrial repolarization.
B) ventricular contraction.
C) ventricular repolarization.
D) atrial depolarization.
E) ventricular depolarization.
168) Analysis of the electrocardiogram can reveal all
of the following, except the 168) _____
A) effects of drugs and poisons.
B) heart rate.
C) stroke volume.
D) condition of the conducting system.
E) duration of the ventricular action potential.
169) During the T wave of the electrocardiogram, the
ventricles are 169) _____
A) repolarizing.
B) depolarizing.
C) contracting.
D) relaxing.
E) both repolarizing and relaxing.

Figure 20-2 Cardiac Cycle

Use Figure 20-2 to answer the following questions:
170) What occurs at the area labeled "D" on the
graph? 170) _____
A) AV valve opens
B) diastolic filling begins
C) semilunar valve opens
D) AV valve opens and diastolic filling begins
E) ventricle contracts

171) With each ventricular systole, 171) _____

A) blood pressure remains steady.
B) cardiac output decreases.
C) blood pressure increases.
D) the ventricles fill with blood.
E) blood pressure decreases.
172) An increase in the rate of action potentials from
baroreceptors will trigger a reflex to 172) _____
A) decrease in blood pressure.
B) decrease in heart rate.
C) increase in heart rate.
D) both decrease heart rate and decrease pressure.
E) both increase heart rate and increase pressure.
173) The volume of blood ejected from each ventricle
during a contraction is called the 173) _____
A) end-diastolic volume.
B) end-systolic volume.
C) cardiac reserve.
D) cardiac output.
E) stroke volume.
174) Each of the following factors will increase cardiac
output, except 174) _____
A) increased sympathetic stimulation.
B) increased venous return.
C) increased heart rate.
D) increased parasympathetic stimulation.
E) increased force of contraction.
175) Cardiac output can be increased by all of the
following except one. Choose the exception. 175)
_____
A) increasing ejection fraction
B) decreasing ejection fraction
C) increasing heart rate
D) increasing stroke volume
E) decreasing end systolic volume

E) have a pleated endothelium.

176) Which of these is true about the atrial reflex? 176)
_____
A) triggered by atrial mechanoreceptors
B) triggered by increasing venous return
C) also called Bainbridge reflex
D) depends on sympathetic innervation
E) All of the answers are correct.
177) If the force of ventricular contraction increases,
what will happen to the end-systolic volume? 177)
_____
A) reduced to zero
B) decrease
C) increase
D) fluctuate rapidly
E) remain the same
178) Calculate the cardiac output of a patient with a
heart rate of 100 beats/minute and a stroke volume of
75 ml. 178) _____
A) 7500 ml / min
B) 0.75 ml / min
C) 25 ml / min
D) 750 ml / min
E) 175 ml / min
179) The muscular layer in the wall of a blood vessel is
the 179) _____
A) tunica interna.
B) tunica externa.
C) tunica intima.
D) tunica media.
E) tunica adventitia.
180) Compared to arteries, veins 180) _____
A) have more smooth muscle in their tunica media.
B) hold their shape better when cut.
C) are more elastic.
D) have thinner walls.

181) Arrange the structures in the following list in the

order that blood will encounter as it flows from the
output side to the input side of the cardiovascular
flow circuit.
1. venules
2. arterioles
3. capillaries
4. elastic arteries
5. medium veins
6. large veins
7. muscular arteries
181) _____
A) 7, 4, 2, 3, 1, 5, 6
B) 5, 6, 1, 3, 2, 7, 4
C) 6, 5, 1, 3, 2, 7, 4
D) 4, 7, 2, 3, 1, 5, 6
E) 2, 7, 6, 3, 1, 5, 6
182) End-systolic volume is defined as the: 182) _____
A) amount of blood a ventricle ejects per cycle
B) amount of blood remaining in an atrium after atrial
systole
C) amount of blood which backflows into a ventricle
D) amount of blood remaining in a ventricle after
contraction
E) stroke volume multiplied by the heart rate
183) A patient has an end-diastolic volume of 125 ml.
A heart attack has weakened her left ventricle so it
can pump a stroke volume of only 40 ml. Calculate
her end-systolic volume. 183) _____
A) 5000 ml
B) 165 ml
C) 3.1 ml
D) 85 ml
E) not enough data given to calculate the end-systolic
volume

184) Calculate cardiac output if the heart rate is 125

beats/minute, the end-diastolic volume is 130 ml, and
the end-systolic volume is 40 ml. 184) _____
A) 11,250 ml / min
B) 21,250 ml / min
C) 16,250 ml / min
D) 200 ml / min
E) 195 ml / min
185) Which of these would cause stroke volume to
increase? 185) _____
A) when diastolic blood pressure is decreased
B) decrease in heart rate
C) when venous return is decreased
D) when ventricular contraction is reduced
E) All of the answers are correct.
186) Cardiac output is increased by 186) _____
A) inhibiting the atrial reflex.
B) sympathetic stimulation.
C) decreased venous return.
D) decreased end diastolic volume.
E) increased end systolic volume.
187) Activation of which kind of receptor causes heart
rate to increase? 187) _____
A) beta-two receptor
B) muscarinic receptor
C) alpha-one receptor
D) preganglionic
E) beta-one receptor
188) Drugs that block the beta-one adrenergic
receptors will 188) _____
A) decrease heart rate.
B) increase heart rate.
C) increase contractility.
D) decrease the end-systolic volume.
E) increase cardiac output.

189) Drugs known as calcium channel blockers such

as nifedipine can be used to 189) _____
A) decrease the force of cardiac contraction.
B) produce a negative inotropic effect.
C) decrease blood pressure.
D) dilate the coronary arteries.
E) All of the answers are correct.
190) Heart rate is controlled by neurons of the
cardiovascular center located in the 190) _____
A) hypothalamus.
B) higher centers.
C) medulla oblongata.
D) thalamus.
E) pons.
191) The cardioacceleratory center activates
sympathetic neurons and the cardioinhibitory center
controls parasympathetic neurons. 191) _____
A) Both parts of the statement are true.
B) Both parts of the statement are true and relate to
brainstem control of heart rate.
C) The first part of the statement is false but the
second part is true.
D) Both parts of the statement are false.
E) The first part of the statement is true but the
second part is false.
192) "An increase in end-diastolic volume increases
the stroke volume" is a way of stating 192) _____
A) Finch's law of the heart.
B) Sparrow's law of the heart.
C) Starling's law of the heart.
D) Hawking's law of the heart.
E) Robin's law of the heart.
193) Which of the following would increase heart
rate? 193) _____
A) increased sympathetic stimulation of SA node
B) increased levels of epinephrine
C) faster depolarization of the pacemaker potential

D) decreased parasympathetic stimulation of nodal

fibers
E) All of the answers are correct.
194) The heart is innervated by ________ nerves. 194)
_____
A) somatomotor
B) both parasympathetic and sympathetic
C) sympathetic
D) parasympathetic
E) neither parasympathetic nor sympathetic
195) Stroke volume depends on 195) _____
A) the pressure required to pump blood into the
aorta.
B) the contractility of the ventricle.
C) end diastolic volume.
D) venous return of blood to the heart.
E) All of the answers are correct.

Figure 20-2 Cardiac Cycle

Use Figure 20-2 to answer the following questions:
196) What volume is labeled "G" on the graph? 196)
_____
A) stroke volume
B) end-systolic volume
C) ejection fraction
D) end-diastolic volume
E) cardiac output
197) What occurs at "A" on the graph? 197) _____
A) end systolic volume
B) AV valve closes
C) semilunar valve opens
D) AV valve opens
E) semilunar valve closes
198) What volume is labeled "E" on the graph? 198)

_____
A) end-systolic volume
B) end-diastolic volume
C) total cardiac volume
D) stroke volume
E) cardiac output
199) What occurs at the circled label "5" on the graph?
199) _____
A) isovolumetric contraction
B) isovolumetric systole
C) ventricular refilling
D) increased heart rate
E) peak systolic pressure
200) What occurs at the area labeled "B" on the graph?
200) _____
A) semilunar valve opens
B) AV valve closes
C) ventricular ejection occurs
D) semilunar valve closes
E) AV valve opens
201) What occurs at the circled label "4" on the graph?
201) _____
A) isovolumetric ventricular contraction
B) isovolumetric ventricular relaxation
C) ventricular filling
D) ventricular ejection
E) sympathetic stimulation
202) What occurs at the circled label "7" on the graph?
202) _____
A) ventricular filling
B) isovolumetric ventricular relaxation
C) ventricular ejection
D) sympathetic stimulation
E) isovolumetric ventricular contraction
203) What volume is labeled "F" on the graph?

203)

_____
A) end-diastolic volume
B) end-systolic volume
C) total cardiac volume
D) stroke volume
E) cardiac output
204) What occurs at the area labeled "C" on the graph?
204) _____
A) semilunar valve closes
B) ventricular filling begins
C) semilunar valve opens
D) AV valve closes
E) AV valve opens
205) What is occurring in the left atrium at the circle
labeled "2" on the graph? 205) _____
A) left atrium is in systole
B) left atrial pressure is decreasing
C) left atrium is pressurizing the left ventricle
D) left atrium is in diastole
E) left atrium is receiving pressure from the left
ventricle
206) Which of the following layers of a vessel contains
collagen fibers with scattered bands of elastic fibers?
206) _____
A) internal elastic membrane
B) tunica externa
C) external elastic membrane
D) tunica intima
E) tunica media
207) Which of the following is the innermost layer of a
blood vessel? 207) _____
A) external elastic membrane
B) tunica externa
C) tunica media
D) tunica intima
E) internal elastic membrane

208) Venae cavae are the largest of what type of

vessel? 208) _____
A) arteriole B) artery C) vein D) capillary E) venule
209) Factors that increase the risk of atherosclerosis
include which of the following? 209) _____
A) lack of exercise
B) smoking
C) obesity
D) high cholesterol
E) All of the answers are correct.
210) Exchange between a blood vessel and the cells
that surround it can occur only in 210) _____
A) capillaries.
B) arteries.
C) venules.
D) veins.
E) arterioles.
211) Venoconstriction reduces the diameter of which
vessel? 211) _____
A) artery B) vein C) arteriole D) venule E) capillary
212) What vessels contain elastic fibers in the walls
that are stretched during systole? 212) _____
A) veins B) arteries C) venules D) capillaries E)
arterioles
213) Complications related to arteriosclerosis account
for roughly ________ percent of deaths in the United
States. 213) _____
A) 50 B) 20 C) 30 D) 60 E) 25
214) Blood moves forward through veins because of
all of the following, except 214) _____
A) the respiratory pump.
B) the pressure in the veins is lower than in the
arteries.

C) pumping by the smooth muscle in the wall of the

vein.
D) muscular compression.
E) valves in the veins preventing the backward flow of
blood.
215) Metabolites exchange by diffusion with tissue
cells in which of the following locations? 215) _____
A) venule B) arteriole C) vein D) capillary E) artery
216) List in correct order the sequence of blood vessels
that blood would travel in the systemic circuit starting
at the aorta.
1. venules
medium veins
2. arterioles
6. large veins
3. capillaries
muscular arteries
4. elastic arteries 216) _____
A) 5, 6, 1, 3, 2, 7, 4
B) 4, 7, 2, 3, 1, 5, 6
C) 2, 7, 6, 3, 1, 5, 6
D) 6, 5, 1, 3, 2, 7, 4
E) 7, 4, 2, 3, 1, 5, 6
217) The main control of peripheral resistance occurs
in the 217) _____
A) venules.
B) capillaries.
C) arteries.
D) veins.
E) arterioles.
218) The small vessels that capillaries drain into are
called 218) _____
A) veins.
B) venules.
C) arteries.
D) arterioles.
E) capillaries.

219) Total peripheral resistance is related to all of the

following, except the 219) _____
A) osmolarity of interstitial fluids.
B) length of a blood vessel.
C) turbulence.
D) blood vessel diameter.
E) blood viscosity.
220) In what vessel is blood pressure the highest? 220)
_____
A) artery B) arteriole C) capillary D) vein E) venule
221) The main control of peripheral resistance occurs
in the 221) _____
A) artery. B) venule. C) capillary. D) arteriole. E) vein.
222) Clinically, the term blood pressure usually refers to
222) _____
A) pulse pressure.
B) arteriovenous pressure.
C) capillary hydrostatic pressure.
D) peripheral pressure.
E) arterial pressure.
223) Blood pressure is lowest in the 223) _____
A) venules.
B) capillaries.
C) arterioles.
D) veins.
E) arteries.
224) Each of the following factors would increase
peripheral resistance, except 224) _____
A) elevated hematocrit.
B) increased sympathetic stimulation.
C) vasodilation.
D) elevated levels of epinephrine.
E) irregularities in the vessel walls caused by plaques.

225) If a person has a blood pressure of 120/90, his

mean arterial pressure would be ________ mm Hg.
225) _____
A) 90 B) 210 C) 100 D) 93 E) 105
226) Edema may occur when 226) _____
A) the plasma concentration of protein is reduced.
B) blood pressure is high.
C) endothelial permeability goes up.
D) capillary hydrostatic pressure is elevated.
E) All of the answers are correct.
227) When a person rises quickly from a sitting
position, 227) _____
A) venous return is decreased.
B) heart rate is reflexively elevated.
C) the carotid baroreceptors become less active.
D) reflex vasoconstriction of peripheral blood vessels
occurs.
E) All of the answers are correct.
228) When renin is released from the kidney, 228)
_____
A) angiotensin I is converted to angiotensin II.
B) angiotensin I increases salt reabsorption at the
kidneys.
C) blood flow to the kidneys decreases.
D) blood pressure goes down.
E) angiotensinogen is converted into angiotensin I.
229) In comparison to a vessel with a large diameter, a
vessel with a small diameter has 229) _____
A) a higher blood pressure.
B) less resistance to blood flow.
C) a greater blood flow.
D) the same amount of pressure as resistance.
E) a greater resistance to blood flow.
230) Which of the following equations shows the
correct relation between blood flow (F), pressure (P),
and resistance (R)? 230) _____

A) F=P+R
B) P=(FR) 4
C) F=P/R
D) F=P-R
E) F=R/P
231) Which of the following is normally the greatest
source acting against blood flow? 231) _____
A) viscosity of blood
B) vessel length
C) venous pressure
D) vascular resistance
E) turbulence
232) Some of the fluid that is forced out of capillaries
is returned to the blood by the: 232) _____
A) muscular arteries
B) hepatic portal vein
C) liver
D) lymphatic system
E) venules
233) As blood travels from arteries to veins, 233)
_____
A) diameter of the blood vessels gets progressively
smaller.
B) pressure decreases.
C) viscosity of blood changes.
D) flow becomes turbulent.
E) pressure increases.
234) The difference between the systolic and diastolic
pressures is called the ________ pressure. 234) _____
A) pulse
B) critical closing
C) blood
D) mean arterial
E) circulatory
235) Edema may occur (only) when 235) _____

A) the plasma concentration of protein is reduced and

capillary endothelium permeability goes up.
B) capillary hydrostatic pressure is elevated.
C) capillary endothelium permeability goes up.
D) the plasma concentration of protein is reduced,
capillary hydrostatic pressure is elevated, and the
capillary endothelium permeability goes up.
E) the plasma concentration of protein is reduced.
236) Stimulation of the aortic baroreceptors reflexively
results in 236) _____
A) stimulation of the cardioaccelerator center in the
brain.
B) increased heart rate.
C) increased sympathetic stimulation of the heart.
D) increased activity by the parasympathetic nervous
system.
E) stimulation of the vasoconstrictive center.
237) Which of the following changes doesn't occur
during exercise compared to rest? 237) _____
A) cardiac output is higher
B) heart blood flow is higher
C) abdominal viscera blood flow is lower
D) skin blood flow is lower
E) kidney blood flow is lower
238) ADH and aldosterone secretion are part of the
body's long-term compensation for 238) _____
A) a serious hemorrhage.
B) prolonged exercise.
C) hypertension.
D) a heavy meal.
E) a heart attack.
239) During exercise 239) _____
A) both cardiac output and stroke volume increase.
B) tissue perfusion to the digestive system decreases.
C) vasodilation occurs at the active skeletal muscles.
D) venous return increases.
E) All of the answers are correct.

240) During exercise 240) _____

A) vasodilation occurs at the active skeletal muscles.
B) both cardiac output and stroke volume increase.
C) venous return increases.
D) venous return increases and vasodilation occurs at
the active skeletal muscles.
E) All of the answers are correct.
241) Pulmonary arteries carry blood to the ________.
241) _____
A) aorta.
B) left atrium.
C) systemic circuit.
D) lungs.
E) right atrium.
242) Pulmonary veins carry blood to the 242) _____
A) right atrium.
B) lungs.
C) left atrium.
D) pulmonary circuit.
E) aorta.
243) Branches off the aortic arch include the 243)
_____
A) brachiocephalic trunk.
B) left common carotid artery.
C) left subclavian artery and left common carotid
artery
D) left subclavian artery.
E) brachiocephalic trunk, left subclavian artery, and
left common carotid artery

liver. 245) _____

A) hepatic portal vein
B) myenteric capillaries
C) gastric vein
D) hepatic artery
E) superior mesenteric vein
246) Near the level of vertebra L4, the aorta branches
to form the ________ arteries. 246) _____
A) common iliac
B) popliteal
C) tibial
D) common carotid
E) femoral

247) The vessel that receives blood from the head,

neck, chest, shoulders, and arms is the 247) _____
A) inferior vena cava.
B) external jugular vein.
C) superior vena cava.
D) internal jugular vein.
E) coronary sinus.
248) Veins of the upper arm include the ________
vein(s). 248) _____
A) ulnar
B) brachial
C) basilic
D) cephalic
E) All of the answers are correct.

244) After passing the first rib, the subclavian artery

becomes the ________ artery. 244) _____
A) brachial B) radial C) digital D) axillary E)
ulnar

249) The radial and ulnar veins fuse to form the

________ vein. 249) _____
A) basilic
B) axillary
C) brachial
D) hemiazygos
E) azygos

245) The ________ carries nutrient-rich blood into the

250) The vein that is formed from the fusion of the

subclavian with the internal and external jugulars is

the ________ vein. 250) _____
A) iliac
B) azygos
C) hemiazygos
D) brachiocephalic
E) axillary
251) An important artery that supplies blood to the
brain is the ________ artery. 251) _____
A) maxillary
B) external carotid
C) azygos
D) internal carotid
E) mental
252) When the popliteal vein reaches the femur, it
becomes the ________ vein. 252) _____
A) internal iliac
B) external iliac
C) femoral
D) deep femoral
E) lumbar
253) The two common iliac veins form the 253) _____
A) hepatic portal vein.
B) innominate vein.
C) femoral vein.
D) greater saphenous vein.
E) inferior vena cava.

Figure 21-1 Arteries

Use Figure 21-1 to answer the following questions:
254) Identify the artery labeled "16." 254) _____
A) celiac
B) axillary
C) inferior mesenteric
D) splenic

E) superior mesenteric
255) The lymphatic system does all of the following,
except that it 255) _____
A) eliminates variations in the composition of
interstitial fluid.
B) fights infection.
C) transports lipids from the digestive tract.
D) transports gases to and away from lymph nodes.
E) helps maintain normal blood volume.
256) Compared to blood capillaries, lymph capillaries
exhibit all of the following, except that they 256)
_____
A) are smaller in diameter.
B) are frequently irregular in shape.
C) have no basement membrane.
D) are larger in diameter.
E) have walls of endothelial cells that overlap like
shingles.
257) Most of the lymph returns to the venous
circulation by way of the 257) _____
A) right lymphatic duct.
B) dural sinus.
C) cisterna chyli.
D) thoracic duct.
E) hepatic portal vein.
258) ________ are large lymphatic nodules that are
located in the walls of the pharynx. 258) _____
A) Tonsils
B) Spleens
C) Lymph nodes
D) Peyer patches
E) Immune complexes
259) Lymphatic capillaries are known for 259) _____
A) being the smallest lymphatic vessels.
B) having larger diameters and looser walls than
blood capillaries.

C) shingle-like endothelial cells.

D) being the starting point of the lymphatic
circulation.
E) All of the answers are correct.
260) Lymphatic vessels commonly occur in association
with 260) _____
A) adipose tissue.
B) hyaline cartilage.
C) blood vessels.
D) sensory nerve endings.
E) both blood vessels and adipose tissue.
261) ________ are clusters of lymphatic nodules deep
to the epithelial lining of the small intestine. 261)
_____
A) Immune complexes
B) Adenoids
C) Peyer patches
D) Tonsils
E) Lymph glands
262) The thoracic duct drains lymph from all of the
following regions, except the 262) _____
A) pelvic viscera.
B) left side of neck.
C) right breast.
D) left breast.
E) left arm and shoulder.
263) Lymph nodes do all of the following, except that
they 263) _____
A) monitor the contents of lymph.
B) remove debris and pathogens from the lymph.
C) produce antibodies.
D) accumulate cancer cells.
E) remove excess nutrients from the lymph.
264) All of the following are true of the thymus gland,
except that it 264) _____

A) lies in the anterior mediastinum.

B) involutes after puberty.
C) produces T cells.
D) reaches its greatest relative size during the second
year of life.
E) activates B cells.
265) The lymphatic system is composed of all of the
following, except 265) _____
A) the venae cavae.
B) lymphatic vessels.
C) the spleen.
D) lymph.
E) lymph nodes.

Figure 21-1 Arteries

Use Figure 21-1 to answer the following questions:
266) Identify the artery labeled "12." 266) _____
A) splenic
B) celiac trunk
C) superior mesenteric
D) inferior mesenteric
E) axillary
267) Identify the artery labeled "1." 267) _____
A) brachial
B) brachiocephalic
C) common carotid
D) aorta
E) axillary
268) Identify the arteries labeled "9." 268) _____
A) aorta
B) common carotid
C) brachiocephalic
D) brachial
E) axillary

269) Identify the artery labeled "6." 269) _____

A) abdominal aorta
B) femoral
C) internal iliac
D) external iliac
E) common iliac

Figure 21-2 Veins

Use Figure 21-2 to answer the following questions:
270) Identify the vein labeled "9." 270) _____
A) axillary
B) brachial
C) basilic
D) median cubital
E) cephalic
271) Identify the vein labeled "15." 271) _____
A) axillary B) radial C) basilic D) brachial E)
ulnar
272) Identify the vein labeled "10." 272) _____
A) thoracic
B) pulmonary
C) aorta
D) inferior vena cava
E) superior vena cava
273) Identify the vein labeled "8." 273) _____
A) axillary
B) external jugular
C) brachiocephalic
D) subclavian
E) superior vena cava
274) Identify the vein labeled "6." 274) _____
A) external iliac
B) common iliac
C) inferior vena cava

D) internal iliac
E) femoral
275) Elderly individuals are more prone than are
younger individuals to have all of the following,
except 275) _____
A) hypertension.
B) increased elasticity of vessel walls.
C) problems with the conducting system of the heart.
D) venous thrombosis.
E) arteriosclerosis.
276) The ________ vein is formed by the fusion of the
greater saphenous vein, femoral vein, and deep
femoral vein. 276) _____
A) common iliac
B) azygous
C) internal iliac
D) inferior vena cava
E) external iliac
277) Blood from the brain returns to the heart through
the ________ vein. 277) _____
A) azygos
B) internal jugular
C) vertebral
D) external jugular
E) innominate
278) The fusion of the brachiocephalic veins forms the
278) _____
A) inferior vena cava.
B) subclavian vein.
C) azygos vein.
D) superior vena cava.
E) innominate vein.
279) At the level of the first rib, the axillary vein
becomes the ________ vein. 279) _____
A) subclavian
B) external jugular

C) cephalic
D) innominate
E) azygos
280) The external iliac artery branches to form the
________ arteries. 280) _____
A) tibial and popliteal
B) femoral and popliteal
C) femoral and tibial
D) radial and ulnar
E) femoral and deep femoral
281) At the knee, the femoral artery becomes the
________ artery. 281) _____
A) deep femoral
B) iliac
C) peroneal
D) popliteal
E) tibial
282) The internal carotids and the basilar artery are
interconnected by an anastomosis called the 282)
_____
A) external carotid artery.
B) basal ring.
C) common carotid artery.
D) arterial bypass
E) cerebral arterial circle.
283) Near the carotid sinus, 283) _____
A) the external carotid forms the internal carotid.
B) the internal carotids fuse with the vertebral
arteries.
C) veins and arteries anastomose.
D) the aorta gives rise to the common carotids.
E) the common carotid divides into an internal and an
external branch.
284) The ________ divides the aorta into the thoracic
aorta and the abdominal aorta. 284) _____
A) pericardium

B) pleura
C) diaphragm
D) peritoneum
E) mediastinum
285) After entering the arm, the axillary artery
becomes the ________ artery. 285) _____
A) digital
B) subclavian
C) brachial
D) ulnar
E) radial
286) The brachial artery branches to form the radial
and ________ arteries. 286) _____
A) axillary
B) subclavian
C) ulnar
D) brachiocephalic
E) digital
287) Homeostatic mechanisms in response to blood
loss include all of the following, except 287) _____
A) uptake of interstitial fluid due to reduced capillary
pressure.
B) activation of ADH secretion.
C) inhibition of EPO secretion.
D) increased thirst and water intake.
E) activation of aldosterone secretion.

A) blood volume.
B) salt and water loss through the kidneys.
C) blood pressure.
D) sodium ion levels in blood.
E) venous return and preload.
290) When carotid and aortic baroreceptors slow their
discharge, 290) _____
A) both heart rate and stroke volume increase.
B) heart rate increases.
C) heart rate decreases.
D) stroke volume increases.
E) the heart rate will decrease to lower blood
pressure.
291) Each of the following will lead to a decrease in
blood pressure, except 291) _____
A) release of renin.
B) decreased levels of aldosterone.
C) increased levels of ANP (atrial natriuretic peptide).
D) decreased peripheral resistance.
E) decrease in blood volume.
292) Each of the following will cause an increase in
blood pressure, except 292) _____
A) increased blood volume.
B) increased levels of angiotensin II.
C) increased levels of ADH (antidiuretic hormone).
D) increased levels of ANP (atrial natriuretic peptide).
E) increased levels of aldosterone.

288) Fear can result in 288) _____

A) increased stimulation of the cardioinhibitory
center by higher brain centers.
B) decreased blood pressure.
C) increased stimulation of the cardioaccelerator
center by higher brain centers.
D) parasympathetic stimulation.
E) decreased heart rate.

293) Each of the following changes will result in

increased blood flow to a tissue, except 293) _____
A) relaxation of precapillary sphincters.
B) increased hematocrit.
C) increased blood pressure.
D) decreased peripheral resistance.
E) increased vessel diameter.

289) Elevated levels of the hormones ANP and BNP

will produce increased 289) _____

294) The difference between the systolic and diastolic

pressures is called the ________ pressure. 294) _____

A) mean arterial
B) critical closing
C) circulatory
D) pulse
E) blood
295) The blood colloid osmotic pressure mostly
depends on the 295) _____
A) concentration of plasma sodium ions.
B) concentration of plasma proteins.
C) concentration of plasma waste products.
D) concentration of plasma glucose.
E) number of red blood cells.
296) Each of the following factors would increase
cardiac output, except 296) _____
A) increased blood concentration of glucose.
B) increased sympathetic stimulation of the heart.
C) increased venous return.
D) decreased parasympathetic stimulation of the
heart.
E) stimulation of the heart by epinephrine.
297) Blood pressure increases with all of the
following, except increased 297) _____
A) parasympathetic innervation.
B) blood volume.
C) cardiac output.
D) force of cardiac contraction.
E) peripheral resistance.
298) As blood travels from arteries to veins, 298)
_____
A) diameter of the blood vessels gets progressively
smaller.
B) pressure builds.
C) viscosity increases.
D) pressure drops.
E) flow becomes turbulent.
299) Blood flow to a tissue will increase if the 299)

_____
A) veins constrict.
B) arterioles constrict.
C) arterioles dilate.
D) level of oxygen at the tissue increases.
E) level of carbon dioxide at the tissue decreases.

D) hypertension.
E) All of the answers are correct.

300) Blood pressure is determined by 300) _____

A) measuring the size of the pulse.
B) estimating the degree of turbulence in a partly
closed vessel.
C) measuring the force of contraction of the left
ventricle.
D) listening carefully to the pulse.
E) estimating the pressure needed to close off an
artery with an external pressure cuff.

306) Blood flow through a capillary is controlled by

the 306) _____
A) vasa vasorum.
B) precapillary sphincter.
C) plexus.
D) thoroughfare channel.
E) venule.

301) Resistance is a force that 301) _____

A) never changes in a blood vessel.
B) acts with pressure to move blood along a vessel.
C) is always higher than blood pressure.
D) increases blood flow.
E) decreases blood flow.
302) Which part of the vascular system functions as a
blood reservoir and contains over 60% of the body's
blood? 302) _____
A) pulmonary arteries
B) systemic arterioles
C) veins
D) capillaries
E) arteries
303) What vessels hold the largest percentage of the
blood supply? 303) _____
A) arteriole B) vein C) artery D) venule E) capillary
304) Arteriosclerosis can lead to 304) _____
A) coronary artery disease.
B) stroke.
C) myocardial infarction.

305) Which kind of vessel is also called a resistance

vessel? 305) _____
A) artery B) capillary C) vein D) arteriole E) venule

307) These vessels may be continuous or fenestrated.

307) _____
A) veins B) venules C) arterioles D) capillaries E)
arteries
308) What structure do RBCs move through single
file? 308) _____
A) vein B) artery C) capillary D) arteriole E) venule
309) The layer of the arteriole wall that can produce
vasoconstriction is the 309) _____
A) tunica externa.
B) tunica media.
C) tunica adventitia.
D) tunica mater.
E) tunica intima.
310) Venoconstriction ________ the amount of blood
within the venous system, which ________ the
volume in the arterial and capillary systems. 310)
_____
A) reduces; increases
B) reduces; reduces
C) decreases; doubles
D) increases; reduces

E) doubles; decreases
311) Venous valves are responsible for 311) _____
A) preventing blood from re-entering a ventricle.
B) channeling blood toward the heart.
C) channeling blood away from the heart.
D) preventing anterograde flow.
E) regulating blood pressure in veins.

312) After blood leaves the capillaries, it enters the

312) _____
A) venules.
B) veins.
C) arterioles.
D) arteries.
E) capillaries.

313) Which layer of a blood vessel contains concentric

sheets of smooth muscle tissue? 313) _____
A) tunica externa
B) external elastic membrane
C) tunica intima
D) internal elastic membrane
E) tunica media