DGPD 711 2007

Pediatric Dentistry
Final Examination
May 11, 2007
1.

Mary Helen comes to your office for her first dental visit. She is very
courteous and says please and thank you. You would expect her to be
about what age?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)

2.

explain to child on his/her level of understanding

dont disregard minor inappropriate behavior
use the tell-show-do technique
all of the above
only (a) and (c)

Most investigators, with few exceptions, reflect a significant correlation

between a childs cooperative behavior during the first dental visit and
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)

4.

one year
two years
three years
four years
six years

In shaping behavior, which of the following apply?

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)

3.

Name______________________

maternal anxiety
sibling rivalry
parental age
childs playmates
all of the above

Mrs. Jones informs you that Jessica has been diagnosed with moderate
mental retardation and developmental delay. You would expect her IQ to
be in the range of
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)

80-89
69-79
52-68
36-51
20-35

5.

The average age at which a child can walk alone is

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)

6.

Which of the following can play a role in preappointment behavior

modification?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)

7.

first
third
sixth
ninth
eleventh

A supernumerary tooth is the result of

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)

9.

films or videotapes of cooperative young patients

modeling by parent on recall visit
preappoingment mailings
all of the above
only (a) and (c)

According to Kraus and Jordan, the first macroscopic indication of

morphologic tooth development occurs at approximately what week in
utero?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)

8.

2 months
4 months
7 months
11 months
13 months

continued budding of the enamel organ

failure of the tooth germ to develop
a molecular accident in the apposition stage
lack of inorganic calcium salts for deposition in the enamel matrix
failure of the dental papilla to give rise to odontoblasts

Disturbances in the histodifferentation stage of tooth development will

result in
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)

abnormal number of teeth

an odontoma
abnormal structure of enamel or dentin
a missing tooth
only (a) and (d)

10.

There is considerable resemblance between the maxillary primary second

molar and the
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)

11.

The primary teeth are

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)

12.

usually smaller mesiodistally than their successors

are similar in size and resemble each other
do not have permanent successors
usually larger mesiodistally than their successors
only (b) and (c)

Mrs. Duckworth brings her six and one-half year old daughter Barbel to
you for her first dental visit. On examination, you note that #24 and #25
are just erupting into the oral cavity. Her mother asks if she is getting her
permanent teeth early. You explain that in fact her permanent teeth are
erupting
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

14.

always larger than their permanent counterparts

lighter in color than permanent teeth
without nerve innervation
all calcified after birth
completely calcified before birth

The mandibular first and second primary molar crowns are

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)

13.

maxillary primary first molar

maxillary primary canine
maxillary permanent first molar
mandibular permanent first molar
mandibular permanent second molar

early
right on time
late
none of the above

This is your second day of practice and you see Amy, a two year and nine
months old child who shows you her three dolls she brought to the office.
On oral examination, according to Lunt and Law how many teeth should
she have?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)

four
eight
twelve
sixteen
all twenty

15.

Mrs. Brown brings her son Tom to the office for a routine recall
examination. She inquires about sealants and the appropriate time to
place them on Toms first permanent molars. You explain to her that
these teeth, according to Logan and Kronfeld, erupt between _________
and that as soon as they have cleared the tissue on the distal of the tooth,
he may be ready for this preventive measure.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)

16.

Kurt had #L surgically removed due to internal resorption at age nine. You
would expect # 21 to
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)

17.

Trisomy 21
cleidocranial dysplasia
hypothyroidism
all of the above
only (a) and (b)

Usually spontaneous correction of lingually erupted mandibular central

incisors occurs by the age
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)

19.

erupt early
come in at the normal time
be delayed in eruption
be malformed
may not erupt at all

Conditions that can delay the eruption of teeth include

(a)
(b)
(c )
(d)
(e)

18.

5-6 years
6-7 years
7-8 years
8-9 years
9-10 years

5 years
6 years 2 months
7 years
8.years 2 months
9 years 8 months

Differences in growth size, direction, velocity, and timing are observed

among individuals. Generally, females mature how many years before
males?
(a)
(b)
(c)

one year
two years
three years

(d)
(e)
20.

The presence of a mesial step will

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)

21.

initial anterior crowding of the permanent incisors

favorable alignment of the permanent incisors
rotations of the permanent incisors
early eruption of the permanent incisors
none of the above

The primary molar mesial step terminus occurs with what frequency in
the population at five years of age?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)

24.

early mesial shift

late mesial shift
exfoliation of the primary incisors
eruption of the permanent incisor
no shift at all

According to Baume, spaced primary arches generally produced

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)

23.

allow the permanent first molar in the mandible erupt into a Class
II occlusion
permit the maxillary first molar to erupt into a Class III occlusion
encourage the second premolar to erupt early
stimulate a late mesial shift
none of the above

With a straight terminal plane and no primate spaces, the molar

adjustment mechanism most beneficial for Class I molar relationship will
occur with the
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)

22.

four years
males and females mature at the same time.

25%
37%
49%
57%
86%

It is desirable to have the mandibular permanent canines erupt before

the
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

mandibular first premolar

mandibular first molar
mandibular incisors
mandibular second premolar

(e)
25.

The greatest tendency for lateral growth in the mandibular arch will occur
with the eruption of the
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)

26.

Type I
Type II
Type III
Type IV
none of the above

What is the percentage of final Class II occlusion at the age of twelve after
all of the adjustment mechanisms are complete?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)

29.

erupt within the first 30 days

are present at birth
are always supernumerary teeth
are mainly primary molars
erupt more slowly than normal

Baume classified the type of occlusion based on spaces between the

primary teeth. His spaced dentition is termed
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)

28.

first molars
central incisors
lateral incisors
canines
premolars

Natal teeth are those which

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)

27.

both (a) and (d)

3%
25%
39%
59%
78%

The late mesial shift occurs when

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)

the permanent molars erupt

the permanent canines erupt
the primary incisors exfoliate
the primary molars exfoliate
the mandibular incisors erupt.

30.

What microorganism has been implicated as the major and most virulent
of the caries producing microorganism?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)

31.

In the caries process, a white spot on enamel can best be described as

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)

32.

mesial surface of the incisors

distal surface of second mandibular molar
mesial surface of the mandibular first molar
distal surface of the mandibular first molar
mesial surface of the maxillary first molar

According to the AAPD Guidelines for fluoride therapy, if the communal

water supply contains .3-.6 ppm of fluoride, the recommended daily
supplement for a 6 mo. - 3 yr. old child would be
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)

34.

the beginning of dentin destruction

incipient subsurface enamel lesion
plaque buildup
irreversible enamel pathology
monomolecular layer preventing adherence of microorganisms

The most common interproximal site for caries in primary teeth is

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)

33.

aciduric lactobacilli
certain strains of sarcinae
streptococcus mutans
diphtheroids
staphylococci

0
.25 mg
.5 mg.
1.0 mg
none of the above

Remineralization of enamel can best be described as

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)

a dynamic, continuous process of reversed demineralization

the beginning of the carious process
static neutralization of plaque
dynamic replacement of fluoroapatite with hydroxyapatite
formation of new enamel matrix and subsequent enamel deposition

35.

The most common fluoride used in dentifrices today is

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)

36.

Which of the following is true regarding fluorides?

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)

37.

(c)
(d)
(e)

maxillary and mandibular primary anterior teeth

maxillary anterior teeth, maxillary and mandibular first primary
molars, and sometimes the mandibular primary canines
maxillary and mandibular primary anterior teeth, mandibular
primary first molars
maxillary and mandibular first primary molars, mandibular primary
canines, and the mandibular incisors
maxillary anterior primary teeth, mandibular first permanent molars,
mandibular primary canines

The acids that initially decalcify enamel have a pH of

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)

39.

Home fluorides are excellent for children of all ages

Fluoride varnishes are easily applied at home
In general, the concentration of fluoride in fluoridated
communal water supplies is .8 to 1.2 ppm
Fluoride supplements can be purchased over-the-counter
There is no eating or drinking for three hours following topical
fluoride treatments in the dental office.

The clinical appearance of early childhood caries (ECC) is seen in the

(a)
(b)

38.

.243% NaF
8% SnF2
1.23% ClF
.05% NaF
.243% SnF2

7.5 to 7.2
7.0 to 6.8
6.6 to 6.3
6.2 to 5.9
5.5 to 5.2

Which of the following is not true regarding saliva?

(a)
(b)
(c)

Salivary secretion can be stimulated by both the parasympathetic

and sympathetic fibers.
Salivary flow decreases during sleep.
Head and neck irradiation results in salivary gland dysfunction.

(d)
(e)
40.

Low risk caries indicators include

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)

41.

tooth susceptibility
refined carbohydrates
time
all of the above
only (a) and (b)

The most common method for removing plaque from the oral cavity is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)

44.

five
ten
fifteen
thirty
sixty

The complex etiology of dental decay centers on which of the following

factors?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)

43.

high caregiver socioeconomic status

regular dental care
no caries in the past 24 months
all of the above
only (b) and (c)

Following topical fluoride administration, a patient should not eat, drink, or

rinse for how many minutes after the treatment to maximize fluoride
uptake in the enamel?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)

42.

Complete absence of saliva will result in a septic mouth with

rampant caries.
The viscosity of saliva has no effect on the carious process.

floss
water pick
toothbrush
toothpicks
none of the above

A number of variables enter into the design and fabrication of

toothbrushes. These variables include
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

the bristle material

length, diameter and number of fibers
angulation of brush head
all of the above

(e)
45.

The ideal chemotherapeutic plaque control agent should have

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)

46.

oxygenating agent
halogen
antibiotic
enzyme
positively charged organic antiseptic agent

The American Academy of Pediatric Dentistry recommends that the childs

first dental visit should be
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)

49.

quaternary ammonium compounds

pyrimidines
iodine
chloride
Listerine

Chlorhexidine is considered a
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)

48.

specificity only for pathogenic bacteria

chemical stability during storage
toxicologic safety
ecologic safety so as not to adversely alter the microbiotic flora
all the above

An example of a noncharged phenolic antiseptic agent is

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)

47.

only (a) and (b)

before birth
approximately at the time of eruption of the first tooth or at
least by one year
as soon as the terrible twos are over
at the age of three
none of the above

Fluoride mouth rinses are not recommended for children under the age of
_____because of the possibility of swallowing too much fluoride.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)

9
8
7
6
5

50.

Early exfoliation of primary teeth may be associated with

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)

51.

Enamel hypoplasia can be related to which of the following factors:

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)

52.

opalescent color to the teeth

small or obliterated pulp chambers
thin crowns with very bulbous roots
abnormal dentin-enamel junction
all of the above

Clinical features of ectodermal dysplasia (ED) may consist of

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)

54.

nutritional deficiencies
infected primary molars
radiation
all of the above
only (a) and (c)

The radiographic appearance of dentinogenesis imperfecta consists of

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)

53.

hypophosphatasia
fibrous dysplasia
cyclic neutropenia
all of the above
only (a) and (c)

conical shaped anterior teeth

protuberant lips
congenitally missing teeth
all of the above
only (a) and (c)

Macroglossia may be associated with

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)

hypothyroidism
Beckwith-Wiedemann Syndrome
Downs Syndrome
all of the above
Only (a) and (c)

55.

Taurodontism is best described as

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)

56.

Fusion occurs when

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)

57.

(c)
(d)
(e)

insurance will not cover the procedure until adulthood

in most cases normal contact between the maxillary central
incisors will develop and the existing diastema will close
the child will not cooperate
only (a) and (c)
none of the above

Tetracycline tooth discoloration is rarely seen today because

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)

59.

two independent primary or permanent teeth with separate

pulp chambers and separate crowns unite
two crowns develop with one root
two independent teeth develop from one bud
there is continued budding of the enamel organ
none of the above

Many dentists believe that surgery for an abnormal maxillary labial frenum
should be delayed until after the eruption of the permanent lateral incisors
and canines because
(a)
(b)

58.

elongated pulp chambers

elevated number of tooth buds
complete failure of tooth development
abnormally large teeth
none of the above

most infections can be treated with antibiotics that do not

cause tooth discoloration
tetracyclines do not cross the placental barrier
tetracycline is deposited in the enamel and not the dentin
tetracyclines have been taken off the market and are no longer in
use
none of the above

Mandibular micrognathia may be associated with

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)

Robin Sequence
ankylosis of the mandible
Stickler Syndrome
all of the above
only (a) and (c)

60.

The incidence of cleft lip and palate in the US according to McDonald,

Avery and Dean is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)

61.

Dental specialists on the cleft team include

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)

62.

complexity of the clefting problem

need for specialists in the rehabilitation process
age of the patient
all of the above
only (a) and (b)

Multidisciplinary sequencing of treatment in cleft care begins with Stage 1

which consists of
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)

64.

pediatric dentists and orthodontists

oral surgeons and maxillofacial prosthodontists
oral pathologists and periodontists
all of the above
only (a) and (b)

Team care for cleft lip/palate individuals is critical because of the

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)

63.

1 in 1000
1 in 1500
1 in 2000
3 in 750 2000
1 in 20,000

primary dentition stage

late primary or early mixed dentition stage
permanent dentition stage
maxillary orthopedic stage
none of the above

Premaxillary retraction in bilateral cleft lip/palate care sometimes is

necessary to
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)

properly align the protruding premaxilla prior to surgery

assist the plastic surgeon in lip closure
help to prevent posterior crossbites
all of the above
only (a) and (b)

66.

A passive alveolar molding appliance sometimes is necessary to

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)

67.

The fundamental problem in cleft lip/palate rehabilitation is

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)

68.

10 years of age
12 years of age
15 years of age
18 years of age
25 years of age

The purpose of secondary alveolar bone grafting in either unilateral or

bilateral cleft patients is to
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)

71.

correction of a developing traumatic occlusion in the anterior area

posterior segmental alignment and crossbite correction
preparation for alveolar bone grafting
all of the above
only (a) and (c)

Sometimes it is necessary to perform a LeFort I maxillary advancement in

cleft patients in Stage V rehabilitation to correct a severely retrusive
maxilla. This procedure is done in males around
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)

70.

mandibular hypoplasia
cranial base malfunction
maxillary hypoplasia
posterior cranial suture fusion
premaxillary extension

Treatment of dental alignment issues that arise during Stage III of cleft
palate rehabilitation concentrate on
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)

69.

provide cross arch stability

reorient the maxillary frenum toward the mid-sagittal plane
assist in orthopedic molding of the cleft segments
all of the above
only (a) and (c)

provide boney support for the teeth adjacent to the cleft

provide bone through which teeth can erupt
support the alar base of the nose
all of the above
only (a) and (b)

The focus of cleft care in Stage II is

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
72.

establishing and maintaining oral health

primary alveolar bone grafting
corrective orthognathic surgery
placement of orthodontic appliances
palatoplasty

What is the prevalence of cleft palate only in all clefting patients?

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)

25%
40%
60%
75%
80%