MODULE I

MORPHOLOGY OF THE MICROORGANISMS

1. A bacteriologist has revealed the big bacilli of blue colour with terminally situated spore of red coloring
in a slider prepared from wound discharge. What method of colorings did the bacteriologist use?
A.Gram
B.Neisser
C.Burry
*D.Anjesko
E.Ziel - Neelsen
2. The slider from the patient's sputum is the coloured according to Gram. On microscopy the red bacilli
and violet cocci were revealed. Why is the coloring of microorganisms different?
A.The proportion of DNA and RNA
B.The peculiarities of nucleus substance
C.Isoelectric point
*D.The presents of magnasian salt of RNA
E.Flagellae
3. The patient sputum was presented for confirming the diagnosis of tuberculosis to bacteriological
laboratory. The coloring of slider was carried out by complex differential - diagnostic method to reveal
the Mycobacteria of tuberculosis. What method of coloring was used?
A.Gram
B.Neisser
C.Simple
D.Anjehko
*E.Ziehl Neelsen
4. During microscopy of slider prepared from the discharge of tonsils of a patient with lacunal quinsy
and coloured according to Neisser the yellow bacilli situated in V form and with blue bipolar - situated
including were revealed. What element of the bacteriological cell did a doctor reveal?
A.Flagella
B.Capsule
C.Cytoplasm
D.Mesosomes
*E. Grains of volutine
5. Gram-positive cocci situated as grape's bunch were revealed in the slider prepared from pus. How can
such situation of microorganisms be explained?
A. The localization of purulent process
B. The technique of a slider preparation
C. The technique of coloring
D. The peculiarities of a bacterial cell's division
*E. The effect on bacteria dye
6. The white spots were revealed on the mucous membrane of cheeks of the mouth cavity of eight month-old child. The big blue cells of oval form were revealed in the slider from discharge. What are
these microorganisms?
*A. Candida
B. Staphylococci
C. Streptococci
D. Spirochetes
E. Actinomycetes
7. A patient with fever lasting two weeks was admitted to infectious clinic. The spiral microorganisms
with acute ends of blue - violet colour were revealed in the blood slider coloured according to
Romanovskiy-Gimza. What microorganisms caused this infection?
A. Candida
B. Staphylococci
C. Streptococci
*D. Spirochetes
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E. Actinomycetes
8. A bacteriologist used the standard set of ingredients in coloring according to Gram. Which of the dyes
is used on the first stage of staining to this method?
*A.Crystal violet
B.Iodine solution
C.Alcohol
D.Fuchsin
E.Methylen blue
9. The intracellular parasites of cocci form were revealed in the sliders coloured according to
Zdradovsky. What group of microorganisms is an agent referred?
A.Cocci
B. Mycoplasma
C.Spirochetes
D.Bacilli
*E. Rickettsiae
10. For the identification of the microorganisms it is necessary to determine their mobility. What method
can be used for it?
A. Gram
B. Neisser
*C. Occurring during their lifetime color
D. The method of luminescent microscopy
E. The isolation of pure culture
11. Many bacteria on the surface of cell wall form a protective layer badly coloured with dyes. What is
the reason of bad coloring of this layer?
A. Stability to an acid
B. Sensitivity to enzymic action
C. Sensitivity to alcohol
*D. High content of lipids and waxes
E. Chemical composition of cell wall
12. The coloured smears are studied under the microscope with the help of objective which is called:
A. Dark field
B. Phase contrast
*C. Immersion
D. Electronic
E. Dry
13. Colorless formations of right form with red coloured body of microbic cell were revealed in the
sputum of the patient with pneumonia in dark field. It may be a colorless capsule. What method was the
preparation coloured with?
A.Burry
B.Neisser
*C.Burry-Ginse
D.Anjesko
E.Ziehl - Neelsen
14. Under unfavorable conditions of environment, the microorganisms, for the preserving their type form
the special structures. To reveal them, a bacteriologist used the method of coloring according to Anjesko.
For revealing of what structural elements is it used?
A. Capsules
*B.Spores
C.Flagellae
D.Grains of valutin
E.Nucleus
15. The spirochetes with 8-14 equal eddies performing different forms of movements were revealed in the
smears while studying the ulcer content. In what way was the agent discovered?
A.Colouring according to Gram
B.Silvering according to Morosov
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C.Colouring according to Neisser

D.Colouring according to Romanowsky-Giemsa
*E.Hanging drop technique
16. Bacteria whose flagella are located on the whole surface of a cell are called:
A.Monotricheal
B.Lophotricheal
C.Amphitricheal
D.Polytricheal
*E.Peritricheal
17. The physical method of fixation of a glass slider is included in?
*A. Moving the smear in the gas
B.Immersion of the smear into formalin
C.Drying the smear in the air
D.Immersion of the smear into alcohol
E.Treatment of the smear with 5 % sulfuric acid
18. There is a method of coloring which gives the possibility to paint in different colour the spirochetes of
the genus Borrelia, Leptospira, Treponema. How do we call it?
A.Colouring according to Gram
B.Silvering according to Morosov
C.Colouring according to Neisser
*D.Colouring according to Romanowsky-Giemsa
E.Colouring according to Burry
19. One of the complex methods is used for coloring the acid-fast bacteria. When colored they become
red under the influence of the main due. How do we call this method?
A.Colouring according to Gram
B.Silvering according to Morosov
C.Coloring according to Neisser
D.Coloring according to Romanowsky-Giemsas
*E.Colouring according to Ziehl-Neelsen
20. The microorganisms which are painted according to Gram in violet color are called:
*A. Gram-positive
B.Gramnegative
C.Acid-fast
D.Cocci
E.Fungi
21. Acid fast microbes are resistant to acid because they contain in cell wall:
. Lipopolysaccharides
*. Fatty waxes, fatty acid
. Acetylglucosamine
D. Diaminopimelic acid
. Polyphosphates
22. Cell wall of gram-negative bacteria contain all, except:
. Lain monolayer peptidoglycan
. Lipoproteins
*. Polilayer peptidoglycan
D. Lipopolysaccharide
. Outer membrane
PHYSIOLOGY OF THE MICROORGANISMS
1. What morphological structure is responsible for bacterial motility?
A. Pilli
B. Fimbria
*C. Flagella
D. Capsule
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E. LPS
2. Choose the nutrient medium for obtaining the separated colonies:
A. Meat-peptone broth
B. Sugar broth
*C. Meat-peptone agar
D. Kitt-Tarozzi medium
E. Alkaline peptone water
3. We can obtain pure culture of anaerobic microorganisms with the help of:
A. Fortner's method
B. Shukevich's method
C. Paster's method
*D. Weinbergs method
E. Loeffler's method
4. What is the value of a hanging-drop preparation?
A. For study sensitivity to antibiotics
B. For examination of biochemical properties
C. For study morphology of bacteria
*D. For study motility of bacteria
E. For study cultural properties of bacteria
5. Choose obligate anaerobes among these bacteria:
A Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
*C. Clostridium tetani, Clostridium botulini
D. Bacillus anthracis, Brucella melitensis
E. Shigella dysenteriae, Salmonella typhi
6. The second stage of obtaining the pure culture of aerobes is:
A. Inoculating of a mix (material) on a solid nutrient medium
B. Check of cleanliness of the pure culture and its identification
C. Biochemical and serological identification
*D. Studying of isolated colonies and inoculating on the slant agar
E. Microscopic examination of a material
7. The third stage of obtaining the pure culture of aerobes is:
A. Check of cleanliness of the pure culture and its identification
B. Inoculating of a mix (material) on a solid nutrient medium
*C. Biochemical and serological identification
D. Studying of isolated colonies and inoculating on the slant agar
E. Microscopic examination of a material
8. Choose method of staining the bacterial spores:
. Staining by mthylene blue
*. Staining by Anjeskos method
. Staining by Ziehl-Nielsens method
D. Staining by Gram method
. Staining by crystal violet
9. Whats next stage of staining by Ziehl-Nielsens method after using sulphuric acid?
. Staining by zeals phenol fuchsine
. Using alcohol
. Staining by methylene blue
*D. Washing with water
. Using iodine solution
10. Spores are necessary to bacteria for:
. Survival into humans organism
. Reproduction
*. Survival in an external environment
D. Defense from phagocytosis
E. Survival into animals organism
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11. We can study proteolytic properties of bacteria by detection in tubes of:

A. Carbonic acids and waters
B. Glucose and lactose
C. Carbonic acids and nitrogen
D. Manitolum and methanol
*E. Indol and hydrogen sulphite
12. What microorganism is a sanitary indicative in studying of quality of running water?
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
C. Streptococcus pneumoniae
*D. Escherichia coli
E. Vibrio cholerae
13. To check up the work of autoclave a laboratory assistant used a chemical substance melting in
temperature 119 C. What is this substance?
A. Nitrogen
B. Potassium
C. Benzyl
D. Silver
*E. Sulfur
14. While studying inoculations of air taken from chemists a bacteriologist found a sanitary indicative
microorganism. What is this microorganism?
A. Escherichia coli
B. Vibrio cholerae
C. Streptococcus pneumoniae
*D. Staphylococcus aureus
E. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
15. A laboratory assistant sterilized simple nutritious media and physiological solution in an autoclave.
What regime of work was used in the autoclave?
*A. 120 degree C (1atm.)
B. 115 degree C (0,5atm.)
C. 100 degree C (0atm.)
D. 134 degree C (2atm.)
E. 148 degree C (3atm.)
16. In inoculation of faeces for nutritious medium both the red colonies with metallic luster and colorless
colonies developed. How do we call this nutritious medium?
A. Blood agar
B. Chocolate agar
C. Kitt - Tarrozzi medium
*D. Endo medium
E. Hiss medium
17. To isolate an agent of anaerobic infection a bacteriologist made an inoculation of studied material into
liquid nutritious medium covered by oil. How do we call this medium?
A. Endo medium
B. Chocolate agar
C. Hiss medium
D. Blood agar
*E. Kitt Tarrozzi medium
18. The answer from laboratory indicates the minimal therapeutic dose of antibiotics which the agent is
sensitive to. In what method was this dose determined?
A. Membrane filter method
B. Sedimentations method
C. Serological method
*D. Dilution test
E. Diffusion test
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19. To determine the agents sensitivity to antibiotics the method was used in which the small filtrating
paper disks soaked with antibiotics are brought on the medium inoculated with staphylococci culture.
How do we call this method?
A. Sedimentations method
B. Serological method
*C. Diffusion test
D. Membrane filter method
E. Dilution test
20. At the chemists a medical preparation was sterilized by the method of tindalization. What apparatus
was used?
A. Hot air oven
B. Membrane filter
C. Autoclave
*D. Water bath
E. Steamer
21. To characterize the qualities of medicinal preparation, a chemical therapeutical index was
introduced. The index was proposed by:
A. Lister
B. Neisser
C. Leeuwenhoek
D. Robert Hook
*E. Ehrlich
22. To isolate an agent, a bacteriologist inoculated by stroke a studied material on dense nutrious medium
in a Petri dish divided into four sectors. What method of isolation of pure culture was used?
A. Biological
B. Bacteriological
*C. Mechanical
D. Allergic
E. Serological
23. A bacteriologist reveled in a strain of colon bacillus the ability to work out the colicines. What is this
quality provided by?
A. Flagella
B. Mesosomes
C. Spores
D. Ribosomes
*E. Plasmids
24. Staphylococcus is isolated from a discharge of middle ear. A bacteriologist inoculated an isolated
culture into a test tube with citrate rabbit plasma. What enzyme of aggression did he want to reveal?
*A. Coagulase
B. Hemolysin
C. Leucocidin
D. Fibrinolysin
E. Hyaluronidase
25. Pathogenic staphylococcus was isolated from a suppurative wound of a patient, its sensitivity to
antibiotics was determined. Penicillin caused a zone of growth retention 8mm; oxacillin 9mm;
ampicillin 10mm; gentamicin 22mm; lincomycin 11mm. What antibiotic should be chosen for
treatment of the patient?
A. Penicillin
*B. Gentamicin
C. Ampicillin
D. Lincomycin
E. Oxacillin
26. While determining the sensitivity staphylococcus to antibiotics, the following results were obtained:
diameter of zone of growth retention of penicillin 7mm; oxacillin 8mm; ampicillin 26mm;
gentamicin 22mm; lincomycin 15mm. What method of investigation was used?
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A. Bacteriological
B. Serological
*C. Diffusion test
D. Chemical test
E. Dilution test
27. Nutrious media containing substances destroying in temperature more than 100 degree C (urea,
carbohydrates, proteins ) should be sterilized for bacteriological examination. What method of
sterilization can be used in this case?
A. Sterilization by filtration
B. Ultraviolet radiations
*C. Tindalization
D. Autoclavation
E. Infra red radiation
28. To obtain exotoxin, a toxigenic microorganism is inoculated into liquid nutrious medium. After toxins
accumulation in the medium, microbe cells are removed from it. What device is used in this case?
A. Autoclave
B. Boiling
*C. Membrane filter
D. Hot air oven
E. Steamer
29. To confirm clinical diagnosis of an infectious disease, a laboratory study is carried out. What method
of isolation of pure culture of microorganisms is used?
A. Serological
B. Biological
C. Bacterioscopical
*D. Bacteriological
E. Allergic
30. Corresponding nutrious media are used in bacteriological laboratories to isolate a pure culture and
identify the isolated microorganism. What medium is used to isolate and identify staphylococcus?
A. Endo medium
B. Hiss medium
*C. Blood agar
D. Chocolate medium
E. MPA
31. At present the description of ten kinds of staphylococci is represented. They are revealed in people,
domestic and animals. But only one kind is of great importance in the infectious pathology of man. How
do we call this kind?
A. Staphylococcus epidermidis
B. Staphylococcus saprophyticus
C. Staphylococcus albus
*D. Staphylococcus aureus
E. Staphylococcus citreus
32. When studying the microflora of air in chemists, a pure culture of a microorganism was isolated. The
microorganism grows and develops if there is not less than 20 per cent oxygen in atmosphere. What
group does an agent belong to according to the type of breathing?
A. Microaerophiles
B. Facultative anaerobes
C. Obligate anaerobes
*D. Obligate aerobes
E. Aerotolerant microorganisms
33. The consignment of battles with glucose solution for parenteral use in prepared in a chemists. What
way of sterilization is necessary to use?
A. Sterilization by filtration
*B. Autoclavation
C. Tindalization
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D. Hot air over

E. Ultraviolet radiation
34. The formation of acquired stability to antibiotics occurs not only by the way of selection of
spontaneous antibiotic stable mutants of the bacteria, but also due to spreadening among
microorganisms particular factors which are called:
A. F - pili
*B. R - plasmid
C. A - protein
D. Spore
E. Cell wall
35. Sanitary indicative microorganisms are chosen for characteristics of bacterial contamination of soil
by man and animal. What microorganism present in soil is an index of long fecal contamination?
A. Staphylococcus
B. Enterococcus
*C. Clostridia
D. Neisseria
E. Mycobacteria
36. Chemical substances destroying microorganisms in environment are called disinfecting. What
concentration of ethyl alcohol is most effective to manifest antimicrobic effect?
A. 100 degree
*B. 70 degree
C. 80 degree
D. 40 degree
E. 50 degree
37. Which of the following is an alkylation agent used as a disinfectant?
A. Merbromin
B. Iodouridine
C. Silver nitrate
D. Phenol
*E.Glutaraldehyde
38. What antimicrobial agent displays specificity for anaerobic microorganisms?
A.*Metronidazole
B. Polymyxin
C.Vancomycin
D.Gentamicin
E. Oxacillin
39. What is the single most frequent etiologic agent of ascending urinary tract infection?
A. Klebsiella pneumoniae
B. Serratia marcescens
C. Citrobacter freundii
D. Enterobacter cloacae
*E. Escherichia coli
40. Which bacteria are most numerous in the human gastrointestinal tract?
A. Escherichia species
*B. Bacteroides species
C. Pseudomonas species
D. Enterobacter species
E. Proteus species
41.Staphylococcus aureus is isolated from a pus. A bacteriologist plated an isolated culture on blood
agar. What enzyme of aggression did he want to reveal?
A. Fibrinolysin
B. Hyaluronidase
*C. Hemolysin
D. Leucocidin
E. Endotoxin
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42. In the large intestine, bacterial numbers are quite high and many different species are found. Most
bacteria in the normal gastrointestinal tract are members of the genus:
*A. Bacteroides
B. Streptococcus
C. Staphylococcus
D. Lactobacillus
E. Enterobacter
43.Escherichia coli is isolated from an intestinal discharge. A bacteriologist reveled in a strain the ability
to fermentative the lactose. What nutritious medium he was used?
A. Hiss medium
*B. Endo medium
C. MPB
D. Blood agar
E. MPA
44.For the identification of the microorganisms it is necessary to determine their proteolytic activity.
What nutritious medium can be used for it?
*A. Meat peptone water
B. Meat peptone agar
C. Blood medium
D. Kitt Tarrozzi medium
E. Endo medium
45.The operation theatre was sterilized. What physical method of sterilization can be used for it?
A. Autoclavation
B. Tindalization
*C. Ultraviolet radiation
D. Filtration
E. Hot air oven
46.The phage typing is useful in the investigation of Staphylococcus aureus infection. What biological
preparation may be employed for it?
A. Antibiotics
B. Serum
C. Toxins
*D. Typing set of phages
E. Enzymes
INFECTION AND IMMUNITY
1. Plague is a zoonotic infection. Who may be the source of infection in this case?
A. Diseased person
*B. Infected animal
C. Acute carrier
D. Chronic carrier
E. Subacute carrier
2. In some cases infection is transmitted from human to human. How is this source of infection called?
*A. Anthroponotic
B. Zoonotic
C. Anthropozoonotic
D.Latent infection
E.Acute-infection
3. Some pathogenic agents are transmitted from the mother to the feoetus. What is such a mechanism of
transmission called?
A. Aerogenic
B. Direct transmission
*C. Transplacental
D. Fecal oral
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E. Indirect transmission
4. The patient has an acute form of hepatitis B. Immunoglobulin of which class is first appeared in this
form of infection?
*A. IgM
B. IgA
C. IgG
D. IgD
E. IgE
5. Infants in 3-4 months of age are immune to many diseases. Which class of immunoglobulin enters them
through the mothers placenta?
A. IgM
B. IgA
*C. IgG
D. IgE
E. IgD
6. The doctor prescribed for the treatment of the patient with diphtheria anti-toxic serum. Which kind of
immunity is formed in the human organism after its treatment?
A.Active
B.Passive
*C.Artificial passive
D.Natural
E.Artificial active
7. All the 1yr old infants may be vaccinated against measles with live vaccine. Which kind of immunity is
formed in this case?
A.Active
B.Passive
C.Artificial passive
D.Natural
*E.Artificial active
8. There are central and peripheral organs of immune system in the human body. Which of the following
organ belongs to the central immune system?
*A. Thymus
B. Lymphatic nodes
C. Spleen
D. Lymphatic follicles
E. Liver
9. Which class of immunoglobulins do new borne babies get from their mothers milk?
A. IgM
*B. IgA
C. IgG
D. IgE
E. IgD
10. There are four stages for the development of all infectious diseases. What is the first stage of infection
called?
A.Prodromal period
*B.Incubation period
C. Disease manifestation
D.Recovery period
E.Latent period
11. A doctor made a smear of a purulent discharge of urethra and colored it according to Gram. The
microscopy revealed the leucocytes whose cytoplasm had a great amount of gram negative bean form of
diplococci. The results of which process is observed in the preparation?
A. Complete phagocytosis
B. Induced phagocytosis
*C. Uncomplete phagocytosis
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D. Spontaneous phagocytosis
E. Bacteriolysis
12. One of the tests characterizing immune state of a man is phagocytic activity which is intensified by
antibodies. Which antibody promotes the seizure of the antigens by phagocytosis?
A. Agglutinin
B. Precipitin
C. Complement
*D. Opsonin
E. IgD
13. In some diseases the infection results from getting the spores of bacilli into the wound. What diseases
may develop in such a case?
*A. Tetanus
B. Tuberculosis
C. Plague
D. Cholera
E. Dysentery
14. There are four stages for the development of all infectious diseases. What is the last stage of infection
called?
A.Prodromal period
B.Incubation period
C. Disease manifestation
*D.Recovery period
E. Latent period
15. Choose among the listed central organs of immune system:
A. GALT, spleen
*B. Thymus, bone marrow
C. Lymph nodes, thymus,
D. Thyroid gland, tonsil gland
E. Bone marrow, spleen
16. Which type of cells actually secretes antibodies?
A. T cells
B. Macrophages
*C. Plasma cells
D. Monocyte
E. NK cells
17. Choose among the listed secretors immunoglobulin:
*A. IgA
B. IgD
C. IgE
D. IgM
E. IgG
18. Who did introduce the method of vaccination to prevent smallpox?
A. Louis Pasteur
*B. Edward Jenner
C. Paul Ehrlich
D. John Hunter
E. Antonio van Leeuwenhoek
19. Passive immunization is routinely administered to individuals exposed to certain microbial pathogens
that cause diseases, EXCEPT:
A. Botulism
B. Diphtheria
C. Hepatitis
*D. Chicken pox
E. Rabies
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GENERAL VIROLOGY
1. Viruses were detected for the first time while studying:
A. Influenza
B. Chicken pox
*C. Tobacco mosaic disease
D. Herpes
E. Hepatitis B
2. A virologist revealed Babesh Negri bodies in the smears imprints of the mad dog's brain. What
coloring method was used?
A According Gram
B. According Morosov
*C. According Romanowsky - Giemsas
D. According Ziehl - Nielsen
E. According Neisser
3. The smears imprints were taken from inferior concha of a patient with the symptoms of acute
respiratory disease. An orange luminescence was observed in the cells after working up acridin orange.
What method of study was used?
A. Reaction of direct immunofluorescence
B. Reaction of indirect immunofluorescence
*C. Reaction of luminescence
D. Morosov staining
E. Hemagglutination test
4. While studying the smears imprints from inferior concha of a patient with the grippe, a doctor
identified the grippe virus. What method the doctor used?
A. Hemagglutination test
B. Reaction of luminescence
*C. Reaction of immunofluorescence
D. Neisser staining
E. Gram staining
5. Before infecting a chicken embryo on chorionallontoic membrane a virologist worked up the examined
material from a patient with penicillin and streptomycin. What infecting agent is expected to be isolated?
A. Bacilli
*B. Viruses
C. Rickettsiae
D. Mycoplasma
E. Spirochetes
6. To form a mono layer of cell culture, a nutritive medium was added to the suspension of washed cells
in a test tube. What medium was used?
*A. 199 medium
B. Endo medium
C. Hiss medium
D. Blood agar
E. Chocolate agar
7. The infection of cell cultures is the main method of isolating poliomyelitis viruses. How do we call it?
A. Viroscopic
*B. Virological
C. Serologic
D. Biologic
E. Allergic
8. What period of developing the chicken's embryo is used for cultivating viruses?
A. 3 4 days
B. 5 7 days
C. 8 9 days
*D. 9 12 days
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E. 13 15 days
9. What reaction did a virologist use to reveal antibodies in the serum of a patient with the grippe?
*A. Hemagglutination inhibition test
B. Vidal's test
C. ELISA
D. Wasserman's test
E. Hemagglutination test
10. A doctor revealed a virus in allantoic liquid of infected chicken's embryo. What reaction did he use?
A. Wasserman's test
B. Vidal's test
*C. Hemagglutination test
D. Hemagglutination inhibition test
E. Hemadsorption test
11. Lysogenization of bacteria connected with invasion into bacterial cell of prophage results in the
change of biological properties of microorganisms, e.g. developing their toxigeneity. How do they call
such biological phenomenon?
*A. Phage conversion
B. Integration
C. Transduction
D. Phage typing
E. Immune absorption
12. Virological laboratory was given a task to determine the infection of water and food products with
dysenteric bacteria without resorting to bacteriological method. What reaction can do it?
*A. Phage indication
B. Immune absorption
C. Phage typing
D. Neutralization test
E. Vidal's test
13. Different serologic reactions are used to identify a virus. They choose the right reaction in every case
according to:
A. A clinical form of disease
*B. Peculiarities of antigen structure of examined virus
C. A kind of infection disease
D. A number of antigens of viral particle
E. Structural components of virions
14. One of the characteristics of viruses is their ability to form inclusions in a cell. What viral infection is
characterized by their intranuclear disposition?
*A. Adenovirus infection
B. Mumps
C. Measles
D. Hepatitis
E. Smallpox
15. The infection of animal is the main method of isolating some viruses. How do we call this method?
A. Allergic
B. Viroscopic
*C. Biological
D. Serologic
E. Virological
16. Viruses containing DNA are included in family:
A. Paramyxoviridae
B. Orthomyxoviridae
C. Picornaviridae
D. Retroviridae
*E. Herpesviridae
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17. The infection of chicken's embryones is the main method of isolating the grippe virus. What is
previously addede to it in introduction of examined material into chicken's embryo?
A. Fluorescentic serum
*B. Streptomycin and penicillin
C. Serum
D. Diagnostic
E. Methylene blue
18. The main method of virological diagnostics is isolation of a virus on tissue cellular culture. The
presence of the virus in considered according to its specific effect on the cell. How do they call it?
A. Hemagglutination phenomenon
B. Hemagglutination inhibition test
*C. Cytopathogenic effect
D. Hemadsorption phenomenon
E. Neutralization test
SPECIAL VIROLOGY
1. In addition to acute respiratory diseases, adenoviruses also cause:
A. Tumors in humans
B. Otitis media
C. Diabetes
*D. Acute diarrhea in children
E. Gastric ulcers
2. The main method of virological diagnostics of influenza is isolation a virus on tissue cellular culture.
The presence of the virus in considered according to its specific effect on the cell. How do they call it?
A. Hemagglutination phenomenon
B. Hemagglutination inhibition test
*C. Cytopathogenic effect
D. Hemadsorption phenomenon
E. Neutralization test
3. The smears imprints were taken from inferior concha of a patient with the symptoms of influenza.
An orange luminescence was observed in the cells after working up acridin orange. What method of
study was used?
A. Reaction of direct immunofluorescence
B. Reaction of indirect immunofluorescence
*C. Reaction of luminescence
D. Morosov staining
E. Hemagglutination test
4. What reaction did a virologist use to reveal antibodies in the serum of a patient with the grippe?
*A. Hemagglutination inhibition test
B. Vidal's test
C. ELISA
D. Wasserman's test
E. Hemagglutination test
5. While studying the smears imprints from inferior concha of a patient with the grippe, a doctor
identified the grippe virus. What method the doctor used?
A. Hemagglutination test
B. Reaction of luminescence
*C. Reaction of immunofluorescence
D. Neisser staining
E. Gram staining
6.Each of the following statements concerning adenoviruses is correct, EXCEPT:
A. Adenoviruses are composed of a double-stranded DNA genome and a capsid
B. Adenoviruses cause both a sore throat and pneumonia
*C. Adenoviruses have only one serological variant
14

D. Adenoviruses are thought to cause tumor in animals but not humans

E. Adenoviruses can cause conjunctivitis
7. Doctor has diagnosed that the patient has influenza. To which family does influenza virus belong to?
A. Paramyxoviridae
*B. Orthomyxoviridae
C. Picornaviridae
D. Retroviridae
E. Herpesviridae
8.Which one of the following clinical state is LEAST likely to be caused by adenoviruses?
A. Pharyngitis
*B. Glomerulonephritis
C. Pneumonia
D. Gastroenteritis
E. Conjunctivitis
9. Which vaccine can be used for specific prevention of influenza?
A. MMR
B. Ruvax
C. BCG
D. Pryorix
*E. Influvac
10. Which pharmacological agent is prescribed for non specific treatment of influenza?
A. Penicillin
*B. Interferon
C. Diagnostic
D. Serum
E. Vaccine
11.Which immune biological preparation is prescribed for specific prevention of influenza?
A. Penicillin
B. Interferon
C. Diagnostic
D. Serum
*E. Vaccine
12. Individuals vaccinated with the HBsAg vaccine would be protected from infection by:
A. Hepatitis A virus only
B. Hepatitis B virus only
C. Hepatitis C virus only
D. Hepatitis D virus only
*E. Hepatitis B and delta viruses
13. Adenovirus is:
A. Nonenveloped virus with single-stranded DNA
*B. Enveloped viruse with double-stranded DNA
C. Nonenveloped virus with segmented double-stranded RNA
D. Nonenveloped virus with double-stranded linear DNA
E. Enveloped virus with positive polarity RNA
14. All of the following are true about Hepatitis C virus EXCEPT:
A. Is an RNA virus
B. contain an envelope
C. may cause chronic liver damage
*D. it is defective
E. it is primary cause of transfusion associated hepatitis
15. Which one of the following viruses contains a partially double-stranded DNA?
A. Hepatitis C
*B. Hepatitis B
C. Enterovirus 72
D. Hepatitis D
15

E. Coxsackievirus
16. Each of the following statements concerning hepatitis E virus is correct, EXCEPT:
A. The initial site of viral replication is gastro-intestinal tract
B. It causes more severe disease in pregnant women
*C. It is oncogenic and can cause hepatocellular carcinoma
D. It is transmitted by fecal-oral route
E. It is naked RNA virus
17. Incidence of AIDS transmission from infective to non-infective partner is more with:
*A. Homosexual partners
B. No risk of heterosexual transmission
C. From a male to a female partner increased
D. Equal risk to both risk
E. From a female to a male partner increased risk
18. Each of the following statements concerning rabies vaccine is correct, EXCEPT:
A. The vaccine contains whole-killed virions
B. The vaccine is monovalent
C. The vaccine is used for post exposure prophylaxis
*D. The vaccine contains live attenuated virus
E. It is usually used in combination with passive immunization
19. What is not true about both rabies and influenza viruses?
*A. They are usually transmitted by respiratory route
B. Their virions contain RNA polymerase
C. They are enveloped viruses
D. They both have a negative-sense RNA
E. Killed vaccines are available for both viruses
20. Which one of the following viruses causes encephalitis, but killed inactivated vaccine is available for
post exposure prophylaxis?
A. Herpes simplex virus tipple
B. Measles virus
C. Varicella-zoster virus
D. Mumps virus
*E. Rabies virus
21. In which component of adenovirus the hemagglutinin is found?
A. The core
B. The DNA protein
C. The hexon
D. The M protein
*E. The penton with fiber
22. Each of the following statements concerning rabies virus and its replicative cycle is correct, EXCEPT:
*A. The virus has positive-sense RNA which is infectious
B. The assembled virions release by budding
C. The virions contains RNA-dependent RNA polymerase to start mRNA transcription
D. Reproduction of the virus occurs in cytoplasm
E. The virus has lipoprotein envelope embedded with viral-specific G proteins
23. Mail hunters were attacked by a fox and got several scratches and bites on their hands and legs. They
failed to catch or shoot the animal. What should be done as a post exposure prophylaxis?
A. Clean wounds with soap and give antibiotic treatment
B. Wash wounds with detergent and inject rabies immune globin
C. Try to catch an animal to check whether it is rabid or not
*D. Use human rabies immune serum and human diploid cell vaccine for immunization
E. Give active immunization with human diploid cell vaccine
24. Infection with herpes simplex virus, a common human pathogen, is best described by which of the
following statements?
A. The CNS and visceral organs are usually involved
B. It rarely recurs in a host who has a high antibody titer
16

*C. It can be reactivated by emotional disturbances or prolonged exposure to sunlight

D. Initial infection usually occurs by intestinal absorption of the virus
E. Infection with type 1 virus is most common
25. The latest and most effective therapy for AIDS patients includes azidothymidine (AZT),
dideoxyinosine (DDI), and saquinavir or similar agents. Which of the following viral processes would
using of these three drugs inhibit?
A. RNase, DNase
B. gp120 formation
C. p24 antibody expression
D. All membrane synthesis
* E. Reverse transcriptase, protease
26. Infectious mononucleosis, a viral disorder that can be debilitating, is characterized by which of the
following statements?
A. It is most prevalent in children less than 14 years old
B. It is caused by a rhabdovirus
*C. The causative pathogen is an Epstein-Barr virus
D. Affected persons respond to treatment with the production of heterophil antibodies
E. Ribavirin is the treatment of choice
27. Which one of the following statements best describes interferons suspected mode of action in
producing resistance to viral infection?
A. It stimulates a cell-mediated immunity
B. It stimulates humoral immunity
C. Its direct antiviral action is related to the suppression of messenger RNA formation
*D. Its action is related to the synthesis of a protein that inhibits translation or transcription
E. It alters the permeability of the cell membrane so that viruses cannot enter the cell
28. Delta hepatitis only occurs in patients who also have either acute or chronic infection with hepatitis B
virus. The delta agent is:
A. An incomplete hepatitis B virus
B. Related to hepatitis A virus
C. A hepatitis B mutant
*D. An incomplete RNA virus
E. Hepatitis C
29. Mumps virus accounts for 10 to 15% of all cases of aseptic meningitis in the United States. Infection
with mumps virus:
A. Is apt to recur periodically in many affected persons
*B. Will usually cause mumps orchitis in post pubertal males
C. Is maintained in a large canine reservoir
D. Usually produces severe systemic manifestations
E. Is preventable by immunization
30. A 3-year-old child presents at the physicians office with symptoms of coryza, conjunctivitis, lowgrade fever, and Kopliks spots. The causative agent of this disease belongs to which group of viruses?
A. Adenovirus
B. Herpes virus
C. Picornaviruses
D. Orthomyxoviruses
*E. Paramyxovirus
31. Which of the following congenital abnormalities is/are seen in infants born to women infected with
rubella?
A. Neurosensory deafness
B. Congenital heart disease
C. Retinopathy
D. Hepatosplenomegaly
*E. All of the above
32. Which family does contain rubella virus?
A. Paramyxovirus family
*B. Togavirus family
17

C. Paramyxovirus family
D. Togavirus family
E. Togavirus family
33. One of the most common sexually transmitted diseases that may lead to cervical carcinoma is caused
by which of the following viruses?
A. Cytomegalovirus
*B. Papillomavirus
C. Epstein-Barr virus
D. Herpes simplex virus
E. Adenovirus
34. Hepatitis E, a recently characterized hepatitis virus, is best described by which of the following
statements?
*A. It is not a threat to the blood supply
B. It is a major cause of blood-borne hepatitis
C. It is prevalent in North America
D. It is a single-stranded DNA virus
E. The disease resembles hepatitis C
35. Infection with hepatitis D virus (HDV; delta agent) can occur simultaneously with infection with
hepatitis B virus (HBV) or in a carrier of hepatitis B virus because HDV is a defective virus that requires
HBV for its replicative function. What serologic test can be used to determine whether a patient with
HDV is an HBV carrier?
A. HBsAg
B. HBc IgM
C. HBeAg
D. HBs IgM
*E. HBs IgG
36. Adults who have had varicella as children occasionally suffer a recurrent form of the disease,
shingles. The agent causing these diseases is a member of which of the following viral families?
*A. Herpes virus
B. Poxvirus
C. Adenovirus
D. Myxovirus
E. Paramyxovirus
37. Rhinovirus is primarily transmitted by:
*A. Droplet aerosolization
B. Sexual activity
C. Fecal-oral route
D. Vomits
E. Vertical transmission from mother to child
38. The presence of Negri inclusion bodies in host cells is characteristic of
A. Mumps
B. Infectious mononucleosis
C. Congenital rubella
D. Aseptic meningitis
*E. Rabies
39. What rapid method of diagnostics of rubella did a virologist use?
*A. Immunofluorescernce test
B. Hemagglutination inhibition test
C. Citopathogenic effect
D. Hemagglutination phenomenon
E. Neutralisation test
40. According to recommendations issued by the U.S. Public Health Service, which of the following
statements regarding vaccination against smallpox is true?
A. Pregnant women should be vaccinated in the first trimester
B. Persons who have eczema should be vaccinated soon after diagnosis
18

C. Persons who have immune deficiencies should be vaccinated every 5 years

*D. Persons traveling abroad need not be vaccinated
E. Children should be vaccinated before they begin school
41. Hepatitis D virus (delta agent) is a defective virus that can replicate only in cells already infected with
which of the following viruses?
A. Hepatitis A virus
B. Epstein-Barr virus
C. Hepatitis G virus
*D. Hepatitis B virus
E. HIV
42. A patient presents with keratoconjunctivitis. The differential diagnosis should include infection with
which of the following viruses?
A. Parvovirus
*B. Adenovirus
C. Epstein-Barr virus
D. Respiratory syncytial virus
E. Varicella-zoster virus
43. A hospital worker is found to have hepatitis B surface antigen. Subsequent tests reveal the presence of
e antigen as well. The worker most likely:
*A. Is infective and has active hepatitis
B. Is infective but does not have active hepatitis
C. Is not infective
D. Is evincing a biologic false-positive test for hepatitis
E. Has both hepatitis B and C
44. An immunocompromised person with history of seizures had an MRI that revealed a temporal lobe
lesion. Brain biopsy results showed multinucleated giant cells with intranuclear inclusions. The most
probable cause of the lesion is
A. Hepatitis C virus
*B. Herpes simplex virus
C. Listeria monocytogenes
D. Coxsackievirus
E. Parvovirus
45. Which of the following procedures or clinical signs is most specific for the diagnosis of infectious
mononucleosis caused by the Epstein-Barr virus?
*A. Laboratory diagnosis is based on the presence of atypical lymphocytes and EBV-specific antibody
B. Growth in tissue culture cells
C. Heterophil antibodies in serum
D. Lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly on physical examination
E. B-cell lymphocyte proliferation
46. This is a double-stranded DNA virus. It is responsible for 15% of pediatric respiratory infections and
10 to 15% of acute diarrhea in children.
A. Measles virus
B. Influenza virus
C. Respiratory syncytial virus
D. Parainfluenza virus
*E. Adenovirus
47. This virus is a single-stranded RNA paramyxovirus. The rash known as Kopliks spots is path
gnomonic.
*A. Measles virus
B. Influenza virus
C. Respiratory syncytial virus
D. Parainfluenza virus
E. Adenovirus
48. Poliovirus is:
*A. Non enveloped virus with single-stranded DNA
19

B. Enveloped viruses with double-stranded DNA

C. Non enveloped virus with segmented double-stranded RNA
D. Enveloped virus with positive RNA
E. Non enveloped virus with single-stranded DNA
49.This virus is a single-stranded RNA Orthomyxoviruses. Annual vaccination is necessary because of
antigenic drift and shift.
A. Measles virus
*B. Influenza virus
C. Respiratory syncytial virus
D. Parainfluenza virus
E. Adenovirus
50. This hepatitis virus is a calicivirus. The reservoir is in pigs, and humans acquire it via the fecal-oral
route.
A. Hepatitis A
B. Hepatitis B
C. Hepatitis C
D. Hepatitis D
*E. Hepatitis E
51. This virus belongs to the family of Flaviviruses and its reservoir is strictly human. Transmission is
blood-borne so the blood supply is routinely screened for this virus.
A. Hepatitis A
B. Hepatitis B
*C. Hepatitis C
D. Hepatitis D
E. Hepatitis E
52. In the kinder garden, there was a case of measles. Which preparation for the specific prevention
should be taken?
A. Serum
B. Vaccine
*C. Gamma globulin
D. Diagnostic
E. Antibiotic
53. Measles is highly contagious infection among children. What is the main mechanism of transmission?
*A. Aerogenic
B. Fecal-oral
C. Transplacental
D. Direct
E. Indirect
54. 1 year old infants are vaccinated against measles. What kind of vaccine is used for it?
*A. Live vaccine
B. Bacterial vaccine
C. Killed vaccine
D. Chemical vaccine
E. Ana toxin
55. Which one of the following strategies will induce lasting mucosal immunity to poliovirus?
A. Parental administration of poliovirus immune globin
B. Oral administration of poliovirus immune globin
C. Parenteral vaccination with live vaccine
*D. Oral vaccination with live vaccine
E. Intramuscular vaccination with inactivated vaccine
56. A virologist revealed Babesh Negri bodies in the smears imprints of the mad dog s brain. What
coloring method was used?
A. According Gram
B. According Morosov
*C. According Romanowsky - Giemsa
20

D. According Ziehl - Nielsen

E. According Neisser
57. Blood analysis of a patient showed signs of HIV infection (human immunodeficiency virus). Which
cells does HIV-virus primarily attack?
A. Cells that contain receptor IgM (B-lymphocytes)
*B. Cells that contain receptor CD4 (T-helpers)
. Mast cells
D. Specialized nervous cells (neurons)
E. Prolifediting cells (stem hematoplastic cells)
58. The donor who didn't donate the blood for a long time was investigated with IFA method. Anti - Hbs antibodies were revealed. What does positive result of IFA in this case mean?
A. Acute hepatitis
B. Chronic hepatitis
C. Chronic hepatitis
D. Previous hepatitis
*E. Acute hepatitis
59. Viruses containing DNA are included in family:
A. Paramyxoviridae
B. Orthomyxoviridae
C. Picornaviridae
D. Retroviridae
*E. Herpesviridae
60. A virologist revealed Guarnieri bodies in the smears imprints. What is doctor's diagnosis?
A. Influenza
B. Mumps
C. Hepatitis
*D. Smallpox
E. Measles
61. Identify the true statement cited below concerning the Sabin (live) polio vaccine.
A. Infectious progeny virus cannot be disseminated from the vaccinated individual.
*B. The vaccine confers humoral and intestinal immunity.
C. Induction of lifelong immunity is not possible.
D. It can be given to immunodeficient individuals without reservation.
E. It is administered parenterally.
62. Chicken's embryo was infected to isolate a virus of smallpox in a virological laboratory. In this case,
where should the examined material be traced on?
*A. In chorionallontoic membrane
B. In amniotic cavity
C. In yolk sac
D. In shell membrane
E. In allantoic cavity
63. A 6-year-old boy was bitten by a dog about the face and neck. What strategy will be used for
immunization?
*A. Use hyper immune serum and active immunization
B. Use hyper immune serum only
C. Use active immunization only
D. Use active immunization, than check if adequate antibody titers will be produced; if the level is low use hyper
immune serum
E. All strategies can be use for post exposure immunization
64. Choose among listed viruses which are not enteroviruses:
A. Coxsackieviruses
B. Echoviruses
*C. Hepatitis A virus
D. Polioviruses I
E. Polioviruses II
21

65. Which one of the following vaccines could safely be given to an immunocompromised individual?
A. Mumps
B. IPV (Salk)
C. Measles
*D. OPV (Sabin)
E. Rubella
66. Which of the statement concerning epidemiology of arbovirus infections is NOT correct?
A. Alpha virus equine encephalitis is mosquito-borne
B. Arboviruses have wide host range
C. Bunya virus Crimean-Congo hemorrhagic fever is tick-borne
*D. Hantavirus hemorrhagic fever with renal syndrome and pulmonary syndrome is tick born
E. Arboviruses cause typical zoonotic diseases
67. Which of the following viruses is primarily transmitted by the fecal-oral route?
A. St. Louis encephalitis virus
B. Colorado tick fever virus
*C. Coxsackievirus
D. Yellow fever virus
E. Dengue fever virus
68. Reverse transcriptase is an enzyme unique to the retroviruses. Which one of the following is a
function of the enzyme reverse transcriptase?
A. DNase activity
B. RNA-dependent RNA polymerase activity
C. RNA isomerases activity
*D. RNA-dependent DNA polymerase activity
E. Integration activity
69. Orchitis, which may cause sterility, is a possible manifestation of which of the following?
A. Rabies
B. Rhinovirus
C. Cytomegalovirus
D. Respiratory syncytial virus
*E. Mumps
70.For indication of the viruses in tested material we can use all tests EXCEPT:
*A. Complement fixation test
B. Haemadsorption test
C. Inoculation of laboratory animal
D. Inoculation of chicken embryo
E. Haemagglutination test
71.To determine viral particles (Pashen's bodies) an original method of colouring is used which provides
a work up of smear preparation with formalin, glacial acetic acid and 5 per cent tannin solution at the
first stage. How do they call it?
*A Munn staining
B. Morozov staining
C. Romanowsky - Giemsa staining
D. Ziel Neelsen staining
E. Pavlovskiy staining
72.Vaccines protect us against dangerous viral diseases by training the body to recognize and destroy
specific invading viruses. Vaccines are made from:
*A. Weakened or dead versions of a dangerous virus
B. Antibiotics.
C. Human white blood cells.
D. Medicines that cure the symptoms of viral diseases.
E. DNA of virus
73.There are such components of haemagglutination test:
*A. Viruses, chicken red cells, electrolyte
B. Viruses, chicken red cells
22

C. Viruses, chicken red cells, specific serum

D. Viruses, chicken red cells, paired patients serums
E. Viruses, chicken red cells, viral diagnosticum, electrolyte
74. Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) is most associated with which of the following syndromes:
*A. Bronchiolitis of young adults
B. Lower lobe infiltrates of young adults
C. Upper lobe infiltrates of young adults
D. Upper lobe infiltrates of young children
E. Bronchiolitis of young infants
75. An adenovirus:
A. Has a neuraminidase
*B. Has a hemagglutinin
C. Has a double shelled capsid
D. Has an RNA genome
E. Has an envelope
76.How can an eye infection by a specific serotype of adenovirus be diagnosed?
A. By monitoring the response of the infection to steroid therapy.
*B. By using serotype antibody to test inhibition of hemagglutination.
C. By detecting the presence of viral double stranded DNA.
D. By using electron microscopy to detect viral particles in an eye swab.
E. By detecting nuclear inclusions in infected cells collected in an eye swab.
77.Which one of the following is correct regarding adenovirus replicative cycle?
A. They are not cytopathogenic, thus the infected cell survives the infection
B. They shut off the host cell protein synthesis
*C. They can replicate in almost any type of the cells in the human organism
D. The factors will be produced within replicative cycle to suppress host defensive mechanisms
E. Penetration of the virus occurs by fusion
78.An adenovirus contains:
A. a neuraminidase
B. fibrinolysisn
C. a double shelled capsid
*D.DNA genome
E. an envelope
79. Examination of the 10-year old patient reveals fever and bilateral parotitis. A clinical diagnosis of
mumps was developed. Which one of the following tests is the BEST to confirm a clinical diagnosis of
acute mumps disease?
A. A positive skin test
B. A history of exposure to a mumps case
C. Orchitis in young adult male
*D. A 4-fold rise to in antibody titer to mumps surface antigen
E. Syncytia formation in virus-infected cells
80. Such material is used for serological diagnostics of mumps:
A. Saliva
B. Blood
C. Urine
D. Spinal liquid
*E. Paired serums
81. In which of the following populations does rubella infection cause long term serious sequelae?
A. Women of childbearing age
*B. Children infected in the first trimester in utero
C. Children infected during the first grade (age 6-7 yrs)
D. Children who have received the attenuated vaccine
E. Children who have received the interferon
82. Rubella is transmitted from human to human. How is this source of infection called?
A. Latent infection
23

B. Zoonotic
C. Anthropozoonotic
*D. Anthroponotic
E. Acute-infection
83. Which vaccine is used for vaccination against mumps?
*A. Live vaccine
B. Immunoglobulin
C. Toxoid
D. The killed vaccine
E. Antitoxic serum
84. Measles is a member of the paramyxovirus family, but it differs from mumps and the parainfluenza
viruses structurally with respect to envelope proteins. How do they differ?
A. Measles has a neuraminidase but no hemagglutinin; mumps and parainfluenza have only hemagglutinin
B. Measles has no hemagglutinin or neuraminidase, mumps and parainfluenza have only neuraminidase
C. Measles has a neuraminidase but no hemagglutinin; mumps and parainfluenza have hemagglutinin and
neuraminidase
*D. Measles has a hemagglutinin but no neuraminidase; mumps and parainfluenza have hemagglutinin and
neuraminidase
E. Measles has no hemagglutinin or neuraminidase, mumps and parainfluenza have hemagglutinin and no
neuraminidase
85. What are the smallest known viruses?
*A. Picornavirus
B. Adenovirus
C. Enterovirus
D. Orthomyxovirus
E. Paramyxovirus
86. Most common manifestations of coxsackievirus type B infection are all of the followings, EXCEPT:
*A. Herpangina
B. Myocarditis and pericarditis
C. Paralytic diseases
D. Encephalitis and meningitis
E. Pleurodynia and respiratory diseases
87. Poliovirus vaccine is correctly described by all of the following statements, EXCEPT:
A. The Sabin vaccine is a live attenuated virus
B. The Salk vaccine contains formalin-inactivated virus
C. It is a polyvalent preparation
D. Active virus is excreted in the feces of Sabin-vaccine immunized individuals
*E. The Sabin vaccine could not cause disease in humans
88. All of the following statements about arboviruses are TRUE, EXCEPT that:
A. Bunyaviruses differ in their structure and replicative cycle
*B. Flavi- and Togaviruses have negative ssRNA genome
C. They have wide host range
D. They can grow in arthropod vector
E. One of the major clinical manifestations of arbovirus infections is encephalitis
89. Which of the following viruses do cause jaundice and can be life threatening?
A. Measles
B. Rubella virus
C. Rhinovirus
D. Rabies virus
*E. Yellow fever virus
90. All of the following diseases are mosquito borne, EXCEPT:
A. Japanese encephalitis
*B. Russian (European) encephalitis
C. Dengue fever
D. EE encephalitis
24

E. Yellow fever
91. Which of the following viral genera is/are not arthropod-borne?
A. Alphavirus
B. Flavivirus
*C. Rubivirus
D. Togavirus
E. All of the above
92. Which of the following are reservoirs of Japanese encephalitis virus?
A. Cats and dogs
B. Cows and goats
C. Pigs and man
D. Water birds and man
*E. Water birds and pigs
93. Which description of the arbovirus infections diagnosis is LESS accurate:
A. Viruses can be recovered by intracerebral inoculation of mice
B. Neutralizing and hemagglutination inhibition antibody can be detected by serological reaction
*C. IgG antibody is of high diagnostic value when detected in serum, taken after the onset of the disease
D. IgM is of high diagnostic value
E. Genetic methods can be used to detect viral genome in clinical specimens
94. What is the shape of rabies virus?
A. Spherical
B. Polygonal
*C. Bullet-shaped
D. Tubular
E. Stick-like
95. Choose among following family of yellow fever virus:
A. Bunyaviridae
*B. Flaviviridae
C. Reoviridae
D. Rhabdoviridae
E. Togaviridae

25