Beruflich Dokumente
Kultur Dokumente
Physics
Question 1
Two large parallel copper plates are 5.0 cm apart and have a uniform electric field between them as
depicted in figure given below.
An electron is released from the negative plate at the same time that a proton is released from the positive
plate. Their distance from the positive plate when they pass each other is
(Take mp/me = 2000 and neglect the force of the particles on each other.)
(1) 6.7 105 m
(2) 6.7 1010 m
(3) 2.5105 m
(4) 3.7 105 m
Solution
We take the positive direction to be to the right in the figure. The acceleration of the proton is
eE
(1)
ap
mp
and the acceleration of the electron is
eE
ae
(2)
me
where E is the magnitude of the electric field, mp is the mass of the proton, and me is the mass of the
electron. We take the origin to be at the initial position of the proton.
Then, the coordinate of the proton at time t is
x
1 2
ap t
2
(3)
1 2
1
aet x L aet 2
2
2
(4)
ap
ap ae
eE m p
eE m eE m
p
me
m m
p
e
L
mp
1 m
e
0.050 m
1 2000
2.5 105 m
Distance from the positive plate when electron and proton pass each other is 2.5 105 m.
Hence, the correct option is (3).
Question 2
6
1
If the electric field in a plane electromagnetic wave is given by E0 sin [(3 10 m ) x t ] , the value of
is
1
(1) 0.01 rads
(2) 10 rads
1
(3) 100 rads
14
1
(4) 9 10 rads
Solution
6
1
6
1
In the equation E0 sin [(3 10 m ) x t ] , 3 10 m is the wave number.
We know that,
kc
Then the value ofangular frequency ( ) is
Solution
In the given circuit, D1 is is forward biased and D2 is reverse biased. So, D1 acts as a short circuit and D2
an open circuit. Therefore, the equivalent circuit is as shown below
V 6V (Given)
We have to find current I. We know that
V RI
V
R
6
I
0.02 4A
250
I
(3)
(4)
mu 3 sin 2
2 g cos
At the highest point, the particle has only horizontal velocity which remains constant, therefore
v ux u cos
Length of the perpendicular to the horizontal velocity from point O is the maximum height and is given
by the relation
u 2 sin 2
H max
2g
Hence the required angular momentum is
L mvr
mu x H max
L
mu 3 sin 2 cos
2g
If the radius of the bubble on one side of tube is r and difference in height of liquid of density in
manometer is h, then surface tension of liquid used to make the bubble is
rh g
4
2 rh g
(3) T
2
(2) T = 2rhg
(1) T
(4) T
rh g
2
Solution
Pressure at point B
PB P0
4T
r
(1)
Also,
PB P0 gh
(2)
rgh
4
(1) 4.5F
(2) 1.5F
(3) 2F
(4) 3F
Solution
A little inspection of the given figure will show that the same can be redrawn as:
1
1
1
2 2 2 33
1
Thus,
Ceq 3F
Hence, the correct option is (4).
Question 8
The amplitude of a lightly damped oscillator decreases by 4.0% during each cycle. What percentage of
mechanical energy of the oscillator is lost in each cycle?
(1) 4.0%
(2) 6.0%
(3) 8.0%
(4) 16%
Solution
The mechanical energy can be written as the maximum kinetic energy. Hence,
E K max
1
mv 2
2
1
mA2 2
2
(1)
On differentiating
(1)
(2) Dividing Eq. (2) by Eq.(1), we get
dE mA 2 dA
(2)
dE mA 2 dA
1
E
mA2 2
2
dA
2
A
2(4.0%)
8.0%
(1) OR gate
Solution
The truth table is
A
0
0
1
1
B
0
1
0
1
C
1
0
0
0
X
0
1
1
1
Y
1
0
0
0
The maximum value of static friction is s FN = smg. If the bicycle does not slip, then f smg. This
means
v2
v2
s g R
(3)
R
s g
Consequently, the minimum radius with which a cyclist is moving at 36 km h1 = 10 m s1 can round the
curve without slipping is
v2
(10 ms 1 ) 2
Rmin
31.25 m
s g (0.32)(10 ms )
Hence, the correct option is (3).
Question 11
A proton with a speed of 2.2 106 ms1 is shot into a region between two plates that are separated by a
distance of 0.18 m. A magnetic field exists between the plates, and it is perpendicular to the velocity of
the proton, as shown in the following figure.
What must be the magnitude of the field so that the proton just misses colliding with the opposite plate?
(Mass of proton = 1.67 1027 kg .)
(1) 0.21 T
(2) 0.19 T
(3) 0.13 T
(4) 0.27 T
Solution
The proton will follow a circular path inside the magnetic field. To just avoid colliding with the opposite
plate, the radius of the circular path of the proton must be equal to 0.18 m.
mv 2
r
mv
B
qr
qvB
n1 sin 1 n2 sin 2
At the solid-liquid interface,
n3 n2 sin 2
n1 sin 1
1.40 sin 60o
1.21
Em Vmax Vmin
Ec Vmax Vmin
Vmax Vmin
Vmax Vmin
10 2 8
0.67
10 2 12
If m > 1, it is an over-modulated wave and possesses detection problems. Hence, m < 1 is recommended.
Hence, the correct option is (3).
Question 14
Monochromatic light of wavelength 700 nm is used in a Young's double slit experiment. One of the slits
is covered by a transparent sheet of thickness 1.4 105 m made of a material of refractive index 1.5. How
many fringes will shift due to the introduction of the sheet?
(1) 18
(2) 10
(3) 9
(4) 5
Solution
The number of fringes that will shift can be calculated as
Total fringe shift
Fringe width
Number of fringes
( 1 )t
( 1 )t
( 1 )t
( 1.5 1 ) 1 . 4 10 5 m
10
700 10 9 m
Ten fringes will shift due to the introduction of the sheet in one of the interfering beams.
Hence, the correct option is (2).
Question 15
A cylindrical tube is partially filled with water such that air column length is 0.1 m. The air column
resonates in its fundamental mode with a tuning fork. The next resonance is observed at air column length
of 0.35 m as the level of the water is lowered. The end correction is
(1) 2.5 cm
(2) 20 cm
(3) 1.5 cm
(4) 10 cm
Solution
Let is the frequency of the tuning fork, v is the speed of sound in air, e the end correction and l the
length of air column then
Fundamental frequency
v
(1)
4 l1 e
First overtone frequency
3v
(2)
4 l2 e
From Eqs. (1) and (2), we get,
3v
v
4 l2 e 4 l1 e
3 l1 e l2 e
3 0.1 e 0.35 e
0.3 3e 0.35 e
2e 0.05m
e = 0.025 m = 2.5 cm
Hence, the correct option is (1).
Question 16
If is the breaking stress of a material of density, then the longest wire of that material that can hang
freely without breaking is
(1)
(2)
g
2 g
(3)
2
g
(4)
2 g
Solution
Highest tension is at the top point is equal to the weight of the wire, therefore
Weight of wire = mg= Al g
Weight
Area
Al g
A
l g
Stress ( ) =
Switch S has been closed for a long time and the current through the inductor is 20.0 mA . At time t 0 ,
the switch is opened. At what time t is the current through the inductor 10.0 mA ?
(1) 2 (ln 2) s
(2) 4 (ln 2) s
(3) 6 (ln 2) s
(4) 8 (ln 2) s
Solution
The energy stored in the inductor will dissipate through the resistor R2 when the switch is opened. The
current will decay with time.
t
i i0 exp
L/R
L i
ln
R i0
800 106 10
ln s
200
20
4 106 (ln 2)
t 4 (ln 2) s
Hence, the correct option is (2).
Question 18
If one complete cycle of a reversible process is carried out on an ideal gas so that its final state is the same
as its initial state, which of the following quantities is the only one which can be non-zero?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
If one complete cycle of a reversible process is carried out on an ideal gas so that its final state is the same
as its initial state, which of the following quantities is the only one which can be non-zero?
(5)
(6)
(7)
(8)
Solution
Volume, entropy and internal energy are state variables. So, in a reversible cyclic process these would
not change. However, heat is a path variable. In a reversible cyclic process there would be a finite
quantity of heat exchanged with the surrounding.
Hence, the correct option is (2)
Question 19
The stopping potential for electrons emitted from a surface illuminated by light of wavelength 491 nm is
0.710 V. When the incident wavelength is changed to a new value, the stopping potential is 1.43 V. What
is this new wavelength?
(1) 664 nm
(2) 529 nm
(3) 382 nm
(4) 276 nm
Solution
Photon energy is given by
hc
K max eV0
(1.6 1019 C)(0.710V)
K max 1.136 1019 J 1.14 1019 J
Therefore, work function
E K max
(4.05 1.14) 1019 J
2.91 1019 J
For the changed value of incident wavelength,
E K 'max
hc
E'
(6.63 1034 )(3 108 )
5.20 1019
' 382 nm
'
(4)
L
A
1
(4) 5 5 ms
Solution
In a perfectly inelastic collision, the colliding bodies combine after collision and move as a single system.
In an inelastic collision, law of conservation of momentum is also applicable.
Let v1 be velocity of m just before collision, v2 be velocity of 2m just before collision and v0 be combined
velocity just after collision
h
v12 u12 2 g
2
v12 02 gh
and
h
v22 u22 2 g
2
v22 u22 gh
v22 (10 5 ) 2 10 10
v22 500 100
v2 20 ms 1
2v2 v1 3v0
2v2 v1
3
2 20 10
3
v0 10 ms 1
Note that the system goes further up after collision but on the return journey, the velocity of the combined
system at h /2 is still v0. Applying conservation of energy, we get
v0
1
h 1
3mv02 3mg 3m vf2
2
2 2
2
2
v0 gh vf
(1)
where vf is the velocity of the combined mass as it strikes the ground. Substituting the values in Eq. (1)
we get
(10)2 + 100 = vf2
vf 10 2 ms 1
Thus, the velocity of the combined mass as it returns to the ground will be vf 10 2 ms1.
Hence, the correct option is (2).
Question 22
The least count of a stop watch is 1/5 s. Two persons A and B use this watch to measure the time period of
an oscillating pendulum. Person A takes the time period of 30 oscillations and person B takes the time
period of 50 oscillations. Neglecting all other source of error, we can say that
(1) Absolute error in measurement by A is greater than that of B
(2) Absolute error in measurement by A is equal to that of B
(3) Accuracy in measurement by B is greater than that of A
(4) Accuracy in measurement by B is equal to that of A
Solution
1/ 5
1
s
30 150
(5)
1/ 5
1
T2
s
50 250
T1
T2 T1
So accuracy in measurement by person B is greater than that by person A.
Hence, the correct option is (3).
Question 23
A charge of 9q is fixed to one corner of a square, while a charge of 8q is fixed to the opposite corner.
In terms of q , what charge should be fixed to the center of the square, so that the potential is zero at each
of the two empty corners?
(1) q / 2
(2) q 2
(3) q / 2
(4) q 3 / 2
Solution
9q
8q
Q
4 0 r 4 0 r 4 0 (r / 2)
1
4 0 r
(q Q 2)
q
2
1T1 2T2
0T
30
T'
4
4
T' T
3
P T 4 34
256
P
P
81
Hence, the correct option is (4).
Question 25
Two long, thin wires parallel to the z-axis carry currents in the positive z-direction, as shown in the figure
given below.
The wire carrying 50 A current is in the xz plane and is 5 m from the z-axis. The wire carrying 40 A
current is in the yz plane and is 4 m from the z-axis. What is the magnitude of the magnetic field at the
origin?
(1) 0 T
(2) 1106 T
(3) 2.83 106 T
(4) 4 106 T
Solution
Magnetic field at the origin due to the two wires
(50) 0 (40)
B 0
( j )
(i )
2 (5)
2 (4)
50
(i j )
50
5(4 107 )( 2)
B 2.83 106 T
Hence, the correct option is (3).
Question 26
A shell is fired with a horizontal velocity in the positive x-direction from the top of an 80m high cliff.
The shell strikes the ground 1330m from the base of the cliff. What is the initial speed of the shell? (Take
g =10 ms2.)
(1) 332.5ms1
(2) 170ms1
(3) 82ms 1
Solution
(4) 9.8ms1
1
y y0 u y t a y t 2
2
1
(80) 0 (0) t (10) t 2
2
t
80
4s
5
v0 t 1330
v0
1330
332.5 ms 1
4
(1 e t )
t
(3) e
(1)
(2)
t
e
(4) (1 et )
Solution
The rate of radioactive decay is given by
dN
N
dt
N
t
dN
0 N 0 dt
Solving the above relation, we get
(1 e t )
4 2 Gm 2
a
When the same mass is removed to a point far away, its potential energy becomes zero. Hence, U f 0 J .
Thus, the work done will be equal to
W Uf Ui
4 2 Gm 2
0
a
4 2 Gm 2
a
15 105 m 2
R 1.2 105
The average current required to vaporize water is
Q
I
Rt
3.6 104 J
(4) 5.16 cm
Solution
For single slit diffraction,
n
sin 1
For the first dark fringe n 1 , d is the width of the slit and is the wavelength of light.
sin 1
d
625 109
sin 1
3
0.320 10
sin 1 (1.95 103 )
1.95 103 rad
Thus, the distance between the middle of the central bright fringe and the first dark fringe is
y L tan L
8.00(1.95 103 )
15.6 103 m
y 1.56 cm
Hence, the correct option is (3).
Chemistry
Question 31
Which of the following is not used as a chemical test to test for the presence of protein?
(1) Biuret test
(2) Millons test
(3) Ninhydrin test
(4) Molisch test
Solution
Biuret test is used to test the presence of protein. It is a reaction in which 1% solution of copper sulphate
reacts with the peptide bond and turns the solution violet in color.
Millons test is given by any compound that has phenolic hydroxyl group. So proteins containing amino
acids with hydroxyl group will give a pink to dark red color as a positive result.
The reagent ninhydrin is used to detect ammonia, primary and secondary amines. On treatment, deep
blue/purple coloration is observed.
The Molisch reagent is used to detect carbohydrates(monosaccharides, disaccharides and
polysaccharides). On treatment, purple ring is formed at the interface between the layers.
So the presence of proteins can be detected using Biuret, Millon and Ninhydrin tests, out of which
Millons test is not a specific test for proteins. But proteins cannot be detected at all using Molisch test,
which is used to detect carbohydrates
Hence, the correct option is (4).
Question 32
In which of the following molecules, the surrounding atoms imposed minimum bond angle at the central
atom?
(1) Cl2O
(2) H2Te
(3) XeF2
(4) I3
Solution
The shape of Cl2O is based on the tetrahedral geometry, so the bond involved in it is around tetrahedral
angle. In the case of H2Te, the shape is angular with bond angle around 90 because the central atom is
not participating in hybridization.
The shape of XeF2 and I3 is based on trigonal bipyramidal geomtry, and both molecules are linear due to
which atoms impose maximum bond angle at the central atom, that is, 180.
Hence, the correct option is (2).
Question 33
The vapor pressure of a dilute aqueous solution is 23.45 torr at 27C, whereas the vapor pressure of pure
water at this temperature is 23.76 torr. If values of Kb and Kf for water are 0.51 K/m and 1.86 K/m, then
the incorrect statement is:
Moles of solute
0.013 mol
0.013)
18
Mass of solvent (in kg)
kg
1000
II: Dipole moment of p-dinitrobenzene is zero as the net dipole moment is the resultant of two equal and
opposite vectors.
O 2N
NO 2
(III) According to Fajans rules, for the same cation, as the size of anion increases, covalent character of
the molecule increases. Therefore, LiI will be more covalent than LiBr.
(IV) SF6 does not obey octet rule as the central atom sulphur in this molecule has 12 electrons in its
outermost shell.
Thus, statements (II) and (IV) are incorrect.
Hence, the correct option is (2).
Question 36
Consider the redox reaction in acidic medium: Mn 2 BiO3 MnO4 Bi3 . Choose the correct
statement from the following:
(1) The total electrons involved in the balanced chemical equation is 5.
(2) Two moles of electrons are donated per mole of BiO3
(3) 2.8 mol of acid are required for the change from BiO3 to Bi3+
(4) Acid is used as reducing agent in this reaction.
Solution:
In this reaction, BiO3 is reduced by accepting electrons which are donated by Mn 2+ that is getting
oxidized. Balancing the redox equation, we get:
[Mn 2 4H2O MnO4 8H 5e ] 2
[BiO3 6H 2e Bi3 3H2O] 5
2Mn 2 5BiO3 14H 2MnO4 5Bi3 7H2O
From the balanced equation, it is clear that total of 10 electrons are involved in the reaction, and 2.8 mol
of acid are required per mole of BiO3 .
Hence, the correct option is (3).
Question 37
At 25C, 0.056 mol O2 and 0.02 mol N2O were placed in a 1 liter container where the following
equilibrium was established: 2N2O(g) 3O2 (g)
4NO2 (g).
At equilibrium, the NO2 concentration was 0.02 M. What is the value of KC for this reaction?
(1) 23.2
(2) 48.78
(3) 34.33
(4) 0.043
Solution
The reaction involved is
2N 2 O(g)
Initial conc.
0.02
3O 2 (g)
4NO 2 (g)
0.056
Final conc.
0.02 2 x 0.056 3x 4 x
Now, at equilibrium as [NO2] = 0.02 4x = 0.02 x = 0.005 M.
Therefore, [O2] = 0.056 3 (0.005) = 0.041 M, and [N2O] = 0.02 2(0.005) = 0.01 M
[NO2 ]4
(0.02)4
KC
23.2
[N 2 O]2 [O2 ]3 (0.01)2 (0.041)3
Hence, the correct option is (1).
Question 38
Consider the one molal aqueous solution of each of the coordination compounds given below?
(I) [Fe(H 2O) 6 ]Cl 3
(II) [Fe(H 2O) 5 Cl]Cl 2 H 2O
(III) [Fe(H 2O) 3 Cl 3 ] 3H 2O
The correct statement about them is
(1) I will show maximum freezing point
(2) III will show maximum boiling point
(3) III will show minimum freezing point
(4) I will show maximum boiling point
Solution
The elevation in boiling point and depression in freezing point of a solvent depend on the number of
particles, or moles dissolved in it. Equal molal concentration indicates that equal moles of each compound
are dissolved.
But each compound may dissociate in different way in the solution. .
[Fe(H 2O) 6] 3 3Cl
(I) [Fe(H 2O) 6 ]Cl 3
(II) [Fe(H 2O)5 Cl]Cl 2 H 2O [Fe(H 2O) 5Cl] 2 2Cl
(III) [Fe(H 2O) 3 Cl 3 ] 3H 2O No dissociation
[Fe(H2O)4 Cl2 ]2 Cl
(IV) [Fe(H2O)4 Cl2 ]Cl 2H2O
In this way, the first compound gives maximum ions on dissociation, it causes maximum depression in
freezing point and maximum elevation in boiling point. Therefore, solution (I) has maximum boiling
point and minimum freezing point.
In contrast, solution III has minimum boiling point and maximum freezing point since it does not
dissociate.
Hence, the correct option is (4)
Question 39
Which of the following electronic configuration is not possible?
(1) [Kr] 4d8 5s1
(2) [Kr] 3d7 4s2
(3) [Xe] 4f14 5d7 6s2
Solution
The electronic configuration is done by using Aufbaus law, that is, electron should be filled in increasing
order of energy. In [Kr] 3d7 4s2, the configuration 3d7 4s2 is already included with [Kr], the correct one is
[Kr]4d75s1 for Ru. All other configurations are written correctly.
Hence, the correct option is (2).
Question 40
In the reaction, CH3CH2CHXCH3 CH3CH2CH=CH2
1 a
1
25
k ln
ln 0.0042 min 1
t a x 120 15
Solution
Xenon reacts directly only with fluorine. However, oxygen compounds can be obtained from fluorides.
The structures of the given compounds are as follows:
XeOF4
Square pyramidal (that is octahedral with one
position unoccupied)
XeF 6
Distorted octahedron
XeO2F2
[XeO6]4
Hence, the correct option is (2).
Question 43
In a compound, the anions (X) form hexagonal close packing and cations (Y) occupy only one-third of
octahedral voids. The general formula for the compound is
(1) YX
(2) Y2X3
(3) YX3
(4) Y3 X
Solution
1
1
The atoms per unit cell 12 2 3 1 6 . So, the number of anions (X) per unit cell is 6.
6
2
Now since it is hexagonal close packing, the number of octahedral voids present is equal to the number of
anions present. As only 1/3 of the voids are occupied by cations,
1
Number of cations (Y) 6 2
3
Therefore, formula is Y2 X6 YX3
Hence, the correct option is (3).
Question 44
Gas A on reaction with propene, followed by Zn/H2O forms acetaldehyde and formaldehyde. When this
gas A is passed through KOH at low temperature, a deep red compound B and a gas are obtained. The
compounds A and B are, respectively,
(1) O3, KO2
(2) O2, KO2
(3) O3, KO3
(4) KOH, O2
Solution
When ozone reacts with an alkene, then aldehyde is formed (two molecules of same for symmetrical
alkenes and mixture for unsymmetrical alkenes). This confirms that Gas A is O3.
O3 CH3 CH CH2 CH3CHO HCHO
Acetaldehyde
Formaldehyde
Red
(B)
(Another gas)
Solution
From O to Se group, the trend for atomic size is O < S < Se. Since As comes before Se in the period, so
As is bigger in size than Se as in a period the size decreases from left to right. So, the correct trend is
given in option (3).
Hence, the correct option is (3).
Question 46
Each of the following mixtures was added to a flask or a separation funnel that contained diethyl ether (as
an organic solvent) and mixed well. In which case, would the organic compound be present in the
aqueous phase (soluble in aqueous NaHCO3) ?
(1) p-Cresol + aqueous NaHCO3
(2) p-Chlorophenol + aqueous NaHCO3
(3) p-Nitrophenol + aqueous NaHCO3 (4) Picric acid + aqueous NaHCO3
Solution
In general, phenols are more acidic than alcohols but less acidic than carboxylic acid. Carboxylic acids
can react with weak base NaHCO3, and are soluble in aqueous sodium bicarbonate. So, only those
phenols can be dissolved in aqueous NaHCO3 which are sufficiently acidic to react with weak base,
NaHCO3.
Out of the given compounds, only picric acid is exceptionally acidic which can react with weak base
NaHCO3. So, it dissolves in aqueous phase.
(9)
Heat
4K 2Cr2O7 (aq)
4K 2CrO4 (s) 2Cr2O3 (s) 3O2 (g)
(1) 3
(3) 7
(2) 5
(4) 8
Solution
Since -hydrogens of carbonyl group are acidic in nature and the reaction medium is basic in the given
problem, so all hydrogen atoms alpha to carbonyl group will be substituted by deuterium atom.
In addition, in this reaction, the hydrogen atoms at alpha position to the double bond are also substituted
because the double bond is in conjugation with the carbonyl group.
Overall reaction:
So, in the reactant, a total of eight hydrogen atoms can be substituted to form a product with eight
deuterium atoms.
Hence, the correct option is (4).
Question 50
2RT
, on increasing temperature vmp will increase.
M
On increasing temperature, the distribution graph tends to flatten, which indicates that fraction of
molecules with most probable velocity decreases.
Since vmp
From Maxwell distribution, it is clear that average speed fraction is greater than root mean square speed.
Since speed is inversely proportional to the root of molar mass, heavier molecules move relatively with
less speed.
Hence, the correct option is (3).
Question 51
Which of the following options is correct when six ligands are approaching towards central metal ion
along axis?
(1) Energy of t2g set of d-orbitals increases and that of eg set decreases as compared to that in free metal
ion.
(2) Energy t2g set of d-orbitals decreases and that of eg set increases as compared to that in free metal ion.
(3) Energy of both sets of d-orbitals increases equally as compared to that in free metal ion.
(4) Energy of eg set of d-orbitals increases more than t2g set of d-orbitals, but the energy of both sets of
d-orbitals increases as compared to that in free metal ion.
Solution
When ligands approach along the axes in octahedral fields, the electrons present in the eg set of d-orbitals
(d x2 y2 , d z 2 ) faces more repulsion as compared to the electrons in t2g set (dxy, dyx, dzx) which point in
between the axes. But repulsion is faced by electrons from both sets of d-orbitals. Hence, the energy will
increase for both sets of d-orbitals.
Hence, the correct option is (4).
Question 52
Predict the product when cis-3-methylcyclopentanol is treated with TsCl/pyridine, followed by sodium
bromide.
(1) trans-1-Bromo-3-methylcyclopentane
(2) cis-1-Bromo-3-methylcyclopentane
(3) 2-Methylcyclopentene
(4) 1-Methylcyclopentene
Solution
When TsCl/pyridine reacts with cis-3-methylcyclopentanol, it reacts with alcoholic group of the
compound and forms tosylate which on reaction with NaBr gives SN2 to produce trans-1-bromo-3methylcyclopentane.
Hence, the correct option is (1).
Quick Tip: Tosylate on nucleophilic substitution undergoes S N2 pathway which is associated with
inversion of configuration
Question 53
A buffer solution is formed by adding 0.2 mol each of CH3COOH and CH3COONa in one liter solution.
The pH upon adding 1.0 ml of 0.1 M HCl to 10 ml of this buffer [Given: pKa (CH3COOH) = 4.74]
(1) increases by 0.04.
(2) decreases by 0.04.
(3) increases by 2.7.
(4) decreases by 2.7.
Solution
Given that [CH3COOH] [CH3COONa] 0.2 10 103
Initial pH of the buffer solution is
[Salt]
0.2 10 103
pH pKa log
4.74 log
4.74
[Acid]
0.2 10 103
After addition of 0.1 M HCl to this buffer, few moles of CH3COONa convert to CH3COOH. Therefore,
Moles of salt, CH3COONa = (210-3 0.110-3 ) = 1.910-3
Moles of acid, CH3COOH 2.0 103 0.1103 2.1103
Therefore,
1.9 103 1.9
[CH3COONa] =
M and
11 / 1000 11
2.1 103 2.1
[CH3COOH] =
M
11 / 1000 11
[Salt]
1.9 / 11
pH pKa log
4.74 log
4.7
[Acid]
2.1/ 11
So, the pH decreases by 0.04.
Hence, the correct option is (2).
Question 54
Which of the following monomers would be most reactive towards cationic polymerization?
(1) CH2 CH OCH3
(2) CH2 CH CN
(3) CH2 CH NO2
Solution
Cationic polymerization is the polymerization in which cations are the reacting species. So, carbocations
are the intermediates in the polymerization. The compound in which carbocation produced is very stable,
will react relatively faster than the others.
The monomer given in the first option produces most stable carbocation because electron releasing group
OCH3 stabilize it by resonance. Hence, it is most reactive in cationic polymerization.
Hence, the correct option is (1).
Question 55
Consider the transition from energy level n = 6 to n = 4 for He+, the wavelength observed is the same as
the transition in [consider no reduced mass effect]
(1) Li2+ from n = 6 to n = 4
(2) B4+ from n = 6 to n = 4
(3) H from n = 3 to n = 2
(4) Be3+ from n = 12 to n = 8
Solution
1
1
RH Z 2 2 2 , we have:
n1 n2
For transition from energy level n = 6 to n = 4 for He+ is
1
1 1
RH 22 2 2
He
4 6
This can be expressed in terms of following transitions:
R 22
H
H 2
2
2
He
4 6
2
same as in H from n 3 2
He
32
1
1
1
1
1
1
RH 2 2 RH 32 2 2 2 2 RH 32 2 2
3
3 3
9
2
3 2
6
same as in Li 2 from n 9 6
1
He
1
1
1 1
1
1
RH 2 2 RH 42 2 2 2 2 RH 42 2 2
4 3
2 3
4 2
8 12
same as in B4 from n 12 8
He
1
1
1 1
1
1
RH 2 2 RH 52 2 2 2 2 RH 52 2 2
2 3
5 2 5 3
10 15
Question 56
A sample of mercury (II) sulphide contains 82.6% mercury by mass. The mass of HgS that can be made
from 30 g of mercury is [At wt of Hg = 201, S = 32]
(1) 34.8 g
(2) 36.3 g
(3) 4.8 g
(4) 24.8 g
Solution
The percentage of Hg in pure HgS
201
100 86.2%
233
This is more than the given percentage of Hg, it implies that the sample is not pure. So, we cannot use
given percentage to calculate mass of pure HgS produced by 30 g Hg.
Consider x g of HgS can be obtained from 30 g of Hg. It indicates 30 g Hg is the 86.2% of x g HgS.
x
86.2
30 x 34.8 g
100
o
EMnO
1.23 V
2
o
Pb 2Cl ; EPbCl
0.27 V
2
PbCl2
Mn 2 2H2O;
PbCl2 2e;
o
EMnO
1.23 V
2
o
EPb
0.27 V
o
Mn 2 PbCl2 2H2O Ecell
1.23 0.27 1.5 V
second, and pKa1 < pKa2. Thus, all four resonance structures are equally stable, which implies that all CC
and CO bonds are equal.
Hence, the correct option is (4).
Question 59
For the reaction A B, H = 4 kcal mol1, S = 10 cal mol1 K1. The reaction is spontaneous when the
temperature is
(1) 400 K
(2) 300 K
(3) 500 K
(4) None of these.
Solution
AsG = ve for spontaneous change and G = H TS, we have
H
4000 cal mol1
T S H T
T
T 400 K
S
10 cal mol1K 1
Hence, the correct option is (3).
Question 60
When the alkyl bromides (listed here) were subjected to hydrolysis in a mixture of ethanol and water
(80% EtOH/20% H2O) at 55C, the rates of the reaction showed the order:
I. CH3Br
II. CH3CH2Br
III. (CH3)2CHBr
IV. (CH3)3CBr
(1) I > II > III > IV
(2) IV > III > II > I
(3) IV > I > II > III
(4) IV > III > I > II
Solution
Two different mechanisms are involved in the hydrolysis of these compounds.
(CH3)3CBr reacts by SN1 mechanism only and apparently this reaction takes place faster. The other three
alkyl halides react by SN2 mechanism, and their reactions are slower because the nucleophile H 2O is
weak. The reaction rates are affected by the steric hindrance and thus their order of reactivity is I > II > III
(as order followed by alkyl halides towards S N2 is methyl > 1 > 2).
Hence, the correct option is (3).
Mathematics
Question 61
The following question consists of two statements, 1 and 2. Of the four choices given, choose the one that
best describes the two statements.
Statement 1: Contrapositive of If xy is even, then either x or y is even is If neither x nor y is even, then
xy is not even
Statement 2: Contrapositive of p q is ~ q ~ p
(1) Statement 1 is True; Statement 2 is True; Statement 2 is a correct explanation for Statement 1.
(2) Statement 1 is True; Statement 2 is True; Statement 2 is not a correct explanation for Statement 1.
(3) Statement 1 is True; Statement 2 is False.
(4) Statement 1 is False; Statement 2 is True.
Solution
Contrapositive of p q
~ q ~ p
r: xy is even
s: Either x or y is even
Contrapositive of r s is ~ s ~ r
This implies that if neither x nor y is even, then xy is not even.
Hence, the correct option is (1)
Question 62
Let X be a binomial variate with parameters n and p. If the mean is 20 and variance is 15, then p is equal
to
1
3
1
(3)
2
(1)
1
4
3
(4)
4
(2)
Solution
Mean np and variance 2 npq . Therefore,
and
Solving, we get
np 20
15 = npq
15 20q
3
q
4
p 1 q 1
3 1
4 4
is
1 13
a b 39 c sin
sq. unit, find a b c.
(1) 79
29
(3)
4
(2) 29
(4) 54
Solution
The area bounded between circles x2 y 2 52 and ( x 2 13)2 y 2 52 is same as the area bounded
between the given two circles (see the following figure).
We have
y 2 52 x2 52 ( x 2 13)2
( x 2 13)2 x2 0
( x 2 13 x)( x 2 13 x) 0
2 x 2 13 0
x 13
Dotted area is
5
13
x
25
x
5 x dx
25 x 2 sin 1
2
5
2
2
13
25
13
25 13
0
12 sin 1
2 2 2
2
5
25
13
25
39 sin 1
4
5
2
Therefore, the required area is
25
13
25
4 Dotted area 4
39 sin 1
2
5
4
13
25 4 39 50sin 1
5
13
a b 39 c sin 1
5
where a b c 25 4 50 29 .
Hence, the correct option is (2).
Question 64
Let 1 be a cube root of unity and
E 2(1 )(1 2 ) 3(2 1)(2 2 1) 4(3 1)(3 2 1)
Then E is equal to
(1)
n 2 (n 1)2
4
(2)
n2 (n 1)2
n
4
(n 1)(n 1)(n 2 1)
(3)
n2 (n 1)2
n
4
(4)
n2 (n 1)2
1
4
Solution
The kth term of the given summation is
(k 1)(k 1)(k 2 1) (k 1)(k 2 k 1) k 3 1 .
Therefore using the above result, we can rewrite the summation as
n
k 1
k 1
E (k 3 1) k 3 n
n2 (n 1)2
n
4
104 54 625
Hence, the correct option is (3).
Question 66
Let A, B and C be finite sets such that A B C and each one of the sets A B , B C and
C A has 100 elements. Given that A B ( A B) ( A B) , the number of elements in A B C
is
(1) 250
(2) 200
(3) 150
(4) 300
Solution
Let n( X ) denote the number of elements in X.
Then,
n( A B C) n( A) n( B) n(C) n( A B) n( B C ) n(C A) n( A B C ).
Now,
n( A) n( A B)
(since A B C )
A B ( A B) ( B A) ( A B) ( A B).
Therefore,
n( A B ) n ( A B ) n ( A B )
n( A) n( B) 2n( A B)
and
300
Therefore
n( A B C )
n( A) n( A B)
300
150
2
x2
y 2 1 as shown in the following figure. The equation of
9
(2) 3 3x y 4 3
(3) 3 3x y 5 3
(4) x 3 3 y 7 3
Solution
The equation of line OP is y = mx.
1
y
x
3
x2
y 2 1 . To get the coordinates of point P, we get
9
x2 x2
1
9
3
4
x2 1
9
9
x2
4
3
x
2
and
3
2
1 3
3
2
2
3
That is,
3 3
( x1 , y1 ) ,
2 2
y y1
y1 / b2
or
y y1
a 2 ( x x1 )
b2
x1
y1
That is,
9[ x (3 / 2)] 1[ y ( 3 / 2)]
3/ 2
3/2
2x 2
9
1
y 1
3
3
2
6x 9
y 1
3
2
6x
y 8
3
y
3x
4
3
3 3x y 4 3
2
(3) tan B
(4) tan 2B
Solution
We have
tan A
1 cos B
B
tan
sin B
2
Therefore,
tan 2 A
2 tan A
2 tan( B / 2)
tan B
1 tan A 1 tan 2 ( B / 2)
tan A tan 2 A
tan( B / 2) tan B
3B
tan 3 A
tan
1 tan A tan 2 A 1 tan ( B / 2) tan B
2
2
1632
52
C5
(4)
1000
52
C5
Solution
Five cards are drawn; sample space is 52C5. Probability of drawing at least two queen cards and two ace
cards are as follows:
Two queen cards and two ace cards and one other: 4C2 4C2 44C1 = 6 6 44 = 1584.
Two queen cards and three ace cards: 4C2 4C3 = 6 4 = 24.
Three queen cards and two ace cards: 4C3 4C2 = 4 6 = 24
The above mentioned ways show that the favourable cases are:
1584 + 24 + 24 = 1632
Hence, the required probability is
1632
52
C5
Hence, the correct option is (3).
Question 70
If a1, a2, , a2014 are in arithmetic progression such that
1
1
a1 a2 a2 a3
d a1a2
a2 a3
1 1 1
1
1
d a1 a2 a 2 a3
a2014 a2013
=3
a2013 .a2014
1
a2013
1
3
a2014
1 1
1
1 a 2013d a
d a1 a2014
d a(a 2013d
2013
72a a2 = 671
a(a 72 2a)
1
3 and a2 +
a2013 a2014
a 72a + 671 = 0
a = 11 or 61
2
50
50
or
2013
2013
|a2014 a1| = 2013 |d| = 50
Hence, the correct option is (4).
d =
Question 71
The number of five-digit numbers formed using the digits 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, and 8 without repetition and
divisible by 6 is
(1) 98
(2) 116
(3) 150
(4) 216
Solution
Out of six digits 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 8, five digit numbers have to be formed without repetition; hence, one digit
has to be left out. For the number to be divisible by 6, number has to be even and divisible by 3, that is,
the sum of digits to be divisible by 3, current sum of all digits is 18.
Case 1: 0 left out: The total number of five digit even numbers are
? ? ? ? 2/4/8
= 72 numbers
1 2 3 4 3
Case 2: 3 left out: The total number of five digit numbers are
? ? ? ? 0
= 24 numbers
4 3 2 1 1
? ? ? ? 2/4/8
= 54 numbers
3 3 2 1 3
The total number of five digit numbers = 72 + 24 + 54 = 150 numbers.
Hence, the correct option is (3).
Question 72
For the system of equations ax + 4y + z = 0, 2y + 3z = 1 and 3x bz = 2, which of the following is not
true?
(1) Unique solution if ab 15
(2) Infinitely many solutions if a = 3 and b = 5
(3) No solution if ab = 15, a 3
(4) No solution if ab = 15, a 5
Solution
We have
ax 4 y z 0
2 y 3z 1
3x bz 2
Here,
a 4 1
D 0 2 3
3 0 b
a (2b) 3(12 2)
2ab 30
2(ab 15)
Dx 1
2 0 b
4b 24 4
4(b 5)
a
Dy 0
0
1
1
3
3 2 b
a (6 b) 3
a 4
Dz 0 2
3 0 2
4a 12
4(a 3)
Now the system equations will have a unique solution if,
D0
ab 15
System of equations will have infinitely many solution if,
Dx Dy Dz 0
a 3, b 5
System of equations will have no solution if,
D 0 and Dx 0, Dy 0, Dz 0
ab 15, a 3, b 5
x y
1, z 0 and parallel to the straight line
3 5
x 1 y 2 3 z
Solution
Since the plane contains the line 5x 3 y 15 and z 0 , each and every point on the line also satisfies
equation of the plane.
x y
Let say (p, q, r) is a point on the line 1, z 0
3 5
So we have,
p q
1, r 0
.....(1)
3 5
x 2 3x c
x 2 3x c
( y 1) x2 3( y 1) x c( y 1) 0
Therefore,
x
For real x
9( y 1)2 4c( y 1) 2 0
9 y 2 9 18 y 4cy 2 4c 8cy 0
(9 4c) y 2 2(9 4c) y (9 4c) 0
Given that
1
y 7 (7 y 1)(7 y ) 0
7
7 y 2 50 y 7 0
Therefore,
(1)
1
(3)
2
Solution
(2)
(4)
1
2
( x 2 x x)( x 2 x x)
lim ( x 2 x x) lim
lim
lim
lim
( x 2 x x)
x2 x x2
( x 2 x x)
x/x
[ ( x 2 x) / x ( x / x)]
1
[ ( x 2 / x 2 ) ( x / x 2 ) 1]
lim
x [
1
(1 (1 / x) 1]
1
2
f ( x)dx
2
Therefore,
k
f ( x)dx (k 1) cos(2k 3)
(1)
Therefore,
f ( x) cos(2x 3) ( x 1)(2)sin(2x 3)
2 3
3 1
(3) 3 3
Solution
(2) 3 3
(4) 5 3 1
Therefore,
BD 12 12 2
And in ABD
AB
BD
2
(sine rule)
Thus,
2 3
3/2
sin 60
AB 2
2
3 1
sin 75
( 3 1) / (2 2)
3( 3 1) 3 3
Hence, the correct option is (2).
Question 78
If a, b, c, are distinct positive real numbers such that a > b > c and 2ln(a c), ln(a2 c2), ln(a2 + 2b2 + c2)
are in arithmetic progression, then
(1) a , b, c are in arithmetic progression
(2) a, b, c are in arithmetic progression
(3) a, b, c are in geometric progression
(4) a, b, c are in harmonic progression
Solution
We have that a > b > c and 2ln(a c), ln(a2 c2), ln(a2 + 2b2 + c2) are in arithmetic progression. These
imply that
2ln(a2 c2) = 2ln(a c) + ln(a2 + 2b2 + c2)
2
2 2
2 2
2
2
(a c ) = (a c ) (a + 2b + c )
2
2
2
2
(a + c) = a + 2b + c
2
2
2
2
2
a + c + 2ac = a + 2b + c
2
b = ac a, b, c are in geometric progression.
Hence, the correct option is (3).
Question 79
Two vectors r and s are non-collinear. The volume of parallelopiped whose co-terminal edges are p , q
and s is v1 and the volume of parallelopiped whose edges are p , q , r is v2. If
( p q) (r s ) logb ar loga bs (where a, b > 1), then the least value of v1 + v2 is
(1) 2
(3) 4
(2) 3
(4) 12
Solution
We have
p q r s ( p q ) s r ( p q ) r s v1r v2 s
log b ar log a bs
v1 logb a;
v2 loga b
Now, a, b > 1 v1, v2 > 0
v v
1 2 v1v2
(AM GM)
2
v1 v2 2
( v1v2 1)
Therefore, the least value of v1 + v2 is 2.
Hence, the correct option is (1).
Question 80
Consider y x for 0 x 9. P(, ) is any point on y x and Q (2, 0) is a point not on the curve.
Then
(1) Point (0, 0) is closest to Q and point (9, 3) is farthest from Q.
3
(3) Point ,
3
is closest to Q and Point (9, 3) is farthest from Q.
2
( )
Therefore,
f ( ) 2( 2) 1
and
f ( ) 2
(which is positive)
f ( ) 0
Therefore,
2( 2) 1 0
3
3
3
2
2
3
and this point is closest to the point Q and its distance from the point
2
Q is
2
1 3
3
3
2
0
4 2
2
2
7
2
2
(OQ 2)
x dx
24 x 4
(1) sin 1
(3)
2
x
1
(4) sin 1 c
4
2
x2
c
16
(2)
1 1 x 2
sin c
2
16
1 1 x 2
sin
2
2
Solution
d
1
Numerator x 2
dx 2
Substituting x2 = t, we get
1
dt
2 42 t 2
t
1
sin 1 c
4
2
[ 24 = (22)2 = 42]
x2
1
sin 1 c
2
4
Hence, the correct option is (4).
Question 83
Then,
x
(6 3 x)sin 2 , x 1
(4 x)sin
, 1 x 2
2
f ( x)
x sin x ,
2 x3
(3x 6)sin x , x 3
Therefore,
(4 x) cos x sin x ,
1 x 2
2
2
2
f ( x)
x
x cos x sin
,
2 x3
2
2
2
(3 x 6) cos x 3sin x ,
x3
2
2
2
For this function the left hand and the right hand derivatives of f(x) can be obtained by finding the left
hand and the right hand limits of f (x) at any point.
Now at x 1 ,
L F(1) 3,
R F(1) 1
L F(1) R F(1)
At x 2 ,
L F(2) ,
R F(2)
L F(2) R F(2)
At x 3
L F(3) ,
R F(3) 3
L F(3) R F(3)
Therefore f (x) is not differentiable at exactly 2 points x = 1 and 3.
Hence, the correct option is (2)
Question 84
Find the value of [( 2 1)6 ]. ([] denotes greatest integer function.)
(1) 196
(2) 197
(3) 198
(4) 199
Solution
( 2 1)6 I f
( 2 1)6 f
I f f ( 2 1)6 ( 2 1)6
= 2(T1 + T3 + T5 + T7)
6
6
2[( 2) C2 ( 2)4 6C4 ( 2)2 6C6 ( 2)0 ]
= 2(8 + 15.4 + 15.2 + 1)
= 198
f f 1 I 197
[( 2 1)6 ] 197
(4) 6 x 7 y 32
Solution
Let the line that passes through A (3, 2) be
x3 y 2
r
cos sin
(say)
Every point on this line is of the form P(3 r cos ,2 r sin ) and this lies on the line
6x 7 y 30 r (6cos 7sin ) 2
(1)
d b
e f
f
c
A1 1 1 0 , A2 0 1 1 , A3 0
0 0 1
0 1 1
1
A4 0 0 1 , A5 1 0 1 , A6 1
1 1 1
0 1 1
1
0 1
1 0
0 1
1 1
0 0,
0 1
0 0 1
0 1 0
0 1 1
A7 0 1 1 , A8 1 1 1 , A9 1 1 0 ,
1 1 0
0 1 0
1 0 0
1 0 1
1 1 0
1 1 1
A7 1, A9 1, A10 1
A11 1
Hence, there are six non-singular matrices. Hence, the probability of selection of non-singular matrix is
6 1
12 2
Hence, the correct option is (3).
Question 87
The locus of the foot of the perpendicular drawn from the centre of the hyperbola xy = c2, where c 0,
onto any tangent of the same curve is (x2 + y2)2 = kc2xy. Then, find k.
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 4
(4) 8
Solution
Equation of any tangent to a rectangular hyperbola at a point ct , c t is ty x t c .
Foot of the perpendicular drawn from the vertex (0, 0) to ty x t c can be found as,
x y
c
2
1 t t t 1 t2
ct
ct
x 2
,y 2
2
t 1 t
t 1 t2
Replacing these values of x and y in the equation under examination we get,
2
c t 2 ct 2
c t ct
2
2
kc 2 2
2
2
2 2
2
t 1 t t 1 t
t 1 t t 1 t
2
1 t2
t2
t
4
kc 4 1 t
c
2
2
2
2 2
2
2
2
2
2
t 1 t t 1 t
t 1 t t 1 t
1
1
k
2
2
2 2
2
t 1 t t 1 t 2
k 1
Hence, the correct option is (1).
Question 88
2014 Wiley India Pvt. Ltd.
Two circles c1 and c2 touch each other externally and both circles also touch the coordinate axes. If c1 is
smaller than c2 and its radius is 2 units, then the radius of c2 is
(1) 6 4 2
(2) 2 2 2
(3) 3 2 2
(4) 6 4 2
Solution
The following figure depicts the two circles c1 and c2 touching each other externally and also touching the
coordinate axes.
From the figure, we can write as
OQ = OR + RQ
2r2 OP PR RQ
( diagonal of a square is 2 side)
2r2 2 2 2 r2
r2 ( 2 1) 2( 2 1)
Rationalizing, we get
r2
2( 2 1)
2 1
2 1
2 1
64 2
2l 2m n 0
mn nl lm 0
(1)
(2)
n 2(l m)
2m2 5ml 2l 2 0
2m2 ml 4ml 2l 2 0
m(2m l ) 2l (2m l )
(2l m)(l 2m) 0
l
m 2l or m
2
When m 2l , we get
l m n
1 2 2
Therefore, direction ratios of one line are 1: 2 : 2 .
l
When m , we get
2
l m n
[using n 2(l m) ]
2 1 2
which implies that the direction ratios of another line are 2 : 1: 2.
Taking dot product of the above two direction ratios, we get 2 2 4 0 , which implies that the two
lines are inclined at 90 to each other.
Hence, the correct option is (3).
Question 90
Solve:
x dy y dx
x dy y dx .
x2 y 2
y
(1) loge xy c
x
(2) loge xy 2 c
y
x
(3) tan 1 xy c
y
(4) tan 1 xy c
x
Solution
We know that
y x dy y dx
d tan 1
x
x2 y 2
d ( xy) x dy y dx
Given that
x dy y dx
x dy y dx
x2 y 2
y
d tan 1 d ( xy )
x
y
d tan 1 d ( xy ) c
(by integrating on both sides)
x
y
tan 1 xy c
x
Hence, the correct option is (4).