GQB CS PDF

GATE QUESTION BANK
for
Computer Science
&
Information Technology
By
GATE QUESTION BANK
Contents
Contents
#1.
#2.
#3.
Subject Name
Mathematics
Topic Name
Page No.
1-112
1
2
3
4
Linear Algebra
Probability & Distribution
Numerical Methods
Calculus
1 28
29 57
58 73
74 112
Data Structure and Algorithm
113 177
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
113 136
137 140
141 148
149 150
151 156
157 160
161 174
175 177
#5.
178 210
Introduction to Operating System
Process Management
Threads
CPU Scheduling
Deadlocks
Memory Management & Virtual Memory
File System
I/O System
178
179 186
187
188 193
194 199
200 206
207 208
209 210
Theory of Computation
211 235
21
22
23
24
211 216
217 223
224 229
230 235
Finite Automata
Regular Expression
Context Free grammar
Turing Machines
Computer Organization & Architecture

25
26
27
28
29
#6.
Operating System
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
#4.
Data Structure and Algorithm Analysis

Stacks and Queues
Trees
Height Balanced Trees (AVL Trees, B and
Priority Queues (Heaps)
Sorting Algorithms
Graph Algorithms
Hashing
236 263
Introduction to Computer Organization

Memory Hierarchy
Pipeline
Instruction Types
I/O Data Transfer
236
237 246
247 252
253 258
259 263
Digital Logic
30
31
264 289
Number Systems & Code Conversions
Boolean Algebra & Karnaugh Maps
th
th
264 268
269 275
th
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Page I
GATE QUESTION BANK
32
33
34
#7.
#8.
Logic Gates
Logic Gate Families
Combinational and Sequential Digital Circuits
276 279
280
281 289
Discrete Mathematics & Graph Theory
290 322
35
36
37
38
290 297
298 - 300
301 313
314 322
Mathematical Logic
Combinatorics
Sets and Relations
Graph Theory
Database Management System

39
40
41
42
43
44
#9.
Contents
323 361
ER Diagrams
Functional Dependencies & Normalization
Relational Algebra & Relational Calculus
SQL
Transactions and Concurrency Control
File Structures (Sequential files, Indexing,
B and
trees)
323 324
325 330
331 337
338 351
352 357
358 361
Computer Networks
362 396
45
46
362 363
364 - 367
47
48
49
50
51
Introduction to Computer Networks

Medium Access Sublayer
(LAN Technologies: Ethernet, Token Ring)
The Data Link Layer (Flow and Error Control
Techniques)
Routing & Congestion Control
TCP/IP, UDP and Sockets, IP(V4)
Application Layer
Network Security
368 373
374 379
380 390
391 393
394 396
#10. Compiler Design

52
53
54
55
397 409
Introduction to Compilers
Syntax Analysis
Syntax Directed Translation
Intermediate Code Generation
397
398 403
404 405
406 409
#11. Software Engineering and Web Technology
410 412
56
Introduction to Software and Software

Engineering
410 411
57
Process Modeling
412 413
58
59
60
61
Project Management
Validation and Verification
HTML Structure
XML and DTDs
414 415
416 418
419 420
421 422
th
th
th
Page II
GATE QUESTION BANK
Mathematics
Linear Algebra
ME 2005
1.
Which one of the following is an
Eigenvector of the matrix[
(A) [
(B) [ ]
2.
5.
]?
(C) [
(D) [
A is a 3 4 real matrix and Ax=B is an

inconsistent system of equations. The
highest possible rank of A is
(A) 1
(C) 3
(B) 2
(D) 4
ME 2006
3.
Multiplication of matrices E and F is G.
Matrices E and G are
os
sin
E [ sin
] and
os
G
4.
sin
os
sin
(B) [ os
os
sin
os
(C) [ sin
sin
os
sin
(D) [ os
os
sin
7.
Eigenvectors of 0
1 is
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) Infinite
If a square matrix A is real and symmetric,

then the Eigenvalues
(A) are always real
(B) are always real and positive
(C) are always real and non-negative
(D) occur in complex conjugate pairs
ME 2008
8.
The Eigenvectors of the matrix 0
1 are
written in the form 0 1 and 0 1. What is

a + b?
(A) 0
(B) 1/2
Eigen values of a matrix

0
ME 2007
6.
The number of linearly independent
]. What is the matrix F?
os
(A) [ sin
Match the items in columns I and II.

Column I
Column II
P. Singular
1. Determinant is not
matrix
defined
Q. Non-square
2. Determinant is
matrix
always one
R. Real
3. Determinant is
symmetric
zero
matrix
S. Orthogonal
4. Eigen values are
matrix
always real
5. Eigen values are
not defined
(A) P - 3 Q - 1 R - 4 S - 2
(B) P - 2 Q - 3 R - 4 S - 1
(C) P - 3 Q - 2 R - 5 S - 4
(D) P - 3 Q - 4 R - 2 S - 1
9.
(C) 1
(D) 2
The matrix [
] has one Eigenvalue

p
equal to 3. The sum of the other two
Eigenvalues is
(A) p
(C) p 2
(B) p 1
(D) p 3
1are 5 and 1. What are the
Eigenvalues of the matrix = SS?

(A) 1 and 25
(C) 5 and 1
(B) 6 and 4
(D) 2 and 10
th
th
th
Page 1
GATE QUESTION BANK
10.
For what value of a, if any, will the

following system of equations in x, y and z
have a solution
x
y
x y z
x
y z
(A) Any real number
(B) 0
(C) 1
(D) There is no such value
11.
ME 2012
15.
For a matrix,M-
(B) ( )
1 is
(A) 2
(B) 2 3
(C) 2 3
(D) 2
ME 2011
13. Consider the following system
equations:
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
The system has
(A) A unique solution
(B) No solution
(C) Infinite number of solutions
(D) Five solutions
14.
of
Eigen values of a real symmetric matrix

are always
(A) Positive
(C) Negative
(B) Real
(D) Complex
(D) ( )
of the matrix is equal to the inverse of the

,M- . The value of x is
matrix ,Mgiven by
)
(A) (
(C)
( )
(B)
(D)
1 , one of the
(C) ( )
(A) ( )
+, the transpose
ME 2010
12. One of the Eigenvectors of the matrix
For the matrix A=0
normalized Eigenvectors is given as
16.
ME 2009
Mathematics
x + 2y + z =4
2x + y + 2z =5
xy+z=1
The system of algebraic equations given
above has
(A) a unique algebraic equation of x = 1,
y = 1 and z = 1
(B) only the two solutions of ( x = 1,
y = 1, z = 1) and ( x = 2, y = 1, z = 0)
(C) infinite number of solutions.
(D) No feasible solution.
ME 2013
17. The Eigenvalues of a symmetric matrix
are all
(A) Complex with non zero positive
imaginary part.
(B) Complex with non zero negative
imaginary part.
(C) Real
(D) Pure imaginary.
18.
Choose correct set of functions, which are

linearly dependent.
(A) sin x sin x n os x
(B) os x sin x n t n x
(C) os x sin x n os x
(D) os x sin x n os x
ME 2014
19. Given that the determinant of the matrix
[
] is
12 , the determinant of
the matrix [
(A)
th
] is
(B)
th
(C)
th
(D)
Page 2
GATE QUESTION BANK
20.
One of the Eigenvectors of the matrix

0
21.
22.
2.
Consider a non-homogeneous system of

linear equations representing
mathematically an over-determined
system. Such a system will be
(A) consistent having a unique solution
(B) consistent having many solutions
(C) inconsistent having a unique solution
(D) inconsistent having no solution
3.
Consider the matrices

,
- . The order of , (
1 is
(A) { }
(C) 2
(B) { }
(D) 2 3
Consider a 33 real symmetric matrix S

such that two of its Eigenvalues are
with respective Eigenvectors
x y
[x ] [y ] If
then x y + x y +x y
x y
equals
(A) a
(C) ab
(B) b
(D) 0
Which one of the following equations is a
correct identity for arbitrary 33 real
matrices P, Q and R?
(A) (
)
)
(B) (
(
)
(C) et
et
et
)
(D) (
CE 2005
1.
Consider the system of equations (
)
is
s l r Let
(
)
(
) where
(
) e n Eigen -pair of an Eigenvalue
and its corresponding Eigenvector for
real matrix A. Let I be a (n n) unit
matrix. Which one of the following
statement is NOT correct?
(A) For a homogeneous n n system of
linear equations,(A
) X = 0 having
a nontrivial solution the rank of
(A
) is less than n.
(B) For matrix
, m being a positive
integer, (
) will be the Eigen pair for all i.
(C) If
=
then | | = 1 for all i.
(D) If
= A then is real for all i.
Mathematics
and
- will be
)
(C) (4 3)
(D) (3 4
(A) (2 2)
(B) (3 3
CE 2006
4.
Solution for the system defined by the set
of equations 4y + 3z = 8; 2x z = 2 and
3x + 2y = 5 is
(A) x = 0; y =1; z =
(B) x = 0; y = ; z = 2
(C) x = 1; y = ; z = 2
(D) non existent
5.
For the given matrix A = [
],
one of the Eigen values is 3. The other two

Eigen values are
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
CE 2007
6.
The minimum and the maximum
Eigenvalue of the matrix [
]are 2
and 6, respectively. What is the other

Eigenvalue?
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
7.
For what values of and the following

simultaneous equations have an infinite
of solutions?
X + Y + Z = 5; X + 3Y + 3Z = 9;
X+2Y+ Z
(A) 2, 7
(C) 8, 3
(B) 3, 8
(D) 7, 2
th
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Page 3
GATE QUESTION BANK
8.
The inverse of the

(A)
(B)
1
1
m trix 0
(A)
(B)
is
(D)
( )
( )
( )
( )
11.
is
15.
(C)
(D)
i
i
i
i
i
i
i
i
i
i
CE 2012
1 are
and 8
and 5
The inverse of the matrix 0
The Eigenvalue of the matrix

[P] = 0
14.
(C)
CE 2008
9.
The product of matrices ( )
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D) PQ
10.
1 is
Mathematics
n
n
The following simultaneous equation

x+y+z=3
x + 2y + 3z = 4
x + 4y + kz = 6
will NOT have a unique solution for k
equal to
(A) 0
(C) 6
(B) 5
(D) 7
CE 2009
12. A square matrix B is skew-symmetric if
(C)
(A)
(D)
(B)
CE 2011
13. [A] is square matrix which is neither
symmetric nor skew-symmetric and , is its transpose. The sum and difference of
these matrices are defined as
[S] = [A] + , - and [D] = [A] , - ,
respectively. Which of the following
statements is TRUE?
(A) Both [S] and [D] are symmetric
(B) Both [S] and [D] are skew-symmetric
(C) [S] is skew-symmetric and [D] is
symmetric
(D) [S] is symmetric and [D] is skew
symmetric
The Eigenvalues of matrix 0

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
1 are
2.42 and 6.86

3.48 and 13.53
4.70 and 6.86
6.86 and 9.50
CE 2013
16. There is no value of x that can
simultaneously satisfy both the given
equations. Therefore, find the le st
squares error solution to the two
equations, i.e., find the value of x that
minimizes the sum of squares of the
errors in the two equations.
2x = 3 and 4x = 1
17.
What is the minimum number of

multiplications involved in computing the
matrix product PQR? Matrix P has 4 rows
and 2 columns, matrix Q has 2 rows and
4 columns, and matrix R has 4 rows and 1
column. __________
CE 2014
18.
Given the matrices J = [

K
19.
] n
], the product K JK is
The sum of Eigenvalues of the matrix, [M]

is, where [M] = [
(A) 915
(B) 1355
th
th
(C) 1640
(D) 2180
th
Page 4
GATE QUESTION BANK
4.
20.
The determinant of matrix [
Let A be a 4x4 matrix with Eigenvalues

5, 2, 1, 4. Which of the following is an
I
Eigenvalue of 0
1, where I is the 4x4
I
identity matrix?
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
is ____________
21.
The
rank
of
the
matrix
] is ________________
CS 2005
1.
Consider the following system of
equations
in
three
real
variables x x n x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
This system of equation has
(A) no solution
(B) a unique solution
(C) more than one but a finite number of
solutions
(D) an infinite number of solutions
2.
What are the Eigenvalues of the following

2 2 matrix?
0
(A)
(B)
1
n
n
(C)
(D)
n
n
CS 2006
3.
F is an n x n real matrix. b is an n
real
vector. Suppose there are two nx1
vectors, u and v such that u v , and
Fu=b, Fv=b. Which one of the following
statement is false?
(A) Determinant of F is zero
(B) There are infinite number of
solutions to Fx=b
(C) There is an x 0 such that Fx=0
(D) F must have two identical rows
Mathematics
CS 2007
5.
Consider the set of (column) vectors
defined by X={xR3 x1+x2+x3=0, where
XT =[x1, x2, x3]T }. Which of the following is
TRUE?
(A) {[1, 1, 0]T, [1, 0, 1]T} is a basis for
the subspace X.
(B) {[1, 1, 0]T, [1, 0, 1]T} is a linearly
independent set, but it does not span
X and therefore, is not a basis of X.
(C) X is not the subspace for R3
(D) None of the above
CS 2008
6.
The following system of
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
Has unique solution. The only possible
value (s) for is/ are
(A) 0
(B) either 0 or 1
(C) one of 0,1, 1
(D) any real number except 5
7.
How many of the following matrices have

an Eigenvalue 1?
0
1 0
1 n 0
1 0
(A) One
(B) two
(C) three
(D) four
CS 2010
8.
Consider the following matrix
A=[
]
x y
If the Eigen values of A are 4 and 8, then
(A) x = 4, y = 10
(C) x = 3, y = 9
(B) x = 5, y = 8
(D) x = 4, y = 10
th
th
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Page 5
GATE QUESTION BANK
CS 2011
9.
Consider the matrix as given below
[
13.
The value of the dot product of the

Eigenvectors corresponding to any pair of
different Eigenvalues of a 4-by-4
symmetric positive definite matrix is
__________.
14.
If the matrix A is such that
Which one of the following options

provides the CORRECT values of the
Eigenvalues of the matrix?
(A) 1, 4, 3
(C) 7, 3, 2
(B) 3, 7, 3
(D) 1, 2, 3
CS 2013
11. Which one of
x x
equal [
y y
z z
x(x
y(y
(A) |
z(z
x
(B) |
y
z
x y
(C) |
y z
z
x y
(D) |
y z
z
15.
The product of the non zero Eigenvalues

of the matrix
is __________.
[
16.
the following does NOT

]
) x
) y
|
) z
x
|
y
z
x
y
y
z |
z
x
y
y
z |
z
],
Then the determinant of A is equal to

__________.
CS 2012
10. Let A be the 2
2 matrix with elements

and
.
Then the Eigenvalues of the matrix
are
(A) 1024 and
(B) 1024 and
(C) n
(D)
n
Mathematics
Which one of the following statements is

TRUE about every n n matrix with only
real eigenvalues?
(A) If the trace of the matrix is positive
and the determinant of the matrix is
negative, at least one of its
eigenvalues is negative.
(B) If the trace of the matrix is positive,
all its eigenvalues are positive.
(C) If the determinant of the matrix is
positive, all its eigenvalues are
positive.
(D) If the product of the trace and
determinant of the matrix is positive,
all its eigenvalues are positive.
ECE 2005
1.
Given an orthogonal matrix
CS 2014
12. Consider the following system of
equations:
x
y
x
z
x
y
z
x
y
z
The number of solutions for this system is
__________.
A= [
]. ,
is
(A) [
th
th
th
Page 6
GATE QUESTION BANK
Mathematics
(B) [
6.
The rank of the matrix [
(C) [
(A) 0
(B) 1
(D) [
2.
Let,
A=0
1 and
Then (a + b)=
(A)
(B)
3.
= 0
1.
(C)
(D)
Given the matrix 0
Eigenvector is
(C) 0
(B) 0 1
(D) 0
ECE 2006
4.
For the matrix 0

corresponding
0
the
ECE 2007
7.
It is given that X1 , X2 M are M nonzero, orthogonal vectors. The dimension
of the vector space spanned by the 2M
vector X1 , X2 XM , X1 , X2 XM is
(A) 2M
(B) M+1
(C) M
(D) dependent on the choice of X1 , X2
XM.
9.
All the four entries of the 2 x 2 matrix

p
p
P = 0p
p 1 are non-zero, and one of
its Eigenvalues is zero. Which of the
following statements is true?
(A) p p
p p
(B) p p
p p
(C) p p
p p
(D) p p
p p
Eigenvector
1 is
(A) 2
(B) 4
5.
1 , the Eigenvalue
to
(C) 6
(D) 8
The Eigenvalues and the corresponding

Eigenvectors of a 2 2 matrix are given
by
Eigenvalue
Eigenvector
=8
v =0 1
=4
(C) 2
(D) 3
ECE 2008
8.
The system of linear equations
4x + 2y = 7, 2x + y = 6 has
(A) a unique solution
(B) no solution
(C) an infinite number of solutions
(D) exactly two distinct solutions
1 the
(A) 0 1
v =0
ECE 2009
10. The Eigen values of the following matrix
are
[
The matrix is
(A) 0
(C) 0
(B) 0
(D) 0
(A) 3, 3 + 5j, 6 j
(B) 6 + 5j, 3 + j, 3 j
(C) 3 + j, 3 j, 5 + j
(D) 3, 1 + 3j, 1 3j
th
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Page 7
GATE QUESTION BANK
ECE 2010
11. The Eigenvalues of a skew-symmetric
matrix are
(A) Always zero
(B) Always pure imaginary
(C) Either zero or pure imaginary
(D) Always real
ECE 2011
12. The system of equations
x y z
x
y
z
x
y
z
has NO solution for values of
given by
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
Mathematics
ECE 2014
16. For matrices of same dimension M, N and
scalar c, which one of these properties
DOES NOT ALWAYS hold?
(A) (M )
M
(M)
(B) ( M )
(C) (M N)
M
N
(D) MN NM
17.
A real (4 4) matrix A satisfies the

equation
I where is the (4 4)
identity matrix. The positive Eigenvalue
of A is _____.
18.
Consider the matrix
J
ECE\EE\IN 2012
13.
Given that A = 0
1 and I = 0
the value of A3 is
(A) 15 A + 12 I
(B) 19A + 30
(C) 17 A + 15 I
(D) 17A +21
ECE 2013
14. The minimum Eigenvalue of the following
matrix is
[
19.
The determinant of matrix A is 5 and the

determinant of matrix B is 40. The
determinant of matrix AB is ________.
20.
The system of linear equations
(A) 0
(B) 1
15.
[
]
Which is obtained by reversing the order
of the columns of the identity matrix I .
Let
I
J where
is a nonnegative real number. The value of for
which det(P) = 0 is _____.
1,
(C) 2
(D) 3
Let A be a m n matrix and B be a n m

matrix. It is given that
) determinant
Determinant(I
(I
) where I is the k k identity
matrix. Using the above property, the
determinant of the matrix given below is
(A) 2
(B) 5
)h s
(A) a unique solution

(B) infinitely many solutions
(C) no solution
(D) exactly two solutions
21.
)4 5
]
(C) 8
(D) 16
th

NOT true for a square matrix A?
(A) If A is upper triangular, the
Eigenvalues of A are the diagonal
elements of it
(B) If A is real symmetric, the Eigenvalues
of A are always real and positive
th
th
Page 8
GATE QUESTION BANK
(C) If A is real, the Eigenvalues of A and

are always the same
(D) If all the principal minors of A are
positive, all the Eigenvalues of A are
also positive
22.
The maximum value of the determinant

among all 22 real symmetric matrices
with trace 14 is ___.
EE 2005
1.
5.
If R = [
] , then top row of
(A) ,
(B) ,
2.
(C) ,
(D) ,
(B) [
] [
] [
(C) [
] [
] [
(D) [
] [
] [
(A) [ ]
(B) [
(C) [
(B) [
(D) [ ]
In the matrix equation Px = q, which of

the following is necessary condition for
the existence of at least one solution for
the unknown vector x
(A) Augmented matrix [P/Q] must have
the same rank as matrix P
(B) Vector q must have only non-zero
elements
(C) Matrix P must be singular
(D) Matrix P must be square
] ,R=[
(C) [ ]
]
(D) [
EE 2007
6.
X = [x , x . . . . x - is an n-tuple non-zero
vector. The n n matrix V = X
(A) Has rank zero (C) Is orthogonal
(B) Has rank 1
(D) Has rank n
7.
The linear operation L(x) is defined by

the cross product L(x) = b x, where
b =[0 1 0- and x =[x x x - are three
dimensional vectors. The
matrix M
of this operation satisfies
x
L(x) = M [ x ]
x
Then the Eigenvalues of M are
(A) 0, +1, 1
(C) i, i, 1
(B) 1, 1, 1
(D) i, i, 0
8.
Let x and y be two vectors in a 3

dimensional space and <x, y> denote
their dot product. Then the determinant
xx
xy
det 0 y x
yy 1
(A) is zero when x and y are linearly
independent
(B) is positive when x and y are linearly
independent
(C) is non-zero for all non-zero x and y
(D) is zero only when either x or y is zero
EE 2006
Statement for Linked Answer Questions 4
and 5.
4.
is
] , one of
(A) [
] ,Q=[
] [
For the matrix p = [
P=[
(A) [
The following vector is linearly

dependent upon the solution to the
previous problem
the Eigenvalues is equal to 2 . Which of

the following is an Eigenvector?
3.
Mathematics
] are
three vectors
An orthogonal set of vectors having a
span that contains P,Q, R is
th
th
th
Page 9
GATE QUESTION BANK
Statement for Linked Questions 9 and 10.

Cayley-Hamilton Theorem states that a
square matrix satisfies its own
characteristic equation. Consider a
matrix.
A=0
A satisfies the relation

(A) A + 3 + 2
=0
2
(B) A + 2A + 2 = 0
(C) (A+ ) (A 2) = 0
(D) exp (A) = 0
10.
equals
(A) 511 A + 510
(B) 309 A + 104
(C) 154 A + 155
(D) exp (9A)
EE 2008
11. If the rank of a (
) matrix Q is 4, then
which one of the following statements is
correct?
(A) Q will have four linearly independent
rows and four linearly independent
columns
(B) Q will have four linearly independent
rows and five linearly independent
columns
(C) Q will be invertible
(D)
Q will be invertible
12.
13.
(A) A A+ A = A
(B) (AA+ ) = A A+
14.
The characteristic equation of a (

)
matrix P is defined as
() = | P| =
=0
If I denotes identity matrix, then the
inverse of matrix P will be
(A) (
I)
(B) (
I)
(C) (
I)
(D) (
I)
(C) A+ A =
(D) A A+ A = A+
Let P be a
real orthogonal matrix. x
is a real vector [x x - with length
x
(x
x ) . Then, which one of the
following statements is correct?
(A)
x
x
where at least one
vector satisfies
x
x
(B)
x
x for all vectors x
(C)
x
x
where at least one
vector satisfies
x
x
(D) No relationship can be established
between x and
x
9.
Mathematics
EE 2009
15. The trace and determinant of a
matrix are known to be 2 and 35
respe tively Its Eigenv lues re
(A) 30 and 5
(C) 7 and 5
(B) 37 and 1
(D) 17.5 and 2
EE 2010
16. For the set of equations
x
x
x
x =2
x
x
x
x =6
The following statement is true
(A) Only the trivial solution
x
x
x
x = 0 exists
(B) There are no solutions
(C) A unique non-trivial solution exists
(D) Multiple non-trivial solutions exist
17.
An Eigenvector of
(A) ,
(B) ,
(C) ,
(D) ,
] is
-
EE 2011
18.
The matrix[A] = 0
1 is decomposed
into a product of a lower triangular

matrix [L] and an upper triangular matrix
[U]. The properly decomposed [L] and [U]
matrices respectively are
A is m n full rank matrix with m > n and

is an identity matrix. Let matrix
A+ = (
)
, then, which one of the
following statements is FALSE?
(A) 0
th
th
1 and 0
1
th
Page 10
GATE QUESTION BANK
(B) 0
(C) 0
(D) 0
1 and 0
1 and 0
1 and 0
23.
1
1
1
EE 2013
19.
The equation 0
x
1 0x 1
0 1 has
0 1.
Eigenvector of the matrix A = 0
(C) Non zero unique solution

(D) Multiple solution
20.
(A) [ 1 1]T
(B) [3 1]T
A matrix has Eigenvalues 1 and 2. The

corresponding Eigenvectors are 0
0
1 respectively. The matrix is
(A) 0
(C) 0
(B) 0
(D) 0

true for all real symmetric matrices?
(A) All the eigenvalues are real.
(B) All the eigenvalues are positive.
(C) All the eigenvalues are distinct.
(D) Sum of all the eigenvalues is zero.
1?
(C) [1 1]T
(D) [ 2 1]T
Let A be a 3 3 matrix with rank 2. Then

AX = 0 has
(A) only the trivial solution X = 0
(B) one independent solution
(C) two independent solutions
(D) three independent solutions
2.
1 and
EE 2014
21. Given a system of equations:
x
y
z
x y
z
Which of the following is true regarding
its solutions?
(A) The system has a unique solution for
any given and
(B) The system will have infinitely many
solutions for any given and
(C) Whether or not a solution exists
depends on the given and
(D) The system would have no solution
for any values of and
22.
Two matrices A and B are given below:

p
q pr qs
p q
[
]
0
1
r s
pr qs r
s
If the rank of matrix A is N, then the rank
of matrix B is
(A) N
(C) N
(B) N
(D) N
IN 2005
1.
Identify which one of the following is an
(A) No solution
x
(B) Only one solution 0x 1
Mathematics
IN 2006
and 4
A
system of linear simultaneous
equations is given as Ax=B where
[
] n
[ ]
3.
The rank of matrix A is

(A) 1
(C) 3
(B) 2
(D) 4
4.
Which of the following statements is true?

(A) x is a null vector
(B) x is unique
(C) x does not exist
(D) x has infinitely many values
5.
For a given
that
0
matrix A, it is observed
0
1 n
Then matrix A is
th
th
th
Page 11
GATE QUESTION BANK
2 1 1 0 1 1
1 1 0 2 1 2
10.
(A) A
1 1 0 2
1 1
(B) A
1 2 0 2 1 1
(C) A
1 2 0
02 1
2 1 1
0 2
(D) A
1 3
IN 2007
6.
Let A = [ ]
i j n with n
= i. j. Then the rank of A is
(A)
(C) n
(B)
(D) n
7.
Let A be an nn real matrix such that

= I and y be an n- dimensional vector.
Then the linear system of equations Ax=Y
has
(A) no solution
(B) a unique solution
(C) more than one but finitely many
independent solutions
(D) Infinitely many independent
solutions
The matrix P =[
12.
9.
The Eigenvalues of a (2 2) matrix X are

2 and 3. The Eigenvalues of matrix
(
I) (
I) are
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
)(
(D) n
IN 2011
13.
The matrix M = [
] has
Eigenvalues
. An Eigenvector
corresponding to the Eigenvalue 5 is
,
- . One of the Eigenvectors of
the matrix M is
(A) ,
(C) ,
(B) ,
(D) ,
] rotates a vector
(C)
(D)
A real n n matrix A = [ ] is defined as

i
i j
follows: {
otherwise
The summation of all n Eigenvalues of A is
(A) n(n
)
(B) n(n
)
(C)
about the axis[ ] by an angle of

(A)
(B)
Let P 0 be a 3 3 real matrix. There exist

linearly independent vectors x and y such
that Px = 0 and Py = 0. The dimension of
the range space of P is
(A) 0
(C) 2
(B) 1
(D) 3
IN 2010
11. X and Y are non-zero square matrices of
size n n. If
then
(A) |X| = 0 and |Y| 0
(B) |X| 0 and |Y| = 0
(C) |X| = 0 and |Y| = 0
(D) |X| 0 and |Y| 0
IN 2009
8.
Mathematics
IN 2013
14. The dimension of the null space of the
15.
matrix [
] is
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 3
One of Eigenvectors corresponding to the

two Eigenvalues of the matrix 0
(A) [
] 0
(B) 0 1 0
th
th
1 is
(C) [ ] 0 1
j
j
(D) [ ] 0 1
j
1
1
th
Page 12
GATE QUESTION BANK
Mathematics
IN 2014
16. For the matrix A satisfying the equation
given below, the eigenvalues are
, -[
(A) (
,)
(B) (1,1,0)
]
(C) (
)
(D) (1,0,0)
Answer Keys and Explanations

ME
1.
and G = [
[Ans. A]
[
Now E F = G
h r teristi equ tions is |

I|
(
)(
)(
)
Real eigenvalues are 5, 5 other two are
complex
Eigenvector corresponding to
is (
I)
(or)
( )
Verify the options which satisfies relation
(1)
Option (A) satisfies.
[Ans. B]
Given
in onsistent
4.
5.
[Ans. A]
6.
[Ans. B]
1 Eigenv lues re 2, 2
I)
I)
No. of L.I Eigenvectors

(
(no of v ri les)
( )
7.
matrix be A = 0
sin
os
/
I)
[Ans. A]
(
I)
.
olving for , Let the symmetric and real
[Ans. C]
os
Given , E = [ sin
matrix, if Eigenvalues are

then for
matrix,
the Eigenvalues will be , ,
For S matrix, if Eigenvalues are 1 and 5

then for
matrix, the Eigenvalues are 1
and 25.
No (
3.
sin
os
[Ans. A]
For S
( )
n ( )
( (
)
minimum of m n)
For inconsistence
( )
( )
he highest possi le r nk of is
os
[ sin
,E-
2.
th
Now |
Which gives (
th
th
Page 13
GATE QUESTION BANK
Hence real Eigen value.

8.
Mathematics
x
[
][
[Ans. B]
Let
eigenv lues re
12.
Eigen vector corresponding to

is (
I)
x
.
/ .y/ . /
By simplifying
K
. / . / y t king K
Equating the elements x
[Ans. A]
0
1 Eigenv lues re
Eigenve tor is x
13.
Eigen vector corresponding to =2

is (
I)
x
.
/ .y/ . /
K
By simplifying
(
) 4
5 by
[Ans. C]
[
taking K
x verify the options
( )
infinite m ny solutions
9.
10.
[Ans. C]
Sum of the diagonal elements = Sum of
the Eigenvalues
1 + 0 + p = 3+S
S= p 2
[Ans. B]
Eigenvalues of a real symmetric matrix
are always real
15.
[Ans. B]
0
If
1 eigenv lues v lue
Eigen vector will be .
Norm lize ve tor
[Ans. B]
( )
11.
14.
( )
[( )
) ]
16.
system will h ve solution
[Ans. A]
iven M
MM
th
[Ans. C]
The given system is
x
y z
x y
z
x y z
Use Gauss elimination method as follows
Augmented matrix is
th
th
Page 14
GATE QUESTION BANK
, | -
| ]
[
So, |
[Ans. C]
Suppose the Eigenvalue of matrix A is
(
i )(s y) and the Eigenvector is
x where s the onjug te p ir of
Eigenvalue and Eigenvector is n x.
So Ax = x
and x x
king tr nspose of equ tion
x
x
[( )
n is s l r ]
x
x x x
x x x x ,
x x x x
(x x) (
re s l r )
(x x)
20.
[Ans. C]
We know that
os x
os x sin x
( ) os x
sin x ( ) os x
Hence 1, 1 and 1 are coefficients. They
are linearly dependent.
1 eigen v lues
Eigenve tor is
verify for oth

n
21.
[Ans. D]
We know that the Eigenvectors
corresponding to distinct Eigenvalues of
real symmetric matrix are orthogonal.
x
y
x
y
[ ][ ] x y
x y
x y
y
x
22.
[Ans. D]
(
)
In case of matrix PQ
CE
1.
QP (generally)
[Ans. C]
If
=
i.e. A is orthogonal, we can
only s y th t if is n Eigenv lue of
then
also will be an Eigenvalue of A,
which does not necessarily imply that

| | = 1 for all i.
2.
[Ans. A]
In an over determined system having
more equations than variables, it is
necessary to have consistent unique
solution, by definition
3.
[Ans. A]
With the given order we can say that
order of matrices are as follows:
34
Y 43
33
[Ans. A]
|
[Ans. D]
0
nnot e zero )
Hence Eigenvalue of a symmetric matrix

are real
19.
(Taking 2 common from each row)

(
)
( x x re Eigenve tors they

i
i
i
0
18.
nk ( )
nk ( | )
So, Rank (A) = Rank (A|B) = 2 < n (no. of
variables)
So, we have infinite number of solutions
17.
Mathematics
th
th
th
Page 15
GATE QUESTION BANK
(
) 33
P 23
32
P(
)
(23) (33) (32)
22
( (
)
) 22
Using Gauss elimination we reduce this to

an upper triangular matrix to find its
rank
| ]
4.
[Ans. D]
The augmented matrix for given system is
[
| ]
| ]
| ]
8.
| ]
( )
( )
( )
( )
olution is non existent for above
system.
5.
6.
7.
[Ans. B]
= Trace (A)
+ + = Trace (A)
= 2 + ( 1) + 0 = 1
Now = 3
3+ + =1
Only choice (B) satisfies this condition.

[Ans. B]
= Trace (A)
+ + =1+5+1=7
Now = 2, = 6
2+6+ =7
=3
1 is
(
)
0
9.
10.
1
1
[Ans. B]
( ) P=(
(
)(
)
=(
) (I) =
)P
[Ans. B]
A=0
Characteristic equation of A is
|
|=0
(4
)( 5
) 2 5 =0
+
30 = 0
6, 5
11.
[Ans. A]
[
[Ans. A]
Inverse of 0
Now for infinite solution last row must be

completely zero
ie 2=0 n
7=0
Then by Gauss elimination procedure

[
Mathematics
| ]
th
[Ans. D]
x
[
| ] 6y7 [ ]
z
k
Using Gauss elimination we reduce this to
an upper triangular matrix to find its rank
th
th
Page 16
GATE QUESTION BANK
| ]
17.
[Ans. 16]
, , M trix , The product of matrix PQR is
, - , - , The minimum number of multiplications
involves in computing the matrix product
PQR is 16
18.
[Ans. 23]
k
[
| ]
| ]
Now if k
Rank (A) = rank (A|B) = 3
Unique solution
If k = 7, rank (A) = rank (A|B) = 2
which is less than number of variables
When K = 7, unique solution is not
possible and only infinite solution is
possible
12.
[Ans. A]
A square matrix B is defined as skewsymmetric if and only if
= B
13.
[Ans. D]
By definition A +
is always symmetric
is symmetri
is lw ys skew symmetri
is skew symmetri
Mathematics
][
K JK
-[
,
]
-
19.
[Ans. A]
Sum of Eigenvalues
= Sum of trace/main diagonal elements
= 215 + 150 + 550
= 915
20.
[Ans. 88]
The determinant of matrix is
[
14.
[Ans. B]
1 =(
15.
,(
=
i)(
i
i
1
i -
i)
i
i
i
i
i
i
1
Interchanging Column 1& Column 2 and
taking transpose
Sum of the Eigenvalues = 17

Product of the Eigenvalues =
From options, 3.48 + 13.53 = 17
(3.48)(13.53) = 47
16.
[Ans. B]
0
[Ans. 0.5]
0.5
th
th
th
Page 17
GATE QUESTION BANK

* (
= (
21.
)+
= 1, 6
The Eigenvalues of A are 1 and 6
[Ans. 2]
]
3.
[Ans. D]
Given that Fu =b and Fv =b
If F is non singular, then it has a unique
inverse.
Now, u =
b and v=
b
Since
is unique, u = v but it is given
th t u
v his is contradiction. So F
must be singular. This means that
(A) Determinant of F is zero is true. Also
(B) There are infinite number of
solution to Fx= b is true since |F| = 0
(C) here is n
su h the
is
also true, since X has infinite number
of solutions., including the X = 0
solution
(D) F must have 2 identical rows is false,
since a determinant may become
zero, even if two identical columns
are present. It is not necessary that 2
identical rows must be present for
|F| to become zero.
4.
[Ans. C]
It is given that Eigenvalues of A is
5, 2, 1, 4
I
Let P = 0
1
I
Eigenvalues of P : |
I|
I
|
|
I
(
)
I
I
I
Eigenvalue of P is
( 5 +1 ), ( 2+ 1), (1+ 1), (4+1 ),
( 5 1 ), ( 2 1 ),(1 1), (4 1)
= 4, 1, 2, 5, 6, 3,0,3
5.
[Ans. B]
|x
X= {x
x
x
= ,x x x - then,
[
( )
( )
]
( )
( )
]
( )
no. of non zero rows = 2
[Ans. B]
The augmented matrix for the given
system is [
| ]
Using elementary transformation on above

matrix we get,
[
| ]
|
]
Rank ([A B]) = 3

Rank ([A]) = 3
Since
Rank ([A B]) = Rank ([A]) = number of
variables, the system has unique solution.
2.
[Ans. B]
0
The characteristic equation of this matrix

is given by
|
I|
|
CS
1.
)(
Mathematics
|
th
th
th
Page 18
GATE QUESTION BANK
{ [1, 1, 0]T , [1,0, 1 ]T } is a linearly

independent set because one cannot be
obtained from another by scalar
multiplication. However (1, 1, 0) and
(1,0, 1) do not span X, since all such
combinations (x1, x2, x3) such that
x1+ x2+ x3 =0 cannot be expressed as
linear combination of (1, 1,0) and
(1,0, 1)
6.
7.
Only one matrix has an Eigenvalue of 1

which is 0
| ]
Correct choice is (A)

8.
[Ans. D]
|
|
x
y
(
)(
y)
When
(
y)
x
y
x
When
(
y)
x
y
x
x
y
Solving (1) & (2)
x
y
[Ans. D]
The augmented matrix for above system
is
[
Mathematics
| ]
| ]
( )
( )
Now as long as 5 0,
rank (A) =rank (A|B) =3
can be any real value except 5. Closest
correct answer is (D).
9.
[Ans. A]
The Eigenvalues of a upper triangular
matrix are given by its diagonal entries.
Eigenvalues are 1, 4, 3 only
[Ans. A]
10.
[Ans. D]
Eigenvalues of 0
|
| =0
Eigenvalues of 0
|
Eigenvalues of the matrix (A) are the

roots of the characteristic polynomial
given below.
=0,1
1
| =0
=0
( )
)(
) =0
= 1, 1
n ( )
n
| =0
(
(
)
)
Eigenvalues of A are
respectively
So Eigenvalues of
)
=0
)
= i or 1
= 1 i or 1 + i
Eigenvalues of 0
)(
)(
|= 0
(
(
= 0, 0
Eigenvalues of 0
|
) =0
th
th
th
Page 19
GATE QUESTION BANK
11.
12.
[Ans. A]
p
q
nd
Since 2
& 3rd columns have been
swapped which introduces a ve sign
Hence (A) is not equal to the problem
16.
(
)
( )
no of v ri
nique solution exists
14.
[
]
x
x
Let X = x
e eigen ve tor
x
[x ]
By the definition of eigenvector, AX =
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
[
] [x ]
[x ]
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
n x
x
x
x
x
x
(I) If
s yx
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
(2) If
Eigenv lue
Three distinct eigenvalues are 0, 2, 3
Product of non zero eigenvalues = 2 3 = 6
les
[Ans. 0]
The Eigenvectors corresponding to distinct
Eigenvalues of real symmetric matrix are
orthogonal
ECE
1.
2.
[Ans. A]
If the trace or determinant of matrix is
positive then it is not necessary that all
eigenvalues are positive. So, option (B), (C),
(D) are not correct
[Ans. C]
Since, ,
]
(
=I
16
[Ans. A]
We know,
[Ans. 0]
| |
[Ans. 6]
Let A =
[Ans. 1]
x
y
x
z
x y z
x
y
z
ugmente m trix is [
13.
15.
Mathematics
7=0
1
1
1
1
b
, a
60
10
1 1 21 7
a+b =
3 60 60 20
Or 2a 0.1b=0, 2a
th
th
th
Page 20
GATE QUESTION BANK
3.
[Ans. C]
8.
[Ans. B]
Approach 1:
Given 4x + 2y =7
and 2x + y =6
(A I)=0
( 4 ) (3 ) 2 4=0
2 + 20=0 = 5, 4
4 2 x 7
2 1y 6

0 0 x 5
2 1y 6
x1
x2
Putting = 5, 0
1 =0
x + 2x = 0 x = 2x
On comparing LHS and RHS

0= 5, which is irrelevant and so no
solution.
Approach 2:
4x + 2y =7
x
x
1= 2
2 1
Hence, 0
4.
1 is Eigenvector.
[Ans. C]
Then Eigenvector is x
Verify the options (C)
5.
or 2x y=
1 We know th t it is Eigenvalue
We know
|I A|=0
2 I2 +32 =0
= 4, 8 (Eigenvalues)
For
= 4, ( I
)=0
)=0
9.
[Ans. C]
Matrix will be singular if any of the
Eigenvalues are zero.
|
|= 0
For = 0, P = 0
p
p
|p
p | =0
p p
p p
10.
[Ans. D]
Approach1: Eigenvalues exists as complex
conjugate or real
Approach 2: Eigenvalues are given by
v =0 1
For
= 8, ( I
v =0
6.
[Ans. C]
[
]
[
[Ans. C]
There are M non-zero, orthogonal vectors,
so there is required M dimension to
represent them
| =0
( )
7.
7
2
2x+y=6
Since both the linear equation represent
parallel set of straight lines, therefore no
solution exists.
Approach 3:
Rank (A)=1; rank (C)=2,
As Rank (A)
rank (C) therefore no
solution exists.
[Ans. A]
or m trix
Mathematics
11.
th
)((
,
)=0
)
j
[Ans. C]
Eigenvalue of skew symmetric matrix is
either zero or pure imaginary.
th
th
Page 21
GATE QUESTION BANK
12.
13.
[Ans. B]
Given equations are x y z
x
y
z
and x
y
z
If
and
,
then x
y
z
have Infinite solution
If
and
, then
x
y
z
(
) no solution
x
y
z
If
n
x
y
z
will have solution
x
y
z
and
will also give solution
et of , -
et of [
16.
[Ans. D]
Matrix multiplication is not commutative
in general.
17.
[Ans. *] Range 0.99 to 1.01

Let e Eigenv lue of hen
e Eigenv lue of
A.
=I=
Using Cauchey Hamilton Theorem,
[Ans. B]
0
Mathematics
will
Characteristic Equations is
18.
By Cayley Hamilton theorem
I
(
I)
I
14.
I
| |
[
[Ans. A]
[
[Ans. *] Range 199 to 201

From matrix properties we know that the
determinant of the product is equal to the
product of the determinants.
That is if A and B are two matrix with
determinant | | n | | respectively,
then | | | | | |
| | | | | |
20.
[Ans. B]
)
]
19.
| |
| | Product of Eigenvalues = 0
Minimum Eigenv lue h s to e
15.
[Ans. *] Range 0.99 to 1.01

I
J
I
J
[Ans. B]
,
Let
[ ]
Then AB = [4]; BA
Here m = 1, n = 4
)
And et(I
th
les
[Ans. B]
onsi er
( )
( | )
no of v r
Infinitely many solutions
21.
et(I
th
1
th
Page 22
GATE QUESTION BANK
whi h is re l symmetri m trix

h r teristi equ tion is |
I|
(
)
(not positive)
( ) is not true
(A), (C), (D) are true using properties of
Eigenvalues
22.
EE
1.
2.
[Ans. B]
]
j( )
| |
=[
Top row of
=,
[Ans. D]
Since matrix is triangular, the Eigenvalues
are the diagonal elements themselves
namely = 3, 2 & 1.
Corresponding to Eigenvalue = 2, let
us find the Eigenvector
[A - ] x = 0
x
[
][x ]
[ ]
x
Putting
in above equation we get,
x
[
][x ] [ ]
x
Which gives the equations,
5x
x
x =0
. . . . . (i)
x =0
. . . . . (ii)
3x = 0
. . . . . (iii)
Since eqa (ii) and (iii) are same we have
5x
x
x =0
. . . . . (i)
x =0
. . . . . (ii)
Putting x = k, we get
x = 0, x = k and 5x
k
=0
[Ans. *] Range 48.9 to 49.1

Real symmetric matrices are diagnosable
Let the matrix be
x
0
1 s tr e is
x
So determinant is product of diagonal
entries
So | |
x x
M ximum v lue of etermin nt
x
x
| |
R= [
Mathematics
, of tor( )| |
x = k
| |=|
Eigenvectorss are of the form

x
k
x
[ ] * k +
x
= 1(2 + 3) 0(4 + 2) 1 (6 2) = 1
Since we need only the top row of
, we
need to find only first column of (R)
which after transpose will become first
row adj(A).
cof. (1, 1) = + |
|=2+3=5
cof. (2, 1) =
|= 3
cof. (2, 1) = + |
i.e. x x x = k : k : 0
= :1:0
=2:5:0
x
x
[ ]=[ ] is an Eigenvector of matrix p.
x
|= +1
3.
cof. (A) = [
[Ans. A]
Rank [P|Q] = Rank [P] is necessary for
existence of at least one solution to
x q.
Adj (A) =, of ( )=[
Dividing by |R| = 1 gives

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Page 23
GATE QUESTION BANK
4.
[Ans. A]
We need to find orthogonal vectors, verify
the options.
Option (A) is orthogonal vectors
(
)(
[Ans. B]
The vector (
) is linearly
dependent upon the solution obtained in
- and ,
Q. No. 4 namely ,
We can easily verify the linearly
dependence as
|
6.
7.
[Ans. B]
xy
xx
| yx
xy
xx
x n xy yx
xy
x xy
y y | |y x y |
(x y)
x y
= Positive when x and y are linearly
independent.
Option (B), (C), (D) are not orthogonal

5.
)
i
8.
Mathematics
9.
[Ans. A]
A=0
|A | = 0
[Ans. B]
hen n
n m trix
xx
x x
x x
x x
x x x x
x x
*
+
x x x x
x x
Take x common from 1st row,
x common from 2nd row
x common from nth row.
It h s r nk
| =0
A will satisfy this equation according to

Cayley Hamilton theorem
i.e.
I=0
Multiplying by
on oth si es we get
I=0
I
=0
10.
[Ans. A]
To calculate
Start from
derived above
I = 0 which has
I
[Ans. D]
k
L(x) = |
|
x
= (x )
I)(
x
(
(
k
x )
I)
I
x
= x
=[
x k
x
L(x) = M [x ]
x
Comparing both , we get,
I)
(
I)
I
|
(
I)
I)
I
Hence Eigenvalue of M : | M
I)(
I
]
x
M=[
I)
I
)
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Page 24
GATE QUESTION BANK
11.
12.
13.
[Ans. A]
If rank of (5 6 ) matrix is 4,then surely
it must have exactly 4 linearly
independent rows as well as 4 linearly
independent columns.
= A is correct
=A[(
)
-A
= A[(
)
Put
=P
Then A [
] = A. = A
Choice (C)
= is also correct since
=(
)
=
I
14.
os
x in )
|| x || = x
(x in
[Ans. C]
Trace = Sum of Principle diagonal
elements.
16.
[Ans. D]
On writing the equation in the form of
AX =B
, *
nk ( )
nk( )
Number of variables = 4
Since, Rank (A) = Rank(C) < Number of
variables
Hence, system of equations are consistent
and there is multiple non-trivial solution
exists.
17.
[Ans. B]
Characteristic equation |
|
I|
(1 ) (
)(
)
Eigenve tors orrespon ing to

(
I)
x
[
] [x ] [ ]
x
2x
x
x
x
At x
x
x
x
x
x
At x
,x
is
Eigenvectors = c[ ]{Here c is a constant}
os )
18.
[Ans. D]
, - ,L-, - Options D is correct
19.
[Ans. D]
x
x
(i)
} (i) n (ii) re s me
x
x
(ii)
x
x
So it has multiple solutions.
|| x || = || x|| for any vector x

15.
* +
Argument matrix C =*
[Ans. B]
Let orthogonal matrix be
os
in
P=0
1
in
os
By Property of orthogonal matrix A
I
x os
x in
So, x = [
]
x in
x os
|| x || =
(x
x
x
+ *x +
x
[Ans. D]
If characteristic equation is
=0
Then by Cayley Hamilton theorem,
I=0
=
Multiplying by
on both sides,
=
I = (
I)
[Ans. D]
Choice (A)
Since
Mathematics
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Page 25
GATE QUESTION BANK
20.
[Ans. D]
Eigen value
|A
Eigenvectors 0
1 n 0
Let matrix 0
x
x
10
10
I|= |
i.e., (1 ) (2 )
2
Thus the Eigenvalue are 1, 2.
If x, y, be the component of Eigenvectors
corresponding to the Eigenv lues
we
have
x
[A- I- 0
1 0y1=0
Mathematics
For =1, we get the Eigenvector as 0

Hence, the answer will be ,
21.
22.
23.
IN
1.
[Ans. B]
AX=0 and (A) = 2
n=3
No. of linearly independent solutions
= n r
= 3
=1
3.
[Ans. C]
There are 3 non-zero rows and hence
rank (A) = 3
4.
[Ans. C]
Rank (A) = 3 (This is Co-efficient matrix)
Rank (A:b) =4(This is Augmented matrix)
s r nk( ) r nk (
) olution oes
not exist.
5.
[Ans. C]
We know
Hen e from the given
problem, Eigenvalue & Eigenvector is
known.
[Ans. B]
Since there are 2 equations and 3 variables
(unknowns), there will be infinitely many
solutions. If
if
then
x
y
z
x y
z
x z y
For any x and z, there will be a value of y.
Infinitely many solutions
[Ans. A]
For all real symmetric matrices, the
Eigenvalues are real (property), they may
be either ve or ve and also may be same.
The sum of Eigenvalues necessarily not be
zero.
[Ans. C]
p q
0
1
r s
( pplying p
q
r
s element ry tr nsform tions)
p
q pr qs
[
]
pr qs r
s
hey h ve s me r nk N
1
X1 , X2
1
1
2 , 1 1, 2 2

We also know that
, where
1 1
P X1 X2
1 2
1 0 1 0
0 2 0 2
[Ans. B]
Given:
2.
Solving
0
& D=
0
1
Hence
Characteristic equation is,
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Page 26
GATE QUESTION BANK
1 1 1 0 2 1
A

1 2 0 2 1 1
6.
12.
[Ans. B]
A= [
]=[
A=[
[Ans. B]
Given
I
Hence rank (A) = n
Hence AX= Y will have unique solution
8.
[Ans. C]
9.
[Ans. C]
Approach 1:
13.
14.
Assume,
10
Now | I
[Ans. B]
Dim of null space [A]= nullity of A.
|
)(
Apply row operations

1
- is also vector
For given A = [
I)
0
[Ans. B]
If AX =
From this result [1, 2,
for M
|
(
I)
n
For diagonal matrix Eigenvalues are
diagonal elements itself.
n(n
)
Hence, rank (A) =1

7.
[Ans. A]
A=[ ]
i if i j
= 0 otherwise.
For n n matrix
Using elementary transformation

[
Mathematics
)=0
[Ans. D]
11.
[Ans. C]
A null matrix can be obtained by
multiplying either with one null matrix or
two singular matrices.
]
]
( )
By rank nullity theorem
Rank [A]+ nullity [A]= no. of columns[A]
Nullity [A]= 3
Nullity , -
Approach 2:
Eigenvalues of (
I) is = 1, 1/2
Eigenvalues of (X+5I) is = 3, 2
Eigenvalues of (
I) (X+5I) is =
,
10.
15.
[Ans. A]
A=|
Characteristics equation |
|
I|
|
j
j
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Page 27
GATE QUESTION BANK
x
] 0x 1
Mathematics
0 1
x
x
j
j
j
j
x
] 0x 1
0 1
x
16.
[Ans. C]
A[
]=[
| | |
]
|
| |
(
| two rows ounter lose thus | |
| |)
=Product of eigenvalues
Verify options
Options (C) correct answer
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GATE QUESTION BANK
Mathematics
Probability and Distribution

ME - 2005
1.
A single die is thrown twice. What is the
probability that the sum is neither 8 nor
9?
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
ME - 2008
6.
A coin is tossed 4 times. What is the
probability of getting heads exactly 3
times?
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
2.
ME - 2009
7.
The standard deviation of a uniformly
distributed random variable between 0
and 1 is
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
A lot has 10% defective items. Ten items

are chosen randomly from this lot. The
probability that exactly 2 of the chosen
items are defective is
(A) 0.0036
(C) 0.2234
(B) 0.1937
(D) 0.3874
ME - 2006
3.
Consider a continuous random variable
with probability density function
f(t) = 1 + t for 1 t 0
= 1 t for 0 t 1
The standard deviation of the random
variable is:
(C)
(A)
(D)
(B)
4.
A box contains 20 defective items and 80

non-defective items. If two items are
selected at random without replacement,
what will be the probability that both
items are defective?
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
ME - 2007
5.
Let X and Y be two independent random
variables. Which one of the relations
between expectation (E), variance (Var)
and covariance (Cov) given below is
FALSE?
(A) E (XY) = E (X) E (Y)
(B) Cov (X, Y) = 0
(C) Var (X + Y) = Var (X) + Var (Y)
(D)
(X Y )
( (X)) ( (Y))
8.
If three coins are tossed simultaneously,

the probability of getting at least one head
is
(A) 1/8
(C) 1/2
(B) 3/8
(D) 7/8
ME - 2010
9.
A box contains 2 washers, 3 nuts and 4
bolts. Items are drawn from the box at
random one at a time without
replacement. The probability of drawing
2 washers first followed by 3 nuts and
subsequently the 4 bolts is
(A) 2/315
(C) 1/1260
(B) 1/630
(D) 1/2520
ME - 2011
10. An unbiased coin is tossed five times. The
outcome of each toss is either a head or a
tail. The probability of getting at least one
head is________
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
ME - 2012
11. A box contains 4 red balls and 6 black
balls. Three balls are selected randomly
from the box one after another, without
replacement. The probability that the
selected set has one red ball and two
black balls is
(A) 1/20
(C) 3/10
(B) 1/12
(D) 1/2
th
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GATE QUESTION BANK
ME - 2013
12. Let X be a normal random variable with
mean 1 and variance 4. The probability
(X
) is
(A) 0.5
(B) Greater than zero and less than 0.5
(C) Greater than 0.5 and less than 1.0
(D) 1.0
13.
The probability that a student knows the

correct answer to a multiple choice
the probability of obtaining red colour on

top face of the dice at least twice is _______
17.
A group consists of equal number of men

and women. Of this group 20% of the men
and 50% of the women are unemployed.
If a person is selected at random from this
group, the probability of the selected
person being employed is _______
18.
A machine produces 0, 1 or 2 defective

pieces in a day with associated
probability of 1/6, 2/3 and 1/6,
respectively. The mean value and the
variance of the number of defective pieces
produced by the machine in a day,
respectively, are
(A) 1 and 1/3
(C) 1 and 4/3
(B) 1/3 and 1
(D) 1/3 and 4/3
19.
A nationalized bank has found that the

daily balance available in its savings
accounts follows a normal distribution
with a mean of Rs. 500 and a standard
deviation of Rs. 50. The percentage of
savings account holders, who maintain an
average daily balance more than Rs. 500
is _______
20.
The number of accidents occurring in a

plant in a month follows Poisson
distribution with mean as 5.2. The
probability of occurrence of less than 2
accidents in the plant during a randomly
selected month is
(A) 0.029
(C) 0.039
(B) 0.034
(D) 0.044
question is . If the student dose not know

the answer, then the student guesses the
answer. The probability of the guessed
answer being correct is . Given that the
student has answered the questions
correctly, the conditional probability that
the student knows the correct answer is
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
ME - 2014
14. In the following table x is a discrete
random variable and P(x) is the
probability density. The standard
deviation of x is
x
1
2
3
P(x) 0.3 0.6 0.1
(A) 0.18
(C) 0.54
(B) 0.3
(D) 0.6
15.
16.
Box contains 25 parts of which 10 are

defective. Two parts are being drawn
simultaneously in a random manner from
the box. The probability of both the parts
being good is
( )
( )
( )
( )
Consider an unbiased cubic dice with

opposite faces coloured identically and
each face coloured red, blue or green such
that each colour appears only two times
on the dice. If the dice is thrown thrice,
Mathematics
CE - 2005
1.
NOT true?
(A) The measure of skewness is
dependent upon the amount of
dispersion
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Page 30
GATE QUESTION BANK
(B) In a symmetric distribution the value

of mean, mode and median are the
same
(C) In a positively skewed distribution
mean > median > mode
(D) In a negatively skewed distribution
mode > mean > median
CE - 2006
2.
A class of first years B. Tech students is
composed of four batches A, B, C and D
each consisting of 30 students. It is found
that the sessional marks of students in
Engineering Drawing in batch C have a
mean of 6.6 and standard deviation of 2.3.
The mean and standard deviation of the
marks for the entire class are 5.5 and 4.2
respectively. It is decided by the course
instruction to normalize the marks of the
students of all batches to have the same
mean and standard deviation as that of
the entire class. Due to this, the marks of a
student in batch C are changed from 8.5
to
(A) 6.0
(C) 8.0
(B) 7.0
(D) 9.0
3.
There are 25 calculators in a box. Two of

them are defective. Suppose 5 calculators
are randomly picked for inspection (i.e.
each has the same chance of being
selected). What is the probability that
only one of the defective calculators will
be included in the inspection?
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
CE - 2007
4.
If the standard deviation of the spot speed
of vehicles in a highway is 8.8 kmph and
the mean speed of the vehicles is
33 kmph, the coefficient of variation in
speed is
(A) 0.1517
(C) 0.2666
(B) 0.1867
(D) 0.3646
Mathematics
CE - 2008
5.
If probability density function of a random
variable x is
x for
x
nd
f(x) {
for ny other v lue of x
Then, the percentage probability
P.
/ is
(A) 0.247
(B) 2.47
6.
(C) 24.7
(D) 247
A person on a trip has a choice between

private car and public transport. The
probability of using a private car is 0.45.
While using the public transport, further
choices available are bus and metro out of
which the probability of commuting by a
bus is 0.55. In such a situation, the
probability, (rounded upto two decimals)
of using a car, bus and metro, respectively
would be
(A) 0.45, 0.30 and 0.25
(B) 0.45, 0.25 and 0.30
(C) 0.45, 0.55 and 0.00
(D) 0.45, 0.35 and 0.20
CE - 2009
7.
The standard normal probability function
can be approximated as
(x )
|x | )
exp(
Where x = standard normal deviate. If
mean and standard deviation of annual
precipitation are 102 cm and 27 cm
respectively, the probability that the
annual precipitation will be between
90 cm and 102 cm is
(A) 66.7%
(C) 33.3%
(B) 50.0%
(D) 16.7%
CE - 2010
8.
Two coins are simultaneously tossed. The
probability of two heads simultaneously
appearing is
(A) 1/8
(C) 1/4
(B) 1/6
(D) 1/2
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Page 31
GATE QUESTION BANK
CE - 2011
9.
There are two containers with one
containing 4 red and 3 green balls and the
other containing 3 blue and 4 green balls.
One ball is drawn at random from each
container. The probability that one of the
balls is red and the other is blue will be
(A) 1/7
(C) 12/49
(B) 9/49
(D) 3/7
CE - 2012
10. The annual precipitation data of a city is
normally distributed with mean and
standard deviation as 1000mm and
200 mm, respectively. The probability
that the annual precipitation will be more
than 1200 mm is
(A) < 50 %
(C) 75 %
(B) 50 %
(D) 100 %
11.
14.
A traffic office imposes on an average 5

number of penalties daily on traffic
violators. Assume that the number of
penalties on different days is independent
and follows a poisson distribution. The
probability that there will be less than 4
penalties in a day is ____.
15.
A fair (unbiased) coin was tossed four

times in succession and resulted in the
following outcomes:
(i) Head
(iii) Head
(ii) Head
(iv) Head
The prob bility of obt ining T il when
the coin is tossed again is
(A) 0
(C)
(B)
(D)
16.
An observer counts 240 veh/h at a

specific highway location. Assume that
the vehicle arrival at the location is
Poisson distributed, the probability of
having one vehicle arriving over a
30-second time interval is ____________
In an experiment, positive and negative

values are equally likely to occur. The
probability of obtaining at most one
negative value in five trials is
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
CE - 2013
12. Find the value of such that the function
f(x) is a valid probability density function
____________________
(x
)(
f(x)
x)
for
x
otherwise
CE - 2014
13. The probability density function of
evaporation E on any day during a year in
a watershed is given by
f( )
mm d y
Mathematics
CS - 2005
1.
Box P has 2 red balls and 3 blue balls and
box Q has 3 red balls and 1 blue ball. A
ball is selected as follows: (i) select a box
(ii) choose a ball from the selected box
such that each ball in the box is equally
likely to be chosen. The probabilities of
selecting boxes P and Q are 1/3 and 2/3
respectively. Given that a ball selected in
the above process is red, the probability
that it comes from box P is
(A) 4/19
(C) 2/9
(B) 5/19
(D) 19/30
2.
Let f(x) be the continuous probability

density function of a random variable X.
The probability that a X b , is
(A) f(b a)
(C) f(x)dx
otherwise
The probability that E lies in between 2
and 4 mm/day in a day in the watershed
is (in decimal) ______
(B) f(b)
th
th
f( )
(D) x f(x)dx
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Page 32
GATE QUESTION BANK
CS - 2006
3.
For each element in a set of size 2n, an
unbiased coin is tossed. The 2n coin
tosses are independent. An element is
chosen if the corresponding coin toss
were head. The probability that exactly n
elements are chosen is
(A) ( n )
(C) ( n )
(D)
(B) ( n )
CS - 2007
Linked Data for Q4 & Q5 are given below.
Solve the problems and choose the correct
answers.
Suppose that robot is placed on the
Cartesian plane. At each step it is easy to
move either one unit up or one unit right,
i.e if it is at (i,j) then it can move to either
(i+1,j) or (i,j+1)
4.
How many distinct paths are there for the
robot to reach the point (10,10) starting
from the initial position (0,0)?
(C) 210
(A)
20
(D) None of these
(B) 2
5.
Suppose that the robot is not allowed to

traverse the line segment from (4,4) to
(5,4). With this constraint, how many
distinct paths are there for the robot to
reach (10,10) starting from (0,0)?
(A) 29
(B) 219
(C) . / .
(D) .
6.
/
. / .
Suppose we uniformly and randomly

select a permutation from the 20!
ermut tions of
Wh t is
the probability that 2 appears at an
earlier position than any other even
number in the selected permutation?
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D) none of these
Mathematics
CS - 2008
7.
Let X be a random variable following
normal distribution with mean +1 and
variance 4. Let Y be another normal
variable with mean of 1 and variance
unknown
If (X
)
(Y ) the
standard deviation of Y is
(A) 3
(C)
(B) 2
(D) 1
8.
Aishwarya studies either computer

science or mathematics every day. If she
studies computer science on a day, then
the probability that she studies
mathematics the next day is 0.6. If she
studies mathematics on a day, then the
probability that she studies computer
science the next day is 0.4. Given that
Aishwarya studies computer science on
Monday, what is the probability that she
studies computer science on Wednesday?
(A) 0.24
(C) 0.4
(B) 0.36
(D) 0.6
CS - 2009
9.
An unbalanced dice (with 6 faces,
numbered from 1 to 6) is thrown. The
probability that the face value is odd is
90% of the probability that the face value
is even. The probability of getting any
even numbered face is the same. If the
probability that the face is even given that
it is greater than 3 is 0.75, which one of
the following options is closest to the
probability that the face value exceeds 3?
(A) 0.453
(C) 0.485
(B) 0.468
(D) 0.492
CS - 2010
10. Consider a company that assembles
computers. The probability of a faulty
assembly of any computer is p. The
company
therefore
subjects
each
computer to a testing process. This
testing process gives the correct result for
any computer with a probability of q.
What is the probability of a computer
being declared faulty?
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Page 33
GATE QUESTION BANK
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
11.
12.
pq+(1 p)(1 q)
(1 q)p
(1 p)q
pq
What is the probability that a divisor of

is a multiple of
?
(A) 1/625
(C) 12/625
(B) 4/625
(D) 16/625
If the difference between the expectation
of the square if a random variable ( ,x -)
and the square if the exopectation of the
random variable ( ,x-) is denoted by R,
then
(A) R = 0
(C) R
(B) R< 0
(D) R > 0
CS - 2011
13. A deck of 5 cards (each carrying a distinct
number from 1 to 5) is shuffled
thoroughly. Two cards are then removed
one at a time from the deck. What is the
probability that the two cards are
selected with the number on the first card
being one higher than the number on the
second card?
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
14.
Consider a finite sequence of random

values X = [x1, x2 xn].Let
be the
me n nd x be the standard deviation of
X. Let another finite sequence Y of equal
length be derived from this as yi, a*xi+b,
where a and b are positive constants. Let
y be the me n nd y be the standard
deviation of this sequence. Which one of
the following statements is INCORRECT?
(A) Index position of mode of X in X is
the same as the index position of
mode of Y in Y.
(B) Index position of median of X in X is
the same as the index position of
median of Y in Y.
(C) y
x + b
(D) y
x + b
15.
Mathematics
If two fair coins flipped and at least one of

the outcomes is known to be a head, what
is the probability that both outcomes are
heads?
(A) 1/3
(C) 1/4
(B) 1/2
(D) 2/3
CS - 2012
16. Suppose a fair six sided die is rolled
once. If the value on the die is 1,2, or 3 the
die is rolled a second time. What is the
probability that the some total of value
that turn up is at least 6?
(A) 10/21
(C) 2/3
(B) 5/12
(D) 1/6
17.
Consider a random variable X that takes

values +1 and 1 with probability 0.5
each. The values of the cumulative
distribution function F(x) at x =
and
+1 are
(A) 0 and 0.5
(C) 0.5 and 1
(B) 0 and 1
(D) 0.25 and 0.75
CS - 2013
18. Suppose p is the number of cars per
minute passing through a certain road
junction between 5 PM and 6 PM, and p
has a Poisson distribution with mean 3.
What is the probability of observing
fewer than 3 cars during any given
minute in this interval?
e
(A) e
(C)
e
(B) e
(D)
CS - 2014
19. Suppose you break a stick of unit length
at a point chosen uniformly at random.
Then the expected length of the shorter
stick is ________ .
20.
th
Four fair six sided dice are rolled. The

probability that the sum of the results
being 22 is x/1296. The value of x is
____________
th
th
Page 34
GATE QUESTION BANK
21.
The security system at an IT office is

composed of 10 computers of which
exactly four are working. To check
whether the system is functional, the
officials inspect four of the computers
picked at random (without replacement).
The system is deemed functional if at
least three of the four computers
inspected are working.
Let the
probability that the system is deemed
functional be denoted by p. Then 100p =
_____________.
22.
Each of the nine words in the sentence

The quick brown fox jumps over the l zy
dog is written on
sep r te piece of
paper. These nine pieces of paper are kept
in a box. One of the pieces is drawn at
random from the box. The expected
length of the word drawn is _____________.
(The answer should be rounded to one
decimal place.)
23.
The probability that a given positive

integer lying between 1 and 100 (both
inclusive) is NOT divisible by 2, 3 or 5 is
__________.
24.
Let S be a sample space and two mutually

exclusive events A and B be such that
S If ( ) denotes the prob bility

of the event, the maximum value of
P(A) P(B) is _______
ECE - 2006
3.
A probability density function is of the
).
form (x)
e || x (
The value of K is
(A) 0.5
(C) 0.5a
(B) 1
(D) A
4.
Three Companies X, Y and Z supply

computers to a university. The percentage
of computers supplied by them and the
probability of those being defective are
tabulated below
Company
% of
Probability
computers
of being
supplied
defective
X
60%
0.01
Y
30%
0.02
Z
10%
0.03
Given that a computer is defective, the
probability that it was supplied by Y is
(A) 0.1
(C) 0.3
(B) 0.2
(D) 0.4
ECE - 2007
5.
If E denotes expectation, the variance of a
random variable X is given by
(A) E[X2] E2[X]
(C) E[X2]
(B) E[X2] + E2[X]
(D) E2[X]
6.
An examination consists of two papers,

Paper1 and Paper2. The probability of
failing in Paper1 is 0.3 and that in Paper2
is 0.2.Given that a student has failed in
Paper2, the probability of failing in
paper1 is 0.6. The probability of a student
failing in both the papers is
(A) 0.5
(C) 0.12
(B) 0.18
(D) 0.06
ECE - 2005
1.
A fair dice is rolled twice. The probability
that an odd number will follow an even
number is
2.
( )
( )
( )
( )
Mathematics
The value of the integral
x2
1
exp
dx is
2 0
8
(A) 1
(B)
(C) 2
(D)
th
th
th
Page 35
GATE QUESTION BANK
ECE - 2008
7.
The probability density function (PDF) of
a random variable X is as shown below.
(x)
exp( |x|)
exp( |x|) is
the probability density function for the
real random variable X, over the entire x
axis. M and N are both positive real
numbers. The equation relating M and N
is
8.
PDF
PDF
Mathematics
(A)
1
(B) 2M
x
11
The -1
corresponding
cumulative
0
distribution function (CDF) has the form
(A)
(C) M + N = 1
(D) M + N = 3
ECE - 2009
9.
Consider two independent random
variables X and Y with identical
distributions. The variables X and Y take
value 0, 1 and 2 with probabilities
CDF
N=1
and respectively. What is the

1
(B)
conditional probability
(x y
)
|x y|
(A) 0
(C)
(B)
(D) 1
CD
F
C
D
F
10.
0
1
-1
(C)
(B)
11.
1
1
1
1
0
0
1
1
2
(C)
2
(D)
10
1
2
(A)
CDF 1
A fair coin is tossed 10 times. What is the

probability that ONLY the first two tosses
will yield heads?
CDF
1
1
th
10
10
1
C2
2
(D)
10
1
C2
2
A discrete random variable X takes values

from 1 to 5 with probabilities as shown in
the table. A student calculates the mean of
X as 3.5 and her teacher calculates the
variance of X as 1.5. Which of the
k
P(X=k)
1
0.1
2
0.2
3
0.4
4
0.2
5
0.1
th
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Page 36
GATE QUESTION BANK
(A) Both the student and the teacher are

right
(B) Both the student and the teacher are
wrong
(C) The student is wrong but the teacher
is right
(D) The student is right but the teacher is
wrong
ECE - 2010
12. A fair coin is tossed independently four
times. The prob bility of the event the
number of times heads show up is more
th n the number of times t ils show up is
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
ECE - 2011
13. A fair dice is tossed two times. The
probability that the second toss results in
a value that is higher than the first toss is
(A) 2/36
(C) 5/12
(B) 2/6
(D) 1/2
ECE\EE\IN - 2012
14. A fair coin is tossed till a head appears for
the first time probability that the number
of required tosses is odd , is
(A) 1/3
(C) 2/3
(B) 1/2
(D) 3/4
ECE - 2013
15. Let U and V be two independent zero
mean Gaussian random variables of
variances and respectively. The
probability ( V U) is
(A) 4/9
(C) 2/3
(B) 1/2
(D) 5/9
16.
Consider two identically distributed zeromean random variables U and V . Let the
cumulative distribution functions of U
and 2V be F(x) and G(x) respectively.
Then, for all values of x
(x))
(A) ( (x)
(B) ( (x)
(C) ( (x)
(D) ( (x)
Mathematics
(x)) x
(x)) x
ECE - 2014
17. In a housing society, half of the families
have a single child per family, while the
remaining half have two children per
family. The probability that a child picked
at random, has a sibling is _____
18.
Let X X nd X , be independent and

identically distributed random variables
with the uniform distribution on [0, 1].
The probability P{X is the largest} is _____
19.
Let X be a random variable which is

uniformly chosen from the set of positive
odd numbers less than 100. The
expectation, E[X], is __________.
20.
An unbiased coin is tossed an infinite

number of times. The probability that the
fourth head appears at the tenth toss is
(A) 0.067
(C) 0.082
(B) 0.073
(D) 0.091
21.
A fair coin is tossed repeatedly till both

head and tail appear at least once. The
average number of tosses required is
_______.
22.
Let X X and X be independent and

identically distributed random variables
with the uniform distribution on [0, 1].
The probability P{X
X
X } is ______.
23.
Let X be a zero mean unit variance

Gaussian random variable. ,|x|- is equal
to __________
24.
Parcels from sender S to receiver R pass

sequentially through two post-offices.
Each post-office has a probability
of
losing an incoming parcel, independently

of all other parcels. Given that a parcel is
lost, the probability that it was lost by the
second post-office is ____________.
(x))
th
th
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GATE QUESTION BANK
EE - 2005
1.
If P and Q are two random events, then
the following is TRUE
(A) Independence of P and Q implies that
probability (P Q) = 0
(B) Probability (P Q) Probability (P)
+Probability (Q)
(C) If P and Q are mutually exclusive,
then they must be independent
(D) Probability (P Q) Probability (P)
2.
A fair coin is tossed three times in

succession. If the first toss produces a
head, then the probability of getting
exactly two heads in three tosses is
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
EE - 2006
3.
Two f ir dice re rolled nd the sum r
of the numbers turned up is considered
(A) Pr (r > 6) =
(B) Pr (r/3 is an integer) =
(C) Pr (r = 8|r/4 is an integer) =
(D) Pr (r = 6|r/5 is an integer) =
EE - 2007
4.
A loaded dice has following probability
distribution of occurrences
Dice Value
Probability
1
2
6
If three identical dice as the above are
thrown, the probability of occurrence of
values, 1, 5 and 6 on the three dice is
(A) same as that of occurrence of 3, 4, 5
(B) same as that of occurrence of 1, 2, 5
(C) 1/128
(D) 5/8
Mathematics
EE - 2008
5.
X is a uniformly distributed random
variable that takes values between 0 and
1. The value of E{X } will be
(A) 0
(C) 1/4
(B) 1/8
(D) 1/2
EE - 2009
6.
Assume for simplicity that N people, all
born in April (a month of 30 days), are
collected in a room. Consider the event of
atleast two people in the room being born
on the same date of the month, even if in
different years, e.g. 1980 and 1985. What
is the smallest N so that the probability of
this event exceeds 0.5?
(A) 20
(C) 15
(B) 7
(D) 16
EE - 2010
7.
A box contains 4 white balls and 3 red
balls. In succession, two balls are
randomly selected and removed from the
box. Given that the first removed ball is
white, the probability that the second
removed ball is red is
(A) 1/3
(C) 1/2
(B) 3/7
(D) 4/7
ECE\EE\IN - 2012
8.
Two independent random variables X and
Y are uniformly distributed in the interval
,
-. The probability that max ,
- is
less than 1/2 is
(A) 3/4
(C) 1/4
(B) 9/16
(D) 2/3
EE - 2013
9.
A continuous random variable x has a
probability density function
+ is
f(x) e
x
. Then *x
(A) 0.368
(C) 0.632
(B) 0.5
(D) 1.0
th
th
th
Page 38
GATE QUESTION BANK
EE - 2014
10. A fair coin is tossed n times. The
probability that the difference between
the number of heads and tails is (n 3) is
(C)
(A)
(B)
(D)
11.
12.
13.
14.
IN - 2005
1.
The probability that there are 53 Sundays
in a randomly chosen leap year is
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
2.
A mass of 10 kg is measured with an

instrument and the readings are normally
distributed with respect to the mean of
10 kg. Given that
Consider a dice with the property that the

probability of a face with n dots showing
up is proportional to n. The probability of
the face with three dots showing up is
_______________
Let x be a random variable with
probability density function
for |x|
f(x)
{
|x|
for
otherwise
The probability P(0.5 < x < 5) is_________
Lifetime of an electric bulb is a random
variable with density f(x) kx , where x
is measured in years. If the minimum and
maximum lifetimes of bulb are 1 and 2
years respectively, then the value of k
is__________
The mean thickness and variance of
silicon steel laminations are 0.2 mm and
0.02 respectively. The varnish insulation
is applied on both the sides of the
laminations. The mean thickness of one
side insulation and its variance are
0.1 mm and 0.01 respectively. If the
transformer core is made using 100 such
varnish coated laminations, the mean
thickness and variance of the core
respectively are
(A) 30 mm and 0.22
(B) 30 mm and 2.44
(C) 40 mm and 2.44
(D) 40 mm and 0.24
Mathematics
exp .
/ d =0.6
and that 60per cent of the readings are

found to be within 0.05 kg from the mean,
the standard deviation of the data is
(A) 0.02
(C) 0.06
(B) 0.04
(D) 0.08
3.
The measurements of a source voltage are

5.9V, 5.7V and 6.1V. The sample standard
deviation of the readings is
(A) 0.013
(C) 0.115
(B) 0.04
(D) 0.2
IN - 2006
4.
You have gone to a cyber-cafe with a
friend. You found that the cyber-caf has
only three terminals. All terminals are
unoccupied. You and your friend have to
make a random choice of selecting a
terminal. What is the probability that
both of you will NOT select the same
terminal?
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D) 1
5.
Probability density function p(x) of a

random variable x is as shown below. The
value of is
p(x)
th
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
th
th
Page 39
GATE QUESTION BANK
6.
Mathematics
Two dices are rolled simultaneously. The

probability that the sum of digits on the
top surface of the two dices is even is
(A) 0.5
(C) 0.167
(B) 0.25
(D) 0.125
measurements, it can be expected that the

number of measurement more than 10.15
mm will be
(A) 230
(C) 15
(B) 115
(D) 2
IN - 2007
7.
Assume that the duration in minutes of a
telephone conversation follows the
IN - 2011
12. The box 1 contains chips numbered 3, 6,
9, 12 and 15. The box 2 contains chips
numbered 6, 11, 16, 21 and 26. Two chips,
one from each box, are drawn at random.
The numbers written on these chips are
multiplied. The probability for the
product to be an even number is
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
exponential distribution f(x) =
e ,x
The probability that the conversation will

exceed five minutes is
(A)
e
(C)
(B)
e
(D)
e
IN - 2008
8.
Consider a Gaussian distributed random
variable with zero mean and standard
deviation . The value of its cummulative
distribution function at the origin will be
(A) 0
(C) 1
(B) 0.5
(D)
9.
A random variable is uniformly

distributed over the interval 2 to 10. Its
variance will be
(A)
(C)
(B) 6
(D) 36
IN - 2013
13. A continuous random variable X has
probability density f(x) =
.
Then P(X > 1) is
(A) 0.368
(C) 0.632
(B) 0.5
(D) 1.0
IN - 2014
14. Given that x is a random variable in the
r nge ,
- with
prob bility density
function
the value of the constant k is
___________________
IN - 2009
10. A screening test is carried out to detect a
certain disease. It is found that 12% of the
positive reports and 15% of the negative
reports are incorrect. Assuming that the
probability of a person getting a positive
report is 0.01, the probability that a
person tested gets an incorrect report is
(A) 0.0027
(C) 0.1497
(B) 0.0173
(D) 0.2100
15.
IN - 2010
11. The diameters of 10000 ball bearings
were measured. The mean diameter and
standard deviation were found to be
10 mm and 0.05mm respectively.
Assuming Gaussian distribution of
The figure shows the schematic of

production process with machines A,B
and C. An input job needs to be preprocessed either by A or by B before it is
fed to C, from which the final finished
product comes out. The probabilities of
failure of the machines are given as:
Assuming independence of failures of the

machines, the probability that a given job
is successfully processed (up to third
decimal place)is ______________
th
th
th
Page 40
GATE QUESTION BANK
Mathematics

ME
1.
4.
[Ans. D]
The number of ways coming 8 and 9 are
(2,6),(3,5),(4,4),(5,3),(6,2),(3,6),(4,5),
(5,4),(6,3)
Total ways =9
So Probability of coming 8 and 9 are
[Ans. D]
5.
[Ans. D]
X and Y are independent
( ) ( ) ( ) re true
Only (D) is odd one
6.
[Ans. A]
Number of favourable cases are given by
HHHT
HHTH
HTHH
THHH
Total number of cases
= 2C1 2C1 2C1 2C1 =16
So probability of not coming these
2.
[Ans. B]
Probability of defective item =
Probability of not defective item = 1 0.1
= 0.9
So, Probability that exactly 2 of the
chosen items are defective
=
( ) ( )
3.
[Ans. B]
Probability =
7.
[Ans. A]
A uniform
function
Mean (t) = t f(t) dt

t(
t
6
t)dt
t
t
6
t(
t)dt
t)dt
= (t
=0
t )dt
1
density
Density function
f(x) b a
0
t (
t)dt
a,x b
a x,x b
Mean E(x)=
t)dt
x(F(x))
x a
ab
2
Variance = F(x)2 f(x)
x F(x) xF(x)
x a
x a
=
Standard deviation = v ri nce
=
and
0,x a
x a
f(x) f x dx
, axb
0
b a
xb
0,
t (
distribution
Variance = t f(t)dt
= t (
( oth defective)
S mple sp ce
( oth defective)
Put the value of F(x), we get
1
1
b
dx x.
dx
Variance x
ba
x a
x a b a
b
th
th
th
Page 41
GATE QUESTION BANK

b
x3 xL

3(b a) a 2 b a
Mathematics
3
1 7
(3 3 1)
2 8
b3 a3 (b2 a2 )2
3(b a) 4 b a 2
(b a)(b2 ab a2 ) (b a)2(b a)2
2
3(b a)
4 b a
4b2 4ab 4a2 3a2 3b2 6ab

12
b2 a2 2ab
12
9.
[Ans. C]
Probability of drawing 2 washers, first
followed by 3 nuts, and subsequently the
4 bolts
10.
[Ans. D]
Required probability =
(b a)2
12
. / . /
Standard deviation = v ri nce
(b a)2
12
(b a)
12
11.
[Ans. D]
Given 4R and 6B
,
-
12.
[Ans. C]
Given: b=1, a=0
Standard deviation =
8.
10
1
12
12
[Ans. D]
Let probability of getting atleast one head
= P(H) then
P (at least one head) = 1 P(no head)
P(H)=1 P(all tails)
But in all cases, 23=8
1 7
8 8
X=0
P (H) = 1
(X
) is
Below X
(X
) has to be less than 0.5 but
greater than zero
Alternately
Probability of getting at least one head
( ) ( )
13.
1 7
1
8 8
Alternately
From Binomial theorem
Probability of getting at least one head
pq
( )
( )
X=1
[Ans. D]
A
event that he knows the correct
answer
B
event that student answered
correctly the question P(B) = ?
( )
( )
th
th
th
Page 42
GATE QUESTION BANK
( )
he knows
correct nswer
)
(
( )
14.
No. of employed men = 80% of men = 80

No. of employed women
= 50% of women = 50
Probability if the selected one person
being employed
= probability of one employed women
+probability of one employed man
e does not know

correct nswer
so he guesses
( ) ( )
)
( )
[Ans. D]
x
1
2
P(x) 0.3
0.6
(x)
(x)
x
18.
V(x)
x
(
(x )
[Ans. A]
3
0.1
So from figure
Mean value = 1
V ri nce : me n x defective pieces
(x )
)
n(n
(
)
(
) (
)
(
)
(x)
x (x)
Mathematics
, (x)-
(x) ( x (x))
) ( )
( )
15.
[Ans. A]
19.
16.
[Ans. *](Range 49 to 51)
[Ans. *] Range 0.25 to 0.27

p
orm l distribution
Given that
x x
z
ere x
, s x gre ter th n
z
)
ence prob bility (z
Using Binomial distribution

(x )
17.
( ) ( )
( ) ( )
e
dz
of s ving ccount holder
[Ans. *] Range 0.64 to 0.66

Let number of men = 100
Number of women = 100
th
th
th
Page 43
GATE QUESTION BANK
20.
[Ans. B]
Mean m = np = 5.2
me
(x
) e
25 Calculators
23 Non-defective
2 Defective
5 Calculators
e
(x
Mathematics
)
4 Non-defective
1 Defective
CE
1.
2.
[Ans D]
A, B, C are true
(D) is not true. Since in a negatively
skewed distribution
mode > median > mean
[Ans. D]
Let the mean and standard deviation of
the students of batch C be and
respectively and the mean and standard
deviation of entire class of first year
students be and respectively
Now given,
and
In order to normalise batch C to entire

class, the normalize score must be
equated
since Z =
Z =
Now Z =
p( defective in c lcul tors)
4.
[Ans. C]
5.
[Ans. B]
Given f(x) = x for
x
= 0 else where
(
f(x)dx
x dx
=0 1
The probability expressed in percentage
P=
= 2.469% = 2.47%
6.
[Ans. A]
Given
P(private car) = 0.45
P(bus 1 public transport) = 0.55
Since a person has a choice between
private car and public transport
P(public transport) = 1 P(private car)
= 1 0.45 =0.55
P(bus) = P(bus public transport)
(bus public tr nsport)
(public tr nsport)
= 0.55 0.55
= 0.3025 0.30
Now P(metro)
= 1 [P(private car) + P(bus)]
= 1 (0.45 + 0.30) = 0.25
Equation these two and solving, we get

=
x = 8.969 9.0
3.
[Ans. B]
Since population is finite, hypergeometric
distribution is applicable
th
th
th
Page 44
GATE QUESTION BANK
P(private car) = 0.45

P(bus) = 0.30
and P(metro) = 0.25
7.
12.
[Ans. D]
ere
cm;
(
x 102)
=P.
[Ans. 6]
f(x)dx
( x
f(x)
( x
cm
6
Mathematics
)dx
x
otherwise
x7
/
[
=P(
x
)
This area is shown below:
)]
-0.44
The shades area in above figure is given

by F(0) F ( 0.44)
=
( )
)(
= 0.5 0.3345
= 1.1655 16.55%
Closest answer is 16.7%
8.
13.
[Ans. 0.4]
(
f( )d
[Ans. C]
( )|
P(2 heads) =
9.
[Ans. C]
P(one ball is Red & another is blue)
= P(first is Red and second is Blue)
14.
=
10.
[Ans. A]
Given = 1000, = 200
We know that Z
When X= 1200, Z
Req. Prob = P (X
(Z
)
(
Z
Less than 50%
11.
[Ans. D]
(X
)
( )
(X
[Ans. *] Range 0.26 to 0.27

Avg= 5
Let x denote penalty
(x
)
(x
)
(x
)
(x
)
(x
)
e
ew (x n)
x
e
e
e
)
p(x
e
(X
15.
[Ans. B]
S * T+
n( )
( )
n(S)
16.
[Ans. *] Range 0.25 to 0.28

( t)
e
(n t)
n
( )
th
th
th
Page 45
GATE QUESTION BANK
no of vehicles
(
veh km
m ke ex ctly moves nd U moves

in any order.
Similarly to reach (10, 10) from (0,0) the
robot h s to m ke
moves nd
U
moves in any order. The number of ways
this can be done is same as number of
permutations of a word consisting of 10
s nd
Us
Applying formula of permutation with
limited repetitions we get the answer
as
= 2.e
= 0.2707
CS
1.
[Ans. A]
P: Event of selecting Box P,
Q: Event of selecting Box P
P(P)=1/3, P(Q)=2/3
P(R/P)=2/5, P(R/Q)=3/4
P(R/P).P(P)
P(R/P).P(P) P(R/Q)P(Q)
2/51/3
4/19
2/51/3 3/ 4 2/3
P(P/R)=
2.
5.
[Ans. D]
The robot can reach (4,4) from (0,0) in
8C ways as argued in previous problem.
4
Now after reaching (4,4) robot is not
allowed to go to (5,4)
Let us count how many paths are there
from (0,0) to (10,10) if robot goes from
(4,4) to (5,4) and then we can subtract
this from total number of ways to get the
answer.
Now there are 8C4 ways for robot to reach
(4,4) from (0,0) and then robot takes the
U move from ( ) to ( ) ow from
(5,4) to (10,10) the robot has to make 5
U moves nd moves in ny order
which can be done in 11! ways
= 11C5 ways
Therefore, the number of ways robot can
move from (0,0) (10,10) via (4,4) (5,4)
move is
[Ans. C]
If f (x) is the continuous probability
density function of a random variable X
then,
(
x b) P(
x b)
b
= f x dx
3.
4.
[Ans. A]
The probability that exactly n elements
are chosen
=The probability of getting n heads out of
2n tosses
=
) . /
=
=
) (
Mathematics
(Binomial formula)
)
8C
4
[Ans. A]
Consider the following diagram
(3,3)
11C
5
8 11
4 5
No. of ways robot can move from (0,0) to

(10,10) without using (4,4) to (5,4) move
is
20 8 11
ways
10 4 5
(0,0)
The robot can move only right or up as
defined in problem. Let us denote right
move by nd up move by U ow to
reach (3, 3), from (0,0) , the robot has to
which is choice (D)
th
th
th
Page 46
GATE QUESTION BANK
6.
[Ans. D]
umber of permut tions with in the
first position =19!
Number of permutations with in the
second position = 10 18!
(Fill the first space with any of the 10 odd
numbers and the 18 spaces after the 2
with 18 of the remaining numbers in 18!
ways)
umber of permut tions with in rd
position =10 9 17!
(Fill the first 2 place with 2 of the 10 odd
numbers and then the remaining 17
places with remaining 17 numbers)
nd so on until is in th place. After
that it is not possible to satisfy the given
condition, since there are only 10 odd
numbers v il ble to fill before the
So the desired number of permutations
which satisfies the given condition is
8.
[Ans. C]
Let C denote computes science study and
M denotes maths study.
P(C on Monday and C on Wednesday)
= P(C on Monday, M on Tuesday and C on
Wednesday)
+ P(C on Monday, C on Tuesday and C on
Wednesday)
=1 0.6 0.4+ 1 0.4 0.4
= 0.24 + 0.16 = 0.40
9.
[Ans. B]
It is given that
P (odd) = 0.9 P (even)
Now since P(x) = 1
P (odd) + P (even) = 1
0.9 P (even) + P (even) = 1
P(even) =
P(2) = P(4) = P(6) = P(even)

)
Which are clearly not choices (A), (B) or (C)

7.
/ = P (z
.z
/ = P (z
(z
) = P (z
10.
_____(i)
P(f ce
)
)
(
)
(
(0.5263)
= 0.1754
It is given that
P(even | face > 3) = 0.75
[Ans. A]
Given = 1, = 4
=2
and = 1,
is unknown
Given, P(X
) = P (Y 2 )
Converting into standard normal variates,
.z
= 0.5263
Now, it is given that P(any even face) is same

i.e. P(2) = P(4) = P(6)
Now since,
P(even) = P(2) or P(4) or P(6)
= P(2) + P(4) + P(6)
Now the probability of this happening is

given by =
(
Mathematics
= 0.75
= 0.75
( )
( )
=1
decl red f ulty
f ulty
q
p
=3
not
f ulty
decl red not f ulty

decl red f ulty
decl red not f ulty
From above tree

(decl red f ulty)
th
=0.468
[Ans. A]
The tree diagram of probabilities is
shown below
q
Now since we know that in standard

normal distribution
P (z
) = P (z 1)
_____(ii)
Comparing (i) and (ii) we can say that
th
pq
th
q)(
p)
Page 47
GATE QUESTION BANK
11.
[Ans. A]
If
b c
Then, no. of divisors of
(x
)(y
)(z
)
iven
o of ivisors of
(
)(
(
)(
)
which are multiples
13.
14.
15.
[Ans. C]
(x ) , (x)V(x)
Where V(x) is the variance of x,
Since variance is and hence never
negative,
( t le st one he d)
TT )
So required prob bility
equired rob bility

12.
( )
16.
No. of divisors of
of
o of divisors of
(
)(
)
Mathematics
[Ans. B]
Required Probability
= P (getting 6 in the first time)
+ P (getting 1 in the first time and getting
5 or 6 in the second time)
4 or 5 or 6 in the second time)
3 or 4 or 5 or 6 in the second time)
( )
( )
( )
17.
[Ans. C]
The p.d.f of the random variable is
x
+1
P(x) 0.5 0.5
The cumulative distribution function F(x)
is the probability upto x as given below
x
+1
F(x) 0.5 1.0
So correct option is (C)
18.
[Ans. C]
e
(k)
[Ans. A]
+
The five cards are *
Sample space
ordered pairs
st
nd
P (1 card = 2 card + 1)
)( )( )( )+
*(
k
P is no. of cars per minute travelling.
[Ans. D]
y = a x is the correct expression
Since variance of constant is zero.
For no cars. (i.e. k = 0)

For no cars. P(0) e
So P can be either 0,1,2. (i.e. k = 0,1,2)
For k = 1, p(1)=e
[Ans. A]
Let A be the event of head in one coin. B
be the event of head in second coin.
The required probability is
*
) ( )+
(
)| )
( )
(
)
( )
(
)
(both coin he ds)
For k = 2 , P(2)=
Hence
( )
e
e
th
( )
( )
e
4
th
e
5
th
Page 48
GATE QUESTION BANK
e
(
20.
equired prob bility is

(
(
)
( )
(
[Ans. *] Range 0.24 to 0.27

The smaller sticks, therefore, will range in
length from almost 0 meters upto a
maximum of 0.5 meters, with each length
equally possible.
Thus, the average length will be about
0.25 meters, or about a quarter of the
stick.
24.
[Ans. 10]
22 occurs in following ways
6 6 6 4
w ys
6 6 5 5
w ys
[Ans. 0.25]
( ) P(S) = 1
( )
( )
(
)
utu lly exclusive (
)
( )
( )
et ( ) x; ( )
x
P(A) P(B) = x(
x)
Maximum value of y = x (
x)
dy
(
x) x
dx
= 2x = 1
x
equired prob bility
(max)
x
21.
( )
)
e
19.
( )
Mathematics
ximum v lue of y
[Ans. *] Range 11.85 to 11.95

For functioning 3 need to be working
(function)
ECE
1.
[Ans. D]
3 1
6 2
3 1
P(even number )
6 2
Since events are independent, therefore
1 1 1
P(odd/even)
2 2 4
P(Odd number)
p
22.
[Ans. *] Range 3.8 to 3.9

Expected length = Average length of all
words
2.
[Ans. A]
I
omp ring with

(
23.
ut
[Ans. *] Range 0.259 to 0.261

Let A = divisible by 2, B = divisible by 3
and C = divisible by 5, then
n(A) = 50, n(B) = 33, n(C) = 20
n(
)
n(
)
n(
)
n(
)
P( )
rom
x
th
th
dx
dx
dx
nd
x
th
Page 49
GATE QUESTION BANK
Put
3.
in
Probability of failing in paper 2,

P (B) = 0.2
Probability of failing in paper 1, when
equ tion
A
0.6
B
A P A B
We know that, P
PB
B
student has failed in paper 2, P
[Ans. C]
P x.dx 1
Ke
Mathematics
.dx 1
ax
e dx
dx
x x,for x 0
x for x 0
K K
1
a a
( )
= 0.6 0.2
= 0.12
or
( )
7.
[Ans. A]
CDF: F x
PDF
dx
For x<0, F x
x 1
dx
4.
[Ans. D]
. / ( )
P (Y/D) =
. / ( )
. / ( )
=
5.
. / ( )
=0.4
F0
1
2
conc ve upw rds
For x>0, F x F0
x 1
dx
[Ans. A]
var[x]= =E[(x x)2]
Where, x=E[x]
x= expected or mean value of X defining
1 x2

x concave downwards
2 2
Hence the CDF is, shown in the figure (A).
E[X] =
xf xdx
x
8.
[Ans. A]
Given: Px x Me2|x| Ne3|x|
x P xi x xi dx
P xdx 1
x
xiP xi
Variance is a measure of the spread of

the values of X from its mean x.
Using relation , E[X+Y]= E[X]+E[Y]
And E[CX]=CE[X]
On var[x]= =E[(x x)2]
= ,Xx2
= E[X2] [ ,X-]
6.
Me2|x| Ne3|x| dx 2 Me2|x| Ne3|x| dx 1

0
By simplifying
2
3
M N 1
9.
[Ans. B]
x+y=2
x y=0
=> x =1, y = 1
P(x=1,y=1) =
[Ans. C]
Probability of failing in paper 1,
P (A) = 0.3
th
th
= 1/16
th
Page 50
GATE QUESTION BANK
10.
[Ans. C]
14.
Probability of getting head in first toss =

Probability of getting head in second toss
=
[Ans. C]
P(no. of tosses is odd)
(no of tosses is
P(no. of toss is 1) = P(Head in 1st toss)
and in all other 8 tosses there should
P(no. of toss is 3) = P(tail in first toss, tail

in second toss and head in third toss)
be tail always.
So probability of getting head in first two
tosses
(
)(
)(
) (
)
= (1/2)10
P(no. of toss is 5) = P(T,T,T,TH)

. /
11.
Mathematics
[Ans. B]
Both the teacher and student are wrong
Mean =
k
= 0.1 + 0.4 + 1.2 + 0.8 + 0.5
= 3.0
E(x2) =
k
etc
So,
P(no. of tosses in odd)
Variance(x)= E(x2) * (x)+ =10.2 9=1.2

12.
[Ans. D]
P(H, H, H, T) +P (H, H, H, H )
=
13.
. /
. /
15.
[Ans. B]
( V V)
( V
V )
*z
v
v+ Linear combination of
Gaussian random variable is Gaussian
(z )
and not mean till zero
because both random variables has mean
zero hence ( )
Hence Option B is correct
16.
[Ans. D]
F(x) = P{X x}
(x)
* X x+
x
2X
3
. / =
[Ans. C]
Total number of cases = 36
Favorable cases:
(1, 1)
(2, 1)
(3, 1)
(4, 1)
(5, 1)
(6, 1)
(1, 2)
(2, 2)
(3, 2)
(4, 2)
(5, 2)
(6, 2)
(1, 3)
(2, 3)
(3, 3)
(4, 3)
(5, 3)
(6, 3)
(1, 4)
(2, 4)
(3, 4)
(4, 4)
(5, 4)
(6, 4)
(1, 5)
(2, 5)
(3, 5)
(4, 5)
(5, 5)
(6, 5)
(1, 6)
(2, 6)
(3, 6)
(4, 6)
(5, 6)
(6, 6)
Total number of favorable cases
For positive value of x,

(x)
(x) is always greater than zero
For negative value of x
(x)
(x)is ve
ut , (x)
(x)- x
Then probability
th
th
th
Page 51
GATE QUESTION BANK
17.
18.
[Ans. *] Range 0.65 to 0.68

et be different types of f milies nd S
be there siblings.
S
S S (siblings)
Probability that child chosen at random
having sibling is 2/3
(x)
et S
x f(x)
[Ans. C]
21.

Let the first toss be head.
Let x denotes the number of tosses(after
getting first head) to get first tail.
We can summarize the even as
Event(After
x
Probability
getting first H)
T
1
1/2
HT
2
1/2 1/2=1/4
HHT
3
1/8
nd so on
II)gives
)S
(x)
i.e. The expected number of tosses (after
first head) to get first tail is 2 and same
can be applicable if first toss results in
tail.
Hence the average number of tosses is
22.
20.
(I
(II)
(I)
f(x)
(x)
[Ans. *] Range 0.32 to 0.34

This is a tricky question, here, X X X
independent and identically distributed
random variables with the uniform
distribution
, -.
So,
they
are
equiprobable. So X X or X have chances
being largest are equiprobable.
So, [P {X is largest}] or [P {X is largest}]
or [P {X is largest}] =1
and P {X is largest} = P {X is largest} =
P {X is largest}
[Ans. *] Range 49.9 to 50.1

Set of positive odd number less than 100
is 50. As it is a uniform distribution
x (x)
*X is l rgest +
19.
Mathematics
[Ans. *] Range 0.15 to 0.18

X
X
X
X
X
X
et z X
X
X
(X
)
X
X
(z
)
Pdf of z we need to determine. It is the
convolution of three pdf
(z
23.
th
dz
[Ans. *] Range 0.79 to 0.81

|x|
,|x|-
e dx
th
th
Page 52
GATE QUESTION BANK
|x| exp 4
x
x
x exp 4
pr(P Q) pr(P) + pr(Q)

(D) is true
since P Q P
n(P Q) n(P)
pr(P Q) pr(P)
5 dx
5 dx
5 dx
2.
x exp 4
x exp 4
[ exp (
,
24.
|x| exp 4
[Ans. B]
P(A|B) =
5 dx
5 dx
x ) dx]
( he d in tosses nd first toss in he d)

= P(HHT) + P(HTH)
4/5
Parcel is
sent to R
Required probability =
R
3.
1/5
Parcel is lost
Parcel is lost
parcel
is
[Ans. C]
If two fair dices are rolles the probability
distribution of r where r is the sum of the
numbers on each die is given by
r
P(r)
4/5
that
)
( )
Also, P(first toss is head) =
Parcel is sent to
Probability
P(2 heads in 3 tosses | first toss is

head)
( he ds in tosses nd first toss in he d)
(first toss is he d)
[Ans. *] Range 0.43 to 0.45

Pre flow diagram is
1/5
Mathematics
lost
2
Probability that parcel is lost by
3
Probability that parcel is lost by
provided that the parcel is lost
4
5
EE
1.
6
[Ans. D]
(A) is false since of P & Q are
independent
pr(P Q) = pr(P) pr(Q)
which need not be zero.
(B) is false since
pr(P Q)
= pr(P) + pr(Q) pr(P Q)
(C) is false since independence and
mutually exclusion are unrelated
properties.
7
8
9
10
11
12
th
th
th
Page 53
GATE QUESTION BANK
The above table has been obtained by

taking all different all different ways of
obtaining a particular sum. For example, a
sum of 5 can be obtained by (1, 4), (2, 3),
(3, 2) and (4, 1).
P(x = 5) = 4/36
Now let us consider choice (A)
Pr(r > 6) = Pr(r 7)
P(1, 5, 6) =
P(3, 4, 5) =
P(1, 2, 5) =
Choice (C) P(1, 5 and 6) =

5.
is correct.
[Ans. C]
x is uniformly distributes in [0, 1]
Probability density function
=
=
Mathematics
f(x) =
Choice (A) i.e. pr(r > 6) = 1/6 is wrong.

Consider choice (B)
pr(r/3 is an integer)
= pr(r = 3) + pr (r = 6) + pr (r = 9)
+ pr (r = 1)
=1
f(x) = 1 0 < x < 1

Now E(x ) = x f(x)dx
x
dx
=
=
6.
[Ans. B]
Let N people in room. So no. of events that
at least two people in room born at same
date
Choice (B) i.e. pr (r/3) is an integer

= 5/6 is wrong.
Consider choice (C)
Now,
pr(r/4 is an integer) = pr(r = 4)
+ pr (r = 8) + pr (r = 12)
=
=
Solving, we get N = 7
7.
[Ans. C]
(II is red|I is white)
(II is red nd I is white)
(I is white)
(I is white nd II is red)
(I is white)
8.
[Ans. B]
pr(r = 8) =
pr(r = 8 | r/4 is an integer) =
=
Choice (C) is correct.
4.
[Ans. C]
Dice value
1
2
Probability
and
is the entrie
rectangle
The region in which maximum of {x, y} is
less than
is shown below as shaded
region inside this rectangle
5
6
th
th
th
Page 54
GATE QUESTION BANK

y
(
12.
Mathematics
[Ans. *] Range 0.35 to 0.45

(
dx
x|
dx
dx
x|
13.
p .m x,x y-
f(x)dx

f(x) dx
by property
kx dx
k
9.
14.
[Ans. A]
(x
)
,e
10.
e dx
e -
, e -
[Ans. B]
Let number of heads = x,
Number of tails n x
ifference x (n x)or (n
x n or n
x
If x n n
x
n
x
If n
IN
1.
[Ans. D]
=52 weeks and 2 days are extra. Out of

x)
7, (SUN MON) (or) (SAT SUN) are

favorable.
So, Probability of this event=
2.
or x
[Ans. C]
Since the reading taken by the instrument
is normally distributed, hence
P(x
x )
Where,
[Ans. *] Range 0.13 to 0.15
Let proportionality constant = k
( dot) k ( dots)
k
( dots)
k
( dots)
k ( dots)
k
( dots)
k
k
k
k
k
k
k
k
k
rob bility of showing dots
[Ans. D]
Since leap chosen will be random, so, we
assume it being the case of uniform
probability distribution function.
Number of days in a leap year=366 days
As x and n are integers, this is not

possible
Probability 0
11.
Now
.dx
e n of the distribution
St nd rd devi tion of the
distribution.
exp(
)dx
where, n=x 10 (
kg)
and from the data given in question
dx
On equating, we get 0.05=0.84

k
th
th
th
Page 55
GATE QUESTION BANK
3.
[Ans. D]
Mean=
8.
[Ans. B]
By definition of Gaussian distribution,
total area under the curve =1. Hence half
of the area =0.5
9.
[Ans. A]
=5.9 V.
(
V
(closest answer is 0.2)
P(x)=
4.
[Ans. C]
( )
Mean =
( )
x (x)dx =
Var(x)= (x
1 2
3 3
5.
Mathematics
[Ans. A] ]
(x
(x)dx
) dx =
10.
[Ans. C]
Probability of incorrect report
11.
[Ans. C]
mm
mm
Then probability
P(x)dx 1
x dx = 6
Area under triangle =
c
1
2
6.
[Ans. A]
Probability that the sum of digits of two
dices is even is same either both dices
shows even numbers or odd numbers on
the top of the surface
( )
( )
( )
Where
( )
Probability of occurring even
number of both the dices
( )
Probability of occurring odd
number of both the dices
(
(X
where x
mm
( )
So, number of measurement more than

10.15mm
P Total number of measurement
nd (
( )
12.
7.
[Ans. A]
f(x) dx=P
or
or e
.dx =P
[Ans. D]
For the product to be even, the numbers
from both the boxes should not turn out
to be odd simultaneously.
( )
( )( )
or P = .
th
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Page 56
GATE QUESTION BANK
13.
[Ans. A]
f(x)dx
e |
14.
15.
e dx
[Ans. 2]
For valid pdf
Mathematics
dx
pdf dx
;k
[Ans. *] Range 0.890 to 0.899

Probability that job is successfully
processed = (
)(
)
th
th
th
Page 57
GATE QUESTION BANK
Mathematics
Numerical Methods
ME 2005
1.
Starting from x = 1, one step of Newton
Raphson method in solving the equation
x +3x 7=0 gives the next value (x) as
(A) x=0.5
(C) x = .5
(B) x= . 0
(D) x=2
2.
With a 1 unit change in b, what is the

change in x in the solution of the system
of equation
= 2 .0
0.
=
(A) Zero
(C) 50 units
(B) 2 units
(D) 100 units
ME 2006
3.
Match the items in columns I and II.
Column I
Column II
(P) Gauss-Seidel
(1) Interpolation
method
(Q) Forward
(2) Non-linear
Newton-Gauss
differential
method
equations
(R) Runge-Kutta
(3) Numerical
method
integration
(S) Trapezoidal
(4) Linear algebraic
Rule
equation
(A)
2
(B)
2
(C)
2
(D)
2
4.
Equation of the line normal to function

)
f(x) = (x
(A) y = x 5
(B) y = x 5
at (0 5) is
(C) y = x
(D) y = x
5
5
ME 2007
5.
A calculator has accuracy up to 8 digits
2
after decimal place. The value of
sinxdx
0
when evaluated using this calculator by

trapezoidal method with 8 equal
intervals, to 5 significant digits is
(A) 0.00000
(C) 0.00500
(B) 1.0000
(D) 0.00025
ME 2010
6.
Torque exerted on a flywheel over a cycle
is listed in the table. Flywheel energy (in
J per unit cycle) using impsons rule is
Angle (degree)
Torque (N-m)
0
0
60
1066
120
323
180
0
240
323
300
55
360
0
(A) 542
(C) 1444
(B) 992.7
(D) 1986
ME 2011
7.
The integral
dx, when evaluated by
using impsons / rule on two equal

subintervals each of length 1, equals
(A) 1.000
(C) 1.111
(B) 1.098
(D) 1.120
ME 2013
8.
Match the correct pairs.
Numerical
Order of Fitting
Integration Scheme
Polynomial
. impsons
/
1. First
Rule
Q. Trapezoidal Rule 2. Second
. impsons /
3. Third
Rule
(A) P 2 , Q 1, R 3
(B) P 3, Q 2 , R 1
(C) P 1, Q 2 , R 3
(D) P 3, Q 1 , R 2
ME 2014
9.
Using the trapezoidal rule, and dividing
the interval of integration into three equal
sub intervals, the definite integral
|x|dx is ____________
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Page 58
GATE QUESTION BANK
10.
The value of .
( )
value approximate
estimate?
calculated using
the Trapezoidal rule with five sub

intervals is _______
11.
The definite integral
12.
The real root of the equation

5x
2cosx
= 0 (up to two decimal
accuracy) is _______
13.
Consider
an
equation
= t
.If x =x at t = 0 , the
CE 2005
Linked Answer Question 1 and 2
Give a>0, we wish to calculate its
reciprocal value 1/a by using Newton
Raphson Method for f(x) = 0.
2.
The Newton Raphson algorithm for the

function will be
(A) x
= (x
(B) x
= (x
x )
(C) x
= 2x
ax
(D) x
=x
in
the
(C)
(D)
CE 2007
4.
The following equation needs to be
numerically solved using the NewtonRaphson method
x3 + 4x 9 = 0 the iterative equation for
the purpose is (k indicates the iteration
level)
differential
increment in x calculated using RungeKutta fourth order multi-step method

with a step size of t = 0.2 is
(A) 0.22
(C) 0.66
(B) 0.44
(D) 0.88
1.
(A)
(B) 0
value)
is evaluated
using Trapezoidal rule with a step size of

1. The correct answer is _______
ordinary
Mathematics
For a = 7 and starting with x = 0.2 the

first two iteration will be
(A) 0.11, 0.1299
(C) 0.12, 0.1416
(B) 0.12, 0.1392
(D) 0.13, 0.1428
CE 2006
3.
A 2nd degree polynomial f(x) has values of
1, 4 and 15 at x = 0, 1 and 2 respectively.
5.
(A) x
(B) x
(C) x
=x
(D) x
Given that one root of the equation

x
10x + 31x 30 = 0 is 5, the other
two roots are
(A) 2 and
(C) and
(B) 2 and
(D) 2 and
CE 2008
6.
Three values of x and y are to be fitted in
a straight line in the form y = a + bx by
the method of least squares. Given
x = 6, y = 2 x =
and xy =
the values of a and b are respectively
(A) 2 and 3
(C) 2 and 1
(B) 1 and 2
(D) 3 and 2
CE 2009
7.
In the solution of the following set of
linear equation by Gauss elimination
using partial pivoting 5x + y + 2z = 34;
4y 3z = 12; and 10x 2y + z = 4; the
pivots for elimination of x and y are
(A) 10 and 4
(C) 5 and 4
(B) 10 and 2
(D) 5 and 4
The integral f(x) dx is to be estimated

by applying the trapezoidal rule to this
data. What is the error (define as true
th
th
th
Page 59
GATE QUESTION BANK
CE 2010
8.
The table below given values of a function
F(x) obtained for values of x at intervals
of 0.25.
x
0 0.25
0.5 0.75 1.0
F(x) 1 0.9412 0.8 0.64 0.50
The value of the integral of the function
between the limits 0 to using impsons
rule is
(A) 0.7854
(C) 3.1416
(B) 2.3562
(D) 7.5000
CE
9.
2011
The square root of a number N is to be
obtained by applying the Newton
Raphson iterations to the equation
x
= 0. If i denotes the iteration
index, the correct iteration scheme will be
(A) x
(B) x
= (x
= (x
CE 2013
12. Find the magnitude of the error (correct
to two decimal places) in the estimation
of following integral using impsons
Rule. Take the step length as 1.___________
(x
1.
Consider
(D) x
= (x
he error in
xe dx
is 2
1
R
xn1 xn can be used to compute
2
xn
the
(A) square of R
(B) reciprocal of R
(C) square root of R
(D) logarithm of R
0 .
CE 2012
The estimate of .
1
3
to an accuracy of at least 106
The Newton-Raphson iteration
for a continuous
The values of
and ( ) are 19.78 and
500.01, respectively. The corresponding
error in the central difference estimate
for h = 0.02 is approximately
(A) .
0
(C) .5
0
(B) .0
0
(D) .0
0
11.
function estimated with h=0.03 using the

central difference formula
f(x)|
using the trapezoidal rule is

(A) 1000e
(C) 100e
(B) 1000
(D) 100
f(x)|
series
CS 2008
2.
The minimum number of equal length
subintervals needed to approximate
3.
10.
the
= 0.5 obtained from the NewtonRaphson method. The series converges to

(A) 1.5
(C) 1.6
(D) 1.4
(B) 2
= (x
0) dx
CS 2007
(C) x
Mathematics
obtained using
impsons rule with three point function

evaluation exceeds the exact value by
(A) 0.235
(C) 0.024
(B) 0.068
(D) 0.012
CS 2010
4.
Newton-Raphson method is used to
compute a root of the equation
x
13 = 0 with 3.5 as the initial value.
The approximation after one iteration is
(A) 3.575
(C) 3.667
(B) 3.677
(D) 3.607
th
th
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Page 60
GATE QUESTION BANK
CS 2012
5.
The bisection method is applied to
compute a zero of the function
f(x) = x
x
x
in the interval
[1,9]. The method converges to a solution
after ___________ iterations.
(A) 1
(C) 5
(B) 3
(D) 7
CS 2013
6.
Function f is known at the following
points:
x
f(x)
0
0
0.3 0.09
0.6 0.36
0.9 0.81
1.2 1.44
1.5 2.25
1.8 3.24
2.1 4.41
2.4 5.76
2.7 7.29
3.0 9.00
he value of f(x)dx computed using
the trapezpidal rule is
(A) 8.983
(C) 9.017
(B) 9.003
(D) 9.045
CS 2014
7.
The function f(x) = x sin x satisfied the
following equation:
( ) + f(x) + t cos x = 0.
The value of t is _________.
8.
In the Newton-Raphson method, an initial

guess of
= 2 made and the sequence
x x x
.. is obtained for the function
0.75x
2x
2x
=0
Consider the statements
(I) x = 0.
(II) The method converges to a solution
in a finite number of iterations.
Which of the following is TRUE?
(A) Only I
Mathematics
(B) Only II
(C) Both I and II
(D) Neither I nor II
9.
With respect to the numerical evaluation

of the definite integral,
= x dx
where a and b are given, which of the
following statements is/are TRUE?
(I) The value of K obtained using the
trapezoidal rule is always greater
then or equal to the exact value of
the defined integral
(II) The value of K obtained using the
impsons rule is always equal to the
exact value of the definite integral
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) Both I and II
ECE 2005
1.
Match the following and choose the
correct combination
Group I
Group II
(A) Newton1. Solving nonRaphson
linear equations
method
(B) Runge-Kutta
2. Solving linear
method
simultaneous
equations
(C) impsons
3. Solving ordinary
Rule
differential
equations
(D) Gauss
4. Numerical
elimination
integration
method
5. Interpolation
6. Calculation of
Eigen values
(A) A-6, B-1, C-5, D-3
(B) A-1, B-6, C-4, D-3
(C) A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2
(D) A-5, B-3, C-4, D-1
th
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Page 61
GATE QUESTION BANK
ECE 2007
2.
The equation x3 x2+4x 4=0 is to be
solved using the Newton-Raphson
method. If x=2 is taken as the initial
approximation of the solution, then the
next approximation using this method
will be
(A) 2/3
(C) 1
(B) 4/3
(D) 3/2
(A) 2
sin x
..
2 cos x
..
(C) 2
..
(D) 2
..
8.
The series
eXn
1 eXn
X2 eXn 1 Xn 1
(D) Xn1 n
Xn -eXn
ECE 2014
6.
The Taylor expansion of
is
Match the application to appropriate

numerical method.
Application
Numerical
Method
P1:Numerical
M1:Newtonintegration
Raphson Method
P2:Solution to a
M2:Runge-Kutta
transcendental
Method
equation
P3:Solution to a
M : impsons
system of linear
1/3-rule
equations
P4:Solution to a
M4:Gauss
differential equation
Elimination
Method
(A) P1M3, P2M2, P3M4, P4M1
(B) P1M3, P2M1, P3M4, P4M2
(C) P1M4, P2M1, P3M3, P4M2
(D) P1M2, P2M1, P3M3, P4M4
(C) Xn1 1 Xn
ECE 2013
5.
A polynomial
f(x) = a x
a x
a x
a x a
with all coefficients positive has
(A) No real root
(B) No negative real root
(C) Odd number of real roots
(D) At least one positive and one
negative real root
(B) 2
7.
ECE 2008
3.
The recursion relation to solve x=
using Newton-Raphson method is
(A)
=e
(B)
=
e
ECE 2011
4.
A numerical solution of the equation
f(x) = x x
= 0 can be obtained
using Newton Raphson method. If the
starting value is x = 2 for the iteration,
the value of x that is to be used in the next
step is
(A) 0.306
(C) 1.694
(B) 0.739
(D) 2.306
Mathematics
converges to
(A) 2 ln 2
(B) 2
(C) 2
(D) e
EE 2007
1.
The differential equation
is
discretised using Eulers numerical

integration method with a time step
T > 0. What is the maximum permissible
value of T to ensure stability of the
solution of the corresponding discrete
time equation?
(A) 1
(C)
(B) /2
(D) 2
EE 2008
2.
Equation e
= 0 is required to be
solved using ewtons method with an
initial guess x =
. Then, after one
th
th
th
Page 62
GATE QUESTION BANK
step of ewtons method estimate x of

the solution will be given by
(A) 0.71828
(C) 0.20587
(B) 0.36784
(D) 0.00000
3.
A differential equation dx/dt = e u(t)

has to be solved using trapezoidal rule of
integration with a step size h = 0.01 sec.
Function u(t) indicates a unit step
function. If x(0)= 0, then value of x at
t = 0.01 s will be given by
(A) 0.00099
(C) 0.0099
(B) 0.00495
(D) 0.0198
EE 2009
4.
Let x
7 = 0. The iterative steps for
the solution using Newton aphsons
method is given by
(A) x
= (x
(B) x
=x
(C) x
=x
(D) x
=x
EE 2013
7.
When the Newton Raphson method is
applied
to
solve
the
equation
f(x) = x
2x
= 0 the solution at the
end of the first iteration with the initial
guess value as x = .2 is
(A) 0.82
(C) 0.705
(B) 0.49
(D) 1.69
EE 2014
8.
The function ( ) =
is to be
solved using Newton-Raphson method. If
the initial value of is taken as 1.0, then
the absolute error observed at 2nd
iteration is ___________
IN 2006
1.
For k = 0
2
. the steps of
Newton-Raphson method for solving a
non-linear equation is given as
2
5
xk 1 xk xK2 .
3
3
(x
Starting from a suitable initial choice as k

tends to , the iterate tends to
(A) 1.7099
(C) 3.1251
(B) 2.2361
(D) 5.0000
EE 2011
5.
Solution of the variables
and
for the
following equations is to be obtained by
employing the Newton-Raphson iterative
method
equation(i) 0x inx
0. = 0
equation(ii) 0x
0x cosx
0. = 0
Assuming the initial values
= 0.0 and
= .0 the jacobian matrix is
0
0.
0
0.
(A) *
(C) *
+
+
0
0.
0
0.
0 0
0
0
(B) *
(D) *
+
+
0
0
0
0
6.
Mathematics
IN 2007
2.
Identify the Newton-Raphson iteration
scheme for finding the square root of 2.
3.
(A) x
(x
(B) x
= (x
(C) x
(D) x
= 2
The polynomial p(x) = x + x + 2 has

(A) all real roots
(B) 3 real and 2 complex roots
(C) 1 real and 4 complex roots
(D) all complex roots
Roots of the algebraic equation

x
x
x
= 0 are
)
(A) (
(C) (0 0 0)
(B) (
j j)
(D) (
j j)
th
th
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Page 63
GATE QUESTION BANK
IN 2008
4.
It is known that two roots of the
nonlinear equation x3 6x2 +11x 6 = 0
are 1 and 3. The third root will be
(A) j
(C) 2
(B)
j
(D) 4
IN 2013
8.
While numerically solving the differential
equation
The differential equation
with
x(0) = 0 and the constant

0 is to be
numerically integrated using the forward
Euler method with a constant integration
time step T. The maximum value of T such
that the numerical solution of x converges
is
(C)
(A)
(B)
2xy = 0 y(0) =
using
Eulers predictor corrector (improved

Euler Cauchy )method with a step size
of 0.2, the value of y after the first step is
(A) 1.00
(C) 0.97
(B) 1.03
(D) 0.96
IN 2009
5.
Mathematics
IN 2014
9.
The iteration step in order to solve for the
cube roots of a given number N using the
Newton- aphsons method is
(D) 2
(A) x
=x
(B) x
= (2x
(C) x
=x
(D) x
= (2x
x )
)
x )
)
IN 2010
6.
The velocity v (in m/s) of a moving mass,
starting from rest, is given as
=v
t.
Using Eulers forward difference method

(also known as Cauchy-Euler method)
with a step size of 0.1s, the velocity at 0.2s
evaluates to
(A) 0.01 m/s
(C) 0.2 m/s
(B) 0.1 m/s
(D) 1 m/s
IN 2011
7.
The extremum (minimum or maximum)
point of a function f(x) is to be
determined by solving
( )
= 0 using the
Newton-Raphson method.
Let f(x) = x
x and x = 1 be the initial
guess of x. The value of x after two
iterations (x ) is
(A) 0.0141
(C) 1.4167
(B) 1.4142
(D) 1.5000
th
th
th
Page 64
GATE QUESTION BANK
Mathematics

ME
1.
y = sin ( ) =
2
[Ans. C]
By N-R method ,
=x
f(x) = x
f( ) =
x =x
( )
( )
y = sin (
x =
y = sin( ) = 0
5
y = sin ( ) =
y = sin (
f (x) = x
f ( )= ,
=1
) = 0.70 0
)=
7
y = sin ( ) =
[Ans. C]
Given x y = 2
(i)
.0 x 0.0 y = b
(ii)
Multiply 0.99 is equation (i) and subtract
from equation (ii); we get
( .0
0. )x = b (2 0. )
0.02x = b
.
0.02x = b
x =
0.02
[Ans. D]
4.
[Ans. B]
Given f(x) = (x
2
)
f (x) = (x
f(x)dx = [(y
0.70 0
6.
y )
[(0
0)
0.70 0
0.70 0
[(0
y )]
7.
[Ans. C]
x
y=
( 0
0)
2(
2.7 /unit cycle.
Slope of normal = 3
( roduct of slopes = 1)
Slope of normal at point (0, 5)
y 5 = (x 0)
y= x 5
[Ans. A]
b a 2
0
h=
=
=
n
y = sin(0) = 0
0=0
[Ans. B]
ower = = Area under the curve.
h
(y
= [(y
y )
y
y )
Slope of tangent at point (0, 5)

2
) / =
m = (0
2(0.70 0
2(y
2(y
)]
sinx dx =
5.
)=0
Trapezoidal rule
= 50 units
3.
0.70 0
(0.5) = .5
y = sin (
2.
0.70 0
1
1
x
dx = (y
= (
55)
2 )]
2
h
y
2
y )
= .
8.
[Ans. D]
By the definition only
y = sin ( ) = 0.70 0
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Page 65
GATE QUESTION BANK
9.
[Ans. *] Range 1.10 to 1.12
By intermediate value theorem roots lie

be between 0 and 1.
et x = rad = 57. 2
By Newton Raphson method
f(x )
x
=x
f (x )
2x sin x
2 cos x
x
=
5 2 sin x
x = 0.5 2
x = 0.5 25
x = 0.5 2
|x|dx is
h
ydx = [y
2
2(y
0.33
y ]
0.33
|x|dx =
.)
0.33
0.333
2(0.
0.
)]
13.
= . 0
10.
[Ans. *] Range 1.74 to 1.76

2.5
h=
= 0.
5
y
2y
2y
. ln (x)dx = [
2y
y
=
[ln(2.5)
2ln( . )
= .75
11.
2(ln2. )
2y
2 ln( . )
CE
1.
[Ans. *]Range 1.1 to 1.2
t|
x = 0.0
0. = 0.
= 2t
t|
Set up the equation as x =

i.e. = a
f(x)dx = [y
2(y
iven in question
0
1
1
2
1
0.5
dx = [y
x
2
t
x =
2
To calculate using N-R method
rapezoidal rule
x
y
)dt
[Ans. C]
dx by trapezoidal rule
x
h=
[Ans. D]
The variation in options are much, so it
can be solved by integrating directly
dx
= t
dt
dx = ( t
ln( )]
2ln( .7)
Mathematics
..y
)]
a=0
i.e. f(x) =
2
3
0.33
a=0
Now f (x) =
f(x ) =
f (x ) =
2(y )]
For N-R method

= [
2
= .
0.
0.5]
=x
x
12.
[Ans. *] Range 0.53 to 0.56

Let f(x) = 5x 2 cos x
f (x) = 5 2 sin x
f(0) =
f( ) = 2.
=x
)
(
Simplifying which we get

x
= 2x
ax
th
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Page 66
GATE QUESTION BANK
2.
[Ans. B]
For a = 7 iteration equation
Becomes x
= 2x
7x
with x = 0.2
x = 2x
7x = 2 0.2 7(0.2) = 0.12
and x = 2x
7x = 2 0.12 7(0. 2)
= 0.1392
[Ans. A]
f(x) = 1, 4, 15 at x = 0, 1 and 2
respectively
f(x)dx = (f
2f
=x
x
5.
f )
f(x)dx = (1 + 2(4) + 15) = 12
and
4.
= 30
= 5
5 =
5 ( ) =
ince = from (i)
5 ( )
=
=5
=
olving for and
(5 ) =
5
=0
= 2 and =
Alternative method
5
1
0
31
0
0
5
25
30
1
5
6
0
(x 5)(x
)=0
5x
(x 5)(x 2)(x
)=0
x=2 5
x )dx
+ =
2=
[Ans. A ]
Given f(x) = x
x
=0
f (x) = x
Newton Raphson formula is
= (i)
Also
Error = exact Approximate value

=
= 5
Now exact value f(x)dx
= *x
2x
x
Approximate value by rapezoidal ule

= 12
Since f(x) is second degree polynomial, let
f(x) = a0 + a x + a x
f(0) = 1
a
0 0=
a =
f(1) = 4
a
a
a =
1+ a
a =
a
a =
f(2) = 15
a
2a
a = 5
2a
a = 5
2a
a =
Solving (i) and (ii) a =
and a =
f(x) = 1 x + 4 x
x
[Ans. A]
Given
x 10 x + 31x 30 = 0
One root = 5
Let the roots be and of equation
ax + bx + cx + d = 0
(3 points Trapezoidal Rule)

Here h = 1
= (
f(x )
f (x )
(x
x
)
( x
)
x
x
x
( x
)
=x
x
3.
Mathematics
6.
[Ans. D]
Y = a + bx
Given
n= x =
and xy =
th
th
y = 2 x = 14
th
Page 67
GATE QUESTION BANK
Normal equations are

y = na bx
xy = ax bx
Substitute the values and simply
a= b=2
7.
9.
5
[0
0
| 2]
2
0
[0
5
f(x )
f(x )
=x
=x
2x
2x
[x
10.
[Ans. D]
Error in central difference formula is
(h)
This means, error
If error for h = 0.03 is 2
0
then
Error for h = 0.02 is approximately
(0.02)
2
0
0
(0.0 )
11.
[Ans. D]
Exact value of .
| 2]
2
So the pivot for eliminating x is a = 10

Now we eliminate x using this pivot
as follows :
0
2
[0
| 2]
5
2
5
0
2
0
2]
[0
0
2
/2
Now to eliminate y, we need to compare
the elements in second column at and
below the diagonal element Since a = 4
is already larger in absolute value
compares to a = 2
The pivot element for eliminating y is
a = 4 itself.
The pivots for eliminating x and y are
respectively 10 and 4
8.
[Ans. A]
x
[Ans. A]
The equation is
5x + y + 2z = 34
0x + 4y 3z = 12
and 10x 2y + z =
The augmented matrix for gauss
elimination is
5
2
[0
| 2]
0
2
Since in the first column maximum
element in absolute value is 10 we need
to exchange row 1 with row 3
Mathematics
dx = .0
Using impsons rule in three point

form,
b a
.5 0.5
h=
=
= 0.5
n
2
So,
x 0.5 1 1.5
y 2
1 0.67
=
=
0.5
]
[2
0. 7
= .
So, the estimate exceeds the exact value by
Approximate value Exact value
= 1.1116 1.0986
=0.012(approximately)
12.
[Ans. *](Range 0.52 to 0.55)

Using impsons ule
X
0
1
2
3
Y
10
11
26
91
4
266
[Ans. A]
I = h(f
=
0.
= 0.7 5
2f
0.25(
0.
0.
0.5)
(x
f )
2
= [( 0
0)dx
2
2(2 )
)]
= 2 5.
The value of integral
th
th
th
Page 68
GATE QUESTION BANK
(x
0) dx = *
=2
x
5
0x+
3.
[Ans. A]
+
, x = 0.5
2 =
=x =
2 = + R
=R
=
So this iteration will compute the square
root of R
= +
=
8 = 4 +9
=
4.
= = 1.5
[Ans. A]
Here, the function being integrated is
f(x) = xe
f (x) = xe + e = e (x + 1)
f (x) = xe + e + e = e (x + 2)
Since,
both
are
increasing
functions of x, maximum value of f ( ) in
interval 1
2, occurs at = 2 so
(
)|
(2
max |f
=e
2) = e
Truncation Error for trapezoidal rule
= TE (bound)
[Ans. D]
y=x
dy
= 2x
dx
f(x)= x
x
= .5
5.
(b a) max |f ( )| 1
(2 1) [e (2 + 2)]
Now putting
= 57 7
)=5
f(x )
2
oot lies between and
x =(
)=2
f(x ) 0
2
After ' ' interations we get the root
x =(
=
max |f ( )|
[Ans. B]
f( ) = 5
f( ) = 5
72
)
)
f(
0 f(
0
is number of subintervals
= . 07
max |f ( )|
Where
(x
2=+
=
when the series converges x
= 1000 e
At convergence
x
=x =
=
Given x
2.
)/
[Ans. C]
5
Magnitude of error
= 2 5.
2 . = 0.5
CS
1.
Mathematics
6.
[Ans. D]
h
f(x)dx = [f(0)
2
=
0
[
.
.
0.
f( )
2(0.0
0.
. . 7.2 )
2(f )]
]
5 . ]
= 9.045
h=
Now, No. of intervals,
=
th
th
th
Page 69
GATE QUESTION BANK
7.
8.
9.
ECE
1.
2.
[Ans. ]
Given (x) + f(x) + t cos x = 0
and f(x) = x sin x
f (x) = x cos x + sin x
f (x) = x ( sin x) + cos x + cos x
= 2 cos x x sin x
= 2 cos x f (x)
2 cos x f (x) + f(x) +t cos x = 0
2 cos x = tcos x t = 2
[Ans. A]
f(x) = 0.75x
2x
2x
f (x) = 2.25x
x 2
x =2 f = 2 f =
f
x =x
=0
f
f = f = 2
f
x =x
=2
f
f = 2 f =
f
x =x
=0
f
Also, root does not lies between 0 and 1
So, the method diverges if x = 2
nly ( )is true.
x1 2
3.
1 x n
4.
x1 x0
e
e
e xn
1 exn
[Ans. C]
x
f(x )
f (x )
=x
f(2) = (2
) = 2
f (2) =
=2
and
= .
5.
[Ans. D]
f(x) = a x
a x
a x
a x a
If the above equation have complex roots,
then they must be in complex conjugate
pair, because its given all co-efficients are
positive ( they are real )
So if complex roots are even no. (in pair)
then real roots will also be even.
ption ( )is wrong
From the equation
( 0)
roduct of roots =
As no. of roots = 4,
Product of roots < 1
either one root 0
(or)
Product of three roots < 0
ption ( )is rong.
Now, take option (A),
Let us take it is correct .
Roots are in complex conjugate pairs
=
Product of roots
0
| | | |
0 which is not possible
ption (A) is wrong
orrect answer is option ( )
[Ans. C]
By definition (& the application) of
various methods
4=0
Next approximation x1 x0
8 4
12 3
[Ans. C]
Given : f(x)= x e
By Newton Raphson method,
f(x )
x
x
=x
=x
f (x )
[Ans. C]
For value of K if trapezoidal rule is used
then the value is either greater than
actual value of definite integral and if
impsons rule is used then value is exact
Hence both statements are TRUE
[Ans. B]
y(t) =x3 x2 + 4x
x0 = 2
Mathematics
f x0
f ' x0
x03 x02 4x0 4

3x02 2x0 4
th
th
th
Page 70
GATE QUESTION BANK
6.
[Ans. A]
sin x 2 cos x
x
= (x
)
7.
[Ans. B]
8.
[Ans. D]
2(
x
2
Put x =
as given,
x = [e ( 2)
]/e
= 0.71828
[Ans. C]
=e
.. = e
u(t)
x
2
. . x in
t
[Ans. D]
Here,
x = e u(t) dt = f(t) dt
At t = 0.01, x = Area of trapezoidal
=
x
f(x y) =
=(
)x
h
4.
5.
=[
=*
( )
f(x ) = e
f(x ) = e
6.
0x cos x
0x sinx
20x
0sinx
]
0cosx
0
0
is
0
+
0
[Ans. D]
x
x
x
=0
(x
)(x
)=0
x
=0 x
=0
x=
x= j
=x
(
The matrix at x = 0 x =
( )
[Ans. B]
u(x x ) = 0x sin x
0. = 0
v(x x ) = 0x
0x cosx
0. = 0
The Jacobian matrix is
u
u
x
x
v
v
[ x
x ]
[Ans. A]
Here
f(x) = e
f (x) = e
The Newton Raphson iterative equation is
=x
= *x
2
o maximum permissible value of is 2 .
i.e. x
[Ans. A]
since h = here
= x
=x
= 0.0099
or stability |
f(0.0 )] =
= [f(0)
Eulers method equation is

x = x h. f(x y )
x
x
= x h(
)
2.
i=0
x =
as e =
EE
1.
Now put
3.
Mathematics
th
th
th
Page 71
GATE QUESTION BANK
7.
[Ans. C]
x =x
=
.2
Hence, it will have atleast 5 (0+1)= 4

complex roots.
f(x )
f (x )
( .2)
2( .2)
( .2)
2
4.
[Ans. C]
Approach- 1
Given, x3 6x2 + 11x 6 = 0
Or (x 1)(x 3)(x 2) = 0
x= 1, 2, 3.
= 0.705
8.
[Ans. *] Range 0.05 to 0.07

Clearly, x = 0 is root of the equation
f(x) = e
=0
f (x) = e and x = .0
Using ewton raphson method
(e .
)
f(x )
x =x
=
=
f (x )
e.
e
and x = x
f(x )
=
f (x ) e
=
(e
Approach- 2
For ax3 +bx2 + cx +d = 0
If the three roots are p,q,r then
Sum of the roots= p+q+r= b/a
Product of the roots= pqr= d/a
pq+qr+rp=c/a
)
e
5.
[Ans. D]
dx
x
=
dt
f(x, y) =
e
= 0. 7 0.
= 0.0
Absolute error at 2nd itteration is
|0 0.0 | = 0.0
IN
1.
=x
h
=(
[Ans. A]
As k xk+1 xk
xk = x
h (x y ) = x
)x
2.
3.
h(
or stability |
x = x
x =5
x =5
Mathematics
= 1.70
[Ans. A]
Assume x =
f(x) = x
=0
f(x )
x
=x
= [x
f (x ) 2
6.
[Ans. A]
dv
=v t
dt
t
v dv
=v t
dt
0 0 0 0+0 0. = 0
0.1 0 0+0.1 0. = 0.0
7.
[Ans. C]
f(x) = x
x
f (x) = x
= g(x)
x = initial guess
g (x) = x
g (x )
x =x
g (x )
2
]
x
[Ans. C]
Given p(x) = x + x + 2
There is no sign change, hence at most 0
positive root ( rom escartes rule of
signs)
p( x) = x
x+2
There is one sign change, hence at most 1
negative root ( rom escartes rule of
signs)
th
th
th
Page 72
GATE QUESTION BANK
=
x =x
= .5
= .
= .5
g(x )
g (x )
0.75
7
8.
[Ans. D]
dy
= 2xy x = 0 y = h = 0.2
dx
y =y
h. f(x y )
(0.2)f(0 ) =
=
and y = y
[f(x y ) f(x y )]
(0. )[f(0 ) f(0.2 )]
=
= 0.
is the value of y after first step, using
Eulers predictor corrector method
9.
[Ans. B]
For convergence
x
Mathematics
= x =x x=
x =
(2x
x=
th
th
th
Page 73
GATE QUESTION BANK
Mathematics
Calculus
ME 2005
1.
ME 2006
The line integral of the vector

function ( ) 2xyz + xz +
ky from
the origin to the point P (1,1,1)
(A) is 1
(B) is Zero
(C) is 1
(D) cannot be determined without
specifying the path
2.
be
(A)
(B)
8.
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
Changing the order of the integration in

the double integral I =
What is q?
(A)
(C) X
(D) 8
)
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
10.
(A) 0
(B)
is equal to
11.
(C)
(D) 1
The area of a triangle formed by the tips

of vectors a , b and c is
(A)
)(
(D) Zero
(B)
|(
Stoke theorem connects

(A) A line integral and a surface integral
(B) Surface integral and a volume
integral
(C) A line integral and a volume integral
(D) Gradient of function and its surface
integral
(C)
(D)
(C) 2 (
ME 2007
(B) 2
6.
1 and t is a real number,
Let x denote a real number. Find out the

INCORRECT statement
+ represents the set if all
(A) S *
real numbers greater then 3
+ represents the empty
(B) S *
set
+ represents the
(C) S *
union of set A and set B
+ represents the set
(D) S *
of all real umbers between a and b,
where and b are real number
leads to
(A) 4y
(B) 16y
(C) 0
(D)
dt is:
9.
4.
By a change of variables
x(u,v) = uv, y(u,v) = v/u is double
integral, the integral f(x,y) changes to
f(uv, u/v) ( ). Then, ( )
(A) 2 v/u
(C) v
(B) 2 u v
(D) 1
I = (
2x2 7x 3
, then limf(x) will
x 3
5x2 12x 9
Assuming i =
The right circular cone of largest volume

that can be enclosed by a sphere of 1 m
radius has a height of
3.
5.
If f( x ) =
7.
th
th
)
(
)|
|
)
th
Page 74
GATE QUESTION BANK
12.
If
y (2) =
(A) 4 or 1
(B) 4 only
13.
, then
14.
20.
The divergence of the vector field

) (
) is
(x y) (
(A) 0
(C) 2
(B) 1
(D) 3
21.
Let
(C) 1
(D) 1/ln2
y2 4x and x2 4y is
(A)
(B) 8
23.
(C)
(D) 16
The distance between the origin and the

point nearest to it on the surface
The directional derivative of the scalar
z2 1 xy is
function f(x, y, z) = x2 2y2 z at the
(A) 1
point P = (1, 1, 2) in the direction of the

vector
is
(A) 4
(C) 1
(B) 2
(D) 1
at x=2, y=1?
ME 2009
22. The area enclosed between the curves
Which of the following integrals is

unbounded?
(C)
(A)
(D)
What is
(A) 0
(B) ln2
The length of the curve
(B)
16.
In the Taylor series expansion of ex about

x = 2, the coefficient of (x 2)4 is
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
The minimum value of function y = x2 in

the interval [1, 5] is
(A) 0
(C) 25
(B) 1
(D) Undefined
between x = 0 and x = 1 is
(A) 0.27
(C) 1
(B) 0.67
(D) 1.22
15.
19.
(C) 1 only
(D) Undefined
ME 2008
Mathematics
(C)
(D) 2
(B)
24.
A path AB in the form of one quarter of a

circle of unit radius is shown in the figure.
Integration of x y on path AB
2
17.
Consider the shaded triangular region P

shown in the figure. What is xydxdy?
y
18.
The value of
(A)
(B)
x+2y=2
0
(A)
(B)
traversed in a counter-clockwise sense is
(C)
(D) 1
(C)
(D)
25.
is
th
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D) 1

at a point (1,1,1) is
equal to
(A) 7
(C) 3
(B) 4
(D) 0
th
th
Page 75
GATE QUESTION BANK
ME 2010
26. Velocity vector of a flow field is given as
. The vorticity vector at

(1, 1, 1) is
(A) 4
(B) 4
27.
The function
(A)
o
o
(C)
(D)
(B)
o
o
except at x = 3/2
(C)
o
o
except at x = 2/3
(D)
o
o
28.
29.
ME 2012
33. Consider the function ( )
in the
interval
. At the point x = 0,
f(x) is
(A) Continuous and differentiable.
(B) Non continuous and differentiable.
(C) Continuous and non differentiable.
(D) Neither continuous nor
differentiable.
R
R
R
R
34.
R
R
ME 2011
30. If f(x) is an even function and is a positive
real number, then ( )dx equals
31.
What is
(A)
(B)
32.
36.
For the spherical surface

the unit outward
normal vector at the point
is
(C)
(D)
(C)
(B)
(C)
is
(A)
(B)
has
(C)
(D)
37.
equal to?
A series expansion for the function

(A)
( )
(C) 0
(D) 1
(C) 1
(D) 2
At x = 0, the function f(x) =

(A) A maximum value
(B) A minimum value
(C) A singularity
(D) A point of inflection
R except at x = 3
(D)
/ is
35.
The parabolic arc

is
revolved around the x-axis. The volume of

the solid of revolution is
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
(A) 0
(B)
.
(A) 1/4
(B) 1/2

(A)
(B)
Mathematics
The area enclosed between the straight

line y = x and the parabola y = in the
x y plane is
(A) 1/6
(C) 1/3
(B) 1/4
(D) 1/2
ME 2013
38. The following surface integral is to be
evaluated over a sphere for the given
steady velocity vector field
defined with respect to a
cartesian coordinate system having i, j and
k as unit base vectors.
(
(D)
th
th
)
th
Page 76
GATE QUESTION BANK
Where S is the sphere,

and n is the outward unit normal vector to
the sphere. The value of the surface
integral is
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
39.
45.
If a function is continuous at a point,

(A) the limit of the function may not exist
at the point
(B) the function must be derivable at the
point
(C) the limit of the function at the point
tends to infinity
(D) the limit must exist at the point and
the value of limit should be same as
the value of the function at that point
The value of the definite integral

( )
is
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
46.
Divergence of the vector field

(
) is
(A) 0
(C) 5
(B) 3
(D) 6
(C) 3
(D)Not defined
47.
ME 2014
40.
is
(A) 0
(B) 1
41.
Which one of the following describes the

relationship among the three vectors
(A) The vectors are mutually

perpendicular
(B) The vectors are linearly dependent
(C) The vectors are linearly independent
(D) The vectors are unit vectors
42.
/ is equal to
(A) 0
(B) 0.5
43.
)
)
)
(
(A) 3
(B) 0
48.
(C) 1
(D) 2

is
(
(C) (
(B) (
(D) .
(A)
)
/
).
Where, c is the square cut from the first

quadrant by the lines x = 1 and y = 1 will
(
G
h o
o h
h
line integral into double integral)
(A)
(C)
(B) 1
(D)
(
(
CE 2005
1.
Value of the integral (
(C) 1
(D) 2
Curl of vector
(A) (
(B) (
(C)
(D)
44.
Mathematics
2.
A rail engine accelerates from its

stationary position for 8 seconds and
travels a distance of 280 m. According to
the
Mean
Value
theorem,
the
speedometer at a certain time during
acceleration must read exactly.
(A) 0 kmph
(C) 75 kmph
(B) 8 kmph
(D) 126 kmph
The best approximation of the minimum

value attained by
(100x) for
is _______
th
th
th
Page 77
GATE QUESTION BANK
CE 2006
3.
What is the area common to the circles
o
2
(A) 0.524 a
(C) 1.014 a2
(B) 0.614 a2
(D) 1.228 a2
4.
The directional derivative of

f(x, y, z) = 2 + 3 + at the point
P (2, 1, 3) in the direction of the vector
a=
k is
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
CE 2007
5.
Potential function is given as
=
. When will be the stream
function () with the condition
= 0 at x = y = 0?
(A) 2xy
(C)
(B)
+
(D) 2
6.
Evaluate
(C)
(D)
(A)
(B)
7.
10.
12.
transformed to
(A)
(B)
9.
(C)
(D) 18
parabola is y = 4h
(A)
(D)
(C)
= 0 by substituting
(C)
where x is the
horizontal coordinate and y is the vertical

coordinate with the origin at the centre of
the cable. The expression for the total
length of the cable is
= 0 can be
(D)
14.
The
is
(A) 2/3
(B) 1
The inner (dot) product of two vectors

and is zero. The angle (degrees)
between in two vectors is
(A) 0
(C) 90
(B) 30
(D) 120
(C) 40.5
(D) 54.0
(B) 2
is
CE 2010
13. A parabolic cable is held between two
supports at the same level. The horizontal
span between the supports is L. The sag at
the mid-span is h. The equation of the
CE 2008
+
For a scalar function

f(x, y, z) =
the directional
derivative at the point P(1, 2, 1) in the
is
direction of a vector
(A)
(B)
A velocity is given as
= 5xy + 2 y2 + 3yz2 . The divergence
The equation
The value of (
(A) 13.5
(B) 27.0
CE 2009
11. For a scalar function
f(x, y, z) = + 3 + 2 the gradient at
the point P (1, 2, 1) is
(A) 2 + 6 + 4
(C) 2 + 12 + 4
(D)
(B) 2 + 12 4
of this velocity vector at (1 1 1) is

(A) 9
(C) 14
(B) 10
(D) 15
8.
Mathematics
15.
th
(C) 3/2
(D)
Given a function
( )
The optimal value of f(x, y)
th
th
Page 78
GATE QUESTION BANK
(A) Is a minimum equal to 10/3

(B) Is a maximum equal to 10/3
(C) Is a minimum equal to 8/3
(D) Is a maximum equal to 8/3
CE 2013
21.
CE 2011
16.
22.
(C) a
(D) 2a
magnitudes a and b respectively. | |

will be equal to
(A)
( )
(C)
+ ( )
(B) ab
(D) ab +
CE 2012
19. For the parallelogram OPQR shown in the
sketch,
and
R
.
The area of the parallelogram is
Q
(C) 1
(D)
24.
A particle moves along a curve whose

parametric equation are :
and z = 2 sin (5t), where x, y
and z show variations of the distance
covered by the particle (in cm) with time
t (in s). The magnitude of the acceleration
of the particle (in cm ) at t = 0 is
___________
25.
If {x} is a continuous, real valued random

variable defined over the interval
(
) and its occurrence is defined
by the density function given as:
(C) 1
(D)
If and are two arbitrary vectors with
R
P
( )
wh
the statistical attributes of the random

variable {x}. The value of the integral
(A) ad bc
(B) ac+bd
With reference to the conventional

Cartesian (x, y) coordinate system, the
vertices of a triangle have the following
coordinates:
(
)
( ) (
)
( )
(
)
( ). The area of the
triangle is equal to
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
(A) 0
(B)
(C) ad + bc
(D) ab cd
dx is
(A) 1
(B) 0.5
The infinity series
(A) sec
(B)
(C) 1
(D) 8/3
23.
20.
(A)
(B)
Wh ho
h
o such that
the function defined below is continuous
?
f(x)={
18.
The value of
(A) 0
(B) 1/15
CE 2014
(A) 0
(B) a/2
17.
Mathematics
26.
(C) o
(D)
(C)
(D)
The expression
(A) log x
(B) 0
th
th
(C) x log x
(D)
th
Page 79
GATE QUESTION BANK
CS 2005
1.
Let G(x)
CS 2010
1
g(i)xi where |x|<1.
2
(1 x) i0
What is g(i)?
(A) i
(B) i+1
(C) 2i
(D) 2i
CS 2007
2.
Consider the following two statements
about the function f(x) =|x|:
P: f(x) is continuous for all real values of x
Q: f(x) is differentiable for all real values
of x
Which of the following is true?
(A) P is true Q is false
(B) P is false Q is true
(C) Both P and Q are true
(D) Both P and Q are false
CS 2008
3.
4.
x sinx
equals
Lim
x x cosx
(A) 1
(B) 1
(C)
(D)
Let
P=
7.
What is the value of

(A) 0
(B)
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C)
(D) 1
(A) 0
(B) 2
(C) i
(D) i
CS 2012
9.
Consider the function f(x)= sin(x) in the
interval x , -. The number and
location(s) of the local minima of this
function are
(A) One , at
(B) One , at
(C) Two , at and
(D) Two , at and
CS 2013
10. Which one the following function is
continuous at x =3?
(A) ( )
(B) ( )
(C) ( )
(D) ( )
CS 2014
11. Let the function
( )
CS 2009
6.
/ ?
A point on a curve is said to be extreme if

it is a local minimum or a local maximum.
The number of distinct extrema for the
4
3
2
curve 3x 16x 24x 37 is
(A) 0
(C) 2
(B) 1
(D) 3
CS 2011
8.
Given i = , what will be the
evaluation of the definite integral
where k is a positive integer. Then

(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
5.
Mathematics
(
(
Where
evaluates to
o
o (
o (
)
)
)
)
(
(
)|
)
1 and ( ) denote the
derivation of f with respect to . Which of

the following statements is/are TRUE?
(I) There exists
(C) ln2
(D)
ln 2
.
th
th
h h
th
( )
Page 80
GATE QUESTION BANK
(II) There exists

.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
12.
13.
14.
(A)
h h
( )
I only
II only
Both I and II
Neither I nor II
(B)
A function f (x) is continuous in the

interval [0, 2]. It is known that
f(0) = f(2) = 1 and f(x) = 1. Which one
of the following statements must be true?
(A) There exists a y in the interval (0,1)
such that f(y) = f(y + 1)
(B) For every y in the interval (0, 1),
f(y) = f(2 y)
(C) The maximum value of the function
in the interval (0, 2) is 1
(D) There exists a y in the interval (0, 1)
such that f(y)
(
)
(C)
(D)
ECE 2006
2.
As x is increased from
function f x
If and are 4 dimensional subspace

of a 6 dimensional vector space V, then
the smallest possible dimension of
is ____________.
If
dx = , then the value of k
e
1 ex
3
The integral sin d is given by
3.
1
2
2
(B )
3
(A)
(B)
, the
The value of the integral given below is
to
(A) monotonically increases

(B) monotonically decreases
(C) increases to a maximum value and
then decreases
(D) decreases to a minimum value and
then increases
is equal to_______.
15.
Mathematics
4
3
8
(D)
3
(A)
(C)
(D)
ECE 2005
1.
The derivative of the symmetric function
drawn in given figure will look like
(C)
P ds , where P is a vector, is
4.
equal to
(A) P dl
(C) P dl
(B) P dl
(D)
Pdv
P , where P is a vector, is equal to
5.
th
2
(A) P P P
(C) 2P P
2
(B) P P
(D) P 2P
th
th
Page 81
GATE QUESTION BANK
ECE 2007
6.
For the function
, the linear
approximation around = 2 is
(A) (3 x)
(B) 1 x
ECE 2008
12. Consider points P and Q in the x y plane,
with P=(1,0) and Q=(0,1). The line
Q
integral 2 xdx ydy along the
(C) 3 2 2 1 2 x e
semicircle with the line segment PQ as its

diameter
(A) is 1
(B) is 0
(C) is 1
(D) depends on the direction (clockwise
or anticlockwise) of the semicircle
(D)
7.
8.
9.
10.
For x <<1, coth(x) can be

approximated as
(A) x
(C)
(B) x2
(D)
In the Taylor series expansion of

exp(x)+sin(x) about the point x= the
coefficient of (x )2 is
()
(A)
()
(C)
()
()
(B)
(D)
14.
Which of the following functions would

have only odd powers of x in its Taylor
series expansion about the point x=0?
(A) sin(x3)
(C) cos(x3)
2
(B) sin(x )
(D) cos(x2)
15.
The value of the integral of the function

g(x, y)=4x3+10y4 along the straight line
segment from the point (0,0) to the point
(1,2) in the x y plane is
(A) 33
(C) 40
(B) 35
(D) 56
16.
For real values of x, the minimum value of

the function f(x)=exp(x)+ exp( x) is
(A) 2
(C) 0.5
(B) 1
(D) 00
17.
Consider points P and Q in the x-y plane,

with P=(1, 0) and Q= (0, 1).
Which one of the following function is

strictly bounded?
2
(A)
(C) x
x
(B) e
(D)
(A) 0.5
(B) 1
11.
13.
Consider the function f(x) =
x 2.
The maximum value of f(x) in the closed
interval [ 4,4] is
(A) 18
(C) 2.25
(B) 10
(D) Indeterminate
sin /2
lim
is
0
(C) 2
(D) not defined
The following Plot shows a function y

which varies linearly with x. The value of
2
the integral I ydx is

1
Y
3
2
) along
(
the semicircle with the line segment PQ as
its diameter
(A) Is
(B) Is 0
(C) Is 1
h
1
1
Mathematics
(A) 1.0
(B) 2.5
(C) 4.0
(D) 5.0
th
th
th
Page 82
GATE QUESTION BANK
(D) Depends on the direction

(clockwise or anti-clockwise) of the
semicircle
21.
ECE 2009
18. The Taylor series expansion of
sinx
at x is given by
x
(A) 1
x 2 .....
3!
(B)
2
x
1
.....
(C)
2
x
1
.....
the value of the integral

(A) 3V
(B) 5V
3!
19.
3!
.....
If a vector field is related to another

, which
vector field through =
of the following is true? Note: C and
refer to any closed contour and any
surface whose boundary is C.
(A) =
(B) =
(C)
(D)
ECE 2010
20. If
, then over the

path shown in the figure is
(A) 0
(B)
is
(C) 10V
(D) 15V
ECE\IN 2012
23. The direction of vector A is radially
outward from the origin, with
where
and K is
constant. The value of n for which
. A = 0 is
(A) 2
(C) 1
(B) 2
(D) 0
ECE\EE 2012
24. The maximum value of
( )
in the interval
[1,6] is
(A) 21
(C) 41
(B) 25
(D) 46
ECE 2013
25. The maximum value of unit which the
approximation
holds to within
10% error is
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
26.
, then has a
maximum at
minimum at
maximum at
minimum at
ECE 2011
22. Consider a closed surface S surrounding a
volume V. If is the position vector of a
point inside S, with the unit normal of S,
3!
(D) 1
If
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Mathematics
is
(A) 0
(B) 1/3
(C) 1
(D) 3
(C) 1
(D) 2
th
th
th
Page 83
GATE QUESTION BANK
27.
Consider a vector field ( ) The closed

loop line integral can be expressed
as
) over the closed
(A) (
surface boundary by the loop
(B) ( )dv over the closed volume
bounded by the loop
(C) ( )dv over the open volume
bounded by the loop
) over the closed surface
(D) (
bounded by the loop
Mathematics
34.
The magnitude of the gradient for the

function (
)
at the
point (1,1,1) is_______.
35.
The directional derivative of

( )
(
) ( )in the direction
of the unit vector at an angle of with

y axis, is given by ________________.
EE 2005
1.
For the scalar field u =
, magnitude
of the gradient at the point (1, 3) is

ECE 2014
28. The volume under the surface
z(x, y) = x+y and above the triangle in
the x-y plane defined by
{0 y x and 0 x 12} is______
29.
30.
For
function ( )
(A)
o
(B)
o
The value of
the maximum value of the

occurs at
(C)
(D)
o
.
(A)
(B)
(B)
2.
For the function f(x) =

, the
maximum occurs when x is equal to
(A) 2
(C) 0
(B) 1
(D) 1
3.
If S =
/ is
31.
The maximum value of the function

( )
(
)
(wh
)
occurs at x =____.
32.
The maximum value of

( )
0 x 3 is ______.
in the interval
EE 2006
4.
A surface S(x, y) = 2x + 5y 3 is
integrated once over a path consisting of
the points that satisfy
(x+1)2+ (y 1)2 = . The integral
evaluates to
(A) 17
(C) /17
(D) 0
(B) 17/
5.
33.
, then S has the value

(C)
(D) 1
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(C)
(D)
(A)
The expression V = R (
for the volume of a cone is equal to
For a right angled triangle, if the sum of

the lengths of the hypotenuse and a side
is kept constant, in order to have
maximum area of the triangle, the angle
between the hypotenuse and the side is
(A) 12
(C) 60
(B) 36
(D) 45
th
(A) R (
(B) R (
(C)
(D)
th
R) h
R )
th
Page 84
GATE QUESTION BANK
EE 2007
6.
EE 2010
The integral
equals
(A)
(B) 0
) o
EE 2009
8.
f(x, y) is a continuous function defined
over (x, y) [0, 1] [0, 1]. Given the two
constraints, x > and y > , the
volume under f(x, y) is
(A)
(B)
(C)
9.
10.
11.
a minimum
a discontinuity
a point of inflection
a maximum
Divergence of the three-dimensional

radial vector field is
(A) 3
(C)
(B) 1/r
(D)
(
)
13.
The value of the quantity P, where
(A) 0
(B) 1
, is equal to
(C) e
(D) 1/e
EE 2011
14. The two vectors [1, 1, 1] and [1, a,
where a = .
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
A cubic polynomial with real coefficients

(A) can possibly have no extrema and no
zero crossings
(B) may have up to three extrema and
upto 2 zero crossings
(C) cannot have more than two extrema
and more than three zero crossings
(D) will always have an equal number of
extrema and zero crossings
has
12.
)
(
At t = 0, the function ( )
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(C) (1/2) o
(D) (1/2)
EE 2008
7.
Consider function f(x)= (
) where
x is a real number. Then the function has
(A) only one minimum
(B) only two minima
(C) three minima
(D) three maxima
(D)
Mathematics
15.
],
/, are
orthonormal
orthogonal
parallel
collinear
The function f(x) = 2x

has
(A) a maxima at x = 1 and a minima at
x=5
(B) a maxima at x = 1 and a minima at
x= 5
(C) only a maxima at x = 1
(D) only a minima at x = 1
EE 2013
16. Given a vector field
, the line integral
F(x, y) = (
)
(
)
line integral over the straight line from

(
) = (0, 2) to (
) = (2, 0)
evaluates to
(A) 8
(C) 8
(B) 4
(D) 0
evaluated along a segment on the x

axis from x = 1 to x = 2 is
(A) 2.33
(C) 2.33
(B) 0
(D) 7
17.
th
The curl of the gradient of the scalar field

defined by
(A)
th
th
Page 85
GATE QUESTION BANK
(B)
(C) (
(
(D)
19.
20.
21.
23.
( )
Where f and
v are scalar and vector fields respectively.
If
h
is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
24.
The minimum value of the function

( )
0 in the
interval ,
- is
(A) 20
(C) 16
(B) 28
(D) 32
EE 2014
18. Let ( )
. The maximum value of
the function in the interval (
) is
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
The line integral of function
, in the
counterclockwise direction, along the
circle
is
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
Minimum of the real valued function
(
) occurs at x equal to
( )
(A)
(C) 1
(B)
(D)
IN 2005
1.
A scalar field is given by f = x2/3 + y2/3,
where x and y are the Cartesian
coordinates. The derivative of f along the
line y = x directed away from the origin,
at the point (8, 8) is
To evaluate the double integral

.
( )
substitution u = (
/ dy, we make the

) and
2.
( ) (
( ) (
( ) (
(A)
(B)
(A)
(B) 0
3.
( )
is
(C) f(1)
(D) f(0)

(A) 2
(B) does not exist
(C)
(D)
is
2
(t) has a constant magnitude,

If a vector R
then
4.
A particle, starting from origin at t = 0 s,

is traveling along x-axis with velocity
o . /
(D)
f(t) defined over [0,1],
(A) R
22.
(C)
Given a real-valued continuous function
. The
integral will reduce to

( ) (
Mathematics
(B) R
5.
(C) R
(D) R
If f =
+
+
where ai (i = 0 to n) are constants,
At t = 3 s, the difference between the

distance covered by the particle and the
magnitude of displacement from the
origin is _________
then
is
(A)
(B)
th
th
(C) nf
(D) n
th
Page 86
GATE QUESTION BANK
6.
The plot of a function f(x) is shown in the

following figure. A possible expression for
the function f(x) is
f(x)
(B) once differentiable but not twice

(C) twice differentiable but not thrice
(D) thrice differentiable
11.
0
(A)
(C)
(B)
. /
(D)
. /
IN 2006
7.
The function
(
) is
approximated as
where is in
radian. The maximum value of for
which the error due to the approximation
is within
(A) 0.1 rad
(C) 0.3 rad
(B) 0.2 rad
(D) 0.4 rad
()
( )
(A) (
()
))
(B) (
()
))
()
))
()
))
()
(D) (
) ( )
( ))
( ))
13.
The expression
(A)
(B) x
14.
Given y =
(A)
(B)
10.
(C)
(D)
Consider the function f(x) =

, where x
is real. Then the function f(x) at x = 0 is
(A) continuous but not differentiable
+ 2x + 10, the value of
(C) 12
(D) 13
15.
(A) Indeterminate
(B) 0
(C) 1
(D)
IN 2009
16. A sphere of unit radius is centered at the
origin. The unit normal at a point (x, y, z)
on the surface of the sphere is
(A) (x, y, z)
(C) .
/
IN 2007
9.
dx dy is.
for x > 0 is equal to

(C)
(D)
is equal to
(A) 0
(B) 4
(B) .
(C)
(D)
is.
IN 2008
12. Consider the function y = x2 6x + 9. The
maximum value of y obtained when x
varies over the interval 2 to 5 is
(A) 1
(C) 4
(B) 3
(D) 9
The solution of the integral equation

()
(C)
For real x, the maximum value of

(A) 1
(B) e 1
8.
Mathematics
(D) .
IN 2010
17. The electric charge density in the region
R:
is given as
( )
, where x and y are in
meters. The total charge (in coulomb)
contained in the region R is
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D) 0
th
th
th
Page 87
GATE QUESTION BANK
18.
The integral
evaluates to
(A) 6
(B) 3
19.
/ sin(t) dt
23.
A scalar valued function is defined

as ( )
, where A is a
symmetric positive definite matrix with
dimension n n ; b and x are vectors of
dimension n1. The minimum value of
( ) will occur when x equals
)
(A) (
(C) .
/
)
(B) (
(D)
24.
Given
()
()
o .
(C) 1.5
(D) 0
The infinite series

( )
converges to
(A) cos (x)
(B) sin(x)
(C) sinh(x)
(D)
IN 2011
20.
The series
for
(A)
(B)
Mathematics
The
o w
(A) A circle
(B) A multi-loop closed curve
(C) Hyperbola
(D) An ellipse
converges
(C)
(D)
IN 2013
21. For a vector E, which one the following
statement is NOT TRUE?
(A)
E
E
o o
(B) If
E
E is called conservative
(C) If
E
E is called irrotational
(D)
E
E
-rotational
IN 2014
22. A vector is defined as
are unit vectors in

Where
Cartesian (
) coordinate system.
The surface integral f.ds over the
closed surface S of a cube with vertices
having the following coordinates:
(0,0,0),(1,0,0),(1,1,0),(0,1,0),(0,0,1),
(1,0,1),(1,1,1),(0,1,1) is________
th
th
th
Page 88
GATE QUESTION BANK
Mathematics

ME
1.
=
=
Since, potential function of is xyz

(
) (
)
(
)
2.
0 o
[Ans. A]
[Ans. D]
o
9.
[Ans. B]
10.
[Ans. B]
(
For V to be max
This is of the form . /
Hence, h
Applying L hospital rule

(
3.
[Ans. A]
. /
=
(
=
=
11.
4.
[Ans. A]
(
After changing order

5.
[Ans. A]
I= (
=2
[Ans. B]
Let the vectors be
)
( )( )( )
= 2
6.
[Ans. A]
A Line integral and a surface integral is
connected by stokes theorem
7.
[Ans. B]
Now Area vector will be perpendicular to

plane of
i.e.
will be the required unit vector.
And option (A), (D) cannot give a vector
product
)|
|( ) (
12.
[Ans. B]
Applying Hospital rule, we get

I=
8.
[Ans. A]
Given:
I=
For
0 1
]
th
th
th
Page 89
GATE QUESTION BANK
13.
14.
But y is always greater than x.

Hence y= 4 only.
[Ans. B]
Since interval given is bounded, so
minimum value of functions is 1.
= 0
Now by partial fractions,

(a3 8) = (a 2)(a2+2a+4)
) |
L=
[Ans. D]
To see whether the integrals are bounded
or unbounded, we need to see that the
o
h
h
interval of integration. Let us write down
the range of the integrands in the 4
options,
Thus, (D) , i.e.,
[Ans. B]
h
19.
o
(
). (
( )
( )
( )
( )
Coefficient of (x- )
Now f(x)= ex
(x)= ex
(a)= ea
( )
Hence for a=2,

20.
[Ans. D]
div {(
(
Hence directional derivative is

(grad (x2+2y2+z)).
[Ans. C]
Taylor series expansion of f(x) about a is
given by
( )
dx is unbounded.
along a vector
(2x
(
(
A (0,1); B (0,1); C (0, ); D (0, )
16.
[Ans. B]
Let x= a3 a=2
=1.22
15.
).dx
= (
L=
L = (
=
18.
= (
[Ans. D]
h
Mathematics
)
(
)}
(
)
=3
21.
[Ans. C]
=
Hence at (1,1,2),
Directional derivative =
17.
[Ans. A]
I = .dx dy
The limit of y is form 0 to
and limit
of x from 0 to 2
I =
( )
(
(
)(
)
)
/
th
th
th
Page 90
GATE QUESTION BANK
22.
[Ans. A]
Given:
23.
y2 4x
x2 4y
Mathematics
[Ans. A]
Short method:
Take a point on the curve z = 1, x = 0,
y=0
Length between origin and this point
)
(
)
(
) =1
(
This is minimum length because all
options have length greater than 1.
(4,4)
(0,0)
24.
x4
4x
16
[Ans. B]
Y
or x4 64x
or x(x 64) 0
3
or x3 64
or x 4
x = cos
y=sin
y 4
Required area = .
Path is x2 y2 1
R e
(x y)2 1 2sin cos
2 x3
2 x3 2
3 120
4
64
(4)3 2
3
12
32 16 16

3 3 3
cos2
(1 sin2)d
2 0
0
=
Alternately
For point where both parabolas cut each
other
1 1
1
2 2 2 2
Alternately
Given: x2 y2 1
Put x=cos , and y=sin
y2 4x, x2 4y
x y 2 cos2 sin2 2sincos
x 4 4x
2
= 1 sin2
or x2 8 x
or x4 64x
or x3 64
x 4,0 ,(4,0)
x2
dx
0 4

1
2
4x
0
cos2
1 1

2 0 2 2 2
Required area
4
2 x3 16
2 x3 2
3 120 3
25.
[Ans. C]
F 3xzi 2xyj yz2k

th
th
th
Page 91
GATE QUESTION BANK
3z 2x 2yz
At point (1, 1, 1), divergence =3+2 2=3

26.
30.
||
31.
(
27.
( )
[Ans. D]
Standard limit formulae
32.
[Ans. B]
33.
[Ans. C]
The function is continuous in [ 1, 1]
It is also differentiable in [ 1, 1] except at
x = 0.
Since Left derivative = 1 and
Right derivative = 1 at x = 0
34.
[Ans. B]
[Ans. C]
y is continuous for all x

differentiable for all x
since at
R, and
R, except at
Using this standard limit, here a = 1 then

= ( ) /2 =1/2
value towards the left and right side of
35.
[Ans. D]
( )
( )
( )
( )
f(x) has a point of inflection at x =0.
36.
[Ans. A]
[Ans. D]
,
29.
( )
28.
[Ans. D]
If f(x) even function
||
* +
[Ans. D]
Mathematics
[Ans. D]
Volume from x = 1 to x = 2,
th
th
)
th
Page 92
GATE QUESTION BANK
38.
37.
[Ans. A]
By Gauss Divergence theorem,
( )
The unit outward normal vector at point

P is
(
Mathematics
(Surface Integral is transformed to

volume Integral)
( )
( )
( )
[Ans. A]
The area enclosed is shown below as
shaded
( )
( )
(
The coordinates of point P and Q is

obtained by solving
y = x and y = simultaneously,
i.e. x =
)
(
Now, x = 0
which is point Q(0,0)
and x = 1
which is point
P(1,1)
So required area is
39.
[Ans. C]
( ) ( )
Using Integration by parts
Here,
f=ln(x) and dg=
and g=
* +
o
( ) ( )
* +
[
th
th
( )
]
)
th
Page 93
GATE QUESTION BANK
40.
[Ans. A]
o
So the minimum value is
[Differentiating both
o
o
Hospital method]
o w
. /
45.
41.
Mathematics
[Ans. D]
o
o
o
( )
( )
( )
otherwise it is said to be discontinuous.

So the most appropriate option is D.
[Ans. B]
G
o
46.
[Ans. C]
Div
Vectors are linearly dependent

42.
[Ans. B]
(
)
)
( )
,
o ( )( )
( )
o ( )( )
43.
47.
-
ho
[Ans. B]
Let
(
o (
[Ans. A]
[
[
]
)
48.
)]
()
[
,
(
44.
)
(
(
)
)
)]
(
,
(
[Ans. B]

)]
,
)
[
[Ans. *] Range 1.00 to 0.94

h
o
th
th
]
-
th
Page 94
GATE QUESTION BANK
CE
1.
a =2a cos i.e, cos

[Ans C]
G
theorem is
((
( )
= y and
)-
( )
. /
. /
[Ans. D]
Since the position of rail engine S(t) is
continuous and differentiable function
according to Lagranges mean value
theorem more
)
o )
o
(t) = v(t) =
*
(
( )
)+
m/sec
kmph
4.
[Ans. C]
f = 2 +3
= 126 kmph
Where v(t) is the velocity of the rail
engine.
3.
= 2y
h o
I=
= xy
Here I = (
2.
Mathematics
[Ans. D]
h
o h
r=2acos
(i) r = a represents a circle with centre
(
)

(ii) r = 2acos represents a circle
symmetric about OX with centre at
( )

The circles are shown in figure below. At
h
o o
o

P
y Q
3
= 4xi + 6yj + 2zk

At P (2, 1, 3)
Directional derivation
(
)
(
)
( )
( )
( )
( )
5.
[Ans. A]
Potential function,
th
th
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Page 95
GATE QUESTION BANK
8.
Integrating
[Ans. D]
Put
wh
Mathematics
( )
Now given equation is

.. (ii)
6.
[Ans. B]
Let I()
= (
dx ( )
=
) [ from eqn(i)]
Then Integrating by parts we get,

=
o )1
=
dI =
Integrating, I =
( )
() ( )
+C=0
C=
()
( )
Now substitute in eqn (ii) we get

h
h
I(0) =
But from equation (i), I(0) =
dx
dx =
h
h
Which is the desired form

7.
[Ans. D]
=5 +2
+ 3y
( )
9.
[Ans. C]
=0

If = 0
= 5y + 4y + 6yz
At(1, 1, 1)
div ( ) = 5.1 + 4.1 + 6.1.1
= 15
is the correct transformation.
o
Since P and Q are non-zero vectors
o
0
th
th
th
Page 96
GATE QUESTION BANK
10.
[Ans. A]
Since the limit is a function of x. We first
integrate w.r.t. y and then w.r.t. x
)
[Ans. D]
Length of curve f(x) between x = a and
x = b is given by
13.
Mathematics
+
Here,
4h ( )
= 8h
Since
(
and y = h at x =
* ( )
*
(As can be seen from equation (i), by

substituting x = 0 and x = L/2)
( )+
(Length of cable)
ho
11.
[Ans. B]
f = + 3 +2
f = grad f = i
+j
[Ans. A]
15.
[Ans. A]
( )
+k
= i(2x) + j(6y) + k(4z)

The gradient at P(1, 2, 1) is
= i(21) + j(62) + k(4 ( ))
= 2i + 12j 4k
12.
14.
[Ans. B]
(
Putting,
o
(
Given,
/ is the only stationary point.
+
.
th
th
th
Page 97
GATE QUESTION BANK
Since the limit is in form of
+
.
ho
and get
+
.
Since,
We have either a maxima or minima at
o ()
18.
Also since, r=0

)
[Ans. A]
= 8 > 0, the point
19.
o -
[Ans. A]
Area = | |

R (
So the optimal value of f(x, y) is a
)
o
The minimum value is

(
, we can use
Since,
Mathematics
minimum equal to
16.

R

R
[Ans. B]
Let I =
Since ( )
I=
( )
20.
[Ans. B]
21.
[Ans. B]
( )
( )
( )
(i) + (ii) 2I =
2I =
2I = |
I = a/2
17.
[Ans. C]
For a function f(x) to be continuous,
at x=a
( )
( )
o
(
If f(x) is continuous at x=
. /
th
th
th
Page 98
GATE QUESTION BANK
Mathematics
Substituting the values we get

(
)
(
)
(
)
|
|
24.
[Ans. 12]
o )
( )
o ( )
( )
[
22.
Magnitude of acceleration
[Ans. C]
(
)
(
25.
[Ans. B]
We have
)
( )
, ow
( )
=1+0=1
Hence correct option is (C)
23.
( )
( )
[Ans. A]
(4, 3)
a
(2, 2)
b
( )
0.5
(1, 0)
0.5
o wh
o ordinate points are
given is given by
th
th
th
Page 99
GATE QUESTION BANK
26.
[Ans. A]
Use L hospital Rule
=
4.
=1
[Ans. A]
P=
= log x
1
n 1 r
Cr xr
n
1 x r0
r 0
r 0
r 0
i 0
5.
= 12
g(i) =i+1
24
48
+ 37
48 x = 0
x=
=2
[Ans. A]
f(x)= |x|
Continuity: In other words,
f(x) = x o
x for x< 0
Since,
=
=0 ,
f (x) is continuous for all real values of x
Differentiability:
96x
48
= 36
Now at x = 0
=
48
At 2 also
0 (using
calculator)
There are 3 extrema in this function
( )
6.
( )
[Ans. D]
Since ( )
R h
So |x| is continuous but not differentiable
at x=0
3.
x (12 48x 48 ) = 0
x = 0 or 12 48x 48 = 0
4x 4 = 0
()
[Ans. D]
y = 3 16
(since r is a dummy variable, r can be

replaced by i)
r 1 xr i 1 xi
1)
w h
(
r1 Cr xr r1 C1xr
1
21 r
Cr xr
1 x 2 r0
Putting n=2,
2.
=
Q=
[Ans. B]
w h a =1, l=2k 1
P= (
CS
1.
Mathematics
I =
=
= (
)
(
Since tan (A B) =
[Ans. A]
=
th
th
th
Page 100
GATE QUESTION BANK
Mathematics
9.
[Ans. B]
f(x) = sin x
( )
o
( )
o

(
(
)
)
(
(
)
)
( )
At
. /
gives maximum
value
=,
)-
At
= ln ( sec ) ln (sec 0)
= ln ( )
= ln (
. /
value
( )
10.
)0=
[Ans. A]
For x =
7.
[Ans. B]
(
8.
) [
*(
) +
) +
.
11.
[Ans. C]
By Mean value theorem
12.
[Ans. A]
Define g(x) = f(x) f(x + 1) in [0, 1]. g(0)
is negative and g(1) is positive. By
intermediate value theorem there is
(
)
h h g(y) = 0
That is f(y) = f(y + 1)
Thus Answer is (A)
13.
[Ans. 2]
*
w
+
*
w +
For min
maximum non common
elements must be there
*
+
must be common to any 2 elements
of V1
(
)minimum value = 2
o
o
+
[
-(
, f(x) =
For x = , f(x) = 3 1 = 2
For x = 3, f(x) = 2
(
) (
) = f(3)
[Ans. D]
gives minimum
th
th
th
Page 101
GATE QUESTION BANK
14.
Mathematics
[Ans. 4]
(
)
o
o ()
Hence option (A) is correct
o
o
)
ECE
1.
[Ans. C]
dy
0 for x< 0
dx
dy
0 for x> 0
dx
o
Substituting the limits
o ()
o ( )
2.
[Ans. A]
Given,
f x
f ' x
1 e .e e
1 e
3.
= x cos
x 2
2x
ex
1 ex
Let cos = t
At
o
o
o
[Ans. A]
[Ans. C]
= o ( ) o
=
LHS = I + II =
15.
ex
1 ex
th
th
th
Page 102
GATE QUESTION BANK
8.
Mathematics
[Ans. A]
Given, f x x2 x 2
df x
0
dx
4.
2x 1=0
[Ans. A]
o h o
)
1
2
d2f x
= 2 ve
dx2
So it shows only minima for interval
[ 4, 4], it contains a maximum value that
will be at x= 4 or x=4
f( 4)=18 and f(+4)=10
5.
6.
[Ans. D]
From vector triple product
(
)
(
)
(
)
Here,
(
)
(
)
(
)
(
)
( )
[Ans. D]
y f x ; x 0,
[Ans. A]
( )
f x0
For strictly bounded, 0 limy
2
x x0 f' x0 x x0 f'' x0
......
e (x 2)(e
2
x0
or 0 lim y
x 2
)
x
2
So, y e x is strictly bounded
e ......
2
x 22 ......
e2 3 x
(Neglecting higher power of x)
7.
9.
10.
lim
0
ex e x
ex ex
x x2 x3
e 1 ..........
1 2 3
11.
ex 1
[Ans. B]
Two points on line are ( 1, 0) and (0, 1)
Hence line equation is,
y y
y 2 1 x c
x2 x1
y x c
y x 1 ( )
x x2 x3
..........
1 2 3
x2 x4
..........
ex ex
2 4
x x
e e
x3 x5
x ..........
3 5
1
or cot h (x)=
sin /2
1 sin /2
lim
0 2
/2
1 sin /2 1
= lim
2 0 /2 2
[Ans. C]
coth (x)=
[Ans. A]
2
2
5
I ydx x 1dx 2.5
2
1
1
1
x
(Since at x=1,y=2)
(Neglecting x2 and higher order)
th
th
th
Page 103
GATE QUESTION BANK
12.
[Ans. B]
Taking f(x, y)= xy, we can show that,
xdx+ydy, is exact. So, the value of the
integral is independent of path
15.
Mathematics
[Ans. A]
Given : g x,y 4x3 10y 4

The straight line can be expressed as
y=2x
Then g(x,y)=4x3+ 10 (2x)4
(0, 1)
4
I 4x3 10 2x dx 4x3 160x4 dx
0
0
1
4x4 160 5
=
x 33
5 0
4
(1, 0)
[Ans. A]
f(x)= +
(x)=
=0 x=0
(x)= +
>0 x R.
Hence minimum at x=0
f(0)=1+1=2
Alternatively:
For any even function the maxima &
minima can be found by
A.M. >= GM
=> exp(x) + exp( x) 2
Hence minimum value = 2
17.
[Ans. B]
[ |
13.
16.
| ]
[Ans. B]
Let f(x) ex sinx
o
2
x a
f x f a x a f'a
f''a
2!
where, a=
2
x
f x f x f'
f''
2!
Coefficient of (x )2 is
f ''
2
f'' ex sinx |at x e
Coefficient of (x )2=0.5 exp ()

14.
[Ans. A]
o
Thus, (
( )w
o ( )w
o ( )w
)w
h
h
h
[ |
| ]
o
ow
ow
ow
ow
th
th
th
Page 104
GATE QUESTION BANK
18.
21.
[Ans. D]
sinx = x
= (x )
y=
or
19.
sin x = (x )
or
=1
)
(
= 1
)
(
....
(
)
...
....
( )
....
Therefore, at
22.
( )
and is the position vector)
23.
has a maximum.
[Ans. D]
Apply the divergence theorem
[Ans. C]
[Ans. A]
. /
* +
)
)
25.
[Ans. B]
( )
)]
(
(
)]
[Ans. C]
( )
, ( )
( )
( )
are the stationary points

( )
( )
( )
and f(2) = 25 and f(4)=21
M
o ( ) , f(6)=41
. /
24.
]
]
. /
along PQ y =1 dy =0]
= [
Since
[Ans. D]
o h o
=
According Stokes Theorem

=
20.
[Ans. A]
....
sin (x )
or
Mathematics
th
th
th
Page 105
GATE QUESTION BANK
30.
[Ans. C]
E o
E o
31.
[Ans. *] Range
( )
(
)
( )
=1+1+1
=3
[Ans. D]
o h o
h
integral of a
vector around a closed path L is equal

to the integral of curl of over the open
32.
33.
)
)
)
)
[Ans. C]
Let x (opposite side), y (adjacent side)
and z (hypotenuse side) of a right angled
triangle
29.

Maximum value is 6
( )
( )
(
(
(
(

Volume under the surface
(
)
( )
h
28.
to 0.01
( )
[Ans. D]
27.
26.
Mathematics
Given
)(
[Ans. A]
o
( )
( )
( )
Since ( ) is negative, maximum value of
f(x) will be where ( )
o
0(
o
( )
( )
( )
oh
( (
(
th
th
)(
))
)
th
Page 106
GATE QUESTION BANK
By trial and error method using options
34.
Now at x = 2
(2) =
(
)
=
(
)
= 2
<0
At x = 2 we have a maxima.
3.
[Ans. *] Range 2.99 to 3.01
At (1, 1),
Given unit vector,
[Ans. D]
5.
[Ans. D]
We consider options (A) and (D) only
because which contains variable r.
By integrating (D), we get
, which is volume of cone.
6.
[Ans. D]
By property of definite integral
)
)
=3
)
( )
(
On simplification we get option (D)
[Ans. C]
Grad u =
At (1, 3) Grad u =
,( )
7.
[Ans. B]
f(x) = (
)
(x) = 2(
)
=4x(
) =0
x = 0, x = 2 and x = 2 are the stationary
points.
(x) = 4[x(2x) +(
) ]
= 4[2
= 4 [3
= 12
(0) =
< 0, maxima at x = 0
(2) =(12)
= 32 > 0, minima at x =
( 2) =12(
)
= 32 > 0; minima at x =
There is only one maxima and only two
minima for this function.
=
2.
4.
So, directional derivative

(
)
(
EE
1.
[Ans. C]
At (1, 1, 1)
| |
35.
Mathematics
[Ans. A]
f(x) =
(x) =
( )
=
(
)
Putting ( (x) = 0
(
)=0
(
)=0
x = 0 or x = 2 are the stationary points.
Now,
(
) (
(x) =
)(
)
=
(
(
))
=
(
)
(
)=2
At x = 0,
(0) =
Since (x) = 2 is > 0 at x = 0 we have a
minima.
th
th
th
Page 107
GATE QUESTION BANK
8.
Mathematics
= ,
=, (
= (
[Ans. A]
))
) =1
14.
[Ans. B]
Dot product of two vectors
=1+a+ =0
So orthogonal
15.
[Ans. C]
f(x) =
( )
( )
So the equation f(x) having only maxima
at x = 1
16.
[Ans. B]
9.
10.
[Ans. C]
( )
( )
( )
( )
( )
[Ans. D]
=(
)
(
(
) = (0, 2)
(
) = (2, 0)
Equation of starting line
11.
)
y = 2 x and dy = dx
17.
o
( )
.(
||
(
(
=0
||
) /
is undefined
[Ans. A]
Div ( )
=.
Discontinuous
/(
18.
= 1+1+1= 3
13.
[Ans. D]
But at
12.
[Ans. B]
(
Along x axis ,y=0,z=0

The integral reduces to zero.
y = 2 x , dy = dx
=(
(
)
Putting

[Ans. B]
P=
th
[Ans. A]
( )
o
M
th
) (
) (
(
( )
th
) (
) (
)
(
Page 108
)
)
GATE QUESTION BANK
19.
Mathematics
[Ans. B]
/1
)( )(
23.
[Ans. A]
( )

( )
( )
24.
[Ans. B]
( )
( )
)(
(
( )
( )
( )
)
)
20.
[Ans. C]
( )
( )
(
)
For number of values of
)
o
( ) (
( ) (
( )
( )
)
( )
( )
M
21.
[Ans. B]
IN
1.
G
o
[Ans. A]
Unit vector along y = x is

G
(
(
22.
[Ans. 2]
(
o .
/.
2.
[Ans. D]
Using L Hospital Rule., numerator
becomes =
From the graph, distance at
th
th
()
= ( )
th
Page 109
GATE QUESTION BANK
3.
[Ans. B]
Mathematics
When
Given integral is, I=
( )
Let f(x) = so curve of 1/
will be
And when
f(x)
( )
The possible expression for f(x) is

1
.
7.
-1
[Ans. B]
Error,
This curve will be discontinuous at x=0

o
w
o
For error to be minimum

(
4.
[Ans. A]
(t) =x (t) +y (t) +
Let R
z (t)
( ) =K (constant)
|R
i.e., (t) + (t) + (t) = constant.
On analyzing the given (A) option, we find
(t)
that R
( )
[Ans. C]
Given :
f=
+
where,
will give constant magnitude,
+
(i=0 to n) are constant.
+(n 1)
+
and
so first differentiation of the integration will

be zero.
5.
=0+
(n 1)
+n
+
= ,
= nf
6.
[Ans. B]
( )
8.
[Ans. B]
()
When
( )
( )
( )
Differentiating the above equation
When
( )
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GATE QUESTION BANK
()
14.
()
Mathematics
[Ans. B]
Given y = x2 + 2x + 10
= 2x + 2
( ) -
|
From equation (i)
()
()
()
()
This is Leibnitz linear equation

Integrating factor I.F =
the solution is
()
15.
[Ans. C]
By definition
16.
[Ans. A]
()
Unit vector=
=xi+yj+zk
and
17.
[Ans. C]
R:
Y
( )
1
1
,
[Ans. D]
10.
[Ans. A]
This is a standard question of
differentiability & continuity
Area =
[Ans. C]
y=
=(
- o
9.
11.
+1
( )
Total charge =
=
=
18.
).(cos x + sin x) = 0
tan x = 1
Or x =
coulomb.
[Ans. B]
We know that
() (
( )wh
. /
y will be maximum at x =
y=
19.
=
12.
13.
[Ans. C]
y(2) =
y(5) =
[Ans. B]
Expansion of sin x
........
( )
( )
20.
[Ans. B]
In a G.P
For a G.P to converge
[Ans. C]
y=
y=
th
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GATE QUESTION BANK
21.
[Ans. D]
.E=0 is not irrational (it is solenoidal)
22.
[Ans. 1]
From Gauss divergence theorem, we have

/dxdydz
Mathematics
[Ans. C]
24.
[Ans. D]
o .
23.
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GATE QUESTION BANK
DSA
Data Structure and Algorithm Analysis

CS- 2005
1.
Suppose T (n) = 2T (n/2) + n,
T(0) = T(1)=1. Which one of the
following is FALSE?
(A) T(n) = O(n2)
(B) T(n) = (n log n)
(C) T(n) = (n2)
(D) T(n) = O(n log n)
Linked Data Questions 2 and 3.
Consider the following C- function:
double foo(int n) {
int i;
double sum;
if (n = = 0) return 1.0;
else {
sum = 0.0;
for( i=0; i < n; i++)
sum += foo(i);
return sum;
}}
2.
3.
4.
The space complexity of the above

function is
(A) O(1)
(C) O(n!)
(B) O(n)
(D)
Suppose we modify the above function
foo( ) and store the values of foo(i),
0 < = I < n, as and when they are
computed. With this modification, the
time complexity for function foo( ) is
significantly
reduced.
The
space
complexity of the modified function
would be:
(A) O(1)
(C) O(n2)
(B) O(n)
(D) O(n!)
5.
What does the following C-statement

declare?
int(*f) (int *);
(A) A function that takes an integer
pointer as argument and returns an
integer
(B) A function that takes an integer
pointer as argument and returns an
integer pointer
(C) A pointer to a function that takes an
integer pointer as argument and
returns an integer
(D) A function that takes an integer
pointer as argument returns a function
pointer
6.
An Abstract Data Type (ADT) is

(A) Same as an abstract class
(B) A data type that cannot be
instantiated
(C) A data type for which only the
operations defined on it can be used,
but none else
(D) All of the above
7.
A common property of logic programming

languages and functional languages is
(A) both are procedural language
(B) both are based on - l ulus
(C) both are declarative
(D) both use Horn-clauses
8.
Which of the following are essential

features
of
an
object-oriented
programming language?
1. Abstraction and encapsulation
2. Strictly-typedness
3. Types-safe property coupled with
sub-type rule
4. Polymorphism in the presence of
inheritance
(A) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1, 2 and 4 only
(B) 1 and 4 only
(D) 1, 3 and 4 only
The time complexity of computing the

transitive closure of a binary relation on a
set of n elements is known to be
(A) O(n)
(C) O(n3/2)
(B) O(n log n)
(D) O(n3)
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GATE QUESTION BANK
9.
10.
11.
Consider the following C-program

double foo (double);/* Line 1 */
int main () {
double da, db;
// input da
db = foo(da);}
double foo(double a){
return a;
}
The above code complied without any
error or warning. If Line 1 is deleted, the
above code will show
(A) no compile warning or error
(B) some complier-warnings not leading
to unintended results
(C) Some complier-warnings due to
type-mismatch eventually leading to
unintended results
(D) Complier errors
Consider the following C-program
void foo (int n,int sum 0) {
int k = 0, j = 0;
if (n = = 0) return;
k = n % 10;
j = n / 10;
sum = sum + k;
foo (j, sum);
print % d, k ;
}
int main () {
int a = 2048, sum = 0;
foo(a, sum);
printf %d\n sum ;
}
What does the above program print?
(A) 8, 4, 0, 2, 14
(B) 8, 4, 0, 2, 0
(C) 2, 0, 4, 8, 14
(D) 2, 0, 4, 8, 0
A program P reads in 500 integers in the
range [0, 100] representing the scores of
500 students. It then prints the frequency
of each score above 50. What would be
DSA
the best way for P to score the

frequencies?
(A) An array of 50 numbers
(B) An array of 100 numbers
(C) An array of 500 numbers
(D) A dynamically allocated array of 550
numbers
Linked data Questions Q 12 & Q 13
We are given 9 tasks are , ,
, .
The execution of each task requires one
unit of time. We can execute one task at a
time.
has a profit
and a deadline
profit is earned if the task is completed
before the end of the
unit of time.
Task
Profit
Deadline
15
7
20
2
30
5
18
3
18
4
10
5
23
2
16
7
25
3
12.
Are all tasks completed in the schedule

that gives maximum profit?
(A) All tasks are completed
(B)
nd are left out
(C)
nd are left out
(D)
nd are left out
13.
What is maximum profit earned?

(A) 147
(C) 167
(B) 165
(D) 175
CS- 2006
14. Consider the polynomial
p(x) = a0 + a1x + a2x2 + a3x3,where
ai
0,
i. The minimum number of
multiplications needed to evaluate p on
an input x is
(A) 3
(C) 6
(B) 4
(D) 9
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GATE QUESTION BANK
15.
An element in an array X is called a leader

if it is greater than all elements to the
right of it in X. The best algorithm to find
all leaders in an array.
(A) Solves it in linear time using a left to
right pass of the array
(B) Solves in linear time using a right to
left pass of the array
(C) Solves it is using divide and conquer
in time n log n
(D) Solves it in time n2)
16.
Consider the following C program

fragment in which i, j and n are integer
variables.
for (i = n, j = 0; i > 0; i / = 2, j +=i);
Let Val (j) denotes the value stored in the
variable j after termination of the for loop.
Which one of the following is true?
(A) Val (j) = (log n)
(B) Val (j) = (n)
(C) Val (j) = (n)
(D) Val (j) = (n log n)
17.
A set X can be represented by an array

x[n] as follows
;
if i X
x [i] = {
; , otherwise
Consider the following algorithm in which
x, y and z are boolean arrays of size n:
algorithm zzz (x[], y[], z[])
{
int i;
for ( i =0; i < n; ++i)
z[i] =( x[i] ~ y[i]) (~x[i] y[i])
(A) n =
(B)
n =
(C)
n =
(D) T (n) =
(log log n)
(log n)
(n)
(n)
19.
Consider the following code written in a

pass-by-reference language like FORTAN
and these statements about the code.
Subroutine swap (ix,iy)
it = ix
L1 : ix = iy
L2 : iy = it
end
ia = 3
ib = 8
call swap (ia, ib + 5)
print *, ia, ib
end
S1: The compiler will generate code to
allocate a temporary nameless cell,
initialize it to 13, and pass the address of
the cell to swap
S2: On execution the code will generate a
runtime error on line L1
S3: On execution the code will generate a
runtime error on line L2
S4: The program will print 13 and 8
S5: The program will print 13 and 2
Exactly the following set of statement (s)
is correct:
(A) S1 and S2
(C) S3
(B) S1 and S4
(D) S1 and S5
20.
Consider the following C-function in

which a[n] and b[m] are two sorted
integer arrays and c [n + m] be another
integer array.
void xyz (int a[ ], int b[ ], int c[ ]) {
int i, j, k;
i = j = k = 0;
while ((i <n) && (j < m))
if (a[i] < b[j]) c[k++] = a[i++];
else c[k ++] = b[j ++];
}
Which of the following condition (s)
}
The set Z computed by the algorithm is
(A) ( X Y )
(B) ( X Y )
(C) ( X Y ) ( Y X )
(D) ( X Y ) ( Y X )
18.
DSA
Consider the following

T (n) = 2T ([n])+ 1, T(1) = 1
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GATE QUESTION BANK
hold (s) after the termination of the while

loop?
(i) j < m, k = n + j 1, and a [n 1] < b [j]
if i = n
(ii) i < n, k = m+i 1, and b [m 1]
if j = m
(A) Only (i)
(B) Only (ii)
(C) Either (i) or (ii) but not both
(D) Neither (i) nor (ii)
21.
22.
Consider this C code to swap integers and

these five statements : the code
void swap (int *px, int *py) {
*px = *px *py;
*py = *px + *py;
*px = *py *px;
}
S1: will generate a compilation error
S2: may generate a segmentation fault at
runtime depending on the arguments passed
S3: Correctly implements the swap
procedure for all input pointers referring to
integers stored in memory locations
accessible to the process
S4: implements the swap procedure
correctly for some but not all valid input
pointers
S5: may add or subtract integers and
pointers
(A) S1
(C) S2 and S4
(B) S2 and S3
(D) S2 and S5
DSA
CS- 2007
23. In the following C function , let n m,
int gcd(n, m)
{
if (n % m == 0) return m;
n = n % m;
return gcd(m, n);
}
How many recursive calls are made by
this function?
(A) log n
(C) (log log n)
(B) (n)
(D) (n )
24.
What is the time complexity of the

following recursive function?
int DoSomething ( int n ) {
if ( n < = 2 )
return 1;
else
return (DoSomething (floor(sqrt(n))) + n);
}
(A) (n2)
(B) (n log2 n)
(C) (log2 n)
(D) (log2 log2 n)
25.
Consider the following C code segment :

int IsPrime(n)
{
int i, n;
for (i =2; i < = sqrt(n); i++)
{
if (n % i == 0)
{
printf Not Prime \n ; return ;
}
}
return 1;
}
Let T(n) denote the number of times the
for loop is executed by the program on
input n.Which of the following is TRUE?
(A) T (n) = O n nd n = n
(B) T (n) = O n nd n =
(C)
n = O n nd n = n
Given two arrays of numbers , , and

, , where each number is 0 or 1, the
fastest algorithm to find the largest
span (i, j) such that
=
,
or report that there is no such span,
(A) Takes O(
and
time if
hashing is permitted
(B) Takes O(n and
n
time in the
key comparison model
(C) Takes n time and space
(D) Takes O n time only if the sum of
the 2n elements is an even number
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GATE QUESTION BANK
26.
Consider the following C function:

int f(int n)
{
static int r=0;
if(n<=0) return 1;
if(n>3)
{
r = n;
return f(n 2)+2;
}
return f(n 1)+r;
}
What is the value of f(5)?
(A) 5
(C) 9
(B) 7
(D) 18
27.
An array of n numbers is given, where n is

an even number. The maximum as well as
the minimum of these n numbers needs
to be determined. Which of the following
is true about the number of comparisons
needed?
(A) At least n
comparisons, for some
constant c, are needed
(B) At most
n
comparisons are
needed.
(C) At least n log n comparisons are
needed
28.
Consider the following segment of C-code

int j, n;
j=1;
while (j<=n)
j=j*2;
The number of comparisons made in the
execution of the loop for any n>0 is
(A) log n
(C) log n
(B) n
(D) log n
DSA
order. What will be the contents of the list

after the function completes execution?
struct node {
int value;
struct node * next;};
void rearrange (struct node *list)
{
struct node *p, *q;
int temp;
if (!list || !list next) return;
p = list; q = list next;
while (q) {
temp = p value;
p value = q value;
q value = temp;
p = q next;
q = p ? p next: 0;
}
}
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7
(B) 2, 1, 4, 3, 6, 5, 7
(C) 1, 3, 2, 5, 4, 7, 6
(D) 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 1
30.
The minimum number of comparisons

required to determine, if an integer
appears more than n/2 times in a sorted
array of n integers is
(A)
n)
(C) (1)
(B) (log n)
(D) (log n)
31.
Consider the following functions:

f(n) =
g(n) = n!
h(n) =
Which of the following statements about
the asymptotic behavior of f(n), g(n) and
h(n) is true?
(A) f(n) = O(g(n)); g(n) = O(h(n))
(B) f n = g n ; g n = O h n
(C) g(n) = O(f(n)); h(n) = O(f(n))
(D) h(n) = O(f(n)); g(n) = f n
CS- 2008
29. The following C function takes a singlylinked list of integers as a parameter and
rearranges the elements of the list. The
function is called with the list containing
the integers 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 in the given
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GATE QUESTION BANK
Common data for Questions 32 & 33

Consider the following C functions:
int f1(int n)
{
if (n == 0 || n == 1)
return n;
else
return (2*f1( n 1 ) + 3 * f1(n 2));
}
int f2(int n)
{
int i;
int X[n], Y[n], Z[n];
X[0] = Y[0] = Z[0] =0;
X[1] = 1; Y[1] = 2; Z[1] =3;
for ( i = 2; i < = n; i++ )
{
X[i] = Y[i 1] + Z[ i 2 ];
Y[i] = 2 * X[i];
Z[i] = 3 * X[i];
}
return X[n];
}
32.
33.
5. k = ( i + j)/2;
6. if (Y[k] < x) i = k; else j = k;
7. } while ((Y[k] != x) && (i < j));
8. if Y k == x printf x is in the rr y ;
9 else printf x is not in the rr y ;
10. }
34.
On which of the following contents of Y

and x does the program fail?
(A) Y is [ 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10] and
x < 10.
(B) Y is [ 1 3 5 7 9 11 13 15 17 19]
and x < 1.
(C) Y is [ 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 ] and
x > 2.
(D) Y is [ 2 4 6 8 10 12 14 16 18 20]
and 2 < x < 20 and x is even.
35.
The correction needed in the program to

make it work properly is
(A) change line 6 to :
if (Y[k])<x)i=k+1;else j=k 1;
(B) change line 6 to :
if(Y[k])<x)i=k 1;else j=k+1;
(C) change line 6 to :
if(Y[k])<=x)i=k; else j=k;
(D) change line 7 to :
} while ((Y[k]==x)&&(i<j));
36.
When n =
for some k
0, the
recurrence relation
T(n) = T(n / 2) + n , T (1) = 1
evaluates to
(A) n (log n +1) (C) n log n
(B) n log n
(D) n log n
37.
Arrange the following function

increasing asymptotic order:
The running time of f1(n) and f2(n) are

(A) (n) and (n)
(B)
(C) (n) and ( )

(D) ( ) and ( )
f1(8) and f2(8) return the values
(A) 1661 and 1640
(B) 59 and 59
(C) 1640 and 1640
(D) 1640 and 1661
Statement for the Linked Answer
Questions 34 & 35
Consider the following C program that
attempts to locate an element x in an array
Y [ ] using binary search. The program is
erroneous.
1. f(int Y[10], int x) {
2. int i, j, k;
3. i = 0; j = 9;
4. do {
DSA
th
A.
B.
n
e
C.
D.
E.
(A)
(B)
n
n log n
1.0000001n
A,D,C,E,B
D,A,C,E,B
th
in
(C) A,C,D,E,B
(D) A,C,D,B,E
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GATE QUESTION BANK
38.
39.
40.
Which combination of the integer

variables x, y and z makes the variable a
get the value 4 in the following
expression?
a
= (x > y) ? ((x > z) ? x : z) : ((y>z) ? y : z)
(A) x = , y = , z =
(B) x = , y = , z =
(C) x = , y = , z =
(D) x = , y = , z =
What is printed by the following C
program ?
int f(int x, int *py, int ** ppz)
{
int y, z;
**ppz + = 1; z = *ppz;
*py + = 2; y = *py;
x + = 3;
return x + y + z;
}
void main( )
{
int c, *b, **a;
c = 4; b = &c; a = & b;
printf %d, f , , ;
}
(A) 18
(C) 21
(B) 19
(D) 22
DSA
(B) ? is = get h r
? 2 is getchar (c)
(C) ? is ! =\n
? 2 is putchar (c);
(D) ? is
= get h r
? 2 is putchar (c);
CS- 2009
41. The running time
represented by the
relation:
n
T(n)={
( )
n
! = \n
! = \n
of an algorithm is
following recurrence
n
otherwise
Which one of the following represents the

time complexity of the algorithm?
(A) (n)
(C)
n
(B) (n log n)
(D)
n logn
42.
Choose the correct option to fill ?1 and ?2

so that program below prints an input
string in the reverse order .Assume that
the input string is terminated by a new
line character.
void reverse(void){
int c;
if(?1)reverse ( );
?2
}
main( ){
printf enter text ; printf \n ;
reverse ;printf \n ;
}
(A) ? is get h r != \n
? 2 is getchar (c);
th
Consider the program below:

#include<stdio.h>
int fun (int n, int *f_p)
{
int t, f;
if ( n<= 1)
{
*fp = 1 ;
return 1 ;
}
t = fun n
,f p ;
f = t+ * f_p ;
*fp = t;
return f ;
}
int main( )
{
int x = 15 ;
printf %d\n, fun , &x ;
return 0;
}
The value printed is
(A) 6
(C) 14
(B) 8
(D) 15
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GATE QUESTION BANK
CS- 2010
43. What does the following program print?
# include <stdio . h>
void f ( int *p, int *q)
{
p = q; *p = 2;
}
int i = 0, j = 1 ;
int main ( )
{
f( &i, &j);
printf %d %d\n, i, j ;
return 0;
}
(A) 2 2
(C) 0 1
(B) 2 1
(D) 0 2
44.
45.
What is the value printed by the following

C program?
# include <stdio . h>
int f(int *a, int n)
{
if (n < = 0 ) return 0;
else if (*a % 2 = = 0 )
return *a + f (a + 1, n 1) ;
else return *a f (a + 1, n 1);
}
int main ( )
{
int a [ ] = {12, 7, 13, 4, 11, 6} ;
printf %d, f ,
;
return 0;
}
(A) 9
(C) 15
(B) 5
(D) 19
DSA
Node *move_to_front (Node *head) {

Node *p, *q;
if((head = = NULL)|| (head next = = NULL))
return head;
q = NULL;
p = head;
while (p next ! = NULL) {
q = p;
p=p
next;
}
_______________
return head;
}
Chose the correct alternative to replace
the blank line.
(A) q = NULL; p next = head;
head = p;
(B) q next = NULL; head = p;
p
next = head;
(C) head = p ; p
next = q;
q next = NULL;
(D) q next = NULL;
p next = head; head = p;
46.
The following C function takes a singlylinked list as input argument. It modifies

the list by moving the last element to the
front of the list and returns the modified
list. Some part of the code is left blank.
typedef struct node {
int value;
struct node *next;
} Node;
th
The following program is to be tested for

statement coverage:
begin
if(a = = b) {S1; exit;}
else if(c = = d) {S2;}
else {S3; exit;}
S4;
end.
The test cases T1, T2, T3 and T4 given
below are expressed in terms of the
properties satisfied by the values of
variables a, b, c and d. The exact values
are not given.
T1: a, b, c and d are all equal
T2: a, b, c and d are all distinct
T3: a = b and c != d
T4: a! = b and c = d
Which of the test given below ensures
coverage of statements S1, S2, S3 and S4?
(A) T1, T2, T3
(C) T3, T4
(B) T2, T4
(D) T1, T2, T4
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GATE QUESTION BANK
CS- 2011
Common Data for Question 47 and 48:
Consider the following recursive C
function that takes two arguments.
unsigned int foo (unsigned int n, unsigned
int r) {
if (n>0)return ((n%r)+foo (n/r, r));
else return 0;
}
47.
What is the return value of the function

foo when it is called as foo (345, 10)?
(A) 345
(C) 5
(B) 12
(D) 3
48.
What is the return value of the function

foo when it is called as foo (513,2)?
(A) 9
(C) 5
(B) 8
(D) 2
49.
Which of the given options provides the

increasing order of asymptotic complexity
of functions f1, f2, f3 and f4?
f1 (n)=2n
f2 (n)=n3/2
f3 (n)=n log2n
f4 (n)=n
(A) f3,f2,f4,f1
(C) f2,f3,f1,f4
(B) f3,f2,f1,f4
(D) f2,f3,f4,f1
50.
Which does the following

program print?
h rt
= GATE
;
char *p = c;
printf % s, p p
p
(A) GATE2011
(C)
(B) E2011
(D)
51.
fragment of C
pqr + rst + prt. When multiplied as

(
)
,
the
total
number of scalar multiplications is
pqr+ prs + pst.
If p = 10, q = 100, r = 20, s = 5 and
t = 80, then the minimum number of
scalar multiplications needed is
(A) 248000
(C) 19000
(B) 44000
(D) 25000
CS- 2012
52. What will be the output of the following C
program segment?
ch r inCh r = A ;
switch (inChar) {
case A :printf Choice A\ n ;
c se B :
c se C : printf Choi e B ;
c se D :
c se E :
def ult : print f No Choi e ; }
(A) No choice
(B) Choice A
(C) Choice A
Choice B No choice
(D) Program gives no output as it is
erroneous
53.
Let W(n) and A(n) denote respectively,

the worst case and average case running
time of an algorithm executed on an input
of size n. Which of the following is
ALWAYS TRUE?
(A) A n =
W n
(B) A n =
W n
(C) A (n) = O (W(n))
(D) A (n) = o (W(n))
54.
The recurrence relation capturing the

optimal execution time of the Towers of
Hanoi problem with n discs is
(A) T(n) = 2T(n 2) + 2
(B) T(n) = 2T(n 1) + n
(C) T(n) = 2T(n/2) + 1
(D) T(n) = 2T(n 1) + 1
;
2011
011
Four matrices
, ,
nd
of
dimensions
p q, q r, r s nd s t
respectively can be multiplied with
several ways with different number of
total scalar multiplications. For example
when multiplied as
(
), the total
number of scalar multiplications is
DSA
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GATE QUESTION BANK
Common Data for Question 55 and 56:

Consider the following C code segment.
int a, b, c = 0;
void prtFun (void) ;
main ( )
{static int a =1; /* line 1 */
prtFun ( );
a + = 1;
prtFun ( );
printf \n %d %d , , ;
}
void prtFun (void)
{static int a = 2; /* line 2 */
int b = 1;
a + = ++b;
printf \n %d %d , , ;
}
55.
DSA
End A1
Procedure A2;
V r
Procedure A21;
V r
Call A1;
End A21
Call A21;
End A2
Call A1;
End main;
Consider the calling chain:
m in A
A
A
A
The correct set of activation records along
with their access links is given by
(A)
(A)
Main
What output will be generated by the

given code segment?
(A)
A1
A2
(C)
A21
(B)
FRAME
POINTER
(D)
A1
ACCESS
LINKS
(B)
56.
What output will be generated by the

given code segment if:
Line 1 is replaced by auto int a = 1;
Line 2 is replaced by register int a = 2;
(A)
Main
A1
A2
(C)
A21
(B)
FRAME
POINTER
(D)
A1
ACCESS
LINKS
(C)
57.
Main
Consider the program given below, in a

block-structured pseudo-language with
lexical scoping and nesting of procedures
permitted
Program main;
V r
Procedure A1;
V r
Call A2;
A1
FRAME
POINTER
A2
A21
ACCESS
LINKS
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GATE QUESTION BANK

(D)
DSA
323 gm. Then the product of the labels of

the bags having 11 gm coins is _________.
Main
A1
A2
61.
The minimum number of comparisons

required to find the minimum and the
maximum of 100 numbers is ____________
62.
Which one of the following correctly

determines the solution of the recurrence
relation with T(1) = 1?
A21
FRAME
POINTER
A1
ACCESS
LINKS
n =
CS- 2013
58. Consider the following function;
int unknown (int n){
int i, j, k=0
for (i =n/2; i<=n; i++)
for (j=2; j<=n; j=j*2)
k=k+n/2;
return (k ) ;
}
The return value of the function is
(A)
n )
(C)
n
(B)
n log n
(D)
n log n
59.
(A)
(B)
log n
n
n log n
(C)
(D)
n )
log n
63.
Consider two strings A = qpqrr nd

B = pqprqrp Let x e the length of the
longest common subsequence (not
necessarily contiguous) between A and B
and let y be the number of such longest
common subsequences between A and B.
Then x + 10y = _________.
64.
Consider the expression tree shown. Each

leaf represents a numerical value, which
can either be 0 or 1. Over all possible
choices of the value at the leaves, the
maximum possible value of the
expression represented by the tree is
_________.
What is the return value of f(p,p), if the

value of p is initialized to 5 before the
call? Note that the first parameter is
passed by reference, whereas the second
parameter is passed by value.
int f (int &x, int c){
c = c 1;
if (c = = 0) return 1;
x = x +1;
return f (x, c) * x;
}
(A) 3024
(C) 55440
(B) 6561
(D) 161051
CS- 2014
60. There are 5 bags labeled 1 to 5. All the
coins in a given bag have the same weight.
Some bags have coins of weight 10 gm,
others have coins of weight 11 gm. I pick
1, 2, 4, 8, 16 coins respectively from bags
1 to 5. Their total weight comes out to
( )
+
+
0/1
65.
th
0/1 0/1
0/1 0/1
0/1 0/1
0/1
Which of the following statements are

CORRECT?
1) Static allocation of all data areas by a
compiler makes it impossible to
implement recursion.
2) Automatic garbage collection is
essential to implement recursion.
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GATE QUESTION BANK
3)
Dynamic allocation of activation

records is essential to implement
recursion.
4) Both heap and stack are essential to
implement recursion
(A) 1 and 2 only (C) 3 and 4 only
(B) 2 and 3 only (D) 1 and 3 only
66.
Suppose you want to move from 0 to 100

on the number line. In each step, you
either move right by a unit distance or
you take a shortcut. A shortcut is simply a
pre-specified pair of integers i, j with i< j.
Given a shortcut i, j if you are at position i
on the number line, you may directly
move to j. Suppose T(k) denotes the
smallest number of steps needed to move
from k to 100. Suppose further that there
is at most 1 shortcut involving any
number, and in particular from 9 there is
a shortcut to 15. Let y and z be such that
T(9) = 1 + min(T(y), T(z)). Then the
value of the product yz is _____.
67.
Consider the following program in C

language:
#include <stdio.h>
main()
{
int i;
int *pi = &i;
s nf %d,pi ;
printf %d\n, i
;
}
TRUE?
(A) Compilation fails.
(B) Execution results in a run-time
error.
(C) On execution, the value printed is 5
more than the address of variable i.
(D) On execution, the value printed is 5
more than the integer value entered.
DSA
68.
Consider the following C function in

which size is the number of elements in
the array E:
int MyX (int *E, unsigned int size)
{
int Y = 0;
int Z;
int i, j, k;
for(i = 0; i < size; i++)
Y = Y + E[i];
for(i = 0; i < size; i++)
for(j = i; j < size; j++)
{
Z = 0;
for(k = i; k <= j; k++)
Z = Z + E[k];
if (Z > Y)
Y = Z;
}
return Y;
}
The value returned by the function MyX is the
(A) maximum possible sum of elements
in any sub-array of array E.
(B) maximum element in any sub-array
of array E.
(C) sum of the maximum elements in all
possible sub-arrays of array E.
(D) the sum of all the elements in the
array E.
69.
Consider the following pseudo code. What is

the total number of multiplications to be
performed?
D=2
for i = 1 to n do
for j = i to n do
for k = j + 1 to n do
D=D*3
(A) Half of the product of the 3
consecutive integers.
(B) One-third of the product of the 3
(C) One-sixth of the product of the 3
(D) None of the above.
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GATE QUESTION BANK
70.
Consider the function func shown below:

int func(int num) {
int count = 0;
while (num) {
count++;
num>>= 1;
}
return (count);
}
The value returned by func(435)is
__________.
71.
Suppose n and p are unsigned int

variables in a C program. We wish to set p
to C . If n is large, which one of the
following statements is most likely to set
p correctly?
(A) p = n n
n
;
(B) p = n n
n
;
(C) p = n n
n
;
(D) p = n n
n
;
72.
For a C program accessing X[i][j][k], the

following intermediate code is generated
by a compiler. Assume that the size of an
integer is 32 bits and the size of a
character is 8 bits.
t = i
t = j
t = k
t = t
t
t = t
t
t = Xt
Which one of the following statements
about the source code for the C program
is CORRECT?
(A) X is de l red s int X
8
(B) X is de l red s int X
(C) X is de l red s h r X
8
(D) X is de l red s h r X
73.
DSA
Give a value q (to 2 decimals) such that

f (q) will return q: ___________.
74.
Consider the C function given below.

int f(int j)
{
static int i = 50;
int k;
if (i == j)
{
printf something ;
k = f(i);
return 0;
}
else return 0;
}
Which one of the following is TRUE?
(A) The function returns 0 for all values
of j.
(B) The function prints the string
something for all values of j.
(C) The function returns 0 when j = 50.
(D) The function will exhaust the
runtime stack or run into an infinite
loop when j = 50.
75.
Let A be a square matrix of size n n.

Consider the following pseudocode. What
is the expected output?
c = 100;
for i = 1 to n do
for j = 1 to n do
{
Temp = A[i] [j] + c;
A [i] [j] = A[j] [i];
A [j] [i] = Temp c;
}
for i = 1 to n do
for j = 1 to n do
output (A [i] [j]);
(A) The matrix A itself
(B) Transpose of the matrix A
(C) Adding 100 to the upper diagonal
elements and subtracting 100 from
lower diagonal elements of A
Consider the following function

double f (double x) {
if (abs (x*x 3) < 0.01) return x;
else return f (x/2 + 1.5/x);
}
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GATE QUESTION BANK
76.
Consider the C function given below.

Assume that the array listA contains
n(>0) elements, sorted in ascending
order.
int ProcessArray(int *listA, int x, int n)
{
int i, j, k;
i = 0;
j = n 1;
do {
k = (i+j)/2;
if (x <= listA[k])
j = k 1;
if (listA[k] <= x)
i = k+1;
}while (i <= j);
DSA
if (listA[k] == x)
return(k);
else
return
;
}
about the function ProcessArray is
CORRECT?
(A) It will run into an infinite loop when
x is not in list A.
(B) It is an implementation of binary
search.
(C) It will always find the maximum
element in list A.
(D) It will return
even when x is
present in list A.

1.
[Ans. C]
n =
n
n
By M sters method, = , =
n
=n
f n = (n
[Ans. B]
It would require n rr y of size n to
store temporary results.
0< = I<n
4.
[Ans. D]
The time complexity of computing the
transitive closure of a binary relation on a
set of n elements is O(n3). Apply the
w rsh lls algorithm to compute the
transitive closure. The algorithm contains
three nested for loops each having
frequency n so time complexity is O(n3)
5.
[Ans. C]
int (*f) (int *);
returns type int, (*f) is a pointer to a
function and the argument is (int *), an
integer pointer. So, int (*f) (int *) means a
pointer to a function that takes an integer
pointer as an argument and returns an
integer.
=n
)
n = (n
logn)
= nlogn
So, it is also O nlogn & O n
but not n
2.
3.
[Ans. C]
double foo (int n)
{
int i ;
double sum ;
if (n ==0)return;
else {sum = 0;
for (i = 0 ; i <n; i++)
sum = sum +foo (i);
return (sum);
}
}
The size of recursion stack space is not
more th n n!
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GATE QUESTION BANK
6.
[Ans. C]
The abstract data type (ADT) refers to a
programmer defined data type together
with a set of operations that can be
performed on that data So, the choice (C)
is correct.
7.
[Ans. C]
A common property of logic programming
languages and functional languages is both
are declarative because we declare any
statement before we will use it.
8.
[Ans. B]
Properties of object oriented
Programming language
- Abstraction
- Inheritance
- Polymorphism
- Encapsulation
9.
[Ans. C]
When we dont de l re fun tion spe ify
the prototype), the default rule is that the
function (foo in our case) would have
been assumed to be int, even though it
really returns a double. This will generate
compiler warning and our program will
have undefined behavior.
[Ans. D]
The function foo is recursive function
When we call foo(a, sum) = foo (2048, 0)
k
j
sum
k = 2048%10
j = 204
sum = 0+8 = 8
= foo(204, 8)
k = 204%10 = 4
j = 20
sum = 8+4 = 12
foo(20, 12)
k = 20%10 = 0
j=2
sum = 12+0 = 12
foo(2,12)
k = 2%10 = 2
j=0
sum = 12+2 = 14
foo(0,14) function will be terminated and
value of k will print in stack way i.e. 2, 0, 4,
8. Value of sum as computed within the
fun tion foo is
From s it is ll y
value parameter passing, the change
DSA
made inside the called function foo will

not be reflected back in the calling
function main. So, from main, value 0 will
be printed as sum
11.
[Ans. A]
There are 500 students and the score
range is 0 to 100. We need to print the
frequency of those students whose score is
above 50. So frequency range contains
scores from 50 to 100, so an array of 50
numbers is suitable for representing the
frequency.
12.
[Ans. D]
The given problem is job scheduling
problem 9 tasks are , ,
, .
J is initially empty then according to
deadlines it includes
{ , , , , , , }.
So
nd
nt e in lude in J
13.
[Ans. A]
Total profit earned by an algorithm
=
8
=
14.
[Ans. A]
Use the Hornor algorithm.
1st iter a3*x ----------------- 1 multiplication
2nd iter (a2 + a3*x)*x ----------------- 1
multiplication
3rd iter (a1 + (a2 + a3*x)*x)*x ------ 1
multiplication
4th iter a0 + (a1 + (a2 + a3*x)*x)*x
15.
[Ans. B]
Scan each element from right to left.
Make First element as largest element.
If any other larger elements found, then
mark it as leader element & make this
element as largest element.
Repeat above steps for rest of the
elements
10.
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GATE QUESTION BANK
16.
[Ans. C]
If n is a power of 2, then
j = n+
20.
[Ans. C]
Given i < n, j < m and a [i] < b[j] for
this a[n 1] < b[j]
So if
i<n
then
k = m + i 1 b[m 1}
i
and if i < m
then
k = n + j 1 a[n 1] < b[j]
It means either one of these two are
applicable
It is the code for merging two sorted
arrays
21.
[Ans. B]
S2 and S3 are correct statements.
22.
[Ans. C]
If each
and
is either 0 or 1 and the
numbers are stored in an array then the
algorithm can find the largest span (i, j) on
average in n time because this is only
need of search.
23.
[Ans. A]
Just draw the recursion tree for some
value of n and m. You will observe that the
height of this tree never going to be more
than logn.
24.
[Ans. D]
Get the recurrence relation initially and
solving it will give you the order.
T(n) = T(n) + n O(log log n)
25.
[Ans. B]
T(n) = O n quite clear as loop will run
for n in worst case if number is prime
number. However if number is divisible by
, ,
et ) then loop will run only
for one iteration. That means number of
iterations is varied from 1, n . Thus B is
the answer.
If n is not a power of 2 , then there will be

minor differences of 1 at
wherever
is odd.
Hence the Val (j) computed on the basis of
n = will give a fair answer
j=n
GP
n (( )
17.
18.
19.
[Ans. D]
The statement inside the
similar to X OR operation
set o t ined is X Y
X
It is equivalent to (X Y
for loop is
such that the
Y
Y X ).
[Ans. B]
n = ([n])
;
=
m = logn
=
en me S m =
S m = S m
S m = m
ording to master's theorem
So, S m = logn s m = logn
DSA
[Ans. B]
Sw p
ix
i
iy
i
S1: The compiler will generate code to

allocate a temporary nameless cell,
initialize it to 13, and pass the address of
the cell to swap
S4: The program will print ia = 13 and
ib = 8
Option (B) is correct.
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GATE QUESTION BANK
26.
[Ans. D]
To compute f(5), initially r=5.
f
= 8
n
:f n
f
f n
f n
f n
1
27.
30.
[Ans. C]
To find an integer appears more than n/2
times minimum comparisons are of order
just check first,last and middle
element and 1/4 ,3/4 index element
31.
[Ans. D]
So we need to identify the correct order of
relative growth rates of the given
functions
Either we use L hospital rule to compute
the above or we may simplify the
functions so that growth rate can be
proved with obvious reasons.
h(n) can be written in form of
as
follows:
h(n) =
The following is the growth rates in
increasing order, h(n) < f(n) < g(n). Thus
D is the answer.
32.
[Ans. B]
Function f1 contain recursive function so
its running time must be O(2n) but f2 have
not.
Alternately
f1 has complexity of O(2n), while f2 has a
loop from 2 to N , so the complexity of it is
O(n)
33.
[Ans. C]
When solved .
f
=
f
= f
f
= f
f
= f
.
.
.
f 8 =
Now for f ,
x
= y
x
= y
In loop
x
=
y
x
=
y
[Ans. B]
When we apply the divide and conquer
method such that dived n into two parts of
n/2 then recurrence equations is
T(n) = 1 for n = 2
T(n) = 2T(n/2)+2 for n > 2
The solution of T(n) is
n = n
=
28.
29.
omp risons
[Ans. D]
Let the increment of j is , , , , for
some value of i so according to the
question for
while loop:
n or i log n
One extra comparison required for the
termination of while loop. So total number
of comparisons
=i
= log n
DSA
[Ans. B]
If there are even number of nodes in the
linked list , given program interchanges
values of successive numbered nodes
respectively i.e. interchanges values of
nodes. If there are odd number of nodes in
the linked list last node value remain
unchanged, all other nodes values are
interchanged as given in program.
Current values are
1,2,3,4,5,6,7
After interchange
2,1,4,3,6,5,7
th
th
f
f
f
=
=
=
=
th
=
=
=
z
z
=
=
z
z
=
=
Page 129
GATE QUESTION BANK
=60
log
35.
36.
[Ans. C]
In C option when we give x =4 (say )the
working is as follows.
I iteration
k = (0+9)/2=4
(y[4]<x) true
i=4 [j =9]
II iteration
k= (4+9)/2=6
(y[6]<x) true
i=6
[j =9]
III iteration
k= (6+9)/2 =7
(y[7]<x) true
i =7
[j=9]
IV iteration
k= (7+9)/2=8
(y[8]<x) true
i =8
[j = 9]
V iteration
K=(8+9)/2=8
(y[8]<x) true
i =8
[j = 9]
remains in loop forever as condition
(4[8]! = x &&i<j) is always true.
[Ans. A]
If increase i to k+1 when y [k] <x and
decrease j to k1 then the program works
properly. Otherwise, above scenario does
not happen and moreover the element at k
position will be checked for equality in
the while condition.
= log =
f n
n
n
=
=
n
.
.
x8 =
34.
DSA
h n =
n =
, Where i =0
n = log n
n =f n
n
= n
log n
37.
[Ans. C]
Here, n< n log9 n< en
So
n log n
e n log n
Fig. Plot of function values
38.
[Ans. A]
a= (x > y) ? ((x > z) ? x : z) : ((y>z) ? y : z)
In C ? : is tern ry oper tor the synt x
is (exp 1 ? exp2 : exp3). It means if exp 1 is
true print exp2 else exp3.
Let x = 3, y = 4, z = 2.
=
?(
?
): ((4 > 2) ? 4 : 2)
a = (3 > 4) ? 3 : 4
a=4
39.
[Ans. B]
f(c, b, a ) is called by the main () function
the graphical execution of the program is
given below.
in
f
[Ans. A]
T(n)=
n
n
T(1)=1
Comparing it with T(n) = aT (n/b) +f(n)
We get , a= ; = ; f n = n
py
z
th
th
z=
ppz
y
= 9
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GATE QUESTION BANK
int y, z;
ppz = ppz
;
z = ppz = ;
py = py
;
y = py =
x=
=
return x y z = 9
40.
41.
[Ans. D]
Here we re using the = oper tor whi h
h s less priority th n ! = oper tor
So (C = getchar( ) ) has to be in brackets
and reversing the string we use function
putchar(c) for printing the character.
43.
[Ans. D]
i, j variables are global to main function p
and q will also be pointing to same
memory location where i and j
respectively, when f (& i , & j) is called up.
Now p = q statement will move p to the
memory location being pointed by q
Thus, * p = 2 will replace 1 by 2.
There is no change in the value of variable
i (which is still 0);
44.
[Ans. C]
a [ ]=
12
[Ans. A]
Complexity is decided for large values of n
only. So, T(n) = T( )+ cn for n>3.
[Ans. B]
x = 15
fun , &x
fun
13
11
So
,
first this call
Thus the number stored in the array & we
can access these by using
f ,
Using
sters theorem,
Here, a=1, b=3, log = log =
f n = n= n
Sin e log = n is elow f n = n
his elongs to se III of m ster s theorem,
Where the solution is
n = (f n ) = n
42.
DSA
so
f
f
,n
f
,n
let &x =
,n
f
{odd}
{odd}
{even}
,n
f
{even}
,n
{odd}
{even}
,
t = 5,
return 8
f = 5+3, *f_p = 5
t = 3,
return 5
f = 3+2, *f_p = 3
t = 2,
return 3
f = 2+1, *f_p = 2
t = 1,
return 2
f =1+ 1, *f_p = 1
fun ,
fun ,
]+]
]+
]+
=
=
fun ,
fun ,
45.
[Ans. D]
*f_p = 1
return 1
So fun (5, &x) will return 8 and it will be
printed.
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GATE QUESTION BANK
When while loop is over, the st tes of

p and q variables are as given in the
diagram. Now node q will become last
node, hus, q
next = NULL will e
required
Since, p is inserting in the front of the list p
next = he d is required nd p e ome
first node of the modified list hence
head = p is required for the successful
operation.
46.
[Ans. D]
In given program we take the test cases
and apply
From If all values are equal means
a = b = c = d, a = b condition satisfied. S1
and S4 executed
From When all a, b, c, d distinct:
S , S not execute, S and executes.
From
When a = b, S execute but c = d.
S will not execute but S and S executes.
Here no need of
because we get these
result from above two.
From
If a! = b and c = d, S will not
execute and S and S execute.
All of S , S , S , S will execute and
covered by ,
nd .
47.
[Ans. B]
foo(345, 10)
=5+foo(34,10)
=5+4+foo(3,10)
=5+4+3+foo(0,10)
=12
48.
[Ans. D]
foo(513,2)
=1+foo(256,2)
=1+foo(128,2)
=1+foo(64,2)
=1+foo(32,2)
=1+foo(16,2)
=1+foo(8,2)
=1+foo(4,2)
=1+foo(2,2)
=1+foo(1,2)
DSA
=1+1+foo(0,2)
=2
49.
[Ans. A]
nlogn
n
(sin e
n )
logn)
exponenti l
n logn
f ,f ,f ,f
50.
n (sin e logn
[Ans. C]
p
= E
p
= A
p p
=
p
p p
= p
It prints the su string of GA E
starting at index 4.
51.
[Ans. C]
We
get
minimum
number
of
multiplications ((M1 (M2 M3)) M4).
Total number of multiplications
=
8
= 9
52.
[Ans. C]
Switch statement case A matches initially
and all other cases are executed from
there on as there is no Bre k in ses
Output C
Choi e A
Choice B No Choice
There is no break in between the case
statements.
53.
[Ans. C]
Avg case running time always less than
(or) equal to worst case Time.
A n =O w n
By definition of asymptotic notation.
Average lies always between the best and
the worst case inclusive.
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GATE QUESTION BANK
54.
[Ans. D]
In every iteration of inner loop

OH n, L, ,
MOV
(L-R)
OH
, L, ,
n =
to k.
Return Value
=
no of outer loops
n
n
=
(
) logn
OH
, , L,
[Ans. C]
If any variable is static, then it retains its
v lue ross fun tion lls V ri le in
ptrFun is static and local, so the update of
this variable is available across different
invocations of function ptrFun, but as it is
a local variable its update will not affect
the value of variable a present in main.
Uninitialized global variables have 0 as
their default value.
56.
[Ans. D]
If the variables are auto, these variables
will be reinitialized in every function calls.
Now the variables are all auto storage
class. Their lifetime is local.
57.
[Ans. D]
[Ans. B]
f(5, 5)
{
c = 4;
x = 6;
return f(6, 4) * x;
}
f(6 , 4){
c = 3;
x = 7;
return f(7, 3) * x;
}
f(7, 3)
{
c = 2;
x = 8;
f( 8, 2) * x
}
f(8, 2)
{
c=1;
x=9;
f(9, 1) * x;
}
f (9,1){
c = 0;
return 1;
}when c=1, x=9
So, 9* 9 * 9 * 9 = 6561
60.
[Ans. 12]
No. of coins picked having 10 gm weight
= 18
No. of coins picked having 11 gm weight
= 13
1 + 4 + 8 = 13 (Bag no. 1, 3, 4 are having
11 gm coins)
So
=
A1
A2
A21
ACCESS
LINKS
Given calling sequence from the program

is:
main A
A
A
A
A1 & A2 are defined in main, so A1 & A2
access links are pointed to main A21
definition is available in A2, hence A21
access link points to A2
58.
no of inner loops
59.
Main
A1
is added
= O n logn .
55.
FRAME
POINTER
DSA
[Ans. B]
Outer loop execute for
Iter tions .
Inner loop executes for log n ite r tions .
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GATE QUESTION BANK
61.
[Ans. *] Range 147.1 to 148.1

If we use comparison in pair method then
no. of comparisons will be
3.
4.
If n = 100 then
=
=
62.
n
( )
[Ans. 150]
From 9 you can go to either 10 or 15
(shortcut)
So
T(9) = 1 + min (T(10), T(15))
So
y = 10, z = 15
or y = 15, z = 10
So yz = 150
67.
[Ans. D]
Statement
s nf % d, & i ;
and
s nf % d, pi ;
are equivalent, because, of the statement
int *pi = & i;
So execution of the program will print 5
more than the integer value entered
68.
[Ans. A]
First loop is calculating sum of all element
of the array in Y.
Second loop is calculating sum of sub
array in Z and if it is greater than Y, then it
is updating Y by new larger sum.
So till the end we will have maximum sum
of element Y of any sub array of array E.
69.
[Ans. C]
Let n=4
When i=1; j=1: number of multiplications:
3
When i=1; j=2; number of multiplications:
2
1
0
logn
By
sters method, = , =
So, log =1
So,
= n log
So, se of m sters theorem pplies
T(n)= (n)
63.
[Ans. 34]
x=4
A = qpqrr
B = pqpr qrp
B = pqprqrp
B = pqp rqrp
y=3
So x + 10y = 4 + (10 3) = 34
64.
[Ans. 6]
+
+
+
1
2
0
1
1
2
=
=3+3=6
65.
Dynamic allocation of activation

records is mandatory of recursion
implementation (TRUE).
Heap & stack are not mandatory for
recursion implementation
1 and 3 are correct.
66.
[Ans. A]
n =
DSA
[Ans. D]
1. Recursion cannot be implemented
with only static allocation (TRUE)
2. Garbage collection is not essential for
recursion implementation
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GATE QUESTION BANK

2
1
0
1
0
0
Total number of multiplications: 10
The 3 consecutive numbers are: 3,4,5
One-sixth of product of 3 consecutive
numbers is:
)/6 = 60/6 = 10
70.
71.
[Ans. 9]
num = num
me ns divide num er y .
while
: count = 1; num = 217
while
: count = 2; num = 108
while
8 : count = 3; num = 56
while
: count = 4; num = 27
while
: count = 5; num = 13
while
: count = 6; num = 6
while
while
while
while
meout of loop
Count = 9
This expression works only when n is

small
(ii) C is also wrong because in left to right
evaluate on n n
may not
give exact integer. It may be fractional
value. But C language ignores
fractional part and multiples it with
(n 2) then divided by 2. So it will
not give correct result.
(iii) B is correct. n(n 1) will be divided
by 2 exactly because n or (n 1) is
even; then multiply with (n 2) then
divide by 3.
72.
[Ans. A]
Three address code to access arr [n]
t = size of word
t =t
n
t = rr t
In given ode in question
t =i
It is equivalent to
t =
t =i t
So the rr y is de l red s int nd first
index is of 32 size
So Option (A) is correct
73.
[Ans. *] Range 1.72 to 1.74

f(q) must give q
So f(x) must give x
if condition must be tree
ie abs (x * x 3) < 0.01
So x must be almost equal to 3
x=
74.
[Ans. D]
When j = 50
i = j printf statement executes;
k = f (50)
So j = 50 again and the recursion
continues for ever.
untime stack exhaust & it will run into
infinite loop.
[Ans. B]
p=n
=
=
n n
n
n
n n
n
! !
DSA
But all the 4 options give the same

expression as above
(i) A & D are wrong because, it is given
that n is large so the multiplication of
n
n
n
result is must
also be unsigned int and its result will
be very large & cannot fit in unsigned
int variable.
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GATE QUESTION BANK
75.
[Ans. A]
Initially A[i][j] is interchanged with A[j][i].
But again when processing A[j][i], it is
again interchange A[i][j]. So the matrix
remains the same once block is executed.
76.
[Ans. B]
3 7 9 10 13 16 18
0 1 2 3
4 5
6
Case 1: (found case)
Let x = 10
i = 0, j = 6
k = 6/2 = 3
10 < = list A[3]
j=
=
list A[3] < =10
i = 3 + 1 =4
i = j exit loop
list A [3] = = 10
return
Bin ry se r h
Case 2: (not found case)
Let x = 11
i = 0, j = 6
1st iteration: k = 6/2 = 3
11 = list A
list A[3] < = 11
i=3+1=4
i = j (true)
2nd iteration: k = (6 + 4)/2 = 5
11< = list A[5]
j=51=4
list A
=
i==j
3rd iteration:
k = (4 + 4)/2 = 2
11 < = list A[4]
j=41=3
i = j (exit loop)
list A [k] ! = x
return
(Binary search)
th
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DSA
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GATE QUESTION BANK
DSA
Stacks and Queues

CS-2005
1.
A function f defined on stacks of integers
satisfies the following properties.
f() = 0 and
f(push(S, i)) = max (f(S), 0) + i for all
stacks S and integers i. If a stack S
contains the integers 2, 3, 2, 1, 2 in
order from bottom to top, what is f(S)?
(A) 6
(C) 3
(B) 4
(D) 2
CS-2007
3.
The following postfix expression with
single digit operand is evaluated using a
stack
8 2 3 ^ / 2 3 * + 5 1 *
Note that ^ is the exponentiation
operator. The top elements of the stack
after the first * is evaluated are
(A) 6, 1
(C) 3, 2
(B) 5, 7
(D) 1, 5
CS-2006
2.
An implementation of a queue Q, using
two stacks S1 and S2, is given below
void insert(Q, x)
{
push (S1,x);
}
void delete (Q)
{
if (stack-empty(S2)) then
if (stack-empty(S1)) then
{
printf(Q is empty);
return;
}
else while(!stack-empty (S1))
{
x = pop (S1);
push (S2, x);
}
x = pop (S2);
}
Let n insert and m ( n) delete operations
be performed in an arbitrary order on an
empty queue Q. Let x and y be the number
of push and pop operations performed
respectively in the process. Which one of
the following is true for all m and n?
(A) n + m x < 2n and 2m
y n+m
(B) n
m
n and m
y
n
(C) 2m x < 2n and 2m y n + m
(D) 2m x < 2n and 2m y 2n
4.
Suppose you are given an implementation

of a queue of integers. The Operations
that can be performed on the queue are:
i.
isEmpty(Q) returns true if the
queue is empty, false otherwise.
ii.
delete (Q) deletes the element
at the front of the queue &
returns its value .
iii.
insert (Q , i ) insert the integer i
at the rear of the queue.
Consider the following function:
void f (queue Q) {
int i;
if (! isEmpty (Q)) {
i = delete (Q);
f(Q);
insert (Q, i) ;
}
}
What operation is performed by the
above function f?
(A) Leaves the queue Q unchanged
(B) Reverses the order of the elements in
the queue Q
(C) Deletes the elements at the front of
the queue Q & inserts it at the rear
keeping the other elements in the
same order.
(D) Empties the queue Q
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GATE QUESTION BANK
CS-2012
5.
Suppose a circular queue of capacity
(n 1) elements is implemented with an
array of n elements. Assume that the
insertion and deletion operations are
carried out using REAR and FRONT as
array index variables, respectively.
Initially, REAR = FRONT = 0. The
conditions to detect queue full and queue
empty are
(A) full: (REAR+1) mod n = = FRONT
empty: REAR = = FRONT
(B) full: (REAR+1) mod N = = FRONT
empty:
(FRONT+1) mod n = = REAR
(C) full: REAR = = FRONT
empty:
(REAR+1) mod n = = FRONT
(D) full: (FRONT+1) mod n = = REAR
empty: REAR = = FRONT
CS-2013
6.
Consider the following operation along
with Enqueue and Dequeue operations on
queues, where k is a global parameter.
MultiDequeue (Q){
m = k;
while (Q is not empty) and (m >0) {
Dequeue (Q)
m=m1
}
}
What is the worst case time complexity of
a sequence of n queue operations on an
initially empty queue?
(A) (n)
(C) (n )
(n
)
(B)
(D) (n )
DSA
CS-2014
7.
Suppose a stack implementation supports
an instruction REVERSE, which reverses
the order of elements on the stack, in
addition to the PUSH and POP
instructions. Which one of the following
statements is TRUE with respect to this
modified stack?
(A) A queue cannot be implemented
using this stack.
(B) A queue can be implemented where
ENQUEUE takes a single instruction
and DEQUEUE takes a sequence of
two instructions.
(C) A queue can be implemented where
ENQUEUE takes a sequence of three
instructions and DEQUEUE takes a
single instruction.
(D) A queue can be implemented where
both ENQUEUE and DEQUEUE take a
single instruction each.
8.
The minimum number of arithmetic

operations required to evaluate the
polynomial P(X) =
for
a given value of X, using only one
temporary variable is _________.
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GATE QUESTION BANK
DSA

1.
[Ans. C]
To push
2
3
2
1
2
stack operation, the queue will be reversed

at the end).
f(s)
ma
ma
ma
ma
ma
(f(s)
(f(s)
(f(s)
(f(s)
(f(s)
0)
0)
0)
0)
0)
=
(
)=
5.
=
(
)=
=
[Ans. A]
So given condition can be specified as
full: (REAR + 1) mod n = FRONT
empty : REAR = FRONT
FRONT
2.
3.
[Ans. A]
The order in which insert and delete
operations are performed matters here.
The best case: insert and delete operations
are performed alternatively. In every
delete operation , 2 pop and 1 push
operations are performed. So, total m+n
push (n push for insert () and m push for
delete ()) operations and 2m pop
operations are performed.
The worst case: First n elements are
inserted and then m elements are deleted.
In first delete operation, n+1 pop
operations and n push operation are
performed. Other than first, in all delete
operations, 1 pop operation is performed.
So, total m+n pop operations and 2n push
operations are performed (n push for
insert () and m push for delete ())
8
8
^
2 ^3
=8
/
8 8
=1
*
2 3
=6
queue
full
6.
[Ans. A]
Since the queue is empty initially, the
condition of while loop never becomes
true. So, for n operations, the time
complexity is (n)
7.
[Ans. C]
Queue can be implemented as below
ENQUEUE: REVERSE; PUSH; REVERSE (3
instructions)
DEQUEUE: pop (single instruction)
8.
[Ans. 7]
( )=
an e e itten as fo o s
)
P(x) = (
Now using only one temporary variable t
and any number of data transfers as well as
memory related operations, the polynomial
can be evaluated as follows
a. t = x * x
[Evaluate and store in memory]
b. t = t
[Evaluate (
) and store in memory]
c. t =
[Retrieve from memory]
d. t = t * x
[Evaluate and store in memory]
The top two elements are 6, 1

4.
FRONT/REAR
queue
empty
[Ans. A]
3
REAR
[Ans. B]
As the elements are deleted from front and
inserted from the rear in the reverse order
in which element are deleted (because of
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Page 139
GATE QUESTION BANK
e.
f.
g.
DSA
t=t*(
)
[Evaluate (
) and store in
memory]
t=6*x
[Evaluate 6x and store in memory]
t=t+5
[Evaluate 6x + 5 and store in memory]
t = t + (
)
[Retrieve (
) from memory
)
and evaluate { (
]
In the above 8 steps of evaluation, the
total number of arithmetic operation
required are 7
[4 Multiplications, 3 Additions]
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GATE QUESTION BANK
DSA
Trees
CS-2005
1.
How many distinct binary search trees
can be created out of 4 distinct keys?
(A) 5
(C) 24
(B) 14
(D) 42
If the height of the tree is h > 0, then the

minimum number of nodes in the tree is:
(A)
(C)
(D) 2h
(B)
6.
2.
In a complete k-ary tree, every internal

node has exactly k children. The number
of leaves in such a tree with n internal
nodes is
(A) n k
(C) n(k 1) + 1
(B) (n 1) k + 1
(D) n(k 1)
3.
Postorder traversal of a given binary

search tree, T produces the following
sequence of keys
10, 9, 23, 22, 27, 25, 15, 50, 95, 60, 40, 29
Which one of the following sequences of
keys can be the result of an inorder
traversal of the tree T?
(A) 9, 10, 15, 22, 23, 25, 27, 29, 40, 50,
60, 95
(B) 9, 10, 15, 22, 40, 50, 60, 95, 23, 25,
27, 29
(C) 29, 15, 9, 10, 25, 22, 23, 27, 40, 60,
50, 95
(D) 95, 50, 60, 40, 27, 23, 22, 25, 10, 9,
15, 29
4.
5.
A binary search tree contains the

numbers 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8. When the tree
is traversed in pre-order and the values in
each node printed out, the sequence of
values obtained is 5, 3, 1, 2, 4, 6, 8, 7. If the
tree is traversed in post-order, the
sequence obtained would be
(A) 8, 7, 6, 5, 4, 3, 2, 1
(B) 1, 2, 3, 4, 8, 7, 6, 5
(C) 2, 1, 4, 3, 6, 7, 8, 5
(D) 2, 1, 4, 3, 7, 8, 6, 5
The numbers 1, n are inserted in a

binary search tree in some order. In the
resulting tree, the right subtree of the
root contains p nodes. The first number to
be inserted in the tree must be
(A) p
(C) n p
(B) p + 1
(D) n p + 1
CS-2006
7.
A scheme for storing binary trees in an
array X is as follows. Indexing of X starts
at 1 instead of 0. The root is stored at
X [1]. For a node stored at X[i], the left
child, if any is stored in X [2i] and the
right child, if any in X [2i + 1]. To be able
to store any binary tree on n vertices, the
minimum size of X should be
(A) log2 n
(C) 2n + 1
(B) n
(D)
8.
Suppose that we have numbers between

1 and 100 in a binary search tree and
want to search for the number 55. Which
of the following sequences CANNOT be
the sequence of nodes examined?
(A) {10, 75, 64, 43, 60, 57, 55}
(B) {90, 12, 68, 34, 62, 45, 55}
(C) {9, 85, 47, 68, 43, 57, 55}
(D) {79, 14, 72, 56, 16, 53, 55}
9.
In a binary tree, the number of internal

nodes of degree 1 is 5 and the number of
internal nodes of degree 2 is 10. The
number of leaf nodes in the binary tree is
(A) 10
(C) 12
(B) 11
(D) 15
In a binary tree, for every node the

difference between the number of nodes
in the left and right subtrees is at most 2.
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Page 141
GATE QUESTION BANK
CS-2007
10. Consider the following C program
segment where Cell Node represents a
node in a binary tree
struct CellNode {
struct CellNode * leftchild;
int element;
struct CellNode *rightchild;
};
int GetValue (struct CellNode * ptr) {
int value = 0;
if(ptr != NULL) {
if((ptr
leftchild == NULL) &&
(ptr rightchild == NULL))
value =1;
else
value
= value + GetValue(ptr leftchild)
+GetValue(ptr rightchild);
}
return(value);
}
The value returned by GetValue when a
pointer to the root of a binary tree is
passed as its arguments is
(A) The number of nodes in the tree
(B) The number of internal nodes in the
tree
(C) The number of leaf nodes in the tree
(D) The height of the tree
11.
The height of a binary tree is the

maximum number of edges in any root to
leaf path. The maximum number of nodes
in a binary tree of height h is
(A) 2h
(C) 2h+1 1
(D)
(B)
12.
The maximum number of binary trees

that can be formed with three unlabeled
nodes is
(A) 1
(C) 4
(B) 5
(D) 3
13.
The inorder and preorder traversal of a

binary tree are d b e a f c g and
a b d e c f g respectively
DSA
The postorder traversal of the binary tree

is
(A) d e b f g c a
(B) e d b g f c a
(C) e d b f g c a
(D) d e f g b c a
14.
A complete n-ary tree is a tree in which

each node has n children or no children.
Let I be the number of internal nodes and
L be the number of leaves in a complete
n-ary tree. If L = 41 and I = 10, what is
the value of n?
(A) 3
(C) 5
(B) 4
(D) 6
CS-2008
15. You are given the post-order traversal, P
of a binary search tree on the n elements
, , ., n. You have to determine the
unique binary search tree that has P as its
post-order traversal. What is the time
complexity of the most efficient algorithm
for doing this?
(A) (log n)
(B) (n)
(C) (n log n)
(D) none of the above, as the tree cannot
be uniquely determined
16.
th
The following three are known to be the

preorder, in-order and post-order
sequence of a binary tree. But it is not
known which one is which binary tree.
I. MBCAFHPYK
II. KAMCBYPFH
III. MABCKYFPH
Pick the true statement from the
following
(A) I and II are preorder and inorder
sequences, respectively
(B) I and III are preorder and postorder
sequences, respectively
(C) II is the inorder sequence, but
nothing more can be said about the
other two sequences
(D) II and III are the preorder and
inorder sequences, respectively
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Page 142
GATE QUESTION BANK
17.
DSA
Common Data questions 17, 18 and 19:

A Binary search Tree (BST) store value in
the range 37 to 573. Consider the
following sequences of keys.
I. 81, 537,102,439,285,376,305
II. 52,97,121,195,242,381,472
III. 142,248,520,386,345,270,307
IV. 550,149,507,395,463,402,270
CS - 2011
21. We are given a set of n distinct elements
and an unlabeled binary tree with n
nodes. In how many ways we can
populate the tree with the given set so
that it becomes a binary search tree?
(A) 0
(C) n!
(B) 1
(D)
.
Suppose the BST has been unsuccessfully

searched for key 273. Which all of the
above sequences list nodes in the order in
which we could have encountered them
in the search?
(A) II and III only
(B) I and III only
(C) III and IV only
(D) III only
CS-2012
22. The worst case running time to search for
an element in a balanced binary search
tree with n2n elements is
(A) (n log n)
(C) (n)
(B) (n n)
(D) (log n)
18.
Which of the following statements is

TRUE?
(A) I, II and IV are inorder sequences of
three different BSTs
(B) I is preorder sequence of some BST
with 439 as the root
(C) II is an inorder sequence of some
BST where 121 is the root and 52 is a
leaf
(D) IV is a postorder sequence of some
BST with 149 as the root
19.
How many distinct BSTs can be

constructed with 3 distinct keys?
(A) 4
(C) 6
(B) 5
(D) 9
23.
CS-2010
20. In a binary tree with n nodes, every node
has an odd number of descendants. Every
node is considered to be its own
descendant. What is the number of nodes
in the tree that have exactly one child?
(A) 0
(C) (n 1)/2
(B) 1
(D) n 1
th
The height of a tree is defined as the

number of edges on the longest path in
the tree. The function shown in the
pseudocode below is invoked as height
(root) to compute the height of a binary
tree rooted at the tree pointer root.
int height (treeptr n)
{ if (n = = NULL) return 1;
if(n left = = NULL)
if (n right = = NULL) return 0;
else return
// Box 1
else { h1 = height (n left);
if (n right = = NULL) return (1 + h1);
else * h = height (n right);
return
; //Box 2
}
}
}
The appropriate expression for the two
boxes Bl and B2 are
(A)
:(
height(n right))
B2:(1 +max(hl,h2))
(B)
: (height(n right))
B2 :(1+max(hl,h2))
(C)
: height(n right)
B2 : max(h1,h2)
(D)
:(
height(n right))
B2: max (h1,h2)
th
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Page 143
GATE QUESTION BANK
CS-2013
24. The preorder traversal sequence of a
binary search tree is 30, 20, 10, 15, 23, 25,
39, 35, 42. Which one the following is the
postorder traversal sequence of the same
tree?
(A) 10, 20, 15, 23, 25, 35, 42, 39, 30
(B) 15, 10, 25, 23, 20, 42, 35, 39, 30
(C) 15, 20, 10, 23, 25, 42, 35, 39, 30
(D) 15, 10, 23, 25, 20, 35, 42, 39, 30
25.
Struct treeNode
{
treeptr leftMostChild, rightSibling;
};
int DoSomething (treeptr tree)
{
int value=0;
if (tree != NULL) {
if (tree leftMostChild == NULL)
value = 1;
else
value
= DoSomething(tree leftMostChild);
value = value +
DoSomething(tree rightSibling);
}
return(value);
}
When the pointer to the root of a tree is
passed as the argument to DoSomething,
the value returned by the function
corresponds to the
(A) number of internal nodes in the tree.
(B) height of the tree.
(C) number of nodes without a right
sibling in the tree.
(D) number of leaf nodes in the tree.
Which one of the following is the tightest

upper bound that represents the time
complexity of the inserting an object into
a binary search tree of n nodes?
(A) O(1)
(C) O(n)
(B) O(log n)
(D) O(n log n)
CS-2014
26. Consider the following rooted tree with
the vertex labeled P as the root:
P
DSA
W
The order in which the nodes are W
visited
during an in order traversal of the tree
is
(A) SQPTRWUV
(C) SQPTWUVR
(B) SQPTUWRV
(D) SQPTRUWV
27.
Consider the pseudo code given below. The

function DoSomething() takes as argument a
pointer to the root of an arbitrary tree
represented by the leftMostChild-rightSibling
representation. Each node of the tree is of
type tree Node.
typedef struct treeNode* treeptr;
th
th
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Page 144
GATE QUESTION BANK
DSA

1.
2.
[Ans. B]
n
=
n
be p numbers after x, because right

subtree of root contains p nodes.
x is n p
[Ans. C]
The number of internal nodes of a
complete k- ary tree of height h is
7.
[Ans. B]
The root of the tree is stored at X [1]
Left X[i] stored at X[2i]
Right X[i] stored at X [2i+1]
If tree is complete Binary tree minimum it
require n consecutive memory locations
of
x, x[1],..x[n 1], x[n].
8.
[Ans. C]
=n
)
= n(
Here is the number of leaves at height
h
3.
4.
[Ans. A]
The inorder traversal of a binary search
tree is always in sorted order or in
increasing order of a given sequence. So,
the in order traversal of the tree T is
9,10,15,22,23,25,27,29,40,50,60,95
[Ans. D]
5
8
( ) Possible
4
7
[Ans. B]
Draw the tree as per the definition and
count the nodes.
dif =2
dif =2
dif =0
dif =1
dif =2
dif =0
dif =1
dif =0
( ) not Possible
dif =2
dif =2
dif =2
dif =1
dif =0
( ) Possible
Because 43 is less than 47, but placed in

right subtree of 47
dif =2 dif =0
dif =1
dif =0
6.
( ) possi le
possible( )
Possible
5.
9.
[Ans. B]
If a tree of height 4 will be down.
In which at third level 3 nodes can have
2- children 5- nodes can have one
children to fulfill the given requirement.
No. of leaf nodes will be 11
[Ans. C]
If we insert the number x, first it becomes
the root of resulting B.S.T. There should
th
th
th
Page 145
GATE QUESTION BANK
DSA
Tree will be like:-
a
fcg
nodes in right
subtree
dbe
nodes in
left subtree
1 2
10.
11.
12.
3 4
5 6
Second node in preorder is b, so again

dividing,
a
10 11
[Ans. C]
The given routine will return the number
of leaf nodes in the tree
Since the function is recursive, the left
child invoked function of a node will
return number of leaves in left subtree,
right child invoked function will return
number of leaves in right subtree.
Both will e added and returned
total number of leaves.
[Ans. C]
Maximum nodes in binary tree of height
0= 1= (
)
Maximum nodes in binary tree of height
1= 3= (
)
Maximum nodes in inary tree of height
h=(
)
13.
Postorder will be : d e b f g c a
14.
[Ans. C]
For a complete n ary tree where each
node has n children or no children,
following relation holds L = (n 1) *I +1,
where L is the number of leaf nodes and
I is the number of internal nodes. Let us
find out the value of n for the given data :
L = 41, I = 10 implies
41 = 10* (n
)
n=
15.
[Ans. B]
We have post order traversal and the tree
is Binary Search tree. So, in order
traversal of Binary Search Tree is
sequence order , , ,..,n. By using
inorder, postorder can construct unique
Binary Tree with in O (n) time.
16.
[Ans. D]
Last element of postorder search must
match with the first element of pre-order
search. That means first is postorder,
second is preorder and third one is
inorder.
Formula =
=
e f
[Ans. B]
3 unlabeled nodes
Possible Binary tress total = 5
[Ans. A]
Inorder : d b e a f c g
Preorder : a b d e c f g
As a is the first node in pre-order, it must
be the root of the tree So, according to
inorder,
th
th
th
Page 146
GATE QUESTION BANK
17.
[Ans. A]
DSA
273 is smaller than 395. So it should be

searched in left subtree instead of going
for 463.
I.
18.
0
ncorrect
Incorrect, 273 is smaller than 285. So,

from 285, search should proceed in the
left subtree
[Ans. C]
(A) It is incorrect because in order
sequence of BST gives sorted list in
increasing order.
(B) In preorder sequence of BST, root
will be processed first. So 439 should
be the first no in sequence. So it is
not true
(C) Corrrect.
121
II.
97
195
52
242
381
1
472
(D) Incorrect
149 root, then it should come at the
end of sequence.
But option C can be possible, where
97 is left child of root and 52 is left
child of it.
52 will be leaf node
orrect
.
19.
0
[Ans. B]
Consider keys 3, 4, 5
3,4,5
3,4,5
3
4
3,4,5
5
4
5
3,4,5
3,4,5
5
4
4
5
0
orrect
Number of distinct BSTs: 5
20.
0
0
0
[Ans. A]
Now, if any of the nodes is having exactly
one child then, it will be having even
number of descendant (2) because each
node is also its own descendent, which is
not possible in this tree structure. Hence,
zero is right.
ncorrect
th
th
th
Page 147
GATE QUESTION BANK
21.
[Ans. B]
n = {1 , 2 , 3}
30
20
23
42
22.
[Ans. C]
Time = O (log2n 2n)
= O (log n log
)
= O (log
)
= O (n)
23.
[Ans. A]
E.g.
h =
max(0, 0) h = 0 ,
return
max(h , h )
h = 0, h = 0
15
[Ans. C]
Upper bound is O(n), because if the BST is
skewed tree then time is equal to number
of elements
26.
[Ans. A]
Inorder traversal of m ary tree:
f T , T , , Tm are su trees then
inorder traversal is
visit (T1)
visit (root)
visit (T ,,Tm)
Follow inorder for T ,..,Tm.
According to this logic, inorder traversal
of given tree is
SQPTRWUV
27.
[Ans. D]
At every node, if left sibiling = null,
value =1 & it is added to Dosomething
(right sibiling).
If right sibiling = null then value = 0 is
returned & it is added to value.
Value = 1 + 0 = 1
It is counting number of leaf nodes.
0
Return 0
Return 0
another e.g.
right)
height(n right))
return
return 0,
Option is correct y going through

options.
24.
35
25.
Return 0
(height(n
39
10
return (
DSA
[Ans. D]
Postorder travel sequences
15, 10 ,23, 25, 20, 35, 42, 39, 30
Preorder
30, 20, 10, 15, 23, 25, 39, 35, 42
th
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Page 148
GATE QUESTION BANK
Height Balanced Trees (AVL Trees, B and

CS-2008
1.
A B-tree of order 4 is built from scratch by
10 successive insertions. What is the
maximum number of node splitting
operations that may take place?
(A) 3
(C) 5
(B) 4
(D) 6
2.
6.
DSA
Suppose we have a balanced binary

search tree T holding n numbers. We are
given two numbers L and H and wish to
sum up all the numbers in T that lie
between L and H. Suppose there are m
such numbers in T. If the tightest upper
bound on the time to compute the sum is
the value of
a + 10b + 100c + 1000d is _______________.

(A) The cost of searching an AVL tree is
(log n) but that of a binary search
tree is O(n).
(B) The cost of searching an AVL tree is
(log n) but that of a complete
binary tree is (n log n).
(C) The cost of searching a binary search
tree is (log n) but of an AVL tree is
(n).
(D) The cost of searching an AVL tree is
(n log n) but that of a binary search
tree is O(n).
CS-2009
3.
What is the maximum height of any
AVL-tree with 7 nodes? Assume that the
height of a tree with a single node is 0.
(A) 2
(C) 4
(B) 3
(D) 5
CS-2010
4.
Consider a -tree in which the maximum
number of keys in a node is 5. What is the
minimum number of keys in any non-root
node?
(A) 1
(C) 3
(B) 2
(D) 4
CS-2014
5.
Consider a rooted n node binary tree
represented using pointers. The best
upper bound on the time required to
determine the number of subtrees having
exactly 4 nodes is (
) Then the
value of a + 10b is _________.
th
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Page 149
GATE QUESTION BANK
DSA

1.
[Ans. A]
Consider a B tree of order 4.
5.
[Ans. 1]
To find subtrees from a tree of n nodes, it
takes O(n) [Dynamic Programming]
So
(
)
a = 1 and b = 0
So
a + 10 b = 1 + (10
A B tree of order m contains n records

and if each node contains b records on the
average then the tree has about

leaves. If we split k nodes along the path
from leave then

6.
[Ans. 110]
Out of n number of balanced binary
search trees, to search for a number L in
tree, the time required is = O(log n).
From L, to sum up of m elements the time
needed is = m
Total time complexity = O
The given function
=
a = 0, b =1, c = 1, d = 0
In given problem n = 10 , b =3, m=4 So
2.
[Ans. A]
Cost of searching BST :
Best case O (min height);
Worst case O (max height ) = O(n)
where n is total number of nodes. Worst
case can occur if the BST is skewed, but
AVL tree is always height balanced
3.
[Ans. B]
+
0 1
+
+ 1
1
1
+
1
0
0
4.
0) = 1
1
1
0
OR
x hei ht
3
1
0
[Ans. C]
As per
tree definition each node has to
be full or atleast 50% of its total capacity.
Here, order of B+ tree
= maximum of keys in a node +1 =6 (say b)
So, minimum number of keys in any
internal node is ceiling(b/2)=3
th
th
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Page 150
GATE QUESTION BANK
DSA
Priority Queues
CS 2005
1.
A priority-Queue is implemented as a
Max-Heap. Initially it is 5 elements. The
level- order traversal of the heap is given
below: 10, 8, 5, 3, 2.
Two new elements 1 and 7 are inserted
in the heap in that order. The level-order
traversal of the heap after the insertion of
the element is
(A) 10, 8, 7, 5, 3, 2, 1
(B) 10, 8, 7, 2, 3, 1, 5
(C) 10, 8, 7, 1, 2, 3, 5
(D) 10, 8, 7, 3, 2, 1, 5
2.
Suppose the elements 7, 2, 10 and 4 are

inserted in that order into the valid 3-ary
max heap found in the above question,
Q.3. Which one of the following is the
sequence of items in the array
representing the resultant heap?
(A) 10, 7, 9, 8, 3, 1, 5, 2, 6, 4
(B) 10, 9, 8, 7, 6, 5, 4, 3, 2, 1
(C) 10, 9, 4, 5, 7, 6, 8, 2, 1, 3
(D) 10, 8, 6, 9, 7, 2, 3, 4, 1, 5
Common Data for Questions 5, 6, 7
An array X of n distinct integers is
interpreted as a complete binary tree. The
index of the first element of the array is 0.
Suppose there are lo n sorted lists of
elements each. The time complexity
of producing a sorted list of all these

elements is:
(Hint: Use a heap data structure)
(A) O(n log log n) (C) (n log n)
(B) (n log n)
(D) (n3/2)
CS 2006
Statement for Linked answer-questions
3&4
A 3-ary max heap is like a binary max
heap, but instead of two children, nodes
have 3 children. A 3-ary heap can be
represented by an array as follows: The
root is stored in the first location, a[0],
nodes in the next level, from left to right,
is stored from a[1] to a[3]. The nodes
from the second level of the tree from left
to right are stored from a[4] location
onward. An item x can be inserted into a
3-ary heap containing n items by placing x
in the location a[n] and pushing it up the
tree to satisfy the heap property.
3.
4.
Which one of the following is a valid

sequence of elements in an array
representing 3-ary max heap?
(A) 1, 3, 5, 6, 8, 9
(C) 9, 3, 6, 8, 5, 1
(B) 9, 6, 3, 1, 8, 5
(D) 9, 5, 6, 8, 3, 1
5.
The index of the parent of element

X [i] , i 0, is
(A) i 2
(C) i 2
(B) i 2 2
(D) 1
6.
If only the root node does not satisfy the

heap property, the algorithm to convert
the complete binary tree into a heap has
the best asymptotic time complexity of
(A) O(n)
(C) O(n log n)
(B) O(log n)
(D) O(n log log n)
7.
If the root is at level 0, the level of

element X[i], i 0, is
(A) lo i
(C) lo i
lo
(B)
i 1
(D) lo i
8.
Which of the following sequences of array

elements forms a heap?
(A) {23, 17, 14, 6, 13, 10, 1, 12, 7, 5}
(B) {23, 17, 14, 6, 13, 10, 1, 5, 7, 12}
(C) {23, 17, 14, 7, 13, 10, 1, 5, 6, 12}
(D) {23, 17, 14, 7, 13, 10, 1, 12, 5, 7}
9.
In a binary max heap counting n numbers

the smallest element can be found in time
(A)
n
(C)
lo
(B)
lo lo n
(D)
1
th
th
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Page 151
GATE QUESTION BANK
CS 2007
10. Consider the process of inserting an
element into a Max Heap, where the Max
Heap is represented by an array. Suppose,
we perform binary search on the path
from the new leaf to the root to find the
position for the newly inserted element,
the number of comparisons performed is
(A) (log2 n)
(C) (n)
(B) (log2 log2 n)
(D) (n log2 n)
(A)
10
(B)
10
10
(D)
CS 2011
14. A max-heap is a heap where the value of
each parent is greater than or equal to
value of its children. Which of the
following is a max-heap?
(C)
Which one of the following array

represents a binary max- heap?
(A) {25, 12, 16, 13, 10, 8, 14}
(B) {25, 14, 13, 16, 10, 8, 12}
(C) {25, 14, 16, 13, 10, 8, 12}
(D) {25, 14, 12, 13, 10, 8, 16}
What is the content of the array after two
delete operations on the correct answer
to the previous question?
(A) {14, 13, 12, 10, 8}
(B) {14, 12, 13, 8, 10}
(C) {14, 13, 8, 12, 10}
(D) {14, 13, 12, 8, 10}
5
1
CS 2009
Statement for linked answer Questions
12 & 13
Consider a binary max-heap implemented
using an array
13.
CS 2008
11. We have a binary heap on n elements and
wish to insert n more elements (not
necessarily one after another) into this
heap. The total time required for this is
(A) (log n)
(C) (n log n)
(B) (n)
(D) (n2)
12.
DSA
10
CS - 2014
15. A priority queue is implemented as a
Max-Heap. Initially, it has 5 elements. The
level-order traversal of the heap is: 10, 8,
5, 3, 2. Two new elements 1 and 7 are
inserted into the heap in that order. The
level-order traversal of the heap after the
insertion of the elements is:
(A) 10, 8, 7, 3, 2, 1, 5
(B) 10, 8, 7, 2, 3, 1, 5
(C) 10, 8, 7, 1, 2, 3, 5
(D) 10, 8, 7, 5, 3, 2, 1
th
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Page 152
GATE QUESTION BANK
DSA
Answer Keys & Explanations

1.
[Ans. D]
3.
[Ans. D]
The 3 ary max heap
root
10
Heap after
inserting the 5
elements
5
8
root
So the valid sequence is 9, 5, 6, 8, 3, 1
10
Heap after inserting 1
4.
[Ans. A]
After inserting 7, 2, 10, 4 the resultant
heap become
10, 7,9, 8, 3, 1, 5, 2, 6, 4
8
2
10
root
Heap after inserting 7
and heapify
10
7
8
5.
2.
[Ans. D]
Complete binary tree array
representation
[Ans. A]
The algorithm as follows:
Prepare a heap of lists that means each
node will have a list. And treat the first
element as the key of each respective node.
Perform deleteMin, which will return list
whose first element is smallest among all.
Then delete the current list first element
and insert the same list now based on next
list element.
Perform these steps
repeatedly until heap is empty completely.
Preparing heap step will take O(logn) as
there are logn list. Each deleteMin and
insert will take O(loglogn) as the height of
heap is O(loglogn). There will be n such
operation. Thus, A is correct choice.
1
4
3
9
7
th
1
0
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Page 153
GATE QUESTION BANK
The index of parent element of x[1] =0

x[2] =0
x[3] =1
x[4] =1
x[5] =2
x[6] =2
i.e. for
Index of the parent of x[i] 2 1
6.
[Ans. B]
It is the complexity to adjust the tree to
satisfy heap property that will be equal to
the height of the tree.
That is O(logn)
7.
[Ans. C]
0
Index min
= (20 + 21+22+ 23 + ------------+ 21-1)
since index starts with 0
Indexmin = 2
9 10 11 12 13 14
3
0 1
Level 1 = 2
= 21
The level 1 will have at most 2 elements

so indexmax will be
Indexmax = 2
1
2
1
2 2
1
2
1 index
2 2
1
1
i=2 1
When index is max
i 1 21
log (21+1 2+1)
lo 2(i +1)= 1
= log 2(21+1 1)< 1 + 1
when index is min
=1
So, to get value as an integer and equal to 1,
we need to apply floor operator.
So, the expression level is lo
1
evel 0 = 20
DSA
8.
[Ans. C]
{23, 17, 14, 7, 13, 10, 1, 5, 6, 12}
Level 2 = 4
= 22
23
17
Level 3 = 8
= 23
14
15 16 17 18
Level 4 = 16
Maximum no. of nodes at level 1 is 21 = 24
Since elements are stored in an array

To place an element at level 1 we need to
put (completely all possible) max
possible elements at level 1-1 i.e. 21-1.
i.e. if we have to put an elements at level 4
all the above 3 levels have max possible
capacities.
i.e.
10
12
Max heap
9.
[Ans. A]
MAX heap used to identity max element in
O (1) time. So, to identify min element
require O (n), to apply the linear search.
10.
[Ans. A]
Inserting an element into a max heap
takes O(1) times. When we perform a
binary search on the path from the new
leaf to the root to find the position for the
newly inserted element takes (log n) as
expected.
level0 1
level1 2
level2 4
13
level3 8
So, the least index of an element at the

level 1 will be
th
th
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Page 154
GATE QUESTION BANK
11.
[Ans. B]
If we have a binary heap on n elements
and we wish to insert n more elements
then we call a recursive function to build
heap
which
is
responsible
for
constructing the heap
The time spend by build heap is of the
order of the sum of heights of all the
vertices. But at most 2 vertices are
of height i. so the total time spent by build
heap is
12.
n
i
2
Delete 16: Replace it by 8
13
10
After heafying:
14
12
13
8
10
15.
[Ans. A]
Level order traversal is: 10, 8, 5, 3, 2
So the tree will be
12
[Ans. D]
Delete 25 : Replace it by 12
10
[Ans. B]
The structure of a heap is near-complete
binary tree. All levels except the last level
must be completely full. Option A does
not have this property, whereas options C
and D violate max-heap property that
every node must have higher value than it
children.
16
14
12
10
5
16
14
13
= {14, 13, 12, 8, 10}
14.
25
13.
12
14
[Ans. C]
In a max-heap, parent node should have
value greater than or equal to both its
children
13
DSA
10
After inserting 1 the tree is

10
After heafying:
16
5
12
14
13
10
8
th
th
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Page 155
GATE QUESTION BANK
DSA
After inserting 7 the tree is

10
10
Heapify
5
Final tree
Level order traversal of final tree

= 10, 8, 7, 3, 2, 1, 5
th
th
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Page 156
GATE QUESTION BANK
DSA
Sorting Algorithms
CS 2006
1.
Which one the following inplace sorting
algorithms needs the minimum number
of swaps?
(A) Quick-sort
(C) Selection sort
(B) Insertion sort
(D) Heap sort
2.
The median of n elements can be found in

O(n) time. Which one of the following is
correct about the complexity of quick
sort, in which median is selected as pivot?
(A) (n)
(C) (n2)
(B) (n log n)
(D) (n3)
CS-2007
3.
Which of the following sorting algorithms
has the lowest worst case complexity?
(A) Merge sort
(C) Quick sort
(B) Bubble sort
(D) Selection sort
CS-2008
4.
Consider the Quicksort algorithm.
Suppose there is a procedure for finding a
pivot element which splits the list into
two sub lists each of which contains at
least one-fifth of the elements. Let T(n) be
the number of comparisons required to
sort n elements. Then
(A) T(n) 2T (n/5) + n
(B) T(n) T(n/5) + T(4n/5) + n
(C) T(n) 2T (4n/5) + n
(D) T(n) 2T (n/2) + n
CS-2009
5.
What is the number of swaps required to
sort n elements using selection sort, in the
worst case?
(A) (n)
(C) ( )
(B) (n log n)
(D) (
g )
6.
is the worst case time complexity of the

quick sort?
(A) (n)
(C) ( )
(B) (n log n)
(D) (
g )
CS-2011
7.
An algorithm to find the length of the
longest monotonically increasing
sequence of number in an array A[0 :n 1]
is given below.
Let denote the length of the longest
monotonically increasing sequence
starting at index i in the array.
Initialize
F r a i such that 0 i
2
[i]
[i
]
if
{
ther ise
Finally the length of the longest
monotonically increasing sequence is
Max(
)
TRUE ?
(A) The algorithm uses dynamic
programming paradigm
(B) The algorithm has a linear
complexity and uses branch and
bound paradigm
(C) The algorithm has a non-linear
polynomial complexity and uses
branch and bound paradigm
(D) The algorithm uses divide and
conquer paradigm.
CS-2012
8.
A list of n strings, each of length n, is
sorted into lexicographic order using the
merge-sort algorithm. The worst case
running time of this computation is
(A) O(n log n)
(C) O (n2 + log n)
(B) O(n2 log n)
(D) O(n2)
In quick sort, for sorting n elements, the

( )
the smallest element is selected as
pivot using an O(n) time algorithm. What

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CS-2013
9.
Which one of the following is the tightest
upper bound that represents the number
of swaps required to sort n numbers
using selection sort?
(A) ( g )
(C) (
g )
(B) ( )
(D) ( )
10.
The number of elements that can be

s rted i ( g ) time usi g heap s rt is
(A) ( )
(C) (
)
(B) ( g )
DSA
12.
Suppose P, Q, R, S, T are sorted sequences

having lengths 20,24,30,35,50
respectively. They are to be merged into
a single sequence by merging together
two sequences at a time. The number of
comparisons that will be needed in the
worst case by the optimal algorithm for
doing this is ____.
13.
You have an array of n elements. Suppose

you implement quicksort by always
choosing the central element of the array
as the pivot. Then the tightest upper
bound for the worst case performance is
(C) (
g )
(A) O( )
(B) O(n log n)
(D) O( )
(D) ( g )
CS-2014
11. Let P be a quick sort program to sort
numbers in ascending order using the
first element as the pivot. Let t and t be
the number of comparisons made by P for
the inputs [1 2 3 4 5 ] and [4 1 5 3 2]
respectively. Which one of the following
holds?
(A) t
(C) t
t
(B) t
t
(D) t
t

1.
2.
[Ans. C]
In selection sort, minimum number of
swaps taken compared to other sorting
techniques.
No. of swaps = O(n)
No. of comparisons = O( )
In every pass, it constructs sorted subarrays and places the next element in
proper position in the sorted sub array.
So, we need only 1 swap in every pass
records with key less than v appear in

[ ] [j 1] and all those with keys v
r greater appear i [j ] [ ] we
then apply quicksort recursively to
[ ] A[j 1] a d [j ] [ ]
The recursion equation becomes for some
value of i
( )
( (i
))
he s uti
f the ( )
(
g )
But to calculate median every time [pass]
it require at least (n2) time. Total time
requireme t ( 2).
[Ans. C]
If the median of n elements can be found
in O(n) time and we select the median as
pivot. Then quicksort of n elements of an
array [ ]
[ ] as f
s We
permute the elements in the array so that
for some index j with value v all the
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GATE QUESTION BANK
3.
4.
[Ans. A]
Sorting
Algorithm
Merge sort
Quick sort
Selection sort
6.
[Ans. B]
Selection sort
Selects the next big element and swaps
with initial elements
Comparisons O ( )
Swaps O(n)
10.
[Ans. C]
If we have an array of x elements then
time complexity to sort x elements using
heap sort is (x g x).
We need to find value of x so that time
complexity to sort x elements gets ( g )
We can direct discard option (A) & (D).
Now check option (C)
g
g
[
g(
)]
g g
g g
[Ans. B]
If we want to sort n elements with the
help of Quicksort algorithm. If pivot
elements which split the list into two sublists each in which one list contains one
fifth element or n/5 and other list
contains 4n/5 and balancing takes n. So
( )
( / ) (4 / )
[Note : n
5.
9.
Worst case complexity
(with n input)
O(nlogn)
Bubble sort
g(
[Ans. A]
In each pass there can be at most 1 swap.
There are n such passes in selection sort
i.e. maximum n swaps will happen in
worst case.
[Ans. B]
The relation T(n) = T(n/4)+T(3n/4)+n
The pivot element is selected in a such
way that it will divide the array into 1/4th
and 3/4th always solving this relation
given (n log n).
7.
[Ans. A]
The algorithm uses dynamic program
paradigm.
8.
[Ans. B]
In merge sort algorithm no. of splits are
proportional to height and in each level
work done is .
ta ime C mp exity ( log n)
DSA
g g
(
( g )
pti (C) is c rrect
]
)
11.
[Ans. C]
First input [1 2 3 4 5 ] is the worst case of
quicksort and it will require more no.of
comparisons than input 2 [4 1 5 3 2]
12.
[Ans. 358]
When we are merging two sorted lists of
lengths m and n, the maximum number of
comparisons will be m+n 1. Also the
worst case merging is done by merging
the two smallest length sequences.
The given lengths of sequences are: L1:20,
L2:24, L3:30, L4:35, L5:50.
Step1: The number comparisons in
merging sequences L1, L2 is
( 0
4
) 4 (Sequence L6)
(30+35 1)=64 (sequence L7)
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DSA
Step 3: The number comparisons in

(44+50 1)=93 (sequence L8)
(94+65 1)=158 (final sequence)
So the total number of comparisons:
43+64+93+158 = 358
13.
[Ans. A]
The worst case time complexity of quick
sort is ( ) irrespective of whether pivot
element is first element or middle element
or last element. If the input array is such
that middle element is the minimum or
maximum one, then the worst case can
occur
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Graph Algorithms
CS 2005
1.
An undirected graph G has n nodes. Its
adjacency matrix is given by an n n
square matrix whose
(i) diagonal elements are 0s and
(ii) non-diagonal elements are 1s.
(A) Graph G has no minimum spanning
tree (MST).
(B) Graph G has a unique MST of cost
n 1.
(C) Graph G has multiple distinct MSTs,
each of cost n 1.
(D) Graph G has multiple spanning trees
of different costs.
5.
To implement Dijkstras shortest path

algorithm on unweighted graphs so that it
runs in linear time, then data structure to
be used is
(A) Queue
(C) Heap
(B) Stack
(D) B-tree
6.
Consider the following graph:

2
b
1
1
a
f
5
2.
3.
Let G (V, E)be an undirected graph with

positive edge weights. Dijkstras single
source shortest path algorithm can be
implemented using the binary heap data
structure with time complexity?
(A) O( |V|2 )
(B) O( |E| + |V| log|V|)
(C) O(|V|log|V|)
(D) O((|E| + |V|) log |V|)
In a depth first traversal of a graph G with
n vertices, k edges are marked as tree
edges. The number of connected
components in G is
(A) k
(C) n k 1
(B) k + 1
(D) n k
Which one of the following cant be the

sequence of edges added, in that order to
a minimum spanning tree using Kruskals
algorithm?
(A) ( a b), (d f), (b f), (d c), (d e)
(B) ( a b), (d f), (d c), (b f), (d e)
(C) ( d f), (a b), (d c), (b f), (d e)
(D) ( d f), (a b), (b f), (d e), (d c)
7.
Let T be a depth first search tree in an

undirected graph G. Vertices u and v are
leaves of this tree T. The degrees of both u
and v in G are at least 2. Which one of the
(A) There must exist a vertex w adjacent
to both u and v in G
(B) There must exist a vertex w whose
removal disconnect u and v in G
(C) There must exist a cycle in G
containing u and v
(D) There must exist a cycle in G
containing u and all its neighbor in G
CS 2006
4.
Consider a weighted complete graph G on
the vertex set {v1, v2, . , vn} such that the
weight of the edge (vi, vj) is 2| i j|. The
weight of a minimum spanning tree of G is
(A) n 1
(C) . /
(B) 2n 2
(D) n2
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8.
Consider the depth-first-search of an

undirected graph with 3 vertices P, Q and
R. Let discovery time d(u) represent the
time instant when the vertex u is first
visited and finish time f(u) represents the
time instant when the vertex u is last
visited. Given that
d(P) = 5 units
f(P) = 12 units
d(Q) = 6 units
f(Q) = 10 units
d(R) = 14 units
f(R) = 18 units
TRUE about the graph?
(A) There is only one connected component
(B) There are two connected components
and P and R are connected
(C) There are two connected components
and Q and R are connected
(D) There are two connected components
and P and Q are connected
CS - 2007
9.
In an unweighted, undirected connected
graph, the shortest path from a node S to
every other node is computed most
efficiently, in terms of time complexity by
(A) Dijkstras algorithm starting from S
(B) Warshalls algorithm
(C) Performing a DFS starting from S
(D) Performing a BFS starting from S
10.
What is the largest integer m such that

every simple connected graph with n
vertices & n edges contains at least m
different spanning trees?
(A) 1
(C) 3
(B) 2
(D) n
12.
DSA
Let be the minimum weight among all

edge weights in an undirected connected
graph. Let e be a specific edge of weight
w. Which of the following is FALSE?
(A) There is a minimum spanning tree
containing e.
(B) If e is not in minimum spanning tree
T, then in the cycle formed by adding
e to T, all edges have the same
weight.
(C) Every minimum spanning tree has an
edge of weight .
(D) e is present in every minimum
spanning tree
Linked data for Q.13 & Q.14

Suppose the letters a, b, c, d, e, f have
probabilities , , ,
13.
14.
15.
respectively.
Which of the following is the Huffman
code for the letters a, b, c, d, e, f?
(A) 0, 10, 110, 1110, 11110, 11111
(B) 11, 10, 011, 010, 001, 000
(C) 11, 10, 01, 001, 0001, 0000
(D) 110, 100, 010, 000, 001, 111
What is the average length of the correct
answer to above question?
(A) 3
(C) 2.25
(B) 2.1875
(D) 1.9375
Consider the DAG with
V = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}, shown below
2
11.
A depth-first search is performed on a

directed acyclic graph. Let d[u] denote the
time at which vertex u is visited for the
first time & f[u] the time at which the dfs
call to the vertex u terminates. Which of
the following statements is always true
for all edges (u,v) in the graph?
(A) d[u] < d[v]
(C) f[u] < f[v]
(B) d[u] < f[v]
(D) f[u] > f[v]
Which of the following is NOT a

topological Ordering?
(A) 1 2 3 4 5 6
(B) 1 3 2 4 5 6
(C) 1 3 2 4 6 5
(D) 3 2 4 1 6 5
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CS 2008
16. The most efficient algorithm for finding
the number of connected components in
an undirected graph on n vertices and m
edges has time complexity:
(A) (n)
(C) (m + n)
(B) (m)
(D) (mn)
17.
(A) MNOPQR
(B) NQMPOR
2
d
3
g
Dijkstras single source shortest path

algorithm when run from vertex a in the
above graph, computes the correct
shortest path distance to
(A) Only vertex a
(B) Only vertices a, e, f, g, h
(C) Only vertices a, b, c, d
(D) All the vertices
19.
12
The subset-sum problem is defined as

follows: Given a set S of n positive
integers and a positive integer W,
determine whether there is a subset of S
whose elements sum to W.
An algorithm Q solves this problem in
O(nW) time. Which of the following
statement is false?
(A) Q solves the subset-sum problem in
polynomial time when the input is
encoded in unary.
(B) Q solves the subset-sum problem in
polynomial time when the input is
encoded in binary.
(C) The subset sum problem belongs to
the class NP
(D) The subset sum problem is NP-hard
21.
G is a graph on n vertices and 2n 2

edges. The edges of G can be partitioned
into two edge-disjoint spanning trees.
Which of the following is NOT true for G?
(A) For every subset of k vertices, the
induced sub graph has a most 2k 2
edges.
(B) The minimum cut in G has a least two
edges
(C) There are two edges-disjoint paths
between every pair of vertices
(D) There are two vertex-disjoint paths
between every pair of vertices
e
1
20.
(C) QMNPRO
(D) QMNPOR
(A) (a, h ), (d ,f ), (f ,c ), (g ,i ), ( d ,a ),
(g, h), ( c ,e ), (f ,h )
(B) (c ,e ), (c, f ), (f, d ), (d ,a ), (a ,b ),
(g ,h ), (h ,f ), (g ,i )
(C) (d ,f ), (f ,c ), (d ,a ), ( a ,b ), (c ,e ),
(f ,h ), (g ,h ), (g ,i )
(D) (h ,g), (g ,i ), (h ,f ), (f ,c ), (f ,d ),
(d ,a ), (a ,b ), (c, e)
g
3
18.
b
10
d
2
The Breadth First Search algorithm has

been implemented using the queue data
structure. One possible order of visiting
the nodes of the following graph is
M
DSA
For the undirected, weighted graph given

below, which of the following sequences
of edges represents a correct execution of
Prims algorithm to construct a Minimum
Spanning Tree?
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GATE QUESTION BANK
22.
23.
Linked Answers Questions Q.22 and Q.23

The subset-sum problem is defined as
follows. Given a set of n positive integers,
S *a , a , a , . . . . . , a + and a positive
integer W is there a subset S whose
elements sum of W? A dynamic program
for solving this problem uses a
2-dimensional Boolean array, X with n
rows and W 1 columns X[i, j],
1 i n, 0 j W, is TRUE if and only
if there is a subset of *a , a . . . . . , a +
whose elements sum to j.
Which of the following is valid for
2 i n and a
j W
,i 1, j(A) ,i, j,i, j a ,i 1, j(B) ,i, j,i 1, j a ,i 1, j(C) ,i, j,i, j a ,i 1, j(D) ,i, j,i 1, j a -
Q. Finds whether any negative weighted

cycle is reachable from the source.
(A) P only
(C) Both P and Q
(B) Q only
(D) Neither P nor Q
26.
Which entry of the array X, if TRUE,

implies that there is a subset whose
elements sum to W?
(A) X[1, W]
(C) X[n, W]
(B) X[n, 0]
(D) X[n 1, n]
CS 2009
24. Consider the following graph:
5
4
d
5
6
6
5
3
27.
4
f
c
6
c
Which of the following is NOT the
sequence of edges added to the minimum
spanning tree using Kruskals algorithm
(A) (b,e) (e,f) (a,c) (b,c) (f,g) (c,d)
(B) (b,e) (e,f) (a,c) (f,g) (b,c) (c,d)
(C) (b,e) (a,c) (e,f) (b,c) (f,g) (c,d)
(D) (b,e) (e,f) (b,c) (a,c) (f,g) (c,d)
3
25.
DSA
Which of the following statement (s)

is/are correct regarding Bellman-Ford
shortest path algorithm?
P. Always find a negative weighted cycle,
if one exists.
th
Common Data for Question Q.26 and Q.27

A subsequence of a given sequence is just
the given sequence with some elements
(possibly none or all) left out. We are
given two sequences X[m] and Y[n] of
lengths m and n, respectively , with
indexes of X and Y starting from 0.
We wish to find the length of the longest
common subsequence (LCS) of X[m] and
Y[n] as (m, n), where an incomplete
recursive definition for the function (I, j)
to compute the length of the LCS of X[m]
and Y[n] is given below:
(i, j) = 0, if either i = 0 or j = 0
= expr1, if i, j>0 and x[i 1] = ,j 1= expr2, if i, j>0 and x[i 1]
,j 1Which one of the following option is
correct?
(i 1, j) 1
(A) expr1
(i, j 1)
(B) expr1
(C) expr2 max( (i 1, j), (i, j 1))
(D) expr2 max( (i 1, j 1), (i, j))
The values of (i, j) could be obtained by
dynamic programming based on the
correct recursive definition of (i, j) of the
form given above, using an array L[M, N],
where M = m + 1 and N = n + 1, such
that L[I, j] = (i, j).
Which of the following statements would
be TRUE regarding the dynamic
programming solution for the recursive
definition of (i, j) ?
(A) All elements of L should be initialized
to 0 for the values of (i, j) to be
properly computed
(B) The values of (i, j) may be computed
in a row major order or column major
order of L[M, N]
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GATE QUESTION BANK
(C) The values of (i, j) cannot be

computed in either row major order or
column major order of L[M, N]
(D) L[p, q] needs to be computed before
L [r, s] if either p < r or q < s
28.
the same. Let X denote the maximum possible

weight of a subsequence of a , a , , a
and Y is the maximum possible weight of a
subsequence of a , a a . Then X is equal
to
(A) max( , a
)
(B) max( , a
2)
(C) max( , a
2 )
(D) a
2
Let
be a problem that belongs to the
class NP. Then which one of the following
is TRUE?
(A) There is no polynomial time
algorithm for
(B) If
can be solved deterministically
in polynomial time, then P = NP
(C) If
is NP-hard, then it is NP
complete
(D)
may be undecidable
CS - 2011
Linked Answer Question Q.32 and Q.33
An undirected graph G(V, E) contains
n(n>2) nodes named v , v , , v . Two
nodes v , v are connected if and only if
0<| i j | 2. Each edge (v , v ) is
assigned a weight i + j. A sample graph
with n = 4 is shown below.
7
CS 2010
Common Data for Questions 29 and 30:
Consider a complete undirected graph
with vertex set {0, 1, 2, 3, 4}. Entry
in
the matrix W below is the weight of the
edge {i,j}.
0 1 8 14
1 0 12 4 9
W = 8 12 0 7 3
1 4 7 02
[4 9 3 2 0]
29.
31.
32.
What is the minimum possible weight of a

spanning tree T in this graph such that
vertex 0 is a leaf node in the tree T?
(A) 7
(C) 9
(B) 8
(D) 10
What is the minimum possible weight of a
path P from vertex 1 to vertex 2 in this
graph such that P contains at most 3
edges?
(A) 7
(C) 9
(B) 8
(D) 10
The weight of a sequence a , a , , a
real numbers is defined as
33.
30.
DSA
of
.A
subsequence of a sequence is obtained by

deleting some elements from the sequence,
keeping the order of the remaining elements
3
What will be the cost of the Minimum
Spanning Tree (MST) of such a graph with
n nodes?
(C) 6n 11
(A) (11n
5n)
(D) 2n 1
(B) n
n 1
The length of the path from v to v in the
MST of previous question with n = 10 is
(A) 11
(C) 31
(B) 25
(D) 41
CS 2012
34. Consider the directed graph shown in the
figure below. There are multiple shortest
paths between vertices S and T. Which
one will be reported by Dijkstras shortest
path algorithm? Assume that, in any
iteration, the shortest path to a vertex v is
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GATE QUESTION BANK
updated only when a strictly shorter path

to v is discovered.
3. If a problem A is NP-Complete, there

exists a non-deterministic polynomial
time algorithm to solve A
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1 and 3 only
2
2
1
4
S
7
D
4
5
5
T
(A) SDT
(B) SBDT
35.
(C) SACDT
(D) SACET
Let G be a weighted graph with edge

weights greater than one and G be the
graph constructed by squaring the
weights of the edge in G. Let T and T be
the minimum spanning trees of G and G
respectively, with total weights t and t .
TRUE?
(A) T = T with total weight t = t
(B) T = T with total weight t
t
(C) T
T but total weight t
t
DSA
CS 2014
38. Let G be a graph with n vertices and m
edges. What is the tightest upper bound
on the running time of Depth First Search
on G, when G is represented as an
adjacency matrix?
(A) (n)
(C) ( )
(B) (n m)
(D) ( )
39.
Suppose a polynomial time algorithm is

discovered that correctly computes the
largest clique in a given graph. In this
scenario, which one of the following
represents the correct venn diagram of
the complexity classes P, NP and NP
Complete (NPC)?
(A)
NP
P
NPC
(B)
CS 2013
36. What is the time complexity of Bellman
Ford single source shortest path
algorithm on a complete graph of n
vertices?
(A) ( )
(C) ( )
(B) ( log )
(D) ( log )
NP
NPC
(C)
37.

TRUE?
1. The problem of determining whether
there exists a cycle in an undirected
graph is in P.
2. The problem of determining whether
there exists a cycle in an undirected
graph is in NP.
P = NP
NPC
(D)
P = NP = NPC
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40.
Consider the tree arcs of a BFS traversal

from a source node W in an unweighted,
connected, undirected graph. The tree T
formed by the tree arcs is a data structure
for computing
(A) the shortest path between every
pair of vertices.
(B) the shortest path from W to every
vertex in the graph.
(C) the shortest paths from W to only
those nodes that are leaves of T.
(D) the longest path in the graph.
41.
Suppose depth first search is executed on

the graph below starting at some
unknown vertex. Assume that a recursive
call to visit a vertex is made only after
first checking that the vertex has not been
visited earlier. Then the maximum
possible recursion depth (including the
initial call) is__________.
42.
Consider the decision problem 2CNFSAT

defined as follows:
{ | is a satisfiable propositional
formula in CNF with at most two literals
per clause}
For example,
(x x ) (x x ) (x x ) is a
Boolean formula and it is in 2CNFSAT.
The decision problem 2CNFSAT is
(A) NP-Complete.
(B) Solvable in polynomial time by
reduction
to
directed
graph
reachability.
DSA
(C) Solvable in constant time since any

input instance is satisfiable.
(D) NP-hard, but not NP-complete.
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GATE QUESTION BANK
DSA

1.
[Ans. C]
Use induction on the number of vertices.
Consider
4 4
matrix
and
the
corresponding graph G.
011 0
100 1
100 1
01 10
1
3
4
2
According to the question the weight of

edge in G is
| v1 v2 |, | v2 v3|, .|v , v | is 1.
In the case of minimum spanning tree of a
graph G we will add upto (n 1) vertices,
so, the weight of a minimum spanning
tree of G
This graph has more than one minimum

spanning trees that are structurally
different and each of them will have cost
3.
2.
[Ans. D]
In Dijkstras algorithm for single source
shortest path when we implement the
algorithm using the binary heap data
structure then total updates of E edges
require O(logv) time and total spent time
becomes O(|E|log|V|) but of |E| is much
less than |V|2 then time
O(E+ V) log V
3.
[Ans. D]
If k edges are marked as tree edges then
k + 1 vertices are connected to each
other. That means n k 1 vertices are
not connected with any of k + 1 vertices.
Now we can maximize number of
components only if all n k 1 vertices
are isolated.
Therefore, n k 1 + 1 = n k
This 1 is for the component having k+1
vertices
4.
2|
2|
2 |1|
2|n
2(n
1|
1)
2n
5.
[Ans. C]
Heap or priority queue are very neat data
structures allowing :
Add an element to heap with an
associated priority.
Remove the element from the heap or
priority queue that has the highest
priority, and return it.
Peak at the element with highest
priority without removing it.
A simple way to implement a heap or
priority queue data type is to keep a list of
elements, and search through the list for
the highest priority which taken O(n)
time to implement Dijkstras shortest
path algorithm on unweighted graph.
6.
[Ans. D]
In the Kruskals algorithm we will start
with the edge with minimum weight and
add the edges in non-decreasng order if it
does not form a cycle.
(A) (a b), (d f), (b f), (d c), (d, e)
1 + 1 + 2 + 2 + 3 =9
(B) (a b), (d f), (d c), (b f), (d, e)
1 + 1 + 2 + 2 + 3 =9
[Ans. B]
Given vertex set of G = {v1 , v2 , , vn}
Weight of an edge = 2 |i j| : (vi , vj) G
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GATE QUESTION BANK
(C) (d f), (a b), (d c), (b f), (d, e)

1 + 1 + 2 + 2 + 3 =9
(D) (d f), (a b), (b f), (d e), (d c)
1 + 1 + 2 + 3 + 2 =9
In choice (D), we add (d e) before (d c)
which violets the algorithm.
7.
[Ans. D]
Let the node u has some n adjacent
nodes, numbered 1 to n. In that case, to
make u as a leaf node of the tree.
We must discover all the adjacent
nodes of (u) first and next come to (u)
In that process let us say we have first
discovered the node (1) [Each of the
nodes 1, 2, 3 .. n must be of at least
2nd degree nodes. Since if any one of them,
say node p is of degree 1 it is already a
leaf node and it cant be. If its is , then our
node u cant be a leaf node then we have
to go through u to get to p]
fter discovering the first adjacent
node , we have to go on discovering nodes
except u till al the adjacent nodes of u are
discovered.
9.
[Ans. D]
In an unweighted graph performing a BFS
starting from S takes O(n) time if graph
contains n vertices. Dijkstras algorithm
only finds the single source shortest path
and takes O(n ) time but it is good for
weighted graph. Warshalls algorithm for
all pair shortest path takes O( ) time but
it is also applicable for weighted graph.
10.
[Ans. D]
Consider the following graph. Only one
edge is needed to be removed for
converting it into spanning tree. We have
n choices for removing the edges.
f
a
c
d
b
11.
[Ans. D]
Termination time of vertex which is
coming earlier is more than that of the
vertex which is coming later
12.
[Ans. D]
w be the minimum weight among all edge
weights in an undirected connected
graph. e is the specific edge of weight w. It
may be possible that another edge in the
graph having weight w which had been
added to minimum spanning tree and
when we add e to minimum spanning tree
it from a simple circuit. So we cant
include e in every minimum spanning
tree.
13.
[Ans. A]
6
5
u
5
3
4
So there must be a path in G having all

the adjacent nodes of u connected.
As shown in the figure, then there will be
a cycle consisting u and all the neighbors of
node u
8.
DSA
The probabilities are
, , ,
So, the Huffman code according to tree is

unique.
0, 10, 110, 1110, 111110,11111
represents a, b, c, d, e and f respectively.
[Ans. D]
As per the time slices, the discovery time
for Q is before the exit of P. And discovery
of R happens only when Q and P finishes,
which clearly indicates that the P and Q
are connected but not R
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GATE QUESTION BANK
1
1
1
1
14.
19.
[Ans. C]
Prims algorithm
Prims algorithm starts at an random
vertex. Then edges added to this tree one
by one. The next edge (i, j) to be added is
such that i is a vertex already included the
tree, j is a vertex not yet included and the
cost of (i, j) is minimum among all edges.
Here, when we start with the minimum
cost edge (a,b) so after (a,b) , (b,c) must
be added to the tree in (A) option (d,f) is
added which is according to Krushkals
algorithm and not Prims.
So, we take next minimum edge, i.e. (d,f).
Now starting with this, we select
minimum cost edge from which is (f,c).
Thus, in this way , we move we move on
selecting next minimum cost edge at each
node such that circuit is formed.
Hence answer is (d,f), (f,c), (d,a), (a,b),
(c,e), (f, h), (g,h), (g,i)
20.
[Ans. A]
A vertex-induced subgraph (sometimes
simply called an "induced subgraph") is a
subset of the vertices of a graph G
together with any edges whose endpoints
are both in this subset.
Now take any graph with 4 or 5 vertices
that follows given properties and you can
observe that the option (A) is not true.
21.
[Ans. B]
When the input is encoded in binary,
subset sum problem is NP complete.
22.
[Ans. B]
X[i, j] (2< = i < = n and a < =j<=w), is
true , if any of the following is true
1
f
source shortest path algorithm when run

from vertex a in the graph it includes all
the vertices. Dijkstras dont work
properly in the edge that has negative
weight (b,e), (c, h). So algorithm results
correct result only for b,c,d.
[Ans. D]
The average length of the tree is
1
5
1.9375
15.
[Ans. D]
In topological sorting the partial ordering
of the DAG, must be preserved i.e, if a b
in the DAG, then in the topological order,
b must come after a, not before. Consider
the ordering 3 2 4 1 6 5 .
1 4 in the given DAG but 4 comes before
1 in 3 2 4 1 6 5 order which means that 3
2 4 1 6 5 is not a topological order of the
given DAG.
16.
[Ans. C]
The most efficient algorithm for finding
the number of connected components
(articulation point) in an undirected
graph on n vertices and m edges using
depth first search take O(m + n) time.
ssume n m.
17.
[Ans. C]
The BFS using Queue data structure is
QMNPRO
18.
DSA
[Ans. C]
In given graph, the graph is directed and
from vertex a to all the vertices there exist
a weighted path. So Dijkstras single
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GATE QUESTION BANK
1. Sum of weights excluding a is equal to

j, i.e., if x,i 1, j- is true.
2. Sum of weights including a is equal to
j, i.e., if x,i 1, j a - is true so that we
get (j a ) a as j
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
0
8
1
1
[Ans. D]
After adding (b,e) one can add either (e,f)
or (a,c)
Kruskals algorithm works based on
greedy strategy (picks minimum weight
edge).
Weight of edge (a,c) is less than (b,c). So it
cannot come after (b,c)
12
9
4
7
We have to make minimum possible

spanning tree having vertex 0 as a leaf
node.
0
[Ans. B]
Bellman-Ford shortest path algorithm
always finds whether any negative
weighted cycle which is reachable from
the source.
1
3
So minimum possible weight = 4+1+2+3

= 10
30.
[Ans. B]
From vertex 1 to vertex 2 we choose the
path
1
[Ans. B]
(i, j) values can be computed in a row
major order or column major order of
L[M, N].
[Ans. C]
It is given that
NP
If
is NP-hard, and since it is given
that
NP this means that
is
NP-complete
Choice C is correct.
[Ans. D]
0 1 2 3 4
8 1 4
0 0 1
1 1 0 12 4 9
W
2 8 12 0 7 3
7 0 2
3 1 4
4 [4 9
3 2 0]
We draw a graph
[Ans. C]
The entry X[n, W] is true, because we find
the weight W of subset of S which
contains n elements.
[Ans. C]
l(i, j)
0 if either i 0 or j 0
l(i 1, j 1);
if i, j>0 and x,i 1,j 1max(l(i 1, j), l(i, j 1));
if i, j>0 and x,i 1,j 1expr2 max(l(i 1, j), l(i, j 1))
DSA
So weight = 1+4+3 = 8
31.
th
[Ans. B]
If X and Y be two different maximum
possible weights then we can say like
either X and Y both will be equal or the
difference between them will be because
of a . Because all other numbers are
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GATE QUESTION BANK
having some positive values in

denominator in weight. So those
denominators will be decreasing weight.
Therefore
max( , a
)
32.
[Ans. B]
Minimum spanning tree for 2 nodes
would be
(v1) (v2)
Total weight 3
would be
(v1) (v2)
|
(v3)
Total weight= 3 + 4 = 7
would be
(v1) (v2) (v4)
|
(v3)
Total weight= 3 + 4 + 6 = 13
would be
(v1) (v2) (v4)
|
(v3)
|
(v5)
Total weight= 3 + 4 + 6 + 8 = 21
would be
(v1) (v2) (v4) (v6)
|
(v3)
|
(v5)
Total weight= 3 + 4 + 6 + 8 + 10 = 31
We can observe from above examples that
when we add kth node, the weight of
spanning tree increases by 2k 2. Let T(n)
be the weight of minimum spanning tree.
T(n) can be written as
T(n) = T(n 1) + (2n 2) for n > 2
T(1) = 0, T(2) = 0 and T(2) = 3
DSA
The recurrence can be written as sum of

series
(2n 2) + (2n 4) + (2n 6) + (2n 8) .
3 and solution of this recurrence is n n + 1.
6 here cost
13
16
13
33.
[Ans. C]
Any MST which has more than 5 nodes
will have the same distance between v5
and v6 as the basic structure of all MSTs
(with more than 5 nodes) would be
following.
(v1) (v2) (v4) (v6) . (more even
numbered nodes)
|
(v3)
|
(v5)
|
.
.
(more odd numbered nodes)
Distance between v5 and v6
= 3 + 4 + 6 + 8 + 10 = 31
34.
[Ans. D]
A B
S 4
B
A
C
E
D
7
7
7
7
7
The shortest path from S T is SACET
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GATE QUESTION BANK
35.
[Ans. D]
E.g.
2
For a complete graph time complexity

n(n 1)
O (n
) O(n )
2
37.
[Ans. A]
1. We can use Depth irst Search
Algorithm to check it there is a cycle
in an undirected graph. If we
encounter any back edge in Depth
first search then given undirected
graph has a cycle. DFS can be done in
O(| | | |) time for graph G ( , ).
So, it is in P.
2. P NP,So, it is also in NP
3. NP-Complete problem
NP by
definition every problem in NP can be
solved in polynomial time using nondeterministic alogrithms.
So, Answer is (A) i.e., 1, 2 and 3 are true.
38.
[Ans. C]
DFS visits each vertex once and as it visits
each vertex, we need to find all of its
neighbors to figure out where to search
next. Finding all its neighbors in an
adjacency matrix requires O(V) times, so
overall the running time will be O( )
39.
[Ans. D]
Then all NP & NPC problems can be
reduced to P problems. Because to
compute the largest clique is NPC
problem.
40.
[Ans. B]
BFS is used in shortest path problems. So
it finds the shortest path from source
vertex to each and every vertex of a graph
41.
[Ans. 19]
c
3
MST
2
a
2
4 T
E.g.
2
2
4
2 4
MST
2
2
T
2
We can make different as well as same

MST also.
Option (D) is correct
36.
DSA
[Ans. C]
In a complete graph total no of edges is
n(n 1)
2
Time complexity of Bellman-ford
algorithm for a graph having n vertices
and m edges = O (nm)
18
21
15
8
12
20
17
19
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16
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14
13
11
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GATE QUESTION BANK
DSA
Given that we have to call a function to

visit the node only after checking whether
node was visited or not. Now we start to
call a function from node 1, then the order
of visiting in order to get maximum
number of recursive calls is
1 3 4 7 6 5 8 9 10
11 13 14 15 18 17 16
19 20 21.
If we try to visit remaining nodes 12 & 2
in this series, the initial condition fails. So
maximum possible recursive calls depth
is 19.
42.
[Ans. B]
2CNFSAT problem is solvable in
polynomial time by reduction to Directed
Graph Reachability.
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GATE QUESTION BANK
DSA
Hashing
CS 2007
1.
Consider a hash table of size seven, with
starting index zero, and a hash function
(3x+4) mod 7. Assuming the hash table is
initially empty, which of the following is
the contents of the table when the
sequence 1, 3, 8, 10 is inserted into the
table using closed hashing? Note that
denotes an empty location in the table
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
CS 2009
2.
The keys 12, 18, 13, 2, 3, 23, 5 and 15 are
inserted into an initially empty hash table
of length 10 using open addressing with
hash function h(k) = k mod 10 and linear
probing. What is the resultant hash table?
(A) 0
(B) 0
1
1
2 2
2 12
3 23
3 13
4
4
5 15
5 5
6
6
7
7
8 18
8 18
9
9
(C)
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
(D)
12
13
2
3
23
5
18
15
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
CS 2010
Statement for Linked Answer Questions
3 and 4:
A hash table of length 10 uses open
addressing with hash function
h(k) = k mod 10, and linear probing.
After inserting 6 values into an empty
hash table, the table is as shown below.
0
1
2 42
3 23
4 34
5 52
6 46
7 33
8
9
3.
Which one of the following choices gives a

possible order in which the key values
could have been inserted in the table?
(A) 46, 42, 34, 52, 23, 33
(B) 34, 42, 23, 52, 33, 46
(C) 46, 34, 42, 23, 52, 33
(D) 42, 46, 33, 23, 34, 52
4.
How many different insertion sequences

of the key values using the same hash
function and linear probing will result in
the hash table shown above?
(A) 10
(C) 30
(B) 20
(D) 40
12,2
13,3,23
5,15
18
CS 2014
5.
Consider a hash table with 9 slots. The
hash function is (k) = k mod 9. The
collisions are resolved by chaining. The
following 9 keys are inserted in the order:
5, 28, 19, 15, 20, 33, 12, 17, 10. The
maximum, minimum and average chain
lengths in the hash table, respectively, are
(A) 3, 0, and 1
(C) 4,0 and 1
(B) 3, 3, and 3
(D) 3,0 and 2
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GATE QUESTION BANK
6.
DSA
Consider a hash table with 100 slots.

Collisions are resolved using chaining.
Assuming simple uniform hashing, what
is the probability that the first 3 slots are
unfilled after the first 3 insertions?
(A) (
(B) (
(C) (
(D) (
(

1.
2.
[Ans.B]
Size of hash table = 7
h(x) = (3x+4) mod 7
h(1) = (3.1+4) mod 7 = 7 mod 7
= 0; insert at 0th location.
h(3) = (3.3+4) mod 7 =13 mod 7
= 6; insert at 6th location.
h(8) = (3.8+4) mod 7 =28 mod 7
= 0; 0th position is already filled by
element 3 so insert 8 at next free
location which is 1st position
h(10) = (3.10+4) mod 7 =34 mod 7 = 6
but 6th position is already filled with
element 3. So insert 10 at next free
location which is 2nd position
1 8 10
3
0 1 2
3 4
5 6
[Ans. C]
12 mod 10 = 2
18 mod 10 = 8
13 mod 10 = 3
2 mod 10 = 2 collision
(2+1)mod 10 = 3 again collision
(using linear probing)
(3+1)mod 10 = 4
(3+1) mod 10 = 4 collision
(using linear probing)
(4+1) mod 10 = 5
(4+1) mod 10 = 5 again collision
(5+1) mod 10 = 6
(5+1) mod 10 = 6 again collision
(6+1) mod 10 = 7

(8+1) mod 10 = 9
So resulting hash table.
0
1
2 12
3 13
4 2
5 3
6 23
7 5
8 18
9 15
3.
[Ans. C]
h (46) = 6, location 6 is free hence get
placed
placed
placed
placed
h (52) = 2, location 2 is not free as 42 is
already there. Linear probing will return
index 5. Hence, 52 will be placed at 52.
h (33) = 3, linear probe will return
index 7
4.
[Ans. C]
Please notice 52 cannot be appear in any
of first three position of any input
sequence otherwise we will not get the
needed hash table. Also, 33 can only
appear
in
the
last
position.
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GATE QUESTION BANK
DSA
52 can appear only at 4th position and

5th position.
Thus, we will need to consider counting
as follows:
If 52 appears at 4th position then first
three number will have to be 42 23 34.
We can arrange these numbers in
fact(3) = 6.
Thus, we count all sequences where 52
appears at 4th position and 5th and 6th
positions are occupied by 46 and 33
respectively.
If 52 appears at 5th position then first
four numbers will have to be 42 23 34 46.
We can arrange these numbers in
fact(4) = 24.
Thus, total counting are 30.
5.
[Ans. A]
Slot Keys
Collisions
at slots
8
0
17
1
28
2
19
1
3
20
2
4
10
1, 2, 3
5
5
6
15
7
33
6
8
12
5, 6, 7
Total no of collision = 10
Average =
6.
[Ans. A]
Collision resolution method: Chaining
As the 1st 3 slots must be empty
Probability to fill 1st element =
(
)
Probability to fill 2nd element
=
( Collision resolution is chaining.
Same slot call be filled again )
Probability to fill 3rd element =
( ollision resolution is chaining. Same
slot call be filled again
Total probability
(
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GATE QUESTION BANK
Operating System
Introduction to Operating System

CS - 2005
1.
The shell command
find-name password-print
is executed in /etc directory of a
computer system running Unix. Which of
the following shell commands will give
the same information as the above
command when executed in the same
directory?
(A) Is passwd
(B) cat passwd
(C) grep name passwd
(D) grep print passwd
2.
A user level process in UNIX traps the

signal sent on a Ctrl-C input, and has a
signal handling routine that saves
appropriate files before terminating the
process. When a Ctrl-C input is given to
this process, what is the mode in which
the signal handling routine executes?
(A) kernel mode
(B) superuser mode
(C) privileged mode
(D) user mode

1.
[Ans. A]
ls passwd will give the same information.
2.
[Ans. A]
SIGKILL is signal which is generated by
Ctrl-C and this signal will execute in
kernel mode.
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Operating System
Process Management
CS 2005
1.
Consider the following code fragment:
if (fork( ) == 0)
* a = a + 5; printf (%d, %d\n, a, &a); +
else { a= a 5;
printf (%d, %d\n, a, &a); +
Let u and v be the values printed by the
parent process and x and y be the values
printed by the child process. Which one of
the following is TRUE?
(A) u = x + 10 and v = y
(B) u = x +10 and v y
(C) u + 10 = x and v = y
(D) u + 10 = x and v y
2.
Given below is a program which when

executed
spawns
two
concurrent
processes:
Semaphore X:=0;
/* Process now forks into concurrent
processes P1 & P2 */
P1 : repeat forever P2:repeat forever
V(X);
P(X);
Compute;
Compute;
P(X);
V(X);
Consider the following statements about
processes P1 and P2:
I: It is possible for process P1 to starve.
II. It is possible for process P2 to starve.
Which of the following holds?
(A) Both I and II are true
(B) I is true but II is false
(C) II is true but I is false
(D) Both I and II are false
3.
Two concurrent processes P1 and P2 use

four shared resources R1, R2, R3 and R4,
as shown below.
P1:
P2:
Compute: Compute:
Use R1;
Use R1;
Use R2;
Use R2;
Use R3;
Use R3;
Use R4;
Use R4;
Both processes are started at the same
time, and each resource can be accessed
by only one process at a time. The
following scheduling constraints exist
between the access of resources by the
processes:
P2 must complete use of R1 before P1
gets access to R1.

gets access to R2.
gets access to R3.
gets access to R4.
There are no other scheduling constraints
between the processes. If only binary
semaphores are used to enforce the above
scheduling constraints, what is the
minimum number of binary semaphores
needed?
(A) 1
(C) 3
(B) 2
(D) 4
CS 2006
4.
The atomic fetchand set x, y instruction
unconditionally sets the memory location
x to 1 and fetches the old value of x in y
without allowing any intervening access
to the memory location x. Consider the
following implementation of P and V
functions on a binary semaphore S.
void P(binary_semaphore *S) {
unsigned y;
unsigned *x = & (S value); }
do {
fetch and set x, y;
} while (y);
}
void V(binary_semaphore *S) {
S value = 0;
}
Which one the following is true?
(A) The implementation may not work if
context switching is disabled in P
(B) Instead of using fetch- and- set, a pair
of normal load/ store can be used
(C) The implementation of V is wrong
(D) The code does not implement a
binary semaphore
5.
The process state transition diagram of an

operating system is as given below.
Which of the following must be FALSE
about the above operating system?
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GATE QUESTION BANK

Create a new
process
Schedule
Running
Ready
Start
I/O Complete
or Resource
released
Exit
(C) Lines 6 to 10 need not be inside a

critical section
(D) The barrier implementation is
correct if there are only two
processes instead of three
Terminated
Wait for I/O

completion or
resource
Blocked
7.
Which one of the following rectifies the

problem in the implementation?
(A) Lines 6 to 10 are simply replaced by
process_arrived
(B) At the beginning of the barrier the
first process to enter the barrier
waits until process_arrived becomes
zero before proceeding to execute
P(S)
(C) Context switch is disabled at the
beginning of the barrier and reenabled at the end
(D) The variable process_left is made
private instead of shared
(A) It is a multi-programmed operating

system
(B) It uses preemptive scheduling
(C) It uses non- preemptive scheduling
(D) It is a multi-user operating system
Common Data for Q. 6 & 7
Barrier is a synchronization construct
where a set of processes synchronizes
globally i.e. each process in the set arrives at
the barrier and waits for all others to arrive
and then all processes leave the barrier. Let
the number of processes in the set be three
and S be a binary semaphore with the usual
P and V functions. Consider the following C
implementation of a barrier with line
numbers shown on the left.
void barrier (void) {
1 : P (S);
2 : process_arrived + +;
3 : V (S) ;
4 : while (process_arrived ! = 3);
5 : P (S) ;
6 : process_left + + ;
7 : if (process_left = = 3){
8 : process_arrived = 0;
9 : process_left = 0;
10: }
11 : V (S);
}
The variable process_arrived
and
process_left are shared among all
processes and are initialized to zero. In a
concurrent program all the three
processes call the barrier function when
they need to synchronize globally.
6.
Operating System
CS - 2007
8.
Two processes P1 and P2 need to access a
critical section of code. Consider the
following synchronization construct used
by the processes:
/* P1 */
while (true) {
wants1 = true;
while (wants2 == true);
/* Critical Section */
wants1 = false;
}
/* Remainder section */
/* P2 */
while (true) {
wants2 = true;
while (wants1 == true);
/* Critical Section */
wants2 = false;
}
/* Remainder section */
Here, wants1 and wants2 are shared
variables,which are initialized to false.
TRUE about the above construct?
(A) It does not ensure mutual exclusion
(B) It does not ensure bounded waiting
(C) It requires that processes enter the
critical section in strict alternation
(D) It does not prevent deadlocks but
ensures mutual exclusion
The above implementation of barrier is

incorrect. Which one of the following is
true?
(A) The barrier implementation is wrong
due to the use of binary semaphore S
(B) The barrier implementation may
lead to a deadlock if two barrier
invocations are used in immediate
succession
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9.
Processes P1 and P2 use critical_flag in

the following routine to achieve mutual
exclusion. Assume that critical_flag is
initialized to FALSE in the main program.
get_exclusive_access ( )
{
if ( critical_flag == FALSE)
{
critical_flag = TRUE;
critical_region ( );
critical_flag = FALSE;
}
}
Consider the following statements.
(i) It is possible for both P1 and P2 to
access critical_region concurrently.
(ii) This may lead to a deadlock.
Which of the following holds?
(A) (i) is false and (ii) is true
(B) Both (i) and (ii) are false
(C) (i) is true and (ii) is false
(D) Both (i) and (ii) are true
10.
Synchronization in the classical readers

and writers problem can be achieved
through use of semaphores. In the
following incomplete code for readerswriters problem, two binary semaphores
mutex and wrt are used to obtain
synchronization
wait ( wrt )
writing is performed
signal (wrt)
wait (mutex)
readcount = readcount + 1
if readcount = 1 then S1
S2
reading is performed
S3
readcount = readcount 1
if readcount = 0 then S4
signal (mutex)
The values of S1, S2, S3 and S4 (in that
order) are
(A) signal (mutex), wait (wrt),
signal (wrt), wait (mutex)
(B) signal (wrt), signal (mutex),
wait (mutex), wait (wrt)
(C) wait (wrt), signal (mutex),
wait ( mutex), signal (wrt)
(D) signal (mutex), wait (mutex),
signal (mutex) , wait (mutex)
11.
Operating System
The contents of the text file t1.txt

containing four lines are as follows:
a1
b1
a2
b2
a3
b2
a4
b1
The contents of the text file t2. txt
containing five lines are as follows:
a1
c1
a2
c2
a3
c3
a4
c3
a5
c4
Consider the following Bourne shell
script:
awk
(Print $1, $2) t1.txt
while read a b ;
do awk v aV = $ a v by = $b
a V = = $1 (print aV, bV, $2) t2.txt
done
Which one of the following strings will
NOT be present in the output generated
when the above script in run? (Note that
the given strings may be substrings of a
printed line.)
(A) b1 c1
(C) b1 c2
(B) b2 c3
(D) b1 c3
CS - 2008
12. A process executes the following code for
(i = 0; i < n; i ++) fork ( );
The total number of child processes
created is
(A) n
(C) 2
(B) 2
1
(D) 2
1
13.
th
The P and V operations on counting

semaphores, where s is a counting
semaphore, are defined as follows:
P (s): s = s 1;
if s < 0 then wait;
V (s): s = s + 1;
if s < = 0 then wakeup a process
waiting on s;
Assume that Pb and Vb, the wait and signal
operations on binary semaphore are
provided. Two binary semaphores Xb and
Yb are used to implement the semaphore
operations P (s) and V (s) as follows:
P(s): Pb (Xb);
s = s 1;
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GATE QUESTION BANK
if (s < 0) {
Vb (Xb);
Pb(Yb);
}
else Vb(Xb);
V(s): Pb(Xb);
s = s + 1;
if (s <= 0)
Vb (Yb);
Vb (Xb);
The initial values of Xb and Yb are
respectively
(A) 0 and 0
(C) 1 and 0
(B) 0 and 1
(D) 1 and 1
CS 2009
14. In the following process state transition
diagram for a uniprocessor system,
assume that there are always some
processes in the ready state:
B
Start
Running
Ready
E
Terminated
Blocked
Now consider the following statements:

I. If a process makes a transition D, it
would result in another process
making transition A immediately
II. A process P2 in blocked state can take
transition E while another process P1
is in running state
III. The OS uses preemptive scheduling
IV. The
OS
uses
non-preemptive
scheduling
Which of the above statements are TRUE?
(A) I and II
(C) II and III
(B) I and III
(D) II and IV

describes the properties achieved?
(A) Mutual exclusion but not progress
(B) Progress but not mutual exclusion
(C) Neither mutual exclusion nor progress
(D) Both mutual exclusion and progress
16.
The following program consists of 3

concurrent processes and 3 binary
semaphores. The semaphores are
initialized as S0= 1, S1 = 0, S2 = 0
Process P0
while (true) {
wait (S0);
print 0
release (S1);
release (S2);
}
Process P1
wait (S1);
release (S0);
Process P2
wait (S2)
release (S0);
How many times will process P0 print 0?

(A) At least twice
(C) Exactly thrice
(B) Exactly twice
(D) Exactly once
CS - 2012
17. A process executes the code
fork ();
fork ();
fork ();
The total number of child processes
created is
(A) 3
(C) 7
(B) 4
(D) 8
18.
CS 2010
15. Consider the methods used by processes
P1 and P2 for accessing their critical
sections whenever needed, as given
below. The initial values of shared
boolean variables S1 and S2 are randomly
assigned.
Method used by P1 Method used by P2
while (S1 = = S2);
critical Section
S1= S2;
Operating System
while (S1 ! = S2);

critical Section
S2 = not (S1);
th
Fetch_And_Add (X, i) is an atomic ReadModify-Write instruction that reads the

value of memory location X, increments it
by value i, and returns the old value of X it
is used in the pseudocode shown below to
implement a busy-wait lock. L is unsigned
integer shared variable initialized to 0.
The value of 0 corresponds to lock being
available, while any non-zero value
corresponds to the lock being not
available.
AcquireLock (L) {
while ( Fetch_And_Add ( L, 1 ) )
L = 1;
}
ReleaseLock (L) {
L = 0;
}
This implementation
(A) fails as L can overflow
(B) fails as L take on a non-zero value
when the lock is actually available
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(C) works correctly but may starve some

processes
(D) works correctly without starvation
CS 2013
19. A certain computation generates two
arrays a and b such that
a[i]=f(i) for 0i<n and
b[i]=g(a[i]) for 0i<n. Suppose this
computation is decomposed into two
concurrent processes X and Y such that X
computes the array a and Y computes the
array b. The processes employ two binary
semaphores R and S, both initialized to
zero. The array a is shared by the two
processes. The structures of the
processes are shown below.
Process X:
private i;
for (i=0; i<n; i++) {
a[i] = f(i);
ExitX(R, S);
}
Process Y:
private i;
for (i=0; i<n; i++) {
EntryY(R, S);
b[i] = g(a[i]);
}
Which one of the following represents the
CORRECT implementations of ExitX and
EntryY?
(A)
ExitX(R, S) {
P(R);
V(S);
}
EntryY(R, S) {
P(S);
V(R);
}
Operating System
(C)
ExitX(R, S) {
P(S);
V(R);
}
EntryY(R, S){
V(S);
P(R);
}
(D)
ExitX(R, S) {
V(R);
P(S);
}
EntryY(R, S){
V(S);
P(R);
}
20.
A shared variable x, initialized to zero, is

operated on by four concurrent processes
W,X,Y,Z as follows. Each of the process W
and X reads x from memory , increments
by one, stores it to memory and then
terminates. Each of the processes Y and Z
reads x from memory , decrements by
two, stores it to memory and then
terminates. Each processes before
reading x invokes the P operation (i.e.,
wait) on a counting semaphore S and
invokes the V operation (i.e., signal) on
the semaphore S after storing x to
memory. Semaphore S is initialized to
two. What is the maximum possible value
of x after all processes complete
execution?
(A) 2
(C) 1
(B) 1
(D) 2
(B)
ExitX(R, S) {
V(R);
V(S);
}
EntryY(R, S) {
P(R);
P(S);
}
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GATE QUESTION BANK
Operating System

(A) The producer will be able to add an
item to the buffer, but the consumer
can never consume it.
(B) The consumer will remove no more
than one item from the buffer.
(C) Deadlock occurs if the consumer
succeeds in acquiring semaphore s
when the buffer is empty.
(D) The starting value for the semaphore
n must be 1 and not 0 for deadlockfree operation.
CS - 2014
21. Consider the procedure below for the
Producer-Consumer problem which uses
semaphores:
semaphore n = 0;
semaphore s = 1;
void producer()
void consumer()
{
{
while (true)
while(true)
{
{
Produce();
semWait(s);
SemWaits(s);
semWait(n);
addToBuffer();
removeFromBuffer();
semSignal(s);
semsignal(s);
semSignal(n);
consume();
}
}
}
}

1.
[Ans. C]
fork ( ) will returns 0 for child . So, parent
is printing 5 less than a & child is
printing 5 more. So, regarding the values
u +10 =x
Regarding the addresses v = y, though the
physical addresses of child Process &
Parent Process are different, yet &a
refers to the logical addresses of the
process which will be same for both Child
& Parent Processes. Physical Address will
be generated at runtime and it will be
known to Memory Management Unit Only
and CPU is totally unaware of Physical
address.
2.
[Ans. C]
As semaphore X = 0, the process calling
P(X) must wait until another process calls
V(X).
P1
calling V(X) first, So P1 need not
starve and it is independent and can run
multiple times.
P2
calling P(X) first, So P2 must wait
until P1 comes. So P2 will starve.
3.
[Ans. B]
Consider the possible solution
X Y=0
P1
P2
wait(X)
use R1
use R1
signal (X)
use R2
wait (Y)
Signal(Y)
useR2
wait(X)
use R3
use R3
signal(X)
use R4
wait(Y)
Signal (Y)
use R4
Total no. of binary semaphore = 2
4.
[Ans. A]
void P (binarysemaphore * S){
unsigned y;
unsigned * x = & (S value);
do {
fetch and set x, y;
} while(y);
}
void V(binarysemaphore * S)
* S value = 0;+
}
fetch and set instruction always sets
the memory location x = 1 and fetches the
old
value
of
x
and
y.
The
binarysemaphore * S takes only two value
either 0 and 1. When we initialize S = 0
then in statement 3 this value will be
started at location x and fetch and-set
instruction change the value of x= 0 to
x = 1 and y becomes 0. If there are more
than two processes and context switching
between processes is disabled in P then
this implementation doesnt work
properly and cant synchronize the
processes
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GATE QUESTION BANK
5.
[Ans. C]
As Switching from Running to Ready is
not allowed It is not a non-Preemptive
Scheduling.
6.
[Ans. B]
The barrier implementation may lead to a
deadlock if two barrier invocations are
used in immediate succession which is
due to line 3 and 7.
7.
[Ans. B]
At the beginning of the barrier the first
process to enter in the line 8 the barrier
waits until process_arrived becomes zero
before proceeding to execute P(S)
8.
[Ans. D]
It ensures Mutual Exclusion, but it doesnt
prevent deadlock.
Wants1 Wants2 RESULT
True
True
Deadlock
True
False
P1
False
True
P2
False
False
No Process will enter
into Critical Section
9.
[Ans. C]
After execution of
if (critical_flag== False). If P1 preempts
and P2 starts . Then for P2 also line
if (critical_ flag == False)
Condition will be true. And P1, P2 both
will access critical_ region concurrently.
But here there is no any deadlock chance
10.
[Ans. C]
S1 = Wait (wrt)
To block writers
accessing the buffer.
S2 = Signal (mutex)
To allow other
readers to access the readcount shared
variable.
S3
wait (mutex)
To block other
readers in accessing the readcoun shared
variable
S4 = Signal (wrt)
To allow writer to
proceed as all readers are done with
reading.
11.
Operating System
12.
[Ans. B]
Fork ( ) system call creates the child
process initially number of processes is 0.
After first fork ( ), it creates a single
process. After second fork ( ), it creates
one parent and two child processes. After
n fork ( ), the total number of processes is
2 but we subtract the main process then
the total number of child processes is
2
1.
13.
[Ans. C]
In given code, P(s) decrements the value
of semaphore and V(s) increment the
value of semaphore. P &V are wait and
signal operations on binary semaphore.
X &Y are binary semaphores. To avoid
the mutual exclusion condition if the
value of X is 1 and the value of Y = 0
then P(s) and V(s) work properly.
14.
[Ans. C]
Transition C indicates that OS uses
preemptive scheduling. II is also true.
15.
[Ans. A]
It ensures Mutual Exclusion.
S1 S2 RESULT
1
1
P2
1
0
P1
0
1
P1
0
0
P2
It doesnt ensure progress, consider the
following cases:If P1 is the only process if (S1=S2), then
it must wait indefinitely for P2
If P1 is the only process if (S1! = S2),
then it will execute only once and makes
(S1 = S2), if P1 wants to execute for the
second time, then it must wait indefinitely
for P2
We can conclude the Progress condition is
not achieved .
16.
[Ans. A]
When S =1, S = 0
So firstly the value of S and S = 0, P and
P not execute. The value of S = 1, So it
can execute, process P . Now value of
S = 0 and it prints zero one time when it
calls release (S1) call then the value of S1
increases by 1. So P executes. It makes
[Ans. C]
So, its output is :
a1 b1 c1
a2 b2 c2
a3 b2 c3
a4 b1 c3
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GATE QUESTION BANK
2. Start with Y
P(s)
s=0
ead x = 0 ,old valuex=x 2 x= 2
Store it to memory
V(s) s = 1
3. Again start with X,
So it will write
x = 1 in memory.
V(s) s = 2
4. Same procedure for W and Z.
Start with W.
Preempt after read and then execute Z
and again execute W.
So final value in x will be 2.
value of S again zero and S = 1, then it

release (S ) make value of S = 0 by
applying wait and (S ) means it decrease
by one so it prints zero and this process
continue. So P prints zero at least twice.
17.
[Ans. C]
fork (); 1
fork (); 2 = 7
fork (); 4
Total no of child processes after n fork ( )
calls = (2
1)
18.
[Ans. B]
Assume P1 executes until while condition
and preempts before executing L = 1.
Now P2 executes all statements, hence
L = 0. Then P1 without checking L it
makes L = 1 by executing the statement
where it was preempted.
It takes a non-zero value (L = 1) when
the lock is actually available (L = 0).
19.
[Ans. C]
Here take any sequence of operations of
process X and process Y, first process X
will wait for S which is incremented by
process Y and then process Y waits for R
which is incremented by process X.
There is no sequence of operations in
which the value of R or S overlaps.
Hence both process executes one after
another.
So option (C) is correct.
[X & Y] should run in strict alteration
manner
20.
[Ans. D]
X
W
Y
Z
1
P(s)
P(s)
P(s)
P(s)
2
R(x)
R(x)
R(x)
R(x)
3
x=x+1 x=x+1 x=x 2 x=x 2
4
Store
Store
Store
Store
to MM to MM to MM to MM
5
V(s)
V(s)
V(s)
V(s)
1. Start with X.
P(s)
S=1
ead x = 0
x=x+1 x=1
Before storing it to memory, preempt
this process
Operating System
21.
th
[Ans. C]
semaphore n = 0;
semaphore s = 1;
The given solution will lead to deadlock in
the following case: if consumer starts
first.
Consumer calls
semWait(s) s = s 1 = 0 Consumer
is allowed
Consumer calls
semWait(n) n = n 1 =0 1 = 1
Consumer is Blocked on semWait (n)
Now producer started and called
semWait(s) s = s 1 = 0 1= 1
Blocked on semWait(s)
Now Both producer & Consumer are
blocked Deadlock.
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GATE QUESTION BANK
Operating System
Threads
CS 2007
1.
user level threads and kernel level
threads. Which one of the following
statements is FALSE?
(A) Context switch time is longer for
kernel level threads than for user
level threads
(B) User level threads do not need any
hardware support
(C) Related kernel level threads can be
scheduled on different processors in
a multiprocessor system
(D) Blocking one kernel level thread
blocks all related threads
CS - 2011
2.
Let the time taken to switch between user
and kernel modes of execution be t1 while
the time taken to switch between two
processes be t2. Which of the following is
TRUE?
(A) t1 > t2
(B) t1 = t2
(C) t1 < t2
(D) nothing can be said about the relation
between t1 and t2
3.
A thread is usually defined as a light

weight process because an operating
system (OS) maintains smaller data
structures for a thread than for a process.
In relation to this, which of the following
is TRUE?
(A) On per-thread basis, OS maintains only
CPU register state
(B) The OS does not maintain a separate
stack for each thread
(C) On per-thread basis, the OS does not
maintain virtual memory state
(D) On per-thread basis, the OS maintains
only scheduling and accounting
information
CS 2014
4.
Which one of the following is FALSE?
(A) User level threads are not scheduled
by the kernel.
(B) When a user level thread is blocked,
all other threads of its process are
blocked.
(C) Context switching between user level
threads is faster than context
switching between kernel level
threads.
(D) Kernel level threads cannot share the
code segment

1.
2.
[Ans. D]
In kernel level threads, if the blocking
system call comes, the kernel can
schedule another thread in the
application for execution. So, statement
(D) is false about kernel level threads. It
is true for user level threads
3.
[Ans. A]
Threads are called light weight processes
because they only need storage for stack
and registers. They dont need separate
space for other things.
4.
[Ans. D]
All types of threads share code segment.
So operation (D) is false
All other statements are true.
[Ans. C]
Process
switching
includes
mode
switching. Context switching can occur
only in kernel mode. So t2 will include t1
in itself
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GATE QUESTION BANK
Operating System
CPU Scheduling
CS 2005
1.
We wish to schedule three processes
P1, P2 and P3 on a uni-processor system.
The priorities, CPU time requirements
and arrival times of the processes are as
shown below.
Process
Priority
P1
10
(highest)
9
P2
P3
8
(lowest)
CPU
time
required
20 sec
Arrival
time
(hh:mm:ss)
00:00:05
10sec
00:00:03
15 sec
00:00:00
We have a choice of preemptive or nonpreemptive scheduling. In preemptive

scheduling, a late-arriving higher priority
process can preempt a currently running
process with lower priority. In nonpreemptive scheduling, a late arriving
higher priority process must wait for the
currently executing process to complete
before it can be scheduled on the
processor.
What are the turnaround times (time
from arrival till completion) of P2 using
preemptive
and
non-preemptive
scheduling respectively?
(A) 30 sec, 30 sec
(C) 42 sec, 42 sec
(B) 30 sec, 10 sec
(D) 30 sec, 42 sec
giving priority to the process with the

lowest process id. The average
turnaround time is
(A) 13 units
(C) 15 units
(B) 14 units
(D) 16 units
4.
Consider three processes, all arriving at

time zero, with total execution time of
10, 20 and 30 units respectively. Each
process spends the first 20% of execution
time doing I/O, the next 70% of time
doing computation and the last 10% of
time doing I/O again. The operating
system uses a shortest remaining
compute time first scheduling algorithm
and schedules a new process either when
the running process get blocked on I/O or
when the running process finishes its
compute burst. Assume that all I/O
operations can be overlapped as much as
possible. For what percentage of time
does the CPU remain idle?
(A) 0%
(C) 30.0%
(B) 10.6%
(D) 89.4%
5.
The arrival time, priority and durations

of the CPU and I/O bursts for each of
three processes P1, P2, and P3 are given
in the table below. Each process has a
CPU burst followed by an I/O burst
followed by another CPU burst. Assume
that each process has its own I/O
resource.
CS 2006
2.
Consider three CPU intensive processes,
which require 10, 20 and 30 time units
and arrive at times 0, 2 and 6
respectively. How many context switches
are needed if the operating system
implements a shortest remaining time
first scheduling algorithm? Do not count
the context switches at time zero and at
the end
(A) 1
(C) 3
(B) 2
(D) 4
3.
Process
P1
P2
P3
Arrival
time
Priority
0
2
3
2
3(lowest)
1(highest)
Burst
durations
(CPU,
I/O,CPU)
1, 5, 3
3, 3, 1
2, 3, 1
The multi- programmed operating

system uses preemptive priority
scheduling. What are the finish times of
the processes P1, P2 and P3?
(A) 11, 15, 9
(C) 11, 16, 10
(B) 10, 15, 9
(D) 12, 17, 11
Consider three processes (process id 0, 1,

2 respectively) with compute time bursts
2, 4 and 8 time units. All processes arrive
at time zero. Consider the longest
remaining time first (LRTF) scheduling
algorithm. In LRTF ties are broken by
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GATE QUESTION BANK
CS 2007
6.
Group-1 contains some CPU scheduling
algorithms and Group-2 contains some
applications. Match entries in Group-1
entries in Group-2
Group-1
Group-2
P. Gang
1. Guaranteed
scheduling
Scheduling
Q. Rate
2. Real time
Monotonic
Scheduling
Scheduling
R. Fair Share 3. Thread
Scheduling
Scheduling
(A) P 3; Q 2; R 1
(B) P 1; Q 2; R 3
(C) P 2; Q 3; R 1
(D) P 1; Q 3; R 2
7.
An operating system uses Shortest

Remaining Time First (SRTF) process
scheduling algorithm. Consider the arrival
times and execution times for the
following processes
Process
P1
P2
P3
P4
Execution time
20
25
10
15
Arrival time
0
15
30
45
Which is the total waiting time for

process P2?
(A) 5
(C) 40
(B) 15
(D) 55
CS 2008
8.
If the time slice used in the round
robin scheduling policy is more than
the maximum time required to execute
any process ,then the policy will
(A) degenerate to shortest job first
(B) degenerate to priority scheduling
(C) degenerate to first come first
serve
(D) none of the above
CS 2010
9.
true?
I. Shortest remaining time first
scheduling may cause starvation
II. Preemptive scheduling may cause
starvation
III. Round robin is better than FCFS in
terms of response time
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Operating System
I only
I and III only
II and III only
I, II and III
CS - 2011
10. Consider the following table of arrival
time and burst time for three processes
P0, P1 and P2.
Process
Arrival time Burst time
P0
0 ms
9 ms
P1
1 ms
4 ms
P2
2 ms
9 ms
The pre-emptive shortest job first
scheduling algorithm is used. Scheduling
is carried out only at arrival or
completion of processes. What is the
average waiting time for the three
processes?
(A) 5.0 ms
(C) 6.33 ms
(B) 4.33 ms
(D) 7.33 ms
CS 2012
11. Consider the 3 processes, P1, P2 and P3
shown in the table
Process
Arrival
Time unit
time
required
P1
0
5
P2
1
7
P3
3
4
The completion order of the 3 processes
under the policies FCFS and RR2 (round
robin scheduling with CPU quantum of 2
time units) are
(A) FCFS: P1, P2, P3 RR2: P1, P2, P3
(B) FCFS: P1, P3, P2 RR2: P1, P3, P2
(C) FCFS: P1, P2, P3 RR2: P1, P3, P2
(D) FCFS: P1, P3, P2 RR2: P1, P2, P3
CS 2013
12. A scheduling algorithm assigns priority
proportional to the waiting time of a
process. Every process starts with
priority zero (the lowest priority ). The
scheduler reevaluates the process
priorities every T time units and decides
the next process to schedule. Which one
of the following is TRUE if the processes
have no I/O operations and all arrive at
time zero?
(A) This algorithm is equivalent to the
first come first serve algorithm.
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(B) This algorithm is equivalent to the

round robin algorithm
(C) This algorithm is equivalent to the
shortest job first algorithm
(D) This algorithm is equivalent to the
shortest remaining time first
algorithm
15.
CS 2014
13. Consider the following set of processes
that need to be scheduled on a single CPU.
All the times are given in milliseconds.
Process
Arrival
Execution
Name
Time
Time
A
0
6
B
3
2
C
5
4
D
7
6
E
10
3
Using the shortest remaining time first
scheduling algorithm, the average process
turnaround time (in msec) is ___________
14.
Operating System
An operating system uses shortest

remaining time first scheduling algorithm
for pre emptive scheduling of processes.
Consider the following set of processes
with their arrival times and CPU bust
times (in milliseconds)
Process Arrival Time
Burst Time
P1
0
12
P2
2
4
P3
3
6
P4
8
5
The
average
waiting
time
(in
milliseconds) of the processes is __________.
Three processes A, B and C each execute a

loop of 100 iterations. In each iteration of
the loop, a process performs a single
computation that requires
CPU
milliseconds and then initiates a single
I/O operation that lasts for
milliseconds. It is assumed that the
computer where the processes execute
has sufficient number of I/O devices and
the OS of the computer assigns different
I/O devices to each process. Also, the
scheduling overhead of the OS is
negligible. The processes have the
following characteristics:
Process id
A
100 ms 500 ms
B
350 ms 500 ms
C
200 ms 500 ms
The processes A, B, and C are started at
times 0, 5 and 10 milliseconds
respectively, in a pure time sharing
system (round robin scheduling) that
uses a time slice of 50 milliseconds. The
time in milliseconds at which process C
would complete its first I/O operation is
___________.
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Operating System

1.
[Ans. D]
For non pre emptive.
e
The Gantt chart is

e
e
Total time spent = 47
Idle time = 2+3 = 5
Percent of time CPU is IDLE =
=
Total time = 45 3(arrival time) = 42

For Preemptive
5.
[Ans. A]
idle no pro e
v
k
k
d
[Ans. A]
k
Group 1
P. dGang scheduling
Q.k Rate Monotonic Scheduling
Total time = 33 3 = 30
2.
[Ans. B]
Let three processes are
Process
Arrival time
6.
Burst
time
0
10
2
20
6
30
The Gannt chart for SRTF scheduling
algorithm is
R. Fair show scheduling.

Group 2
3. Thread scheduling
2. Real time scheduling
1. Guaranteed scheduling
7.
[Ans. B]
The Gantt chart for SRTF scheduling
algorithm is
So there is only two context switches at

time unit 10 context switch from
o
and at time unit 30 context switch from
o
3.
P1
0
[Ans. A]
The Gantt chart for LRTF CPU cheduling
algorithm is
[Ans. B]
Process
P1
P2
P3
Burst
Time
10
20
30
I/O
Time
2
4
6
CPU
Time
7
14
21
P2
20
P3
30
P4
P2
40
55
70
So, the waiting time for

P2 = (20 15) + (40 30)
= 15
8.
[Ans. C]
If the time used in RR scheduling is more
than the maximum time required to
execute any process. Then the policy will
degenerate to first come first serve
9.
[Ans. D]
All three options are correct
Turn around time for P0 = 12 0=12

Turn around time for P1 =13 0 = 13
Turn around time for P2 = 14 0 = 14
Average urnaround ime = =
4.
idle
u y in
I/O
Time
1
2
3
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10.
[Ans. A]
14.
ime in milli e ond
Average waiting time

w
w
=
=
=
11.
[Ans. C]
RR Queue
P1 P2 P1
0
1
2
P3
3
P2
4
P1
6
P3
8
P2
10
P1,P2,P3
Therefore option (C) is correct.
FCFS:P1,P2,P3
RR2:P1,P3,P2
12.
13.
[Ans. B]
Every process arrives at time zero and
priority is proportional to waiting time
quantum T time units. Every process is
given equal chance, all are arrived at
same time. This is equal to round robin
algorithm. Because after each T time
waiting time of all process will increase
(except running process)
Operating System
[Ans. 1000]
Total No of Processes = 3 = {A, B, C}
{A, B, C} Processes Executes a loop of
100 iterations.
In each iteration of a loop
Computation[ m ]
Operation
m
I/O of processes can proceed in parallel
since there are sufficient no. of I/O
devices.
Process Id Arrival
_Time
A
0
100
500
B
5
350
500
C
10
200
500
CPU Scheduling Algorithm = Round Robin
with quantum = 50 milliseconds
When ro e will omple e i fir
I/O operation?
A
eA
ro e fini hed i
exe u ion for
first Iteration at 500 ms
Af er fini hing
exe u ion ro e
will go for I/O
I/O time = 500 ms
ro e will fini h i
ir
operation in first Iteration
=
=
15.
[Ans. 5.5]
P2
done
[Ans. 7.2]
Gantt chart
A
B
A
C
E
D
0
3
5
8 12 15 21
Turn around line of (A) = (8 0) = 8
Turn around line of (B) = (5 3) = 2
Turn around line of (C) = (12 5) = 7
Turn around line of (D) = (21 7) = 14
Turn around line of (E) = (15 10) = 5
Average urn around ime
P1 P1 P2 P2 P2 P2 P3 P3
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
P2[4]
P1[10]
P3
done
P3
P4
done
P4
12
P4[5]
P3[4]
P1 [10]
P4[5]
P1[10]
P1
done
P1
17
27
P1[10]
P3[6]
P2[3]
P1 [10]
=
=
= 7.2
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Process
P1
P2
P3
P4
Arriva
l Time
0
2
3
8
Burst
Time
12
4
6
5
Completion
Time
27
6
12
17
Operating System
Waiting Time
27 12 0 = 15
6 4 2 =0
=
=
Average waiting time

= (15 + 0 + 3 + 4)/4 = 5.5 milliseconds
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Operating System
Deadlocks
CS 2005
1.
Suppose n processes, P1, , Pn share m
identical resource units, which can be
reserved and released one at time. The
maximum resource requirement of
process Pi is si, where si > 0. Which one of
the following is a sufficient condition for
ensuring that deadlock does not occur?
(A) i, si < m
(B)
i, si < n
(C)
(D)
2.
Two shared resource R1 and R2 are used

by processes P1 and P2. Each process has
a certain priority for accessing each
resource. Let Tij denote the priority of
for accessing Rj. A process Pi can snatch
a resource Rh from process
if Tik is
greater than Tjk.
Given the following:
I. T11 > T21
II. T12 > T22
III. T11 < T21
IV. T12 < T22
Which of the following conditions ensures
that P1 and P2 can never deadlock?
(A) I and IV
(B) II and III
(C) I and II
CS 2006
3.
Consider the following snapshot of a
system running n processes. Process i is
holding xi instances of a resource R, for
1 i n. Currently all instances of R are
occupied. Further, for all i, process i has
placed a request for an additional yi
instances while holding the instances it
already has. There are exactly two
processes p and q such that yp = yq = 0.
Which one of the following can serve as a
necessary condition to guarantee that the
system is not approaching a deadlock?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
min (xp, xq) < maxkp,q yk

xp + xq minkp, qyk
max ( xp, xq) < 1
min ( xp, xq) > 1
CS - 2007
4.
A single processor system has three
resource types X, Y and Z, which are
shared by three processes. There are 5
units of each resource type. Consider the
following scenario, where the column
alloc denotes the number of units of each
resource type allocated to each process
and the column request denotes the
number of units of each resource type
requested by a process in order to
complete execution. Which of the
processes will finish LAST?
alloc
request
X Y Z
X Y Z
P0
1 2 1
1 0 3
P1
2 0 1
0 1 2
P2
2 2 1
1 2 0
(A) P0
(B) P1
(C) P2
(D) None of the above, since the system
is in a deadlock
CS - 2008
5.
The following is a code with two threads,
producer and consumer, that can run in
parallel. Further, S and Q are binary
semaphores equipped with the standard
P and V Operations.
Semaphore S = 1, Q = 0 ;
integer x ;
producer:
consumer:
while (true) do
while (true) do
P(S) ;
P(Q) ;
x = produce ( ) ; consume (x) ;
V(Q) ;
V(S) ;
done
done
Which of the following is true about the
program above?
(A) The process can deadlock
(B) One of the threads can starve
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initialized to 0. Now consider the

following statements
I. The above solution to CS problem is
deadlock-free
II. The solution is starvation free
III. The processes enter CS in FIFO order
IV. More than one process can enter CS
at the same time
Which of the above statements are TRUE?
(A) I only
(C) II and III
(B) I and II
(D) IV only
(C) Some of the items produced by the

producer may be lost
(D) Values generated and stored in by
the producer will always be
consumed before the producer can
generate a new value
t = 3 : requests 2
units of R1
t = 5 : releases 1
unit of R2
and 1 unit of
R1
t = 7 : releases 1
unit of R3
t = 8 : requests 2
units of R4
Process P1 :
CS - 2009
8.
The enter_CS( ) and leave_CS( ) functions
to implement critical section of a process
are realized using test-and-set instruction
as follows:
void enter_CS ( X)
{
while (test-and-set (X))
}
void leave_CS (X)
{
X = 0;
}
In the above solution, X is a memory
location associated with the CS and is
t = 0 : requests 2
units of R3
t = 2 : requests 1
unit of R4
t = 4 : requests 1
unit of R1
t = 6 : releases 1
unit of R3
t = 8 : Finishes
An operating system implements a

policy that requires a process to
release all resources before making a
request for another resource . Select the
TRUE statement from the following:
(A) Both starvation and deadlock can
occur.
(B) Starvation can occur but deadlock
cannot occur.
(C) Starvation cannot occur but deadlock
can occur.
(D) Neither starvation nor deadlock can
occur
t = 0 : requests 1
unit of R4
t = 2 : requests 2
units of R1
t = 5:releases 2
units of R1
t = 7 : requests 1
unit of R2
t = 8 :requests 1
unit of R3
t = 9 : Finishes
Consider a system with 4 types of

resources R1 (3 units), R2 (2 units),
R3 (3 units), R4 (2 units).
A non-preemptive resource allocation
policy is used. At any given instance, a
request is not entertained if it cannot be
completely satisfied. Three processes
P1,P2,P3 request the resources as follows if
executed independently.
t = 0 : requests 2
units of R2
t = 1 : requests 1
unit of R3
t = 10: Finishes
9.
Process P3 :
7.
Which of the following is NOT true of

deadlock prevention and deadlock
avoidance schemes?
(A) In deadlock prevention, the request
for resources is always granted if the
resulting state is safe.
(B) In deadlock avoidance, the request
for resources is always granted if the
resulting state is safe.
(C) Deadlock avoidance is less restrictive
than deadlock prevention
(D) Deadlock
avoidance
requires
knowledge of resource requirements
a priori
Process P2 :
6.
Operating System

TRUE if all three processes run
concurrently starting at time t = 0?
(A) All processes will finish without any
deadlock
(B) Only P1 and P2 will be in a deadlock
(C) Only P1 and P3 will be in deadlock
(D) All three processes will be in deadlock
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CS - 2010
10. A system has n resources
, ..
and k processes
, ..
. The
implementation of the resource request
logic of each process , is as follows:
if ( i % 2 = = 0) {
if ( i <n) request ;
if ( i + 2 < n)request
;}
else {
if ( i <n) request
;
if ( i + 2<n) request
;
}
In which one of the following situations is
a deadlock possible?
(A) n = 40, k = 26
(B) n = 21, k = 12
(C) n = 20, k = 10
(D) n = 41, k = 19
CS - 2013
11. Three concurrent processes X, Y and Z
execute three different code segments
that access and update certain shared
variables. Process X execute the
P operation (i.e., wait) on semaphores a, b
and c; process Y executes the P operation
on semaphores b, c and d; process Z
executes the P operation on semaphores
c, d and a before entering the respective
code segments. After completing the
execution of its code segments, each
process invokes the V operation (i.e.,
signal) on its three semaphores. All
semaphores are binary semaphores
initialized to one. Which one of the
following represents a deadlock free
order of invoking the P operations by the
processes?
(A) X: P(a)P(b)P(c)
Y: P(b)P(c)P(d)
Z: P(c)P(d)P(a)
(B) X: P(b)P(a)P(c)
Y: P(b)P(c)P(d)
Z: P(a)P(c)P(d)
(C) X: P(b)P(a)P(c)
Y: P(c)P(b)P(d)
Z: P(a)P(c)P(d)
(D) X: P(a)P(b)P(c)
Y: P(c)P(b)P(d)
Z: P(c)P(d)P(a)
Operating System
CS 2014
12. An operating system uses the Bankers
algorithm for deadlock avoidance when
managing the allocation of three resource
types X, Y and Z to three processes P0, P1,
and P2. The table given below presents
the current system state. Here, the
Allocation matrix shows the current
number of resources of each type
allocated to each process and the Max
matrix shows the maximum number of
resources of each type required by each
process during its execution.
Allocation
Max
X
Y
Z
X
Y
Z
P0 0
0
1
8
4
3
P1 3
2
0
6
2
0
P2 2
1
1
3
3
3
There are 3 units of type X, 2 units of type
Y and 2 units of type Z still available. The
system is currently in a safe state.
Consider the following independent
requests for additional resources in the
current state:
REQ1: P0 requests 0 units of X, 0 units of
Y and 2 units of Z
REQ2: P1 requests 2 units of X, 0 units of
Y and 0 units of Z
(A) Only REQ1 can be permitted.
(B) Only REQ2 can be permitted.
(C) Both REQ1 and REQ2 can be
permitted.
(D) Neither REQ1 nor REQ2 can be
permitted.
13.
th
A system contains three programs and

each requires three tape units for its
operation. The minimum number of tape
units which the system must have such
that deadlocks never arise is ____.
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Operating System

1.
[Ans. C]
No. of processes = n 1, 2. n
No. of identical resources = m.
The maximum resource requirement
for a process Pi is SP, where Si > 0
If all process is in safe state then system
can allocate resources to each process
Pi in some order and still avoid a
deadlock. We can avoid the deadlock if
each Pi request can be satisfied by the
current available resource plus the
resources held by process Pj such that
j<i.
The
maximum
resource
requirement of n processes is
Si
and this amount must be less than
m + n.
So,
m n
2.
[Ans. C]
Here I and II says
T11>T21
T12>T22
P1
P2
Required R1
required R1
Required R2
required R2
Assume that P1 is running and after a
context switch P2 goes to running state
that it cannot snatch resource from P1,
because
has high priority for both
resources. Hence no deadlock.
3.
4.
[Ans. C]
Consider the matrix
alloc
Request
X Y Z
X Y Z
1 2 1
1 0 3
P1
2 0 1
0 1 2
2 2 1
1 2 0
The available matrix is (0 1 2) and
requirement of process P1 is (0 1 2). So
P1 can uses the available resources after
release the resources, the matrix becomes
Alloc
Request
X Y Z
X Y Z
P0
1 2 1
1 0 3
P1
0 0 0
0 0 0
P2
2 2 1
1 2 0
In this time available matrix is (2 1 3) and
required matrix of P0 is (1 0 3) so P0 uses
the resources of the releasing resources.
The available matrix is (3 3 4). So, P2 will
use the resource. So, P2 will finish last.
5.
[Ans. D]
Since, after every produce function; it
calls consume function. Producer and
consumer will run in strict alteration.
So (D) is true
6.
[Ans. A]
In deadlock prevention, OS tries to
prevent system from deadlock by not
allowing any one of the four necessary
conditions to hold
So, option A is not true
7.
[Ans. B]
If a process release all resources before
making a request for another resource,
starvation may or may not occur but
deadlock cannot occur; because hold and
wait condition will not hold
8.
[Ans. A]
The given solution is deadlock free
[Ans. B]
There is no any additional requirement
for both processes. So both p & q should
be executed with all allocated resources
so
should be sufficient for p & q
and should be at least (min
y ).
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9.
Operating System
[Ans. A]
Initially available resources
R1
R2
R3
R4
3
3
3
2
Process
t=0
Allocate
R2
R3
2
0
0
2
0
0
R4
0
0
1
R1
3
Available
R2
R3
0
1
R4
1
request 2 unit of 2
request 2 unit of 3
request 1 unit of 4
P1
P2
P3
R1
0
0
0
request 1 unit of 3
P1
P2
P3
0
0
0
2
0
0
1
2
0
0
0
1
request 1 unit of 4
request 2 unit of 1
P1
P2
P3
0
0
2
2
0
0
1
2
0
0
1
1
request 1 unit of 2
ait for 1 unit of 1
P1
P2
P3
1
1
2
2
0
0
1
2
0
0
1
1
P1
P2
P3
1
1
0
1
0
0
1
2
0
0
1
1
=
request 1 unit of 4
(wait)
=
request 1 unit of 2
and 1 unit of R1
release 2 units of 1
now request of , 1 unit of R1 will be granted and request of
, 1 unit of R1 will be granted
=
request 1 unit of 3
P1
P2
P3
1
1
0
1
0
0
1
1
0
0
1
1
request 1 unit of 3
request 1 unit of 2
P1
P2
P3
1
1
0
1
0
1
0
1
0
0
1
1
finish
P1
P3
1
0
1
0
1
1
1
1
0
0
0
1
0
1
0
1
request 2 unit of 4(wait)

request 1 unit of 3
=
finish
P1 1
request of 2 unit of R4 by P1 will be granted
P1 1
=
finish
All processes will finish without any deadlock
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10.
[Ans. B]
According to the given program, in all the
cases for even sequences of processes
only corresponding sequence number of
resource will be allotted except case (B),
where n = 21, k = 12,
For
can only be allotted and for
can be allotted.
allotted and for odd sequence of
process i.e.
that never conflict in
any case except (B), when a same
resource is requested by more than one
process at the same time may lead to the
deadlock.
11.
[Ans. B]
Suppose X performs P(b) and preempts, Y
gets chance, but cannot do its first wait
i.e., so waits for X, now Z gets the chance
and performs P(a) and preempts, next X
get chance. X cannot continue as wait on
a is done by Z already, so X aits for Z. At
this time Z can continue its operations as
down on c and d. Once Z finishes, X can do
its operations and so Y. In any of
execution order of X, Y, Z one process can
continue and finish, such that waiting is
not circular. In option (A), (C) and (D) we
can easily find circular wait, thus
deadlock
12.
[Ans. B]
Allocation
Max
Need
X
Y
Z X Y Z X Y
P0 0
0
1 8 4 3 8 4
P1 3
2
0 6 2 0 3 0
P2 2
1
1 3 3 3 1 2
Need = Max Allocation
Available = [3, 2, 2]
REQ 2 can be permitted because needed
resources by P1 are [3, 0, 0] and after that
there is no any condition for unsafe state.
REQ 1 can not be permitted because P0
and P2 can not be completed in available
resources [3, 2, 2]
13.
Operating System
[Ans. 7]
Total no of programs = 3 = {P1, P2, P3}
Each program requires = 3 tape drives
Now just allocate one less than the
required resources
Program
No. of tap drives
P1
3 1=2
P2
3 1=2
P3
3 1=2
6 tape drives
To avoid Deadlock, we need minimum
= 6 + 1 = 7 tape drives
Z
2
0
2
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Operating System
Memory Management & Virtual Memory

CS - 2006
1.
A CPU generates 32-bit virtual addresses.
The page size is 4 KB. The processor has a
translation look-aside buffer (TLB) which
can hold a total of 128 page table entries
and is 4-way set associative. The
minimum size of the TLB tag is
(A) 11 bits
(C) 15 bits
(B) 13 bits
(D) 20 bits
2.
3.
A computer system supports 32-bit

virtual addresses as well as 32-bit
physical addresses. Since the virtual
address space is of the same size as the
physical address space, the operating
system designers decide to get rid of the
virtual memory entirely. Which one of the
following is true?
(A) Efficient implementation of multiuser-support is no longer possible
(B) The processor cache organization
can be made more efficient now
(C) Hardware support for memory
management is no longer needed
(D) CPU scheduling can be made more
efficient now
CS - 2007
4.
A virtual memory system uses First In
First Out (FIFO) page replacement policy
and allocates a fixed number of frames to
a process. Consider the following
statements:
P: Increasing the number of page frames
allocated to a process sometimes
increases the page fault rate
Q: Some program do not exhibit locality of
reference.
(A) Both P and Q are true and Q is the
reason for P
(B) Both P and Q are true, but Q is not
the reason for P
(C) P is false, but Q is true
5.
Let a memory have four free blocks of

sizes 4k, 8k, 20k, 2k. These blocks are
allocated following the best-fit strategy.
The allocation requests are stored in a
queue as shown below.
Request Request
Usage
No
sizes
time
J1
2k
4
J2
14k
10
J3
3k
2
J4
6k
8
J5
6k
4
J6
10k
1
J7
7k
8
J8
20k
6
The time at which the request for J7 will
be completed will be
(A) 16
(C) 20
(B) 19
(D) 37
6.
The address sequence generated by

tracing a particular program executing in
a pure demand paging system with 100
bytes per page is
0100, 0200, 0430, 0499, 0510, 0530,
0560, 0120, 0220, 0240, 0260, 0320,
0410.
Suppose that the memory can store only
one page and if x is the address which
causes a page fault then the bytes from
For each of the four processes P1, P2, P3 and

P4. The total size in kilobytes (KB) and the
number of segments are given below.
Process
Total size (in
Number of
KB)
segments
P1
195
4
P2
254
5
P3
45
3
P4
364
8
The page size is 1 KB. The size of an entry in
the page table is 4bytes. The size of an entry
in the segment table is 8 bytes. The
maximum size of the segment is 256KB. The
paging method for memory management
uses two-level paging and its storage
overhead is P. The storage overhead for the
segmentation method is S. The storage
overhead for the segmentation and paging
method is T. What is the relation among the
overheads the different methods of memory
management in the concurrent execution of
the above four processes?
(A) P < S < T
(C) S < T < P
(B) S < P < T
(D) T < S < P
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GATE QUESTION BANK
addresses x to x + 99 are loaded on to

the memory.
How many page faults will occur?
(A) 0
(C) 7
(B) 4
(D) 8
7.
8.
Common Data for Q. 7 & 8

A process has been allocated 3 page
frames. Assume that none of the pages of
the process are available in the memory
initially. The process makes the following
sequence of page references (reference
string) : 1, 2, 1, 3, 7, 4, 5, 6, 3, 1.
If optimal page replacement policy is
used, how many page faults occur for the
above reference string?
(A) 7
(C) 9
(B) 8
(D) 10
Least Recently Used (LRU) page
replacement policy is a practical
approximation
to
optimal
page
replacement. For the above reference
string, how many more page faults occur
with LRU than with the optimal page
replacement policy?
(A) 0
(C) 2
(B) 1
(D) 3
CS - 2008
9.
A processor uses 36-bit physical
addresses and 32-bit virtual addresses,
with a page frame size of 4 Kbytes. Each
page table entry is of size 4 bytes. A three
level page table is used for virtual-tophysical address translation, where the
virtual address is used as follows
bits 30-31 are used to index into the

first level page table

second level page table

third level page table
bits 0-11 are used as offset within

the page
The number of bits required for
addressing the next level page table (or
page frame) in the page table entry of the
first, second and third level page table are
respectively
(A) 20, 20 & 20
(C) 24, 24 & 20
(B) 24, 24 & 24
(D) 25, 25 & 24
10.
Operating System
Match the following flag bits used in

the
context
of
virtual
memory
management on the left side with the
different purpose on the right side of
the table below.
Name of the bit
Purpose
i. Dirty
a. Page initialization
ii. R / W
b. Writeback policy
iii. Reference
c. Page protection
iv.
Valid
d. Page replacement
policy
(A) i d , ii a , iii b , iv c
(B) i b , ii - c , iii a , iv d
(C) i c , ii d , iii a , iv b
(D) i b , ii c , iii - d , iv a
CS - 2009
11. In which one of
replacement policies,
occur?
(A) FIFO
(B) Optimal
the following page

Beladys anomaly may
(C) LRU
(D) MRU
12.
The essential content(s) in each entry of a

page table is/are
(A) Virtual page number
(B) Page frame number
(C) Both virtual page number and page
frame number
(D) access right information
13.
A multilevel page table is preferred in

comparison to a single level page table for
translating virtual address to physical
address because
(A) It reduces the memory access time to
read or write a memory location
(B) It helps to reduce the size of page table
needed to implement the virtual
address space of a process
(C) It is required by the translation look a
side buffer
(D) It helps to reduce the number of page
faults in page replacement algorithms.
CS - 2010
14. A system uses FIFO policy for page
replacement. It has 4 page frames with no
pages loaded to begin with. The system
first accesses 100 distinct pages in some
order and then accesses the same 100
pages but now in the reverse order. How
many page faults will occur?
(A) 196 (B) 192 (C) 197 (D) 195
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GATE QUESTION BANK
CS - 2011
15. Let the page fault service time be 10 ms in
a computer with average memory access
time being 20 ns. If one page fault is
generated for every
memory
accesses, what is the effective access time
for the memory?
(A) 21 ns (B) 30 ns (C) 23 ns (D) 35 ns
CS - 2012
16. Consider the virtual page reference string
1, 2, 3, 2, 4, 1, 3, 2, 4, 1
On a demand paged virtual memory
system running on a computer system
that has main memory size of 3 page
frames which are initially empty. Let LRU,
FIFO and OPTIMAL denote the number of
page faults under the corresponding page
replacement policy. Then
(A) OPTIMAL < LRU < FIFO
(B) OPTIMAL < FIFO < LRU
(C) OPTIMAL = LRU
(D) OPTIMAL = FIFO
CS - 2013
Statement for linked Answer Questions 17
and 18:
A computer uses 46- bit virtual address,
32 bit physical address, and a
three level paged page table
organization. The page table base register
stores the base address of the first level
table (T1), which occupies exactly one
page. Each entry of T1 stores the base
address of the second level table (T2).
Each entry of T2 stores the base address
of a page of the third level table (T3).
Each entry of T3 stores a page table entry
(PTE). The PTE is 32 bits in size. The
processor used in the computer has a
1 MB 16- way set associative virtually
indexed physically tagged cache. The
cache block size is 64 bytes.
17. What is the size of a page in KB in this
computer?
(A) 2
(C) 8
(B) 4
(D) 16
18.
Operating System
What is the minimum number of page

colors needed to guarantee that no two
synonyms map to different sets in the
processer cache of this computer?
(A) 2
(C) 8
(B) 4
(D) 16
CS - 2014
19. Assume that there are 3 page frames
which are initially empty. If the page
reference string is
1, 2, 3, 4, 2, 1, 5, 3, 2, 4, 6, the number of
page faults using the optimal replacement
policy is__________.
20.
A system uses 3 page frames for storing

process pages in main memory. It uses
the Least Recently Used (LRU) page
replacement policy. Assume that all the
page frames are initially empty. What is
the total number of page faults that will
occur while processing the page reference
string given below?
4, 7, 6, 1, 7, 6, 1, 2, 7, 2
21.
Consider a paging hardware with a TLB.

Assume that the entire page table and all
the pages are in the physical memory. It
takes 10 milliseconds to search the TLB
and 80 milliseconds to access the physical
memory. If the TLB hit ratio is 0.6, the
effective memory access time (in
milliseconds) is _________.
22.
A computer has twenty physical page

frames which contain pages numbered
101 through 120.
Now a program
accesses the pages numbered , 2, ,
in that order, and repeats the access
sequence THRICE. Which one of the
following page replacement policies
experiences the same number of page
faults as the optimal page replacement
policy for this program?
(A) Least-recently-used
(B) First-in-first-out
(C) Last-in-first-out
(D) Most-recently-used
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GATE QUESTION BANK
Operating System

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
[Ans. A]
No. of pages = 128 = 2
Bits needed for page table entry = 7
page size = 4 KB = 4.2 byte.
= 12 bits.
For 4 way associative memory cell needs
2- bit (2
Total engaged bits = 7+12+2=21 bits
Minimum size of TLB = 32 21= 11 bits
[Ans. C]
Since both memory are equal. Therefore
address translation from virtual to
physical is not needed. And it is done by
MMU. So, hardware support for memory
management is no longer needed
[Ans. C]
T = storage overhead for segmentation
and paging method
S= storage overhead for segmentation
method
P = storage overhead for paging method
= 48+58+38+88 = 160
T = Stores the software programs needed
hus
, and
= 954+2544+454+3644=3432
<<.
[Ans. B]
P and Q both are true but Q is not the
reason for P because increasing the
number of page frames allocated to a
process sometime increases the page fault
rate or it is not concern with replacement
policy.
[Ans. B]
There are four block of size 4k, 8k, 20k, 2k
Request Allocated Remaining
Usage
No
block
block
time
4k, 8k,
J1
2k
20k
4
J2
20k
4k, 8k, 6k
10
J3
4k
k, 8k, 6k
2
J4
6k
k, 8k
8
It will wait to free block used by J2. So it
will wait for 10 units, then J6 will
complete in 1 unit time. So total time 11

units is taken to process request of J7 and
J7 takes 8 unit time to complete the
request
Total time taken by J7 = 10+1+8
= 19 unit times.
6.
[Ans. D]
Page reference string is
1, 2, 4, 5, 1, 2, 3, 4
So,
2
No. of page faults = 8
7.
[Ans. A]
Number of page frames = 3
Consider the optimal page replacement
algorithm as follows:
1, 2, 1, 3, 7, 4, 5, 6, 3, 1.
Page
Frame
Referring
2
String Page Page
Page
Fault Fault
Page Page Page Page Page Page Page

Fault Fault Fault Fault FaultFault Fault
So total number of page faults = 7

8.
[Ans. C]
Consider the LRU page replacement
policy
Page
Frame
Referring
2
String Page Page
Page
Fault Fault
Page Page Page Page Page

FaultFault Fault Fault Fault
So total number of page fault = 9

Number of page fault in LRU Number of
page fault in optional = 9 7 = 2 more
page faults.
9.
[Ans. B]
Number of bits required for first level
page table = 24
Number of bits required for 2nd level
page table = 24
Number of bits required for 3rd level page
table = 24
10.
[Ans. D]
Dirty
write-back policy,
R/W
page protection,
Reference
page replacement policy,
valid
page initialization.
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GATE QUESTION BANK
12.
13.
14.
[Ans. A]
Beladys anomaly can occur only in FIFO.
Which means with increment in page
frames, sometimes no. of pages faults also
increases
)]
)
2 ns
2 ns
(
(
)
)
3 3 3 3 3 2 2 2
2 2 2 2 1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 4 4 4 4 4 4
5 MISS
6 MISS
LRU
1
M
2
1
M
3
2
1
M
3
2
1
H
3
2
4
M
1
2
4
M
1
3
4
M
1
3
2
M
4
3
2
M
4
1
2
M
So optimal < FIFO < LRU

17.
[Ans. C]
Let page size = 2 bytes
Page offset = X bits
46 X
X
2
2
i e of
2
2
Size of
2 B
Size of
2
& 2
2
occupies e actly one page
age si e
18.
B
B
[Ans. C]
Page size = 2 Bytes
Divide cache size by page size & group 16
pages in one set.
No. of pages in caches
No. of sets in cache =
2 pages
sets
So all pages which will be mapped to one

set, will be colored with same color
So 8 sets = 8 colors required.
[Ans. B]
Effective access time
= [(1 p) access time when no page
fault +p access time during page fault]
[
FIFO
3 3 3 3 3 2 2 2
2 2 2 4 4 4 4 4 4
[Ans. B]
Multilevel page table is preferred to
reduce the size of page table needed to
implement the virtual address space of a
process.
[Ans. A]
FIFO policy for page replacement used.
Access 100 distinct pages by taking some
example 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9.
So by loading it get
5
= 4 page faults
4
3
2
[Ans. B]
OPTIMAL
[Ans. B]
Page frame numbers are most important,
virtual page number may not be stored
entirely.
9
8
= 4 page faults
7
6
and now access these pages in reverse so
2
o, no page fault for these page fault for these
9
5
8
4 4 page faults
7
3
6
2
So total = 4+4+4=12 page faults
For 8 pages = 2 8 4=12
So for n pages = 2n 4
For 100 pages = 2 (
=196
15.
16.
MISS
MISS
MISS
HIT
MISS
HIT
H
M
H
H
M
M
M
H
M
M
H
M
H
H
M
M
M
11.
Operating System
ms
ns
ns
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Page 204
GATE QUESTION BANK
19.
[Ans. 7]
1
2
1
1
2
3
1
2
3
No. of page faults = 7
4
1
2
4
2
1
2
4
1
1
2
4
5
5
2
4
3
3
2
4
Operating System
2
3
2
4
4
3
2
4
20.
[Ans. 6]
Total frames = 3
LRU page replacement algorithm: Least recently used page has to be replaced
4
7
6
1
7
6
1
2
7
2
4
4
4
1
1
1
7
7
7
2
2
6
6
6
7
Total no. of page faults = 6
21.
[Ans. 122]
Page Table is in Main Memory
Time to access TLB = 10 milliseconds
Time to access Memory = 80 milliseconds
TLB hit ratio = 0.6
6
3
6
4
Time to access Page from Memory

Time to access Page from Memory
Time to search TLB
Time to search TLB
Effective Access Time [EAT] = 0.6 (10 + 80) + 0.4 (10 + 80 + 80)
= 54 + 68
= 122 milliseconds
Time to access page Table
22.
[Ans. D]
Total no.of physical page frames = frames in main memory = 20
, 2, 2
Pages of a program = pages in Hard Disk = 100
, 2, ,
rogram accesses the page numbered , 2, , 100} THRICE in the order. [3 times]
Which page replacement algorithm gives the same no. of page faults when Optimal page
replacement policy is used?
Page Replacement Algorithm = Optimal Page Replacement
Replace the age that will not be used for a longest period of time in future
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GATE QUESTION BANK
Page
numbered
, 2, 2 in
main
Memory
occupying
20 Free
Frames
Page : 21
Page : 22
Page : 23
Operating System
Page : 24
101
1
101
1
101
1
101
1
101
1
102
2
102
2
102
2
102
2
102
2
103
3
103
3
103
3
103
3
103
3
104
4
104
4
104
4
104
4
104
4
105
5
105
5
105
5
105
5
105
5
106
6
106
6
106
6
106
6
106
6
107
7
107
7
107
7
107
7
107
7
108
8
108
8
108
8
108
8
108
8
109
9
109
9
109
9
109
9
109
9
110
10
110
10
110
10
110
10
110
10
111
11
111
11
111
11
111
11
111
11
112
12
112
12
112
12
112
12
112
12
113
13
113
13
113
13
113
13
113
13
114
14
114
14
114
14
114
14
114
14
115
15
115
15
115
15
115
15
115
15
116
16
116
16
116
16
116
16
116
16
117
17
117
17
117
17
117
17
117
17
118
18
118
18
118
18
118
18
118
18
119
19
119
19
119
19
119
19
119
19
120
20
120
21
120
22
120
23
120
24
For every Fault Optimal Algorithm will be selecting the Most Recently Used Page a Replacement.
Both Optimal & Most recently Used will generate same no of Page Faults.
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GATE QUESTION BANK
Operating System
File System
CS 2005
1.
In a computer system, four files of size
11050 bytes, 4990 bytes, 5170 bytes and
12640 bytes need to be stored. For
storing these files on disk, we can use
either 100 byte disk blocks or 200 byte
disk blocks (but cant mix block sizes).
For each block used to store a file, 4 bytes
of bookkeeping information also needs to
be stored on the disk. Thus, the total
space used to store a file is the sum of the
space taken to store the file and the space
taken to store the bookkeeping
information for the blocks allocated for
storing the file. A disk block can store
either bookkeeping information for a file
or data from a file, but not both. What is
the total space required for storing the
files using 100 byte disk blocks and 200
byte disk blocks respectively?
(A) 35400 and 35800 bytes
(B) 35800 and 35400 bytes
(C) 35600 and 35400 bytes
(D) 35400 and 35600 bytes
CS 2014
4.
A FAT (file allocation table) based file
system is being used and the total
overhead of each entry in the FAT is 4
bytes in size. Given a
bytes
disk on which the file system is stored
and data block size is
bytes, the
maximum size of a file that can be stored
on this disk in units of
bytes is
____________.
CS - 2008
2.
The data block of a very large file in the
Unix file system are allocated using
(A) Contiguous allocation
(B) Linked allocation
(C) Indexed allocation
(D) An extension of indexed allocation
CS 2012
3.
A file system with 300 Gbyte disk uses a
file descriptor with 8 direct block
addresses, 1 indirect block address and 1
doubly indirect block address. The size of
each disk block is 128 Bytes and the size
of each disk block address is 8Bytes. The
maximum possible file size in this file
system is
(A) 3 Kbytes
(B) 35 Kbytes
(C) 280 Bytes
(D) Dependent on the size of the disk
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GATE QUESTION BANK
Operating System

1.
[Ans. C]
Size of Block =
bytes
Total no. of Blocks in Disk = Total Size of
Disk / Size of Block
= 100
/
=
Blocks
Size of FAT table = Total No of Blocks
Size of each entry in FAT
=
4 = 0.4
bytes
Max Size of File = Total Size of Disk - Size
of FAT
= (100
) (0.4
) = 99.6
bytes
Answer = 99.6
bytes
99.6 in
units of
bytes
locks fo file
Blocks for book keeping =
For 100 bytes blocks:File
Book keeping
F1
111
5
F2
50
2
F3
52
3
F4
127
6
Total
340
16
)
)
For 200 block size
Blocks for
file
F1
55
F2
25
F3
26
F4
64
Total
170
)
Blocks for
Book keeping
2
1
1
3
7
)
2.
[Ans. D]
The data blocks of a very large file in the
unix file system are allocated using an
extension of indexed allocation or EXT2
file system.
3.
[Ans. B]
Maximum possible size =
add ess pointed b doubl indi ect block)
add ess pointed b single add ess)
add ess pointed b single di ect add ess)
block size
[(
)
k
4.
(
k
[Ans. *] Range 99.55 to 99.65

In FAT based file system FAT table will
be maintained for each partition.
Total no. of entries in FAT table = Total
no. of Blocks in the Disk. [one entry in
FAT per Block]
Size of each entry in FAT = 4 bytes
Total Size of Disk = 100
bytes
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Operating System
I/O System
CS - 2009
1.
Consider a disk system with 100
cylinders. The requests to access the
cylinders occur in the following sequence:
4, 34, 10, 7, 19, 73, 2, 15, 6, 20
Assuming that the head is currently at
cylinder 50, what is the time taken to
satisfy all requests if it takes 1 ms to move
from one cylinder to adjacent one and
shortest seek time first policy is used?
(A) 95 ms
(C) 233 ms
(B) 119 ms
(D) 276 ms
CS - 2011
2.
An application loads 100 libraries at
startup. Loading each library requires
exactly one disk access. The seek time of
the disk to a random location is given as
10 ms. Rotational speed of disk is
6000rpm. If all 100 libraries are loaded
from random locations on the disk, how
long does it take to load all libraries? (The
time to transfer data from the disk block
once the head has been positioned at the
start of the block may be neglected.)
(A) 0.50 s
(C) 1.25 s
(B) 1.50 s
(D) 1.00 s
CS - 2013
3.
Consider a hard disk with 16 recording
surfaces (0-15) having 16384 cylinders
(0-16383) and each cylinder contains 64
sectors (0-63). Data storage capacity in
each sector is 512 bytes. Data are
organized cylinder wise
and the
addressing format is <cylinder no.,
surface no., sector no>. A file of size
42797 KB is stored in the disk and the
starting disk location of the file is
< 1200, 9, 40>. What is the cylinder
number of the last sector of the file, if it is
stored in a contiguous manner?
(A) 1281
(C) 1283
(B) 1282
(D) 1284

1.
[Ans. B]
Head is currently at cylinder 50,
Total moves = 16 + 14 + 1 + 4 + 5 + 3
+1 + 2 + 2 + 71
= 119
So for each move time taken = 1ms
So for 119 moves time =119 ms
2.
[Ans. B]
Rotation speed = 6000 rpm
Seek time = 10 ms
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GATE QUESTION BANK
Operating System
1 access time = seek tome + latency

=10+5
=15 ms
So, for 100 accesses = 15 ms
= 1.5 sec
3.
[Ans. D]
Each surface contains = 64 sectors
Each cylinder contains = 64
sectors
42797 KB =
Current cylinder 1200, can have
24+(6 64) = 408 sectors more for this
file
Remaining sectors = 85186
No. of sectors in one cylinder = 1024
So, to store remaining sectors cylinders
needed
Means 83 complete cylinders and some

portion of 84th cylinder. So, last sector of
the file will be at 1200+84=1284
cylinders.
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GATE QUESTION BANK
TOC
Finite Automata
CS 2005
1.
Consider the machine M
Consider the strings u = abbaba, v = bab

and w = aabb. Which of the following
statements is true?
(A) The automaton accepts u and v but
not w
(B) The automaton accepts each of u, v
and w
(C) The automaton rejects each of u, v
and w
(D) The automaton accepts u but rejects
v and w
a
b
a
a
a
a, b
The language recognized by M is

(A) {w { }*|every a in w is followed
y x tly two s}
(B) {w {a, b}*|every a in w is followed
y t l st two s}
(C) {w {a, b}*|w does not contains the
su string
}
(D) {w
{a,b}*|w ont ins s
substring}
2.
The following diagram represents a finite

state machine which takes as input a
binary number from the least significant
bit
0/0
CS 2007
4.
A minimum state deterministic finite
automation accepting
the language
L = {w w {0,1}*, number of 0s & 1s in
w are divisible by 3 and 5, respectively}
has
(A) 15 states
(C) 10 states
(B) 11 states
(D) 9 states
5.
Consider the following DFA in which s is

the start state and s , s are the final
states.
0/1
1/0
1/1

(A) It omput s 1s ompl m nt of th
input number
(B) It omput s 2s ompl m nt of th
input number
(C) It increments the input number
(D) It decrements the input number
x
s
s
y
x
x
What language does this DFA recognize?

(A) All strings of x and y
(B) All strings of x and y which have
either even number of x and even
number of y or odd number of x and
odd number of y
(C) All strings of x and y which have
equal number of x and y
(D) All strings of x and y with either even
number of x and odd number of y or
odd number of x and even number
of y.
CS 2006
3.
In the automaton below, s is the start
state & t is the only final state.
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GATE QUESTION BANK
CS 2009
6.
Given the following state table of an FSM
with two states A and B, one input and
one output:
Present
State A
0
0
1
1
0
0
1
1
7.
Present
State B
Input
Next
State
A
Next
State
B
Out
put
0
0
0
0
1
1
0
1
0
0
0
0
0
1
0
1
0
1
0
0
0
1
0
1
0
1
1
0
0
1
0
1
0
1
1
1
1
0
0
1
If the initial state is A = 0, B = 0, what is
the minimum length of an input string
which will take the machine to the state
A = 0, B = 1 with Output = 1?
(A) 3
(C) 5
(B) 4
(D) 6
CS 2011
9.
Definition of a language L with alphabet
{a} is given as following
L={
k
n n is positiv int g r
constant}
What is the minimum number of states
needed in a DFA to recognize L?
(A) k + 1
(C) 2n+1
(B) n + 1
(D) 2k+1
10.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
A deterministic finite automaton (DFA) D

with alphabet {a,b} is given below:
p
Which of the following finite state

machines is a valid minimal DFA which
accepts the same language as D?
The following DFA accepts the set of all

strings over {0,1} that
1
0
1
0
1
TOC
Begin either with 0 or 1

end with 0
end with 00
contain the substring 00
CS 2010
8.
Let w be any string of length n in {0, 1}*.
Let L be the set of all substrings of w.
What is the minimum number of states in
a non-deterministic finite automaton that
accepts L?
(A) n 1
(C) n+1
(B) n
(D) 2
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GATE QUESTION BANK
TOC
than 3 are also in the language. A partially

completed DFA that accepts this language
is shown below.
1
1
s
1
11.
11
The lexical analysis for a modern

computer language such as Java needs the
power of which one of the following
machine models in a necessary and
sufficient sense?
(A) Finite state automata
(B) Deterministic pushdown automata
(C) Non-deterministic pushdown
automata
(D) Turing machine
The missing arcs in the DFA are

(A)
00
01
10
11
00
1
0
01
1
10
0
11
0
(B)
12.
Let P be a regular language and Q be a

context-free language such that Q P.
(For example, let P be the language
represented by the regular expression
} Then which
p*q* and Q be {p q n
of the following always regular?
(A) P Q
(C) * P
(B) P Q
(D) * Q
00
00
01
10
11
01
0
1
10
11
q
l
0
0
(C)
00
00
01
10
11
CS 2012
13. What is the complement of the language
accepted by the NFA shown below?
ssum { } n
is the empty string
01
1
1
10
11
q
0
11
q
0
0
0
(D)
a
(A)
14.
(B) { }
00
(C)
(D) {
00
01
10
11
01
1
10
1
0
0
Consider the set of strings on {0,1} in

which, every substring of 3 symbols has
at most two zeros. For examples, 001110
and 011001 are in the language, but
100010 is not. All strings of length less
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GATE QUESTION BANK
CS 2013
15. Consider the DFA A given below.
1
TOC
CS 2014
16. Consider the finite automaton in the
following figure
1
1
q
1
1
What is the set of reachable states for the

input string 0011?
(A) {q q q }
(C) {q q q q }
(B) {q q }
(D) {q }
1
Which of the following are FALSE?

1. Complement of L(A) is context free.
2. L(A)= L((11*0+0)(0+1)*0*1*)
3. For the language accepted by A,A is
the minimal DFA.
4. Accepts all strings over {0, 1} of
length at least 2.
(A) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 3
(B) 2 and 4
(D) 3 and 4
17.
L t
finit non-empty alphabet and
let 2
th pow r s t of * Whi h on
of the following is TRUE?
(A) Both 2 n * are countable
(B) 2 is ount l n * is un ount l
(C) 2 is un ount l n * is ount l
(D) Both 2 n * r un ount l

1.
2.
[Ans. B]
(A) is f ls sin M is
pting bbb
(B) is true.
(C) is false since the string abb is
accepted by M.
(D) is false, since abb does not contain
s su string ut abb is being
rejected by M.
[Ans. B]
To onv rt
in ry num r to 2s
complement fom, all the digits from LSB
are directly copied upto the 1st occurance
of 1. After that all digits are
complemented
0/0
0/1
1/1
Transition table for the diagram is

Next state
PS
0
1
1
1
1
Output function z is
Start state
PS
0
1
q0
0
1
q1
1
0
The output z computes th
complement of the input number.
3.
2s
[Ans. D]
At the end of string u, automaton will be
at the final state t, but the automaton will
be at the state s after the end of both the
strings v and w.
1/0
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Page 214
GATE QUESTION BANK
4.
[Ans. A]
L={w w { 1} number of s n 1s in
w are divisible by 3 and 5 respectively}
The minimum number of states for the
state deterministic finite automation
accepting the language L has
3 5 = 15 states.
5.
[Ans. D]
As s and s are both final states, the
strings accepted are x, y, xyx, yxx etc.
6.
[Ans. A]
String 1 0 1 will bring m/c to specified
state.
The transition diagram is given below:
0/1
1/0
Thus the corresponding NFA looks like as

follows:
0/1
1/1
11
9.
[Ans. B]
The following DFA that accepts a
s qu n of s whos l ngth is positiv
multiple of a constant n. It has n + 1
states q0 through qn.
10.
[Ans. A]
The language accepted by given DFA is
L
Choice (A)is accepting same language and
is minimal
is r j t
y hoi
and it belongs to L. So choice (B) is
incorrect.
Choice (C) is an NFA and hence not the
right answer
is
pt
y hoi
n is
rejected by L. So choice (D) is incorrect.
11.
[Ans. A]
Lexical analysis uses express regular
expressions. So, finite state automata is
necessary and sufficient to perform
lexical analysis.
12.
[Ans. C]
Complement of a regular language is
always regular.
13.
[Ans. B]
1
0/0
7.
8.
[Ans. C]
(A) says that all strings that start with
either 0 or 1, which is not true because
1001 is one of this string which is not the
member of given DFA.
(B) imil rly string is
n ing string
and not acceptable by given DFA.
(D) lso nt
orr t s
1 is not
accepted by given DFA.
Any string of {0, 1} that ends with 00
certainly acceptable by this DFA.
0/1
Dead state
0/0 1/1, 0/0
00 ----------1(0) --------> 01 -----0(0) -----> 10 ---1(1) -----> 01

(Highlighted text is input followed by
output).
0/1
0/1
1/1
TOC
[Ans. C]
Since L is set of all substrings of w, that
mean L has strings of Length
0, 1, 2, 3 ---------- n.
Language for NFA L =

Now L * L
L
L { }
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GATE QUESTION BANK
14.
[Ans. D]
Notice that the state names are given
based on ending bits of the string, which
has been processed.
Th r from
l
l shoul go to
trap state q (since at most 2 zeros are
allowed in any substring).
Based on this fact, option (A) and (B) are
incorrect.
Between option (C) and (D), if you look at
r l
l
1 from st t
1 this r
should go to state 11 since the string at
this point is ending with 11. So option (C)
is wrong and option (D) is correct.
The DFA corresponding to correct option
(D) is shown below missing arrow shown
in dotted lines.
4.
A accepts all strings over {0,1} of

length at least 2-False. The given DFA
accepts the string which is of
length less than 2.
16.
[Ans. A]
(Current state, input) = next state
q
q
q
q
q 1
q or q
q 1
q
So set of reachable states
{q q q }
17.
[Ans. C]
2 is the power set of
is countability infinite.
The power set of countable infinite set is
uncountable.
So 2 is uncountable, and is countable
1
1
15.
Minimal DFA is
1
1
TOC
11
[Ans. D]
1. Complement of L(A) is context free
True
As there exist a DFA , L(A) is regular.
Regular languages are closed under
complement
Complement of L(A) is regular and
therefore context free.
2. L(A)= L((11*0+0)(0+1)*0*1*)
True
As L(A)=L((11*0+0)(0+1)*) is
equivalent to
L((11*0+0)(0+1)*0*1*).
3. For the language accepted by A, A is
minimal DFA False
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GATE QUESTION BANK
TOC
Regular Expression
CS 2005
1.
TRUE about the regular expression 01*0?
(A) It represents a finite set of finite
strings.
(B) It represents an infinite set of finite
strings.
(C) It represents a finite set of infinite
strings.
(D) It represents an infinite set of infinite
strings.
2.
Which regular expression best describes

the language accepted by the nondeterministic automaton below?
q
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
5.
Common Data for Q.7 & Q.8

Consider the following Finite
Automation
state
q3
The language *
n
+ is
(A) Regular
(B) context free but not regular
(C) context free but its complement is
not context free
(D) not context free
CS 2006
3.
Consider
the
regular
language
L= (111+11111)*. The minimum number
of states in any DFA accepting this
languages is:
(A) 3
(B) 5
(C) 8
(D) 9
4.
CS 2007
6.
Which of the following languages is
regular?
* + +
(A) *ww w
* + +
(B) *ww x x w
* + +
(C) *wxw x w
* + +
(D) *xww x w
a
a
q0
q1
q2
7.
The language accepted by this automaton

is given by the regular expression
(A) b* ab* ab* ab* (C) b*a(a + b)*
(B) (a + b)*
(D) b * ab* ab*
8.
The minimum state automaton equivalent

to the above FSA has the following
number of states
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
9.

(A) Every subset of a regular set is
regular
(B) Every finite subset of a non-regular
set is regular
(C) The union of two non-regular sets is
not regular
(D) Infinite union of finite sets is regular
(a + b) * a(a + b)b
(abb)*
(a + b) * a(a + b) * b(a + b)*
(a + b)*

regular languages is NOT true?
(A) Every language has a regular superset
(B) Every language has a regular subset
(C) Every subset of a regular language is
regular
(D) Every subset of a finite language is
regular
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Page 217
GATE QUESTION BANK
CS 2008
10. Given below are two finite state automata
(
indicates the start state and F
indicates a final state)
Y:
Z:
a
b
a
b
1
2
2
2
2(F) 2
1
2(F) 1
1
Which of the following represents the
product automaton Z Y?
(A)
a
b
P
S
R
Q
R
S
R(F) Q
P
S
Q
P
(B)
a
b
P
S
Q
Q
R
S
R(F) Q
P
S
P
Q
(C)
a
b
P
Q
S
Q
R
S
R(F) Q
P
S
Q
P
(D)
a
b
P
S
Q
Q
S
R
R(F) Q
P
S
Q
P
11.
Q.
1
0
1
0
R.
1
1
0
S.
1
1
0
. + ( * + )* *
. + ( * + )*
3. + ( * + )*
4. + ( * + )* *
(A) P2, Q-1, R-3, S-4
(B) P-1. Q-3, R-2, S-4
(C) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4
(D) P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4
12.
Match the following NFAs with the

regular expressions they correspond to.
P.
1
0
TOC
Which of the following are regular sets?

1. {
n 0, m 0 }
2. {
n=2m}
3. {
n m}
4. * x y x y * +*+
(A) 1 and 4 only
(C) 1 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(D) 4 only
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GATE QUESTION BANK
13.
Consider the following two finite

automata. M1 accepts L1 and M2 accepts
L2.
0,1
TOC
CS 2010
16. Let L = {w
(0 + 1)* | w has even
num er of s+ i.e. is the set of ll it
strings with even num er of s.
Which one of the regular expressions
below represents L?
(A) (0*10*1) *
(C) 0*(10*1)*0*
(B) 0*(10*10*)*
(D) 0*1(10*1)*10*
0
0,1
0,1

(A)
(C) L1
(B)
(D) L1
14.
Which of the following regular

expressions describes the language over
{0, 1} consisting of strings that contain
ex tly two s?
(A) (0 +1)* 11(0 +1)*
(B) 0 * 110*
(C) 0*10*10*
(D) (0 +1)* 1(0 +1)* 1 (0 +1)*
CS 2009
15. Which one of the following languages
over the alphabet {0, 1} is described by
the regular expression:
( + ) ( + ) ( + )?
(A) The set of all strings containing the
substring 00
(B) The set of all strings containing at
most two s
(C) The set of all string containing at
le st two s
(D) The set of all strings that begin and
end with either 0 or 1
CS -2012
17. Given the language L = {ab, aa, baa},
which of the following strings are in L*?
1. abaabaaabaa
2. aaaabaaaa
3. baaaaabaaaab
4. baaaaabaa
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 4
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 3 and 4
CS 2013
18. Consider the languages
n
* +. Which one of the following
represents
?
(A) *+ (B)
(C)
(D) * +
CS 2014
19. Which one of the following is TRUE?
(A) The language L ={
n
+ is
regular
(B) The language
L = * n is prime+ is regul r
(C) The language
L=*w w h s 3 +
s for some
with
* + + is regul r
(D) The language
* ++
L = *ww w
with
is regul r.
20.
Let L be a language and be its

complement. Which one of the following
is NOT a viable possibility?
(A) Neither L nor is recursively
enumerable (r.e.).
(B) One of L and is r.e. but not
recursive; the other is not r.e.
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Page 219
GATE QUESTION BANK
(C) Both L and are r.e. but not

recursive.
25.
(D) Both L and are recursive.

21.
Which of the regular expressions given

below represent the following DFA?
0
0
1
I)
II)
III)
(A)
(B)
0*1(1 + 00* 1)*

0*1* 1+ 11* 0* 1
(0 + 1)* 1
I and II only
(C) II and III only
I and III only
(D) I, II and III
22.
If = * n
+ n
* n
+,
consider
(I)
is regul r l ngu ge
(II)
*
n
+
Which one of the following is CORRECT?
(A) Only (I)
(B) Only (II)
(C) Both (I) and (II)
(D) Neither (I) nor (II)
23.
Let
*w
* +* w h s t le st s
m ny o urren es of (
)s s (
)s+.
*
+
et
*w
w has at least as
m ny o urren es of (
)s s (
)s+.
(A)
is regular but not
(B)
is regular but not
(C) Both and are regular
(D) Neither nor are regular
24.
The length of the shortest string NOT in

the language (over
*
+) of the
following
regular
expression
is
( )
______________.
th
TOC
Let A
B denotes that language A is
mapping reducible (also known as manyto-one reducible) to language B. Which
one of the following is FALSE?
(A) If A
B and B is recursive then A is
recursive.
(B) If A
B and A is undecidable then B
is undecidable.
(C) If A
B and B is recursively
enumerable then A is recursively
enumerable.
(D) If A
B and B is not recursively
enumerable then A is not recursively
enumerable.
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GATE QUESTION BANK
TOC

1.
[Ans. D]
2.
[Ans. A]
Every finite language is regular. Given
language is finite hence it is regular
[Finite language or those which have
finite string of finite length is always
regular]
middle of wwR. Hence only C seems to be

correct answer.
The r.e for (C) is 1(0 + 1)*1 + 0(0 + 1)*0.
That is language of strings starts and ends
with same symbol. Here acts as a marker
to denote the end of w.
7.
[Ans. C]
q
3.
[Ans. D]
Note that 1, 11(length 2), 1111(length 4),
1111111(length 7) are not in L, while
and any string
length >= 8(since all words more than 8
length can be formed using any
combination of 111 and 11111) are in L.
The corresponding DFA is given below:
1
1
1
[Ans. A]
We will use Arden theorem to solve this.
So the derivation is as follows:
= q0 (a + b) +
- - - -(1)
Then using Arden, we
q0 = ( + ) = (a + b)* - - - - (2)
q1 = q0 a = (a + b)*a - - - - - (3)
q2 = q1 (a + b) = (a + b)*a(a + b)- - - -(4)
q3 = q2 b = (a + b)*a(a + b)b
Since q3 is final state hence r.e for it is
correct choice.
5.
[Ans. C]
6.
[Ans. C]
A B D nt etermine the en of w n
start of w .
If language is regular then an FA
definitely exists for it. Let us try to design
FA for each option. No FA can remember
Here, in all strings accepted by this

automation, at least one a is necessary to
take from initial state to first final state q1
but another a is not mandatory because
string a is perfectly acceptable by this
automaton.
q is the initial state. From q to q the
regular expression is b* a. After that, every
combination of a and b is accepted by q
or q
( + ).
r
4.
8.
[Ans. B]
The minimum state FSA contains 2 states
as given below for the regular expression
b*a(a+b)*
a, b
9.
[Ans. B]
(A) is false. Consider L = {w | where w is
in {a, b} *} and L1 = {anbn| where
n > = 0};
Clearly
is a subset of L and L1 is not a
regular.
(B) is true; since all finite sets are regular.
(C) is false; consider non-regular set
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GATE QUESTION BANK
L1 = {anbn| where n > = 0} and its

complement .
The union over these two is {a, b}* which
is regular.
Every finite set must be regular, so (B)
must be true.
10.
[Ans. A]
Draw the two automata and use product
construction.
11.
[Ans.C]
Either you n use Ar ens theorem or y
careful observation we can solve this.
[Q] accepts string ending with 0.
[R] accepts strings ending with 1. Thus
only [C] is the suitable choice
12.
[Ans. A]
Set [1] is regular as FA exists and we can
write r.e also. The r.e is a*(bb)*
(b symbol should occur in multiple of 2).
Set [2] and [3] are not regular as there is
no finite automaton exists that can
remember the count of a as to compare
with count of b.
Set [4] again is regular. The r.e for it is
(a + b)* c (a +b)*.
13.
[Ans. A]
Both automata
epts ll strings of
n s th t h ve two onse utive s.
14.
[Ans. C]
(A) and (D) cannot be the answer
because in each case minimum 2 number
of s is gu r ntee not ex tly one .
(B) also cannot be the answer because it
imposes one restri tion th t oth the s
should be consecutive.
15.
[Ans. C]
The string generates all the strings which
ont ins tle st zeros
TOC
16.
[Ans. B]
Choice (A) (0*10*1)* will always
generate strings ending with 1. But we
want an expression for bit strings with
even num er of s whi h in lu es
strings li e
whi h en s with .
So choice (A) is not correct.
Choice (C) 0* (1 0 *1)* 0*
*( * )* * ut
h s even num er of s
So choice (C) is incorrect
Choice (D)
*1(10*1)*10* but
is a
it string with even num er of s (zero
s). So hoi e (D) is in orre t.
Choice (B) can generate all bit strings
with even num er of s. So choice (B) is
correct.
17.
[Ans. C]
L = {ab, aa, baa}
The breakdown of the strings 1, 2, 4, in
terms of ab, aa and baa is shown below:
1. ab aa baa ab aa
2. aa aab aa aa
3. baa aa ab aa
String no. 3 has no breakdown in terms of
strings in L and hence string 3 does not
belong to L*.
Only 1, 2 and 4 belongs to L*.
18.
[Ans. A]
* +
As is empty language so multiplication
of with any language will give .
So
.
Also ,for all language
Also [ -*
So gives
So
*+
Option (A) is correct.
19.
th
[Ans. C]
*
n
+is not regular because
n FS
nnot e written th t will ount
i enti l sequen es of n
symbols
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GATE QUESTION BANK
TOC
* n is prime+is
not
regular
because an FSM cannot be written that
will determine n is prime number or not
* + is not
*ww w
with
regular because an FSM cannot be
written that can remember w and repeat
the same for ww
So
*w w h s 3 +
s for
with
* + + is regular, because for this
language an FSM can be written.
20.
[Ans. C]
Because if both L and
are recursive
enumerable then L is recursive.
So option (C) is not possible
21.
[Ans. B]
Option II will not accept 10101 but it is
accepted by given DFA. So regular
expression II does not represent the given
DFA
R.E I & III do
22.
[Ans. A]
. is concatenation of languages and it
is regular
+
. is not*
n
23.
[Ans. D]
None of the languages are regular because
both need counting and DFA lacks
memory element.
24.
[Ans. 3]
R.E = a * b *(ba)* a *
Length 0 is present as it accepts , all
length of 1 string are present (a, b) also
n
re present ut
is
not present. So it is 3
25.
[Ans. D]
If A
B and B is not recursively
enumerable then A will surely be not
recursively enumerable.
th
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GATE QUESTION BANK
TOC
Context Free Grammar

CS 2005
1.
Consider the languages
={
nm
} and
={
nm
}
Which one of the following statement is
false?
(A)
is a context-free language
(B)
is a context-free language
(C)
and are context-free languages
(D)
is a context sensitive
language
2.
3.
4.
Let L be a regular language and M be a

context free language, both over the
lph et .
et and
denote the
complements of L and M respectively.
the language
is TRUE?
(A) It is necessarily regular but not
necessarily context free
(B) It is necessarily context free
(C) It is necessarily non-regular
Let
and
denote the classes of
languages accepted by non-deterministic
finite automata and non-deterministic
push-down automata, respectively. Let D
and D denote the classes of languages
accepted by deterministic finite automata
and deterministic push-down automata,
respectively. Which one of the following is
TRUE?
(A) D
and D
(B) D
and D =
(C) D = and D =
(D) D = and D
Let
be a recursive language, and let
be a recursively enumerable but not a
recursive language. Which one of the
following is TRUE?
(A) is recursive and is recursively
enumerable
(B) is recursive and is not

recursively enumerable
(C) and are recursively enumerable
(D) is recursively enumerable and is
recursive.
5.
Consider the languages

= *ww
w * ++
= {w # w
w * + + (Where # is a
special symbol)
= *ww w * + +
(A)
is a deterministic CFL
(B)
(C)
is a CFL, but not a deterministic
CFL
(D)
CS 2006
6.
Let L1 = {
nm
+,
*
nm
+ and
L3
*
nm
+ which
of these languages are NOT context free?
(A) L1 only
(C) L1 and L2
(B) L3 only
(D) L2 and L3
7.
If s is a string over (0 +1)*, then let n (s)

denote the num er of s in s nd n1(s)
the num er of s in s. Which one of the
following languages is not regular?
(A) L = {s (0 + 1)* | n0(s) is a 3-digit
prime}
(B) L = {s ( + )*
for every prefixs
of s, | n0 (s ) n1(s ) | 2}
(C) L = {s (0 +1)* | n0(s) n1(s) 4}
(D) L = {s (0 + 1)* | n0(s) mod 7
= n1(s) mod 5 = 0}
8.
Consider the following statements

about the context-free grammar,
G *S SS S
S
S }
1. G is ambiguous
2. G produces all strings with equal
num er of s nd s
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GATE QUESTION BANK
3.
G can be accepted by a deterministic

PDA.
Which combination below expresses all
the true statements about G?
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
9.
10.
For s
( + )* let d(s) denote the
decimal value of s (e.g.d(101) = 5). Let
*s ( + )* d(s) mod 5 2 nd
d(s) mod 7 4}?
true?
(A) L is recursively enumerable, but not
recursive
(B) L is recursive, but not context-free
(C) L is context-free, but not regular
(D) L is regular
Let L1 be regular language, L2 be a
deterministic context-free language and
L3 a recursively enumerable, but not
recursive, language. Which one of the
following statements is false?
(A) L1
(B) L3
is recursive
(C) L1 L2 is context free
(D) L1
is recursively
enumerable
CS 2007
11. The language L={0i 21i | i 0} over the
alphabet {0, 1, 2) is
(A) not recursive
(B) is recursive and is a deterministic
CFL
(C) is a regular language
(D) is not a deterministic CFL but a CFL
TOC
CS 2009
13. S S | bSb| a| b
The language generated by the above
grammar over the alphabet {a, b} is the
set of
(A) All palindromes
(B) All odd length palindromes
(C) Strings that begin and end with the
same symbol
(D) All even length palindromes
14.

(A) There is a unique minimal DFA for
every regular language
(B) Every NFA can be converted to an
equivalent PDA
(C) Complement of every context-free
language is recursive
(D) Every nondeterministic PDA can be
converted
to
an
equivalent
deterministic PDA
15.
Let L = L1
where L1 and
are
languages as defined below:
*
mn
+
2
*
ijk
+
Then L is
(A) Not recursive
(B) regular
(C) context free but not regular
(D) recursively enumerable but not contextfree
CS 2010
16. Consider the language L1 = {
L2 = {
i j+
(
|i
i
j+
2j + +
L4 = {
i
2j+. Which one of the
(A) Only L2 is context free
(B) Only L2 and L3 are context free
(C) Only L1 and L2 are context free
(D) All are context free
CS 2008
12. If L and and recursively enumerable
then L is
(A) Regular
(B) Context free
(C) Context sensitive
(D) Recursive
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GATE QUESTION BANK
17.
Let L1 be a recursive language. Let L2 and L3

language that are recursively enumerable but
not recursive. Which of the following
statements is not necessarily true?
(A) L2 L1 is recursively enumerable
(B) L1 L3 is recursively enumerable
(C) 2
is recursively enumerable
(D) 2
is re ursively enumer le
CS 2013
18. Consider the following languages.
*
+
pqr
*
pqr
p r+
Which one the following statement is
FALSE?
(A)
is context free
(B)
is context free
(C) Complement of is recursive
(D) Complement of
is context free
but not regular
TOC
CS - 2014
19. Consider the following languages over the
+
alphabet *
*
n
+
*w w w* + +
*ww w* + +
Here, w is the reverse of the string w.
Which
of
these
languages
are
deterministic Context-free languages?
(A) None of the languages
(B) Only
(C) Only and
(D) All the three languages
Answer keys and Explanations

1.
[Ans. A]
and
are both context free languages.
Context free languages are not closed
under intersection.
2.
[Ans. D]
The complement of CFL need not be a
CFL.
[A] is false; Let us consider Mc as a CFL,
now remember not every CFL is regular.
Therefore it is not necessary that union is
regular.
[B] is false; as we know complement may
not CFL. Thus union over non-CFL with
regular will result into non-CFL.
[C] is false; it is not necessarily as argued
in previously.
Thus [D] is most appropriate choice
3.
[Ans. D]
: Non-Deterministic finite automata.
: Non-Deterministic push-down
automata.
D : Deterministic finite automata.
D : Deterministic push down automata.
A ording to Su set Constru tion
theorem every language accepted by Nondeterministic-finite automata. ( ) is also
accepted by some Deterministic-Finite
automata (D ) so D = .
Deterministic push-down automata (D )
recognizes a proper subset of the
language of context-free languages and
the non-deterministic push down
automata recognizes the context-free
languages.
So D
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GATE QUESTION BANK
4.
5.
6.
[Ans. B]
Given that is REC and
is RE but not
REC
Consider choice (A) is REC and is RE.
Since is REC, clearly is also REC.
Since
is RE but not REC, its
complement has to be not RE.
But (A) l ims th t is RE. Therefore
(A) is false
Consider (B) is REC and is not RE.
If is REC, then is REC.
Also, if is RE but not REC, then is not
RE
(B) is true.
Clearly (C) and (D) false since is not RE.
*
same as
context sensitive
7.
+ which is
[Ans. C]
Choice (A) is regular since it is finite.
Choice (B) is regular since although
omp rison is m de etween s nd s
it is for all prefixes and this can be done
by DFA.
Note: |n (s ) n (s )
2 is s me s
n (s ) n (s ) 2 or n (s ) n (s ) 2.
Chose (C) involves comparison of number
of s nd s ut for the string as a
whole, and this cannot be done by a DFA,
since it has finite memory and has no
stack for counting upto infinity.
Therefore, choice (C) is not regular
Choice (D) is regular since
n (s) mod 7 = n (s) mod 5 = 0 means
num er of s is divisi le by 7 and
num er of s is divisi le y 5 nd this
can be accepted by a DFA with 7 5 = 35
states.
A DFA that will accept the language of
choice (B) is shown below:
[Ans. B]
is CFL but not a DCFL, since accepting
ww necessarily involves finding the
middle of the string, which involves nondeterminism.
(A) is false.
is DCF is true sin e # is spe i l
symbol and middle of string can now be
surely found y using # there y
eliminating
the
need
for
nondeterministic guessing. So (B) is true.
is a CSL and not a CFL. So (C) is false.
is not a DCFL either. So (D) is false.
[Ans. D]
*
+ is context free
nm
(first n+m s re pushed into the st k
then for each of the 1s and 0s following,
we will pop the 0s in the stack one by one
until at the end of the word. If the stack is
empty then the word is accepted).
*
+ is not
nm
context free, since two comparisons have
to be made here to determine if w
.
. s nd s are equal
2. Since m <n+m, we have to ensure that,
s whi h ome fter
are less
in number, compared to n+m.
*
+is clearly
nm
context sensitive since 2 comparisons
have to be made. Infact this language is
TOC
0, 1
0
0, 1
8.
[Ans. B]
G *S SS S
S
S }
1. G is m iguous is true sin e
has infinite number of derivations
some of which are shown below:
th
th
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Page 227
GATE QUESTION BANK

S
D.
3.
on regular union, we can say that

is surely CFL.
is RE is true sin e ll
three are surely RE and RE languages
are closed under intersection.
2.
TOC
11.
[Ans. B]
* 2 i
} is a DCFL since, a DPDA can
ept this l ngu ge. s re pushed into
the stack and then when 2 appears in
input, state is changed and immediately
after that for every 1, a zero is popped out
of the stack. In the end, if stack has start
stack symbol only, then the string is
accepted, else it is rejected. Since every
DCFL is recursive, we can say that the
language is recursive, and is a DCFL.
12.
[Ans. D]
There is a theorem which states that
G produ es ll strings with equ l

num er of s nd s is f lse sin e
L(G) = (ab + ba)* and this language
cannot produce all strings with equal
num er of s nd s. For ex mple
aabb h s equ l num er of s nd s
ut
(G).
G n e
epted y
DPDA is
true, since L(G) = (ab + ba)* and this
is a regular language, since we have
written a regular expression for it.
Since every regular language is also a
DCFL, a DPDA exists, which accepts
this language.
9.
[Ans. D]
There is a DFA corresponding to
d(s) mod 5 = 2 as well as d(s) mod 7 = 4.
Therefore, both of them are regular
languages. Let they be
and
. The
given language is
.
Since regular languages are closed under
intersection and complementation, the
given language is also regular.
10.
[Ans. B]
Given
be regular,
is DCFL and
is
RE but not REC.
A.
is DCF is true sin e DCF s
are closed under regular intersection.
B.
is re ursive is f lse sin e is
RE but not REC and therefore
is surely RE according to closure of RE
under regular intersection, but we
cannot be sure that
is REC.
C.
is CF is true sin e
is
DCFL and hence a CFL and
is
regul r. Therefore y losure of CF s
whenever L and
will be REC.
are both RE, then both
13.
[Ans. B]
S S S
is
the
grammar
corresponding to all odd length
palindromes.
Notice that choice (C)is not correct since
"abaa" is a string that begins and ends
with the same symbol but cannot be
generated by above grammar.
Since all strings generates by this
grammar have odd length, choices (A)
and (D) are also incorrect.
14.
[Ans. D]
The set of DCF s re proper su l ss of
the set of CF s of PDAs. So, choice (D)
is false.
15.
[Ans. C]
*
m n 0}
{
|i j k
+
L=
is context free language and
regular language, as intesection of
th
th
th
ia
and
Page 228
GATE QUESTION BANK
is context free language, L is a context

free.
16.
[Ans. D]
L1 = {
i
j+
L2= {
i j+
L3 *
i 2j + +
L4 = {
i
2j+
All of
nd are context free,
since, each of these language is a linear
comparison between i & j and any linear
comparison between i & j can be
performed, in a PDA.
17.
[Ans. B]
L2 and L3 are recusively enumerable
languages, r.e. languages are closed under
intersection and union. So, option (C) and
(D) are not correct. All recursive
languages are also recursive languages.
So, L2-L1 must be recusively enumerable.
So, Option (A) is not correct.
18.
[Ans. D]
*
pqr
+ regular
language
*
pqr
p
r+ CFL
A.
is CFL : True
B.
is context free : True because
CFL is closed on regular intersection.
C. Complement of
is recursive : true,
because CFL is not closed under
complement. Any language which is
CFL is also REC and complement of
REC is REC so it is true.
D. Complement of is context free but
not regular : false because regular
language
are
closed
under
complement.
19.
th
TOC
[Ans. C]
For = *ww w( ) +
It can not be predicted that where w is
ending and where w is starting
But in
*
+
n
Both inputs are different and in
L2 = *w w w( ) +
w and w are separated by an alphabet c.
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GATE QUESTION BANK
TOC
Turing Machines
CS 2005
1.
Consider three decision problems
n
. It is known that
is
decidable and
is undecidable. Which
one of the following is TRUE?
(A)
is decidable if is reducible to
(B)
is undecidable if is reducible to
2.
(C)
is undecidable if
(D)
is decidable if
s complement
is reducible to
is reducible to
Consider the following two problems on

undirected graphs
: Given G (V, E), does G have an
in epen ent set of size V 4?
: Given G (V, E), does G have an
independent set of size 5?
(A) is in the P and is NP-complete
(B) is NP-complete and is in P
(C) Both and are NP-complete
(D) Both and are in P
CS 2006
3.
Let S be an NP complete problem and Q
and R be two other problems not known
to be in NP. Q is polynomial-time
reducible to S and S is polynomial-time
reducible to R. Which one of the following
statements is true?
(A) R is NP-complete
(B) R is NP-hard
(C) Q is NP-complete
(D) Q is NP-hard
4.
(C) DHAM3 is NP-hard, but SHAM3 is not

(D) Neither DHAM3 nor SHAM3 is
NP-hard
CS 2007
5.
Which of the following problems is
undecidable?
(A) Membership problem for CFGs
(B) Ambiguity problem for CFGs
(C) Finiteness problems for FSAs
(D) Equivalence problem for FSAs
CS 2008
6.
Which of the following is true for the
language {ap| p is a prime} ?
(A) It is not accepted by a Turning
Machine
(B) It is regular but not context-free
(C) It is context-free but not regular
(D) It is neither regular nor context-free,
but accepted by a Turning Machine
7.
Which of the following are decidable?

1. Whether the intersection of two
regular languages is infinite
2. Whether a given context free
language is regular
3. Whether two push down automata
accept the same language
4. Whether a given grammar is context
free
(A) 1 and 2
(C) 2 and 3
(B) 1 and 4
(D) 2 and 4
8.
Which of the following statement is false?

(A) Every NFA can be converted to an
equivalent DFA
(B) Every non deterministic Turing
machine can be converted to an
equivalent deterministic Turing
machine
(C) Every regular language is also a
context free language
(D) Every subset of a recursively
enumerable set is recursive
Let SHAM3 be the problem of finding a

Hamiltonian cycle in a graph G = (V,E)
with |V| divisible by 3 and DHAM3 be the
problem of determining if a Hamiltonian
cycle exists in such graphs. Which one of
the following is true?
(A) Both DHAM3 and SHAM3 are NP-hard
(B) SHAM3 is NP-hard, but DHAM3 is not
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GATE QUESTION BANK
9.
10.

true?
1. Every left recursive grammar can be
converted to a right recursive
grammar and vice versa
2. All - productions can be removed
from any context free grammar by
suitable transformations
3. The language generated by a context
free grammar all of whose productions
are of the from X w or X
wY
(where, w is a string of terminals and
Y is a nonterminal), is always regular.
4. The derivation trees of strings
generated by a context free grammar
in Chomsky Normal from are always
binary trees
(A) 1 ,2,3, and 4
(B) 2, 3 and 4 only
(C) 1, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2 and 4 only
Match List-I with ListII and select the
correct answer using the codes given
below the list:
List -I
a. Checking
that
identifiers
are
declared before their use
b. Number of formal parameters in the
declaration of a function agrees with
the number of actual parameters in a
use of that function
c. Arithmetic expression with matched
pairs of parentheses
d. Palindromes
List II
1. L = *
c
|n
m
+
2. X X b X| Xc XC d X f| g
3. L = {wcw| w (a | b) *}
4. X b X b| c X c|
Codes:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
a
1
3
3
1
b
3
1
1
3
c
2
4
2
4
d
4
2
4
2
TOC
CS 2011
11. Consider the languages L1,
and
as
given below.
|p q +
L1 = *
*
|p q
=
n p q+ n
|p q r
=*
n p q r+
NOT TRUE?
(A) Push Down Automata (PDA) can be
used to recognize L1 and
(B) L1 is a regular language
(C) All the three languages are context
free
(D) Turing machines can be used to
recognize all the languages
12.
Which of the following pairs have

DIFFERENT expressive power?
(A) Deterministic finite automata (DFA)
and
Non-deterministic
finite
automata (NFA)
(B) Deterministic push down automata
(DPDA) and Non-deterministic push
down automata (NPDA)
(C) Deterministic single-tape Turing
machine and Non-deterministic
single-tape Turing machine
(D) Single-tape Turing machine and
multi-tape Turing machine
CS 2012
13. Which of the following problems are
decidable?
1. Does a given program ever produce an
output?
2. If L is a context-free language, then
also context-free?
3. If L is a regular language, then is also
regular?
4. If L is a recursive language, then, is
also recursive?
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4
(C) 2, 3, 4
(B) 1, 2
(D) 3, 4
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GATE QUESTION BANK
14.
Assuming N which of the following

is TRUE?
(A) NP-complete = NP
(B) NP-complete
(C) NP-hard = NP
(D) P = NP-complete
18.
CS 2013
15. Which of the following statement is/are
FALSE?
1. For every non deterministic Turing
machine, there exists an equivalent
deterministic Turning machine.
2. Turing recognizable languages are
closed
under
union
and
complementation
3. Turing decidable languages are
closed under intersection and
complementation
4. Turing recognizable languages are
closed under union and intersection
(A) 1 and 4
(C) 2 only
(B) 1 and 3
(D) 3 only
16.
TOC
Which one of the following problems is

undecidable?
(A) Deciding if a given context-free
grammar is ambiguous.
(B) Deciding if a given string is
generated by a given context-free
grammar.
(C) Deciding if the language generated
by a given context-free grammar is
empty.
(D) Deciding if the language generated
by a given context-free grammar is
finite.
Which
of
the
following
is/are
undecidable?
1. G is a CFG. Is L(G)= ?
2. G is a CFG. Is L(G)=*?
3. M is a Turing machine. Is L(M)regular?
4. A is a DFA and N is an NFA. Is L(A)=L(N)?
(A) 3 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 3 and 4 only
(D) 2 and 3 only
CS 2014
17. Let <M> be the encoding of a Turing
machine as a string over = {0,1}. Let
L = {<M>| M is a Turing machine that
accepts a string of length 2014}. Then, L is
(A) decidable and recursively enumerable
(B) undecidable but recursively enumerable
(C) undecidable and not recursively
enumerable
(D) decidable but not recursively
enumerable
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GATE QUESTION BANK
TOC

1.
2.
3.
[Ans. C]
Note that in general if
,
decidable
decidable and
undecidable is undecidable.
Given that
is decidable and
is
undecidable.
Consider (A)
is decidable if
is
reducible to
i.e
and if
is
undecidable,
then
would
be
undecidable. But it is given that
and
decidable, therefore we cannot use this
theorem. (A) is false.
Consider (B)
is undecible if
is
reducible to i.e.
Now if
is undecidable then
is
undecidable but nothing is given
regarding
. Also if is decidable, then
would be decidable, but it is given that
is un eci
le so we c nt use this
(B) is false.
Consider (C)
is undecidable if
is
reducible to i.e
Now if is undecidable, this would mean
is undecidable. Since it is given that
is undecidable, therefore, surely
is
undecidable is correct.
Choice (C) is correct
[Ans. C]
Consider the statement.
: Given G(V E) oes G h ve n
independent set of size |V|
:
Let G contains n nodes and assume
|n|
= K for some constant K so there
is a polynomial time reduction from 3SAT
then is lso N -complete.
: Given G(V E) oes G h ve n
independent set of size 5 is also
NP-complete, reduction from 3SAT.
and
Since
S is NP-complete R is NP-complete.
(A) is true
4.
[Ans. A]
HA
be the problem of finding
Hamiltonian cycle in a graph G = (V, E)
with |V| is divisible by 3 contains three
remainders either 0, 1 and 2 can be
reduced to this problem 3SAT and hence
HA
is NP-complete problem. DHA
be the problem of determining if a
Hamiltonian cycle exists is also a
reduction from 3SAT and hence it is also
NP-complete problem. So both DHA
and HA
are NP complete and hence
NP Hard also.
5.
[Ans. B]
(A) em ership pro lem of CFGs is
decidable (CYK algorithm exists).
(B) Ambiguity problem of CFGs is
undecidable.
(C) Finiteness pro lem of F As is
decidable, since there exists an
algorithm to check if a given regular
language L is finite or infinite.
(D) Equiv lence pro lem for F As is
decidable, since there exists an
algorithm
to
check
where
L( )
( ) or not.
6.
[Ans. D]
Let L = { | p is a prime} the statement
(D) is true. There is no DFA which
recognizes the L or apply the pumping
lemma then we can say that
is not a
regular language. It is not context free
either, but L is surely accepted by a
(linearly bounded) Turning machine.
[Ans. A]
Note:
then
is NP-complete is NP-complete.
Given S, is NP-complete.
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GATE QUESTION BANK
7.
8.
9.
[Ans. B]
1. Intersection
of
two
regul r
l ngu ges is infinite is eci
le
since we can construct a product
DFA of the 2 given DFAs and then,
using the algorithm to check
finiteness or infiniteness on this
DFAs, we can solve the problem.
2. Whether given CF is regul r is
undecidable.
3. Whether two PDAs ccept the s me
l ngu ge is un eci
le since
equiv lence of CF s is un ecidable.
4. Whether given gr mmar is context
free is eci
le since we c n
easily check using a TM, whether the
LHS of every production has a single
variable and, then it is a CFG, else it is
not a CFG.
n
re eci
le
[Ans. D]
(A) True
(B) True
(C) True
(D) Every subset of a recursively
enumerable set is recursive, is false,
since a set is a subset of itself and
there are RE languages, which are
not recursive.
[Ans. C]
1. True
2. All - productions can be removed
from only context free grammars
th t pro uce free CF s
If L(G), then all - productions
cannot be successfully removed. So 2
is false
3. True
4. True, since is Chomsky normal form,
every production is of the form of
A BC or A
An example of a binary tree generated by
CNF derivation is shown below:
TOC
10.
[Ans. C]
In *w c w | w ( | )*+ leftmost w is the
identifier checking and rightmost w is the
use of w.
In
c
the actual parameters are
and
and the formal parameters and c
and
such that the number of
arguments of a and b are equal to c and d
respectively.
The
gr mm r
*X X X|XcX| Xf|g+
generates the arithmetic expressions with
matched pair of parentheses.
The gr mm r *X X |cXc|} generates
the palindromic string.
11.
[Ans. C]
is not context free. (It fails to satisfy
pumping lemma for context free
languages.) One can also infer the answer
by observing that options A, B and D
which are true.
12.
[Ans. B]
DFA NFA
D DA N DA
DT NT
ingle t pe T
13.
th
ulti-tape TM
[Ans. D]
If L is regular, is surely regular.
So statement number (3) is trivially
decidable.
Also if L is recursive, is also surely
recursive. So statement number (4) is
also trivially decidable.
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GATE QUESTION BANK
Complement of a context free language,

may or may not be context free. So
statement number (2) is not only a non
trivial problem but is also undecidable.
Statement (1) is undecidable.
Correct option is (D) i.e. only 3 and 4 are
decidable.
14.
15.
[Ans. B]
L is NP complete iff
( ) N H
(2) N
(A)
ption
c n t e s N -complete
N ut not
ption C:
NPH can be NP or not be NP
ption C lso not correct
ption B : N complete P=
correct answer.
16.
[Ans. D]
1. G is CFG, Is L(G) = ? Decidable,
because in CFG there exits a algorithm
to check whether L(G) = .
2. G is CFG, Is L(G) = * un eci
le
no algorithm exits.
3. M is turning machine, Is L(M) regular,
undecidable.
4. A is a DFA and N is NFA, Is
L(A) =L(N), Trivially true so
decidable.
17.
[Ans. B]
Undecidable because
L = {< M >|M is a turing machine}
And halting of a turing machine is
undecidable problem.
Recursively enumerable because given
that turing machine accepts a string of
length 2014.
18.
[Ans. A]
There were algorithm to find the
membership of CFG (using CYK
algorithm) and finiteness of CFG (using
CNF graph) and emptiness. But there is
no algorithm for ambiguity of CFG, so it is
undecidable.
is
is
[Ans. C]
1. Non-deterministic turning machine
can be simulated into an equivalent
deterministic turing machine. So for
every non deterministic turing
machine there exits an equivalent
deterministic turing machine. So
true.
2. Turing recognizable language are
closed under complementation so
false.
3. Turing decidable languages are
closed under intersection and
complementation. If
and
are
two turing decidable languages then
we can easily construct turing
machine for
and
. So
true.
4. Turing recognizable language are
closed under union and intersection.
So true.
So option (C) is correct.
TOC
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Computer Organization
Introduction to Computer Organization

CS 2012
1.
The decimal value 0.5 in IEEE single
precision floating point representation
has
(A) Fraction bits of 000000 and
exponent value of 0
(B) Fraction bits of 000000 and
exponents value of 1
(C) Fraction bits of 100000 and
exponents value of 0
(D) No exact representation

1.
[Ans. B]
(0 1000)
0
2
1 0000 2
As 1 is obvious and we dont represent in
IEEE format
Exponent = 1
antissa 0000
Hence Option B is correct
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Memory Hierarchy
CS 2005
1.
What is the swap space in the disk used
for?
(A) Saving temporary html pages
(B) Saving process data
(C) Storing the super-block
(D) Storing device drivers
2.
Increasing the RAM of a computer

typically improves performance because
(A) Virtual memory increases
(B) Larger RAMs are faster
(C) Fewer page faults occur
(D) Fewer segmentation faults occur
3.
Consider a direct mapped cache of size

32KB with block size 32 bytes. The CPU
generates 32 bit addresses. The number
of bits needed for cache indexing and the
number of tag bits are respectively
(A) 10, 17
(C) 15, 17
(B) 10, 22
(D) 5, 17
4.
Consider a 2-way set associative cache

memory with 4 sets and total 8 cache
blocks (0-7) and a main memory with
128 blocks (0-127). What memory
blocks will be present in the cache after
the following sequence of memory block
references if LRU policy is used for cache
block replacement. Assuming that
initially the cache did not have any
memory block from the current job?
0 5 3 9 7 0 16 55
(A) 0 3 5 7 16 55
(B) 0 3 5 7 9 16 55
(C) 0 5 7 9 16 55
(D) 3 5 7 9 16 55
6.
A computer system has a level

1
instruction cache (I cache), a level 1
data cache (D-cache) and a level 2
cache (L2 cache) with the following
specifications:
Capacity Mapping
Block
method
size
I4K
Direct
4
cache words
mapping
words
D4K
2-way set- 4
cache words
associative words
mapping
L264K
4-way set- 16
cache words
associative words
mapping
The length of the physical address of a
word in the main memory is 30 bits. The
capacity of the tag memory in the
I-cache, D-cache and L2-cache is,
respectively,
(A) 1 K18-bit, 1K 19-bit, 4K16-bit
(B) 1K 16-bit, 1K 19-bit, 4K18-bit
(C) 1K 16-bit, 51218-bit, 1K16-bit
(D) 1K 18-bit, 512 18-bit, 1K 18-bit
7.
A CPU has a cache with block size

64 bytes. The main memory has k banks,
each bank being c bytes wide.
Consecutive c-byte chunks are mapped
on consecutive banks with warp-around.
All the k banks can be accessed in
parallel, but two accesses to the same
bank must be serialized. A cache block
access may involve multiple iterations of
parallel bank accesses depending on the
amount of data obtained by accessing all
the k banks in parallel. Each iteration
requires decoding the bank numbers to
be accessed in parallel and this takes
k/2 ns. The latency of one bank access is
80 ns. If c = 2 and k = 24, then latency of
retrieving a cache block starting at
address zero from main memory is
(A) 92 ns
(C) 172 ns
(B) 104 ns
(D) 184 ns
CS 2006
5.
A cache line is 64 bytes. The main
memory has latency 32ns and
bandwidth 1GBytes/s. The time required
to fetch the entire cache line from the
main memory is
(A) 32 ns
(C) 96 ns
(B) 64 ns
(D) 128 ns
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8.
9.
Common Data for Q.8& Q.9

Consider two cache organizations: The
first one is 32 KB 2-way set associative
with 32-byte block size. The second one
is of the same size but direct mapped.
The size of an address is 32 bits in both
cases. A 2-to- 1 multiplexer has latency
of 0.6 ns while a k-bit comparator has a
latency of k/10 ns. The hit latency of the
set associative organization is h while
that of the direct mapped one is h .
The value of h is
(A) 2.4 ns
(C) 1.8 ns
(B) 2.3 ns
(D) 1.7 ns
The value of h is
(A) 2.4 ns
(B) 2.3 ns
(C) 1.8 ns
(D) 1.7 ns
Linked Answer Questions Q.10 & Q.11

A CPU has a 32 KB direct mapped cache
with 128-byte block size. Suppose A is a
two dimensional array of size 512 512
with elements that occupy 8-bytes each.
Consider the following two C code
segments, P1 and P2
)
P1 : for (i
i
i
{
)
for(j
j
j
{
[i][j]
x
}
}
P2 : for (i
{
for(j
i
j
(C) 16384
(D) 262144
12.
A CPU has 24-bit instructions. A program

starts at address 300(in decimal). Which
one of the following is a legal program
counter (all values in decimal)?
(A) 400
(C) 600
(B) 500
(D) 700
CS 2007
13. Consider a Direct Mapped Cache with 8
cache blocks (numbered 0 7). If the
memory block requests are in the
following order
3, 5, 2, 8, 0, 63, 9, 16, 20, 17, 25, 18, 30,
24, 2, 63, 5, 82, 17, 24.
Which of the following memory blocks
will not be in the cache at the end of the
sequence?
(A) 3
(C) 20
(B) 18
(D) 30
14 and 15:
Consider a machine with a byte
addressable main memory of
bytes.
Assume that a direct mapped data cache
consisting of 32 lines of 64 bytes each is
used in the system. A 50
two-dimensionalarray of bytes is stored
in the main memory starting from
memory location 1100 H. Assume that
the data cache is initially empty. The
complete array is accessed twice.
Assume that the contents of the data
cache do not change in between the two
accesses.
[j][i]
}
}
P1 and P2 are executed independently
with the same initial state, namely, the
array A is not in the cache and i, j, x are
in registers. Let the number of cache
misses experienced by P1 be
and
that for P2 be
is
The value of the ratio

is
(A) 0
(C) 1/8
(B) 1/16
(D) 16
{
{x
The value of
(A) 0
(B) 2048
11.
i
j
10.
14.
th
How many data cache misses will occur

in total?
(A) 48
(C) 56
(B) 50
(D) 59
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15.
16.
Which of the following lines of the data

cache will be replaced by new blocks in
accessing the array for the second time?
(A) line 4 to line 11
(B) line 4 to line 12
(C) line 0 to line 7
(D) line 0 to line 8
3.
4.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

consisting of 128 lines with a line size of
64 words. The CPU generates a 20-bit
address of a word in main memory. The
number of bits in the TAG, LINE and
WORD fields are respectively
(A) 9, 6, 5
(C) 7, 5, 8
(B) 7, 7, 6
(D) 9, 5, 6
CS 2008
17. For a magnetic disk with concentric
circular tracks, the seek latency is not
linearly proportional to the seek distance
due to
(A) Non - uniform distribution of
requests
(B) Arm starting and stopping inertia
(C) Higher capacity of tracks on the
periphery of the platter
(D) Use of unfair arm scheduling
policies
18.
19.
In an instruction execution pipeline , the

earliest that the data TLB (Translation
Look aside Buffer) can be accessed is
(A) Before effective address calculation
has started
(B) During effective address calculation
(C) After effective address calculation
has completed
(D) After data cache lookup has
completed
For inclusion to hold between two cache
level L1 and L2 in a multilevel cache
hierarchy, which of the following are
necessary?
1. L1 must be a write through cache
2. L2 must be write through cache
20.
The associativity of L2 must be

greater than that of L1
The L2 cache must be at least as
large as the L1 cache
4 only
1 and 4 only
1, 3 and 4 only
1, 2, 3 and 4
Common Data For Q.20, Q.21& Q.22

Consider a machine with a 2-way set
associative data cache of size 64K bytes
and block size 16 bytes.The cache is
managed using 32 bit virtual addresses
and the page size is 4 Kbytes. A program
to be run on this machine begins as
follows:
][
];
double ARR [
int i, j;
/* initialize array ARR to 0.0 */
for (i=0; i 1024;i++)
for (j=0, j 1024; j ++)
ARR [i] [j] = 0.0;
The size of double is 8 bytes. Array ARR
is located in memory starting at the
beginning of virtual page 0 x FF000 and
stored in row major order. The cache is
initially empty and no pre-fetching is
done. The only data memory references
made by the program are those to array
ARR.
The total size of the tags in the cache
directory is
(A) 32 Kbits
(C) 64 Kbits
(B) 34 K bits
(D) 68 K bits
21.
Which of the following array elements

has the same cache index as ARR [0] [0]?
(A) ARR [0] [4]
(C) ARR [0][5]
(B) ARR [4][0]
(D) ARR [5][0]
22.
The cache hit ratio for

initialization loop is
(A) 0%
(C) 50%
(B) 25%
(D) 75%
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GATE QUESTION BANK
CS 2009
Common Data for Question 23 and 24
A hard disk has 63 sectors per track, 10
platters each with 2 recording surfaces
and 1000 cylinders. The address of a
sector is given as a triple h , where c
is the cylinder number, h is the surface
number and s is the sector number.
Thus, the
sector is addressed as
, the 1st sector as

and so
on.
corresponds to
23. The address
sector number:
(A) 505035
(C) 505037
(B) 505036
(D) 505038
24.
The address of 103
(A)
(B)
sector is
(C)
(D)
for L1 cache, L2 cache and main memory

unit respectively.
L1
Cache
How many 32K 1 RAM chips are

needed to provide a memory capacity of
256 K-bytes =
(A) 8
(C) 64
(B) 32
(D) 128
26.

(initially empty) with total 16 cache
blocks. The main memory consists of 256
blocks and the request for memory
blocks is in the following order:
0,255,1,4,3,8,133,159,216,129,63,8,48,
32, 73, 92,155
Which one of the following memory
block will not be in cache if LRU
replacement policy is used?
(A) 3
(C) 129
(B) 8
(D) 216
CS - 2010
Common Data for Questions 27 and 28:
A computer system has an L1 and an L2
cache, and a main memory unit
connected as shown below. The block
size in L1 cache is 4 words. The block
size in L2 cache is 16 words. The
memory access times are 2 nanoseconds,
20 nanoseconds and 200 nanoseconds
Data Bus
L2
Cache
4 words
Data Bus
Main
memory
4 words
27.
When there is a miss in L1 cache and a

hit in L2 cache, a block is transferred
from L2 cache to L1 cache. What is the
time taken for this transfer?
(A) 2 nanoseconds
(B) 20 nanoseconds
(C) 22 nanoseconds
(D) 88 nanoseconds
28.
When there is miss in both L1 cache and

L2 cache, first a block is transferred from
main memory to L2 cache, and then a
block is transferred from L2 cache L1
cache. What is the total time taken for
these transfers?
(A) 222 nanoseconds
(B) 888 nanoseconds
(C) 902 nanoseconds
(D) 968 nanoseconds
29.
A main memory unit with a capacity of

4 megabytes is built using 1M
1-bit
DRAM chips. Each DRAM chip has 1K
rows of cells with 1K cells in each row.
The time taken for a single refresh
operation is 100 nanoseconds. The time
required to perform one refresh
operation on all the cells in the memory
unit is
(A) 100 nanoseconds
(B) 100
nanoseconds
(C) 100
nanoseconds
(D) 3200
nanoseconds
25.
CS - 2011
30. An 8KB direct-mapped write-bank
cache is organized as multiple blocks,
each of size 32-bytes. The processor
generates 32-bit addresses. The cache
controller
maintains
the
tag
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GATE QUESTION BANK
information for each cache block

comprising of the following.
1 Valid bit
1 Modified bit
As many bits as the minimum needed
to identify the memory block mapped
in the cache.
What is the total size of memory
needed at the cache controller to store
meta-data (tags) for the cache?
(A) 4864 bits
(C) 6656 bits
(B) 6144 bits
(D) 5376 bits
CS - 2012
Statement for linked Answer Question
31 and 32:
A computer has a 256Kbyte, 4-way set
associative, write back data cache with
block size of 32 Bytes. The processor
sends 32 bit addresses to the cache
controller. Each cache tag directory
entry contains, in addition to address
tag, 2 valid bits, 1 modified bit and 1
replacement bits
31. The number of bits in the tag field of an
address is
(A) 11
(C) 16
(B) 14
(D) 27
32.
The size of the cache tag directory is

(A) 160 Kbits
(C) 40 Kbits
(B) 136 Kbits
(D) 32 Kbits
The lines in set s are sequenced before

the lines in set (s+1). The main memory
blocks are numbered 0 onwards. The
main memory block numbered j must be
mapped to any one of the cache lines
from
(A) (j mod v ) k to (j mod v) k+(k 1)
(B) (j mod v ) to (j mod v) +(k 1)
(C) (j mod k) to (j mod k) +(v 1)
(D) (j mod k ) v to (j modk) v+(v 1)
CS - 2014
35. An access sequence of cache block
addresses is of length N and contains n
unique block addresses. The number of
unique block addresses between two
consecutive accesses to the same block
addresses is bounded above by k. What
is the miss ratio if the access sequence is
passed through a cache of associatively
A k exercising least recently used
replacement policy?
(A) n/N
(C) 1/A
(B) 1/N
(D) k/n
36.
A 4-way set-associative cache memory

unit with a capacity of 16 kB is built
using a block size of 8 words. The word
length is 32 bits. The size of the physical
address space is 4 GB. The number of
bits for the TAG field is ________________.
37.
In de igning a omputer a he y tem

the cache block (or cache line) size is an
important parameter. Which one of the
following statements is correct in this
context?
(A) A smaller block size implies better
spatial locality
(B) A smaller block size implies a
smaller cache tag and hence lower
cache tag overhead
(C) A smaller block size implies a larger
cache tag and hence lower cache hit
time
(D) A smaller block size incurs a lower
cache miss penalty
CS - 2013
33. A RAM chip has a capacity of 1024 words
of 8 bits each (1K 8). The number of
2
decoders with enable line needed
to construct a 16K 16 RAM from
1K
RAM is
(A) 4
(C) 6
(B) 5
(D) 7
34.
In a k way set associative cache, the

cache is divided into v sets, each of which
consists of k lines. The lines of a set are
placed in sequence one after another.
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38.
39.
If the associativity of a processor cache is

doubled while keeping the capacity and
block size unchanged, which one of the
following is guaranteed to be NOT
affected?
(A) Width of tag comparator
(B) Width of set index decoder
(C) Width of way selection multiplexor
(D) Width of processor to main memory
data bus
modules may overlap in time, but only

one request can be on the bus at any
time. The maximum number of stores (of
one word each) that can be initiated in 1
millisecond is ____________
40.
Consider a main memory system that

consists of 8 memory modules attached
to the system bus, which is one word
wide. When a write request is made, the
bus is occupied for 100 nanoseconds
(ns) by the data, address, and control
signals. During the same 100 ns, and for
500 ns thereafter, the addressed
memory module executes one cycle
accepting and storing the data. The
(internal) operation of different memory
The memory access time is

1 nanosecond for a read operation with a
hit in cache, 5 nanoseconds for a read
operation with a miss in cache,
2 nanoseconds for a write operation with
a hit in cache and 10 nanoseconds for a
write operation with a miss in cache.
Execution of a sequence of instructions
involves
100
instruction
fetch
operations, 60 memory operand read
operations and 40 memory operand
write operations. The cache hit-ratio is
0.9. The average memory access time (in
nanoseconds) in executing the sequence
of instructions is __________.

1.
[Ans. B]
Saving process data.
2.
[Ans. C]
Increasing the RAM means increase the
primary memory which reduces the
swapping so fewer page faults occur
3.
[Ans. A]
Size of cache = 32 KB
= 32
bytes
=
yte
yte
it
Size of tag = 32 15 = 17 bits
Cache indexing size = 10 bits
4.
5.
[Ans. C]
Latency time = 32 ns.
Bandwidth = 1GB / sec
1 sec =
bytes
Or
bytes = 1sec
64 bytes = 64 n sec
Total time = 64 + 32 = 96 ns
6.
[Ans. A]
For I cache: Number of block = 1 k
10 bits can be used to distinguish
between blocks
1 block = 4 Words
2 bits to recognize between words
30
[Ans. C]
Notice here conflict occurs in placement
of block 55
3 is come first and never refuse so in this
set 3 is only victim for replacement
18
10
Tag memory
Capacity of I cache = 18
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GATE QUESTION BANK
For the next 15 address, there will be hit

as A [0] [0] to A [0] [15] are there in the
cache.Then again there will be a miss at
A [0] [16] and hit at next 15 accesses.
D cache: Number of blocks =

= 1k block
10 bits are enough to recognize b/w
blocks.
2 bits are required to recognize among &
words within a block and it uses 2 way
set mapping
19
9
2
Since the # of tags are always same
=
k
The size of tag memory is 19 k
Capacity of cache = 18 512
7.
[Ans. D]
The main memory consists of 24 banks,
each of c bytes. Since parallel accesses to
all banks are possible. Only two parallel
accesses of all banks are needed to
traverse the whole data.
For one parallel access,
Total time
= Decoding time + latency time
=
+ 80 = 92 ns
[Ans. A]
Tag Set
18
9
13.
[Ans. B]
0
8,0,16,24
1
9,17,25,17,
2
2,18,2,82
3
3
4
20
5
5
6
30
7
63
So, 18 is not present in final map shown
of cache memory
14.
[Ans. C]
56 data cache misses will occur.
There are 32 lines in the 50 50 array,
therefore initial 32 misses + 8 misses
(this will replace initial 8 lines data). In
second round initial lines needs to be
reloaded again so 8 more misses i.e. 48
15.
[Ans. A]
Line 4 to line 11.
At the last, while accessioning last 8 lines
(33 40) aging initial 8-lines 4-11 of the
= 1.7 ns
Because multiplexer is not required in

case of direct-mapping
10.
[Ans. C]
Cache is 32 KB with 128 bytes block size.
M1: When the first element A[0] [0] is
accessed , 128 byte block consisting of
, there will be one
[Ans. C]
Size of instruction 24 bits
Starting address of the program is 300.
The size of instruction is 3 bytes long. So
the address is always the multiple of 3
byte next address is 600 it is also the
next instruction of the program
Block
5
Block
5
transfer during
miss and 15 hits
12.
= 2.4 ns
[Ans. D]
Tag Set
17
10
= 16384 blocks
[Ans. B]
= 262144 (Because every access to
array element is a miss)
h =
9.
There for every
11.
Hence, for 2 such accesses,

time = 2 92 = 184 ns
8.
Elements is brought into the cache.

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cache has to be reloaded has 8 more

misses i.e. 48+8 = 56.
16.
17.
[Ans. D]
No. of blocks in cache
No. of blocks in main memory
No. of sets in cache

)
TAG bits log(

= 9bits
LINE offset log(no of et )
log( )
it
WORD offset log( )
it
Tag memory size

= No. of sets No. of lines in a set No. of
tag bits
it
it
it
21.
[Ans. B]
After every two elements the index
increases once, therefore after 4048
elements the index will increment 2096
( ) which is index size.
Hence, ARR[0] [0] and ARR [4] [0] has
the same.
22.
[Ans. C]
Row major access
a[0] [0] = Miss
a[0] [1] = hit
a[0] [2] = Miss
a[0] [3] = hit
Every miss is followed by a hit
[Ans. C]
Due to higher capacity of tracks on the
periphery of the platter
18.
[Ans. C]
Data TLB can be accessed only after
effective address calculation has
completed
19.
[Ans. A]
Considering the following diagram
it ratio
23.
[Ans. C]
The address < 400, 16, 29> corresponds
to sector no.
400 2 10 63 + 16 63 + 29
= 505037
24.
[Ans. C]
The address < 0, 16, 31> corresponds to
sector no. 16 63 + 31 = 1039
25.
[Ans. C]
Basic RAM = 32k 1
Design RAM = 256k 8
So
cache must be at least large as the
cache is very necessary. Because
and
both are write through cache
this is not the sufficient condition.
20.
[Ans. D]
2 way set associative
Cache memory size = 64 kB
Block size = 16 B
k
line
k
et
No. of RAM =
it virtual addre
It requires 8 parallel line and in each

parallel line 8 parallel lines& in each
parallel line 8 serial RAM chips are
required.
32 bits
TAG
(
)
=17 bits
SO
log ( )
= 11 bits
WO
log (
= 64
it
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26.
[Ans. D]
There are total 4 sets in the cache and
each set contains 4 blocks.
0
48
4
32
Set 0
8
216
92
1
133
Set 1
73
129
of L1 is 4 words. So only 4 words will be

transferred.Then it takes time
20 + 2 = 22 nano seconds
28.
[Ans. C]
From main memory, now again time of
access is 200ns. So access means for L2
came from main memory
time (
) (
)n
ano e ond
Similarly for
cache to access from
cache.
L1 time
ano e ond
Totoal time required
= 880 +22 = 902Nano seconds
255
155
3
Set 3
159
63
0 mod 4 = 0
set 0
255 mod 4 = 3 set 3
1 mod 4 = 1
set 1
4 mod 4 = 0
set 0
3 mod 4 = 3
set 3
8 mod 4 = 0
set 0
133 mod 4 = 1 set 1
159 mod 4 = 3 set 3
216 mod 4 = 0 set 0
129 mod 4 = 1 set 1
63 mod 4 = 3
set 3
8 mod 4 = 0
set 0 (already in cache)
48 mod 4 = 0
set 0 48 will replace
block 0 using LRU
32 mod 4 = 0
block
73 mod 4 = 1
set 1
92 mod 4 = 0
block 216
155 mod 4 = 3 set 3 155 will replace
255
29.
[Ans. D]
Main memory unit has capacity = 4MB
um er of
hip
it
it
it
hip ha
( ) rows and
1 K( ) cells
In ea h row
[Ans. C]
When a miss in in L1, then it goes to L2
and access the word but in 1 time only 4
words can be transferred because data
bus can take 4 words at a time.Block size
31.
Set 2
27.
Time taken in one refresh operation

= 100ns
Time required to perform one refresh
operation on all the ell in
unit
n
30.
[Ans. D]
No of blocks =
Address format
19
8
5
Tag
Block
offset
No. of tag bits per cache entry
= 19 + 1 + 1 = 21
So total =
[Ans. C]
o of a he line
o of et
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16
32
11
Tags
So
32.
[Ans. A]
Tag directory size =
Number of sets no of tags in each set
(no. of tag bits in each tag + valid bits +
modified bit + replacement bit)
(
)
it
ption
i orre t
33.
[Ans. B]
At 1st level we need 4 decoders to select
16 RAMS. At second level we need
1 decoder to select the 4 decoders of 1st
level.
34.
[Ans. A]
ain memory lo k j mapped to any of
cache line. Cache line range is:
(j mod v)*k to (j mod v)*k + (k 1)
35.
[Ans. A]
As given n N
And the miss ratio will not be dependent
on associativity and k and LRU policy will
lead to n/N
36.
[Ans. 20]
No. of sets =
No. of Blocks =
[Ans. D]
Width of processor to main memory data
bus is independent of cache associativity
39.
[Ans. 10000]
For 1 store time required
= 100ns(because of overlape)
So in 1ns no. of stores =
In 1 ms no. of stores =
= 10000
40.
[Ans. 1.68]
Total instructions
= 100 instruction fetch operations
+60 memory operand read operations
+40 memory operand write operations
= 200 instructions (operations)
Time taken for fetching 100 instructions
(equivalent to read)
= 90 1 ns + 10 5 ns = 140 ns
Memory operand Read operation
time = 90%(60) 1ns +10%(60)5 ns
= 54 ns + 30 ns = 84 ms
Memory operand write operation
time = 90% (40)2 ns+10%(40)10 ns
=72 ns + 40 ns = 112 ns
Total time taken for execution 200
instructions = 140 + 84 + 112 = 336 ns
n
verage memory a e time
= 1.68 ns
k
lo k
Address length of memory =

Address format:TAG Block Word Byte
20
7
3
2
TAG bits = 20
37.
38.
5
Word
offset
No. of Tag bits are 16 bits
[Ans. D]
If a block size is smaller then less no. of
words will be replaced into cache from
main memory. So cache miss penalty will
be less.
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Pipeline
CS - 2005
1.
A 5 stage pipelined CPU has the
following sequence of stages:
IF Instruction fetch from instruction
memory,
RD Instruction decode and register
read,
EX Execute: ALU operation for data and
address computation,
MA Data memory access for write
access, the register read at RD
stage it used,
WB Register write back.
Consider the following sequence of
instructions:
: L R0, Loc 1; R0 M [Loc 1]
: A R0, R0;
R0 R0 + R0
:S R2, R0;
R2 R2 R0
Let each stage take one clock cycle.What
is the number of clock cycles taken to
complete the above sequence of
instructions starting from the fetch of ?
(A) 8
(C) 12
(B) 10
(D) 15
2.
We have two designs D1 and D2 for a

synchronous pipeline processor. D1 has
5 pipeline stages with execution times of
3 nsec, 2 nsec, 4 nsec, 2 nsec and 3 nsec
while the design D2 has 8 pipeline stages
each with 2 nsec execution time. How
much time can be saved using design D2
over design D1 for executing 100
instructions?
(A) 214 nsec
(C) 86 nsec
(B) 202 nsec
(D) 200 nsec
CS 2006
3.
A CPU has five-stage pipeline and runs at
1 GHz frequency. Instruction fetch
happens in the first stage of the pipeline.
A conditional branch instruction
computes the target address and
evaluates the condition in the third stage
of the pipeline. The processor stops
fetching new instructions following a

conditional branch until the branch
outcome is known. A program executes
10 instructions out of which 20% are
conditional branches. If each instruction
takes one cycle to complete on average,
then total execution time of the program
is
(A) 1.0 sec
(C) 1.4 sec
(B) 1.2 sec
(D) 1.6 sec
CS - 2007
4.
Consider a pipelined processor with the
following four stages
IF : Instruction Fetch
ID: Instruction Decode and Operand
Fetch
EX : Execute
WB : Write Back
The IF, ID and WB stages take one clock
cycle each to complete the operation.
The number of clock cycles for the EX
stage depends on the instruction. The
ADD and SUB instructions need 1 clock
cycle and the MUL instruction need 3
clock cycles in the EX stage. Operand
forwarding is used in the pipelined
processor. What is the number of clock
cycles taken to complete the following
sequence of instructions?
ADD R2,R1,R0
R2R1+R0
MUL R4,R3,R2
R4R3*R2
SUB R6,R5,R4
R6R5 R4
(A) 7
(C) 10
(B) 8
(D) 14
CS - 2008
5.
Which of the following are NOT true in a
pipelined processor?
1. Bypassing can handle all RAW
hazards.
2. Register renaming can eliminate all
register carried WAR hazards.
3. Control hazard penalties can be
eliminated by dynamic branch
prediction
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(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
6.
7.
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
1,2 and 3
What is the number of cycles needed to

execute the following loop?
for (i=1 to 2) {I1; I2; I3; I4 ;}
(A) 16
(C) 28
(B) 23
(D) 30
Linked Answer Questions Q.6& Q. 7

Delayed branching can help in the
handling of control hazards
For all delayed conditional branch
instructions, irrespective of whether
the condition evaluates to true or false,
(A) The instruction following
the
conditional branch instruction in
memory is executed
(B) The first instruction in the fall
through path is executed
(C) The first instruction in the taken
path is executed
(D) The branch takes longer to execute
than any other instruction
The following code is to run on a
pipelined processor with one branch
delays slot
I1: ADD R2 R7 +R8
I2: SUB R4 R5 R6
I3: ADD R1 R2 + R3
I4: STORE Memory [R4] R 1
BRANCH to Label if R1 = = 0
Which of the instruction I1, I2, I3 or I4
can legitimately occupy the delay slot
without
any
other
program
modification?
(A) I1
(C) I3
(B) I2
(D) I4
CS - 2009
8.
Consider a 4 stage pipeline processor.
The number of cycle needed by the four
instructions I1,I2,I3,I4 in stages S1, S2,
S3, S4 is shown below:
S1
S2
S3
S4
I1
I2
I3
I4
CS - 2010
9.
A 5-stage pipelined processor has
Instruction Fetch (IF), Instruction
Decode (ID), Operand Fetch (OF),
Perform Operation (PO) and Write
Operand (WO) stages. The IF, ID, OF and
WO stages take 1 clock cycle each for any
instruction. The PO stage takes 1 clock
cycle for ADD and SUB instructions, 3
clock cycles for MUL instruction, and 6
clock cycles for DIV instruction
respectively. Operand forwarding is used
in the pipeline. What is the number of
clock cycles needed to execute the
following sequence of instructions?
Instruction Meaning of instruction
: MUL R , R , R
R R *R
: DIV R , R , R
R R R
: ADD R , R , R
R R +R
: SUB R , R , R
R R
R
(A) 13
(C) 17
(B) 15
(D) 19
CS - 2011
10. Consider an instruction pipeline with
four stages (S1, S2, S3 and S4) each with
combinational circuit only. The pipeline
registers are required between each
stage and at the end of the last stage.
Delays for the stages and for the pipeline
registers are as given in the figure
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stage and the delay of each buffer is 1 ns.

A program consisting of 12 instructions
I1,I2, I3,., 12 is executed in this pipelined
processor. Instruction I4 is the only
branch instruction and its branch target
is I9. If the branch is taken during the
execution of this program , the time (in
ns) needed to complete the program is
(A) 132
(C) 176
(B) 165
(D) 328
Stage S1 Delay
5ns
Pipeline Register (Delay 1ns)
Stage S2 Delay
6ns
Stage S3 Delay 11ns
Stage S4 Delay 8ns
What is the approximate speed up of the

pipeline in steady state under ideal
conditions when compared to the
corresponding non-pipeline
implementation?
(A) 4.0
(C) 1.1
(B) 2.5
(D) 3.0
CS 2014
13. Consider a 6-stage instruction pipeline,
where all stages are perfectly balanced.
Assume that there is no cycle-time
overhead of pipelining. When an
application is executing on this 6-stage
pipeline, the speedup achieved with
respect to non-pipelined execution if
25% of the instructions incur 2 pipeline
stall cycles is ______________________.
14.
Consider the following processors (ns

stands for nanoseconds). Assume that
the pipeline registers have zero latency.
P1: Four-stage pipeline with stage
latencies 1 ns, 2 ns, 2 ns, 1 ns.
P2: Four-stage pipeline with stage
latencies 1 ns, 1.5 ns, 1.5 ns, 1.5 ns.
P3: Five-stage pipeline with stage
latencies 0.5 ns, 1 ns, 1 ns, 0.6 ns, 1 ns.
P4: Five-stage pipeline with stage
latencies 0.5 ns, 0.5 ns, 1 ns, 1 ns, 1.1 ns.
Which processor has the highest peak
clock frequency?
(A) P1
(C) P3
(B) P2
(D) P4
15.
An instruction pipeline has five stages,

namely,
instruction
fetch
(IF),
instruction decode and register fetch
(ID/RF), instruction execution (EX),
memory access (MEM), and register
write back (WB) with stage latencies
1 ns, 2.2 ns, 2 ns, 1 ns, and 0.75 ns,
respectively
(ns
stands
for
nanoseconds). To gain in terms of
CS - 2012
11. Register renaming is done in pipelined
processors
(A) as an alternative to register
allocation at compile time
(B) for efficient access to function
parameters and local variables
(C) to handle certain kinds of hazards
(D) as part of address translation
CS 2013
12. Consider an instruction pipeline with
five stages without any branch
prediction: Fetch Instruction (FI),
Decode Instruction (DI), Fetch Operand
(FO), Execute Instruction (EI) and Write
Operand (WO). The stage delays for FI,
DI, FO, EI and WO are 5ns, 7ns, 10ns, 8ns
and 6ns, respectively. There are
intermediate storage buffers after each
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GATE QUESTION BANK
frequency, the designers have decided to

split the ID/RF stage into three stages
(ID, RF1, RF2) each of latency 2.2/3 ns.
Also, the EX stage is split into two stages
(EX1, EX2) each of latency 1 ns. The new
design has a total of eight pipeline
stages. A program has 20% branch
instructions which execute in the EX
stage and produce the next instruction
pointer at the end of the EX stage in the
old design and at the end of the EX2
stage in the new design. The IF stage
stalls after fetching a branch instruction
until the next instruction pointer is
computed. All instructions other than the
branch instruction have an average CPI
of one in both the designs. The execution

times of this program on the old and the
new design are P and Q nanoseconds,
respectively. The value of P/Q is
__________.
16.
Consider two processors P and P

executing the same instruction set.
Assume that under identical conditions,
for the same input, a program running
on P takes 25% less time but incurs
20% more CPI (clock cycles per
instruction) as compared to the program
running on P . If the clockfrequency of P
is 1GHz, then the clock frequency of P
(in GHz) is _________.
Answers Keys and Explanations

1.
[Ans. B]
Clock cycles
1 2 3 4
5 6 7 8
I R E M W
F D X A B
I R M W
F D A B
IF R E
Total time
80
20
10 (
10
1+
100
100
= +
= 1.4 second
10
4.
M
D
W
A
So, it requires 10 clock cycles

2.
3.
[Ans. B]
Time required by design D1
(100 + 5 1) 4 = 416nsec
Time required by design D2
(100 + 8 1) 2 = 214nsec
So time saved using design D2 =
416 214 = 202nsec
[Ans. C]
For 80% of 10 instructions a single cycle
is sufficient as there is no conditional
branch. For the rest 20%, one extra cycle
will be needed making the number of
cycles required to 3.
Total time will be computed as below
One cycle takes =
10
10
3)
[Ans. B]
Pipelined processor has four stages IF, ID,
EX, WB
Clock cycles
Instruction
1
ADD
1
SUB
3
MVL
Consider the following diagram
Clock cycles
R R +R
R R
R R
IF
ID
EX
WB
IF
ID
EX
IF
ID
EX
EX
WB
EX
WB
So total required clock cycle is 8.

5.
[Ans. D]
All statements 1, 2 and 3 are false for a
pipelined processor.
6.
[Ans. B]
For all delayed conditional branch
instruction the first instruction in the fall
through path is executed and evaluates to
true of false.
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7.
[Ans. B]
Instruction 2
occupy the delay slot
because
data
dependency
of
instruction 4
8.
[Ans. B]
By showing cycle vs stage data for each
instruction, it can be seen that the loop
takes 23 cycles.
9.
[Ans. B]
IF
1
1
1
1
11.
[Ans. C]
Register renaming is used to handle data
hazards.
12.
[Ans. B]
Given: Five stage instruction pipeline
delays for FI, DI, FO, EI and WO are
5,7,10,8,6ns resp.
To find: since the maximum time taken by
any stage is 10ns and additional 1 ns is
required for delay of buffer
Therefore total time for an instruction to
pass from one stage to another is 11ns
Now instructions are executed as follows
PO
O
PO
PO
PO
PO
PO
PO
PO
PO
PO
c o
Now when I4 is in its execution stage we
detect the branch and when I4 is in WO
stage we fetch I9 so time for execution of
instructions from I1 to I4 is
= 11 5 + (4 1) 11 =88 ns
And time for execution of instructions
from I9 to I12 is
= 11 5 + (4 1) 11 = 88 ns
But we have 11ns when fetching of 55 ns
because time for fetching I9 can be
overlap with WO of I4
Hence total times is
= 88 +88 11 = 165 ns
O
PO
PO
PO
PO
PO
O
PO
PO
PO
O
WO
PO
PO
PO
PO
PO
WO
PO
PO
PO
OW
15
14
13
12
11
10
9
8
4
WO
1
1
1
1
PO
3
6
1
1
No
c o T
P
c o T
Non pipeline Execution time
S1
+ S2
+ S3
+ S4
5 + 6 + 11 + 8 30
P
c o
(
)+
M
(5 , 6 , 11 , 8 ) + 1
M
11 + 1
12
c
30 12
2.5
OF
1
1
1
1
[Ans. B]
S
WO
MUL
V
A
SU
ID
1
1
1
1
10.
No. of cycles required = 15 cycles.
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GATE QUESTION BANK
13.
[Ans. 4]
S
1+(
c c
6
1 + (2
6
1+
14.
15.
6
3
o
5
+
)] T
c oc
P (0.8 + 0.12) 1
2
P 3.08
So
o
1.54
Q
2
[Ans. C]
Support n = 100 tasks. So time required
for processing 100 tasks in processors:
( +
(100 + 4 1)2
T
1)
206
( +
(100 + 4 1)1.5
T
1)
154.6
( +
(100 + 5 1)1
T
1)
104
( +
(100 + 5 1)1.1
T
1)
114.4
Best time = 104
[Here k = no.of stages,
c oc c c ]
[80 (1c oc )
+ 20
)
6
3 2
16.
co
[Ans. 1.6]
1 cycle time P
Assume P takes 5 cycles for a program

then P taken 20% more, means 6 cycles.
P Takes 25% less time, means, if P takes
5 n.s, then P takes 3.75 ns.
Assume P clock frequency is x GHz.
P T
6c c ,
6 10
o
3.75,
1.6
[Ans. *] Range 1.50 to 1.60

Old
New
design design
No. of
5
8
stages
Stall
2
5
cycle
Stall
20%
20%
frequency
Clock
2.2 ns
1 ns
period
Avg. access P
Q
time
[80 (1c oc )
+ 20
co
o
2
+
)] T
c oc
(0.8 + 0.6) 2.2
3.08
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Instruction Types
CS 2005
1.
Consider a three word machine
instruction ADD A[ ], @B
The first operand (destin tion) A [ ]
uses indexed addressing mode with R0 as
the index register. The second operand
(source) @B uses indirect ddressing
mode. A and B are memory addresses
residing at the second and the third
words, respectively. The first word of the
instruction specifies the opcode, the index
register designation and the source and
destination addressing modes. During
execution of ADD instruction, the two
operands are added and stored in the
destination (first oper nd). The number
of memory cycles needed during the
execution cycle of the instruction is
(A) 3
(C) 5
(B) 4
(D) 6
2.
Match List I(high level language

statements) and List II(addressing modes)
and pick the correct options .
List I
List II
( high level language (addressing modes)
statements)
1. A [I] = B[J];
a. Indirect
addressing
2. while (* A ++);
b. Indexed
addressing
3. int temp = *x;
c. Auto increment
(A) (1,c), (2,b), (3,a)
(B) (1,a), (2,c), (3,b)
(C) (1,b), (2,c), (3, a)
(D) (1,a), (2,b), (3,c)
Common Data Questions Q.3 & Q.4

Consider the following data path of a CPU.
MD
R
MAR
S
IR
PC
GPRS
ALU
The, ALU, the bus and all the registers in

the data path are of identical size. All
operations including incrementation of
the PC and the GPRs are to be carried out
in the ALU. Two clock cycles are needed
for memory read operation the first one
for loading address in the MAR and the
next one for loading data from the
memory bus into the MDR.
3.
The instruction dd , has the

register transfer interpretation
R0 R0 + R1. The minimum number of
clock cycles needed for execution cycle of
this instruction is
(A) 2
(C) 4
(B) 3
(D) 5
4.
The instruction c ll n, sub is

two
word instruction. Assuming that PC is
incremented during the fetch cycle of the
first word of the instruction, its register
transfer interpretation is
Rn< = PC + 1;
PC < = M [PC];
The minimum number of CPU clock cycles
needed during the execution cycle of this
instruction is
(A) 2
(C) 4
(B) 3
(D) 5
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CS - 2006
5.
Consider a new instruction named
branch-on-bit-set (mnemonic bbs). The
instruction bbsreg, pos, l bel jumps to
label if bit in position pos of register
operand reg is one. A register is 32 bits
wide and the bits are numbered 0 to 31,
bit in position 0 being the least
significant. Consider the following
emulation of this instruction on a
processor that does not have bbs
implemented.
temp reg and mask
Branch to label if temp is non-zero
The variable temp is a temporary register.
For correct emulation,the variable mask
must be generated by
(A) mask 0
pos
(B) mask 0 ffffffff>> pos
(C) mask
pos
(D) mask 0 f
6.
7.
The memory locations 1000, 1001 and

1020 have data values 18, 1 and 16
respectively before the following program
is executed.
MOVI
Rs, 1;Move immediate
LOAD Rd, 1000(Rs); Load from memory
ADDI
Rd, 1000;Add immediate
STOREI 0(Rd), 20;Store immediate
Which of the statements below is TRUE
after the program is executed?
(A) Memory location 1000 has value 20
(B) Memory location 1020 has value 20
(C) Memory location 1021 has value 20
(D) Memory location 1001 has value 20
relative addressing mode is FALSE?
(A) It enables reduced instruction size
(B) It allows indexing of array elements
with same instruction
(C) It enables easy relocation of data
(D) It enables faster address calculations
than absolute addressing
CS - 2007
Common Data for Q.8 , Q.9 & Q10.
Consider the following program segment.
Here R1, R2 and R3 are the general purpose
registers.
Instruction
Operation
Instruction
size
(no. of words)
) R1
MOV R1,(
2
[
]
LOOP:
[ ]
MOV R2, M[R3] R2
1
ADD R2, R1
R2
1
MOV ( ),
INC R3
DEC R1
BNZ LOOP
M [R3]
1
R3 R3 + 1
1
R1 R1 1
1
Branch on
2
not zero
HALT
`Stop
1
Assume that the content of memory
location 3000 is 10 and the content of the
register R3 is 2000. The content of each of
the memory locations from2000 to 2010
is 100. The program is loaded from the
memory location 1000. All the numbers
are in decimal.
Assume that the memory is word
addressable. The number of memory
references for accessing the data in
executing the program completely is
(A) 10
(C) 20
(B) 11
(D) 21
8.
9.
Assume that the memory is word

addressable. After the execution of this
program, the content of memory location
2010 is
(A) 100
(C) 102
(B) 101
(D) 110
10.
Assume that the memory is byte

addressable and the word size is 32 bits.
If an interrupt occurs during the
e ecution of the instruction INC
,
what return address will be pushed on to
the stack?
(A) 1005
(C) 1024
(B) 1020
(D) 1040
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11.
Following table indicates the latencies

of operations between the instruction
producing the result and instruction
using the result.
Instruction
Instruction Latency
producing
using the
the result
result
ALU
ALU
2
operation
operation
ALU
Store
2
operation
Load
ALU
1
operation
Load
Store
0
Consider the following code segment.
Load R1, Loc1; Load R1 from memory
location Loc1
Load R2, Loc2; Load R2 from memory
location Loc2
Add R1, R2, R1; Add R1 and R2 and save
result in R1
Dec R2;
Decrement R2
Dec R1;
Decrement R1
Mpy R1, R2, R3; Multiply R1 and R2 and
save result in R3
Store R3, Loc3; Store R3 in memory
location Loc 3
What is the number of cycles needed to
execute the above code segment
assuming each instruction takes one
cycle to execute?
(A) 7
(C) 13
(B) 10
(D) 14
CS - 2008
12. Which of the following is/are true of the
auto increment addressing mode?
1. It is useful in creating self relocating
code
2. If it is included in an Instruction Set
Architecture, then an additional ALU
is required for effective address
calculation
3. The amount of increment depends
on the size of the data item accessed
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
1 only
2 only
3 only
2 and 3 only
13.
Which of the following must be true for the

RFE (Return From Exception)
instruction on a general purpose processor
I. It must be a trap instruction
II. It must be a privileged instruction
III. An exception cannot be allowed to
occur during execution of an RFE
instruction
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) I and II only
(D) I , II and III only
14.
The use of multiple register windows

with overlap causes a reduction in the
number of memory accesses for
1. function locals and parameters
2. register saves and restores
3. instruction fetches
(A) 1 only
(B) 2only
(C) 3 only
(D) 1,2 and 3
CS - 2010
15. The program below uses six temporary
variables a, b, c, d, e, f.
a=1
b = 10
c = 20
d= a+b
e=c+d
f=c+e
b=c+e
e=b+f
d=5+e
return d + f
Assuming that all operations take their
operands from registers, what is the
minimum number of registers needed to
execute this program without spilling?
(A) 2
(C) 4
(B) 3
(D) 6
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GATE QUESTION BANK
CS - 2011
16. Consider a hypothetical processor with an
instruction of type LW R1, 20(R2), which
during execution reads a 32-bit word
from memory and stores it in a 32-bit
register R1. The effective address of the
memory location is obtained by the
addition of a constant 20 and the contents
of register R2. Which of the following best
reflects
the
addressing
mode
implemented by this instruction for the
operand in memory?
(A) Immediate Addressing
(B) Register Addressing
(C) Register Indirect Scaled Addressing
(D) Base Indexed Addressing
CS 2013
17. Consider the following sequence of micro
operations.
B
C
A
C
emor
B
Which one of the following is a possible
operation performed by this sequence?
(A) Instruction fetch
(B) Operand fetch
(C) Conditional branch
(D) Initiation of interrupt service
CS - 2014
18. A machine has a 32-bit architecture, with
1-word long instructions. It has 64
registers, each of which is 32 bits long. It
needs to support 45 instructions, which
have an immediate operand in addition to
two register operands. Assuming that the
immediate operand is an unsigned
integer, the maximum value of the
immediate operand is ____________.
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GATE QUESTION BANK

1.
2.
3.
[Ans. D]
ADD A [ ], @B
A [ ] uses index addressing mode as
follow such that
as the index register
Regs [ ]
Regs [ ] +Mem [Regs [B]
+Regs [ ].. ( )
And @B uses indirect as follow
ADD A [ ], @B
Regs [ ] Regs [ ] +
Mem [Mem[(B)]].. ( )
So the first instruction needed 3 memory
cycles and the second needed 2 and one
memory cycles in needed for writing the
result into the memory. So, total 6
memory cycles are needed to execute
ADD A [ ], @B
[Ans. A]
bbsreg,pos, label
temp reg and mark
Branch to label if temp is nonzero. If we
shift one position left by pos of 0x1 then it
evaluate the bbs instruction and
mask
1<<pos
6.
[Ans. D]
Content of register as program will be
execute are
= content of 1000
(1) = 1000 + 1 = 10001 memory address
=1
= content of 1000 (1)
= 1000 + 1
= 1001 memory address
Add I.
, 1000
[Ans. C]
A [I] = B[J] indexed,
While(*A++) Auto increment.
int temp =
Indired Addressing mode
),
store (
means store 20 in the
address value 1001
[Ans. B]
The sequence of microinstruction take
place in following cycles :
I. Cycle :
,
II. Cycle :
,T
III. Cycle :
,T ,A
,
3 cycles will be required to execute.
4.
5.
[Ans. B]
n
C
T
C
( C)
The sequence of microinstruction take
place in following cycles.
I cycle: C , , A
( A c n be lo ded with C )
II cycle:
,A
,
in
III cycle:
D
, C ( D
can be
performed once
A
has been
performed)
c cles will be required to e ecute.
7.
[Ans. B]
It does not allow indexing of array
element with same instruction.
8.
[Ans. D]
Given M[3000]=10
Instruction
[
[
[
]
]or [
Required Memory
Reference
1
10
10
Tot l
9.
[Ans. A]
The register
contain the memory
location 2010 whose value is 100 at the
end of loop BNZ loop
10.
[Ans. C]
Location
1000
1004
1008
1012
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GATE QUESTION BANK
[ ]
1016
1020
So if an interrupt occurs during the
execution of the instruction INC 3 the
return address 1024 will be pushed onto
the stack.
(Address of next instruction)
11.
R2
R3
R3+R1
(f c e)
R3+R1
(b c e)
R2+R3
(e b f)
R3 5+R1
(d 5 e)
return (R2+R3) return (d + f)
Hence 3 registers needed only.
16.
[Ans. D]
LW R1, 20(R2) Instruction shows the
source address can be formed by adding
the constant with the R2 content. It is the
MIPS instruction. R2 points the base
address of an array and 20 points the
index address of an array. Hence the
addressing mode used for the above is
based indexed Addressing mode. This
addressing mode is used to implement
the arrays
17.
[Ans. D]
PC holds the value of next instruction to
be executed we store the value of PC to
MBR and then to memory. We are saving
the value of PC in memory and new
address value is loaded into PC.
This can be done only in interrupt service
option (D) is correct.
18.
[Ans. 16383]
Instruction format of 32 bit
Opcode
Reg
Reg
Immediate
1
2
operand
6 bit
6
6
14 bit
bit
bit
Opcode = 6 bit
(
5 intructions to support)
Reg 1, Reg 2 = 6 bit
(
no. of registers)
So, Immediate operand bits
= 32 (6 + 6 + 6) = 14
Max value to be represented by 14 bits
is =
[Ans. B]
All seven installations take 1 clock
cycles.
But 1 clock cycle latency needed b/w
load
R2, Loc 2, and Add R1, R2,1
lso, 2 clock cycles latency needed b/w
Mpy R1, R2, R1 and
store R3 ,Loc 3
S, 7 + 1 + 2 = 10
12.
[Ans. C]
The amount of increment depends on the
size of data item accessed
13.
[Ans. D]
A RFE (Return From Exception)
instruction contains a trap instruction,
privileged instruction and an exception
c nt be llowed to occur during the
execution of an REF instruction.
14.
[Ans. C]
The use of multiple register windows
with overlap causes a reduction in the
number of memory accesses for the
instruction fetches only.
15.
[Ans. B]
Register operations
(
b
(b
c
(c
R1+R2
(d
R3+R1
(e
)
)
)
c
b)
d)
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GATE QUESTION BANK
I/O Data Transfer

CS - 2005
1.
Which one of the following is true for a
CPU having a single interrupt request line
and a single interrupt grant line?
(A) Neither vectored interrupt nor
multiple interrupting devices are
possible
(B) Vectored interrupts are not possible
but multiple interrupting devices are
possible
(C) Vectored interrupts and multiple
interrupting devices are both
possible
(D) Vectored interrupt is possible but
multiple interrupting devices are not
possible
2.
Normally user programs are prevented

from handling I/O directly by I/O
instructions in them. For CPUs having
explicit I/O instructions, such I/O
protection is ensured by having the I/O
instructions privileged. In a CPU with
memory mapped I/O, there is no explicit
I/O
instruction. Which one of the
following is true for a CPU with memory
mapped I/O?
(A) I/O protection is ensured by
operating system routine( )
(B) I/O protection is ensured by a
hardware trap
(C) I/O protection is ensured during
system configuration
(D) I/O protection is not possible
3.
A device with data transfer rate

10 KB/sec is connected to a CPU. Data is
transferred byte-wise. Let the interrupt
overhead be 4 sec. The byte transfer
time between the device interface register
and CPU or memory is negligible. What is
the minimum performance gain of
operating the device under interrupt
mode over operating it under program

controlled mode?
(A) 15
(C) 35
(B) 25
(D) 45
4.
A hardwired CPU uses 10 control signals

S1 to S10 in various time steps T1 to T5 to
implement 4 instructions I1 to I4 as
shown below.
T2
I1
S1, S3,
S5
S2, S4,
S6
T3
S1, S7
I2
S1, S3,
S5
S8, S9,
S10
S5, S6,
S7
T4
S10
S6
T1
I3
S1, S3,
S5
S7, S8,
S10
S2, S6,
S9
I4
S1, S3,
S5
S2, S6,
S7
S5,
S10
S10
S6, S9
T5 S3, S8
S10
S1, S3
S10
Which of the following pairs of
expressions represent the circuit for
generating control signals S5 and S10
respectively. [Ij + Ik] Tn indicates that the
control signal should be generated in time
step Tn if the instruction being executed
is Ij or Ik ?
(A) S5 = T1 + I2. T3 &
S10 = (I1 + I3). T4 + (I2 + I4). T5
(B) S5 = T1 + (I2 + I4). T3 &
S10 = (I1 + I3). T4 + (I2 + I4). T5
(C) S5 = T1 + (I2 + I4). T3 &
S10 = (I2 + I3 + I4). T2 +
(I1 + I3).T4 + (I2+ I4). T5
(D) S5 = T1 + (I2 + I4). T3 &
S10 = (I2 + I3). T2 + I4. T3 +
(I1 + I3).T4 + (I2 + I4). T5
5.
An instruction set of a processor has 125

signals which can be divided into 5
groups of mutually exclusive signals as
follows:
Group 1: 20 signals, Group 2: 70 signals,
Group 3: 2 signals, Group 4: 10 signals,
Group 5: 23 signals.
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How many bits of the control words can

be saved by using vertical microprogramming
over
horizontal
microprogramming?
(A) 0
(C) 22
(B) 103
(D) 55
6.
7.
8.
Consider a disk drive with the following

specifications:
16 surfaces, 512 tracks/surface,
512 sectors/track, 1 KB/sector, rotation
speed 3000 rpm. The disk is operated in
cycle stealing mode whereby whenever
one 4 byte word is ready it is sent to
memory; smilarly, for writing, the disk
interface reads 4-byte word from the
memory in each DMA cycle. Memory cycle
time is 40 nsec. The maximum percentage
of time that the CPU gets blocked during
DMA operation is
(A) 10
(C) 40
(B) 25
(D) 50
and 8
A disk has 8 equidistant tracks. The
diameters of the innermost and
outermost tracks are 1cm and 8 cm
respectively. The innermost track has a
storage capacity of 10MB.
What is the total amount of data that can
be stored on the disk if it is used with a
drive that rotates it with
(i) Constant Linear Velocity
(ii) Constant Angular Velocity?
(A) (i) 80 MB (ii) 2040 MB
(B) (i) 2040 MB (ii) 80 MB
(C) (i) 80 MB (ii) 360 MB
(D) (i) 360 MB (ii) 80 MB
If the disk has 20 sectors per track and is
currently at the end of the 5th sector of the
inner-most track and the head can move
at a speed of 10 meters/sec and it is
rotating at constant angular velocity of
6000 RPM, how much time will it take to
read 1 MB contiguous data starting from

the sector 4 of the outer-most track?
(A) 13.5 ms
(C) 9.5 ms
(B) 10 ms
(D) 20 ms
CS - 2007
9.
Consider a disk pack with 16 surfaces,
128 tracks per surface and 256 sectors
per track. 512 bytes of data are stored in a
bit serial manner in a sector. The capacity
of the disk pack and the number of bits
required to specify a particular sector in
the disk are respectively
(A) 256 Mbyte, 19 bits
(B) 256 Mbyte, 28 bits
(C) 512 Mbyte, 20 bits
(D) 64 Gbyte, 28 bits
CS - 2008
10. Which of the following statements about
synchronous and asynchronous I/O is
NOT true?
(A) An ISR is invoked on completion of
I/O in synchronous I/O but not in
asynchronous I/O
(B) In
both
synchronous
and
asynchronous I/O an ISR ( Interrupt
Service Routine) is invoked after
completion of the I/O
(C) A process making a synchronous I/O
call waits until I/O is complete, but a
process making an asynchronous I/O
call does not wait for completion of
the I/O
(D) In the case of synchronous I/O, the
process waiting for the completion of
I/O is woken up by the ISR that is
invoked after the completion of I/O
CS - 2009
11. A CPU generally handles an interrupt by
executing an interrupt service routine
(A) as soon as an interrupt is raised
(B) by checking the interrupt register at
the end of fetch cycle
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(C) by checking the interrupt register

after finishing the execution of the
current instruction
(D) by checking the interrupt register at
fixed time intervals
CS 2011
12. A computer handles several interrupt
sources of which of the following are
relevant for this question.
Interrupt from CPU temperature

sensor (raises interrupt if CPU
temperature is too high)
Interrupt from Mouse (raises

interrupt if the mouse is moved or a
button is pressed)
Interrupt from Keyboard (raises

interrupt when a key is pressed or
released)
Interrupt from Hard Disk (raises

interrupt when a disk read is
completed)
Which one of these will be handled at the
HIGHEST priority?
(A) Interrupt from Hard Disk
(B) Interrupt from Mouse
(C) Interrupt from Keyboard
(D) Interrupt from CPU temperature
sensor
13.
On a non-pipelined sequential processor,

a program segment, which is a part of the
interrupt service routine, is given to
transfer 500 bytes from an I/O device to
memory.
Initialize the address register
Initialize the count to 500
LOOP: Load a byte from device
Store in memory at address given
by address register
Increment the address register
Decrement the count
If count! = 0 go to LOOP
Assume that each statement in this
program is equivalent to a machine
instruction which takes one clock cycle to
execute if it is a non-load/store
instruction. The load-store instructions

take two clock cycles to execute.
The designer of the system also has an
alternate approach of using the DMA
controller to implement the same
transfer. The DMA controller requires 20
clock cycles for initialization and other
overheads. Each DMA transfer cycle takes
two clock cycles to transfer one byte of
data from the device to the memory.
What is the approximate speedup when
the DMA controller based design is used
in place of the interrupt driven program
based input-output?
(A) 3.4
(C) 5.1
(B) 4.4
(D) 6.7
14.
An application loads 100 libraries at

startup. Loading each library requires
exactly one disk access. The seek time of
the disk to a random location is given as
10 ms. Rotational speed of disk is
6000 rpm. If all 100 libraries are loaded
from random locations on the disk, how
long does it take to load all libraries? (The
time to transfer data from the disk block
once the head has been positioned at the
start of the block may be neglected.)
(A) 0.50 s
(C) 1.25 s
(B) 1.50 s
(D) 1.00 s
CS - 2012
15. The amount of ROM needed to implement
a 4 bit multiplier is
(A) 64 bits
(C) 1 kbits
(B) 128 bits
(D) 2 kbits
CS - 2013
16. Consider a hard disk with 16 recording
surfaces (0 15) having 16384 cylinders
(0 16383) and each cylinder contains
64 sectors (0-63). Data storage capacity
in each sector is 512 bytes. Data is
organized
cylinder-wise
and
the
addressing format is <cylinder no.,
surface no, sector no>. A file of size
42797 KB is stored in the disk and the
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GATE QUESTION BANK
starting disk location of the file is <1200,

9, 40>. What is the cylinder number of
the last sector of the file, if it is stored in a
contiguous manner?
(A) 1281
(C) 1283
(B) 1282
(D) 1284

1.
[Ans. B]
Vectored interrupts are not possible but
multiple
interrupting
devices
are
possible.
2.
[Ans. A]
Memory mapped I/O requires that
memory locations and I/O ports share the
same set of addresses, so address bit
pattern that is assign to memory cannot
also be assigned to an I/O port and viceversa. I/O protection in this approach in
ensured by operating system macros and
routines.
3.
4.
5.
[Ans. B]
Data transfer rate = 10KB/sec
Total transfer = 25
Data transfer rate =
So perform gain = 25 %
[Ans. D]
Notice here that S5 have to be activated
on T1 for all instructions and for I2 and I3
on T3.
S10 have to be activated
for I2 and I4 on T5
for I1 and I3 on T4
for I4 on T3
for I2 and I3 on T2
So, total no of bits required for vertical

microprogramming = 22 bits
With horizontal approach = 125 bits
So, no. of bits saved = 125 22 =103 bits
6.
[Ans. B]
Time takes for 1 rotation
= 60 sec = 3000 rotations
60/3000 sec= 1 rotation
In 1 rotation it reads
1/50 sec
? = 4 bytes
Time it takes to read 4 bytes = 153 ns
% of time CPU gets blocked
7.
[Ans. D]
For Constant Linear Velocity, density of
bits per track will increase as the head
moves towards outside of the disk.
So the disk capacity
= 10 + 20 + 30 + 40 + 50 + 60 + 70 +80
=360MB
For Constant Angular Velocity, density of
bits per track is uniform.
So the disk capacity = 10 8 = 80MB
8.
[Ans. A]
To move from 1st sector to 8th sector, the
distance
covered
by
head
=(8 1)/2=3.5cm
As head can move at 10m/s, the above
movement will take 3.5ms
After this movement head arrives at the
end of 5th sector. So to read 1MB data
from starting of 4th sector to ending of
[Ans. B]
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GATE QUESTION BANK
5th sector, the head needs to take entire

one rotation. As head can rotate at
6000RPM, one rotation will take 10ms
Total time = 3.5 + 10 = 13.5ms
9.
[Ans. A]
No. of surfaces = 16
No. of track/sectors = 128
No. of sector/tracks = 256
Total size of disk
= 16
bytes
= 256 MB
Total no. of sectors in the disk
= 16
bytes
=
bytes.
So, 19 bits are needed.
10.
[Ans. B]
Statement (B) is not true because an ISR
(Interrupt Service Routine) is invoked on
before completion of I/O in synchronous
as well as in asynchronous I/O.
11.
[Ans. C]
By checking interrupt register after
finishing the execution of the current
instruction.
12.
[Ans. D]
Higher priority interrupt levels are
assigned to requests which, if delayed or
interrupted,
could
have
serious
consequences. Interrupt from CPU
temperature sensor would have serious
consequences if ignored. So it has the
highest priority.
13.
14.
[Ans. B]
Time for one library
Rotational latency resolution time
6000 rpm = 10 ms, revolution = 5ms
100(10ms+5ms)= 100 15ms
= 1500 ms = 1.5 sec.
15.
[Ans. D]
=2 k bits
16.
[Ans. D]
When head is moving then it is reading

data from all 16 surfaces simultaneously.
Currently head is on 9th surface, sector no.
40.
Data it read from 9th surface
Data it read from surface 10th to 15th
[Ans. A]
Non pipelined system require
= (2+2+1+1+1)
Data it read from cylinder 1201 to 1283

Total data read from 1200th to 1283th
cylinder
12288 + 163840 + 42991616
=13167744 bytes = 42156 KB
But we need to read 42797 KB. So we
need to go 1284th cylinder.
DMA clock need = 20 + 2 500

= 1020 cycles
Speed up = 3500/1020= 3.43
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GATE QUESTION BANK
Digital Logic
Number Systems & Code Conversions

CS 2005
1.
The range of integers that can be
represented by an n bit 2s complement
number system is
(A) 2
to ( 2
1)
(B)
2
1 ) to (2
1)
(C) 2
to 2
(D)
2
+ 1 ) to (2
)
2.
The hexadecimal representation of 657

is
(A) 1AF
(C) D71
(B) D78
(D) 32F
Linked Answer Questions for Q 3 & Q 4

Consider the following floating point
format
15 14
Sign bit
Excess 64
Exponent
CS -2006
6.
Consider numbers represented in 4-bit
gray code. Let h h h h be the gray code
representation of a number n and let
g g g g be the gray code of
(n + 1) (modulo 16) value of the number.
Which one of the following functions is
correct?
(A) g h h h h )
= , 2, 3, 6, 0, 3, 4, 5)
(B) g h h h h )
= (4, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14,15)
(C) g h h h h )
= 2, 4, 5, 6, 7, 2, 3, 5)
(D) g h h h h )
= 0, , 6, 7, 0, , 2, 3)
7.
The addition of 4-bit, twos complement,

binary numbers 1101 and 0100 results in
(A) 0001 and an overflow
(B) 1001 and no overflow
(C) 0001 and no overflow
(D) 1001 and an overflow
Mantissa
Mantissa is a pure fraction is sign

magnitude form.
3.
4.
5.
The decimal number 0.239 2 has the

following hexadecimal representation
(without normalization and rounding off):
(A) 0D 24
(C) 4D 0D
(B) 0D 4D
(D) 4D 3D
The normalized representation for the
above format is specified as follows. The
mantissa has an implicit 1 preceding the
binary radix) point. Assume that only 0s
are padded in while shifting a field. The
normalized representation of the above
number (0.239 2 ) is:
(A) 0A 20
(C) 4D D0
(B) 11 34
(D) 4A E8
CS - 2007
8.
(C012.25)H (10111001110.101)B =
(A) (135103.412)8 (C) (564411.205)8
(B) (564411.412)8 (D) (135103.205)8
CS - 2008
9.
In the IEEE floating point representation
the hexadecimal value 0x00000000
corresponds to
(A) The normalized value 2
(B) The normalized value 2
(C) The normalized value + 0
(D) The special value + 0
10.
(34.4)8 (23.4)8 evaluates to

(A) (1053.6)8
(C) (1024.2)8
(B) (1053.2)8
(D) None of these
th
Let r denote number system radix. The

only value s) of r that satisfy the
equation 2 =
is/are
(A) decimal 10
(B) decimal 11
(C) decimal 10 and 11
(D) any value > 2
th
th
Page 264
GATE QUESTION BANK
11.
The following bit pattern represents a

floating point number in IEEE 754 single
precision format
1 10000011
10100000000000000000000
The value of the number in decimal form
is
(A) 10
(B) 13
(C) 26
Digital Logic
biased exponent and 23 bits for mantissa.

A float type variable X is assigned the
decimal
value
of
4.25.
The
representation of X in hexadecimal
notation is
(A) C1640000H
(C) 41640000H
(B) 416C0000H
(D) C16C0000H
CS - 2009
12. (1217) is equivalent to
(A) (1217)
(C) (2297)
(B) (028F)
(D) (0B17)
CS - 2010
13. P is a 16-bit signed integer. The 2s
complement representation of P is
87 ) . The 2s complement
representation of 8*P is
(A)
3 8)
(C)
878)
(B)
87 )
(D) 987 )
CS - 2013
14. The smallest integer that can be
represented by an 8- bit number in 2s
complement form is
(A) 256
(C) 127
(B) 128
(D) 0
CS - 2014
15. The base (or radix) of the number system
such that the following equation holds is
________
3 2
= 3.
20
16.
Consider the equation 23) = x8)

with x and y as unknown. The number of
possible solutions is _____________.
17.
The value of a float type variable is

represented using the single-precision
32-bit floating point format of IEEE-754
standard that uses 1 bit for sign, 8 bits for
th
th
th
Page 265
GATE QUESTION BANK
Digital Logic

1.
2.
[Ans. A]
2s complement of a number represents
the negative number. If a number is n-bit
long the most significant digit is a sign bit
so starting from 2
because only n 1
place and addition of 1 and LSB we
represent the magnitude.
So the range is 2
to (2
)
including 0.
Representation biased exponent 74 in

binary
74) = 00 0 0)
Floating point representation of number
is as follows:
Sign Exponent Mantissa
0
1001010
1101000
[Ans. A]
657) =
A
4
= 4A 8)
)
0 0
000 0 0
=
A
)
657) = A
3.
0100 1101 0011 1101
4.
[Ans. D]
The decimal number is 0.239 2
We
have
to
find
hexadecimal
representation without normalization.
Biased exponent = 13 + 64 = 77
Representing 77 in binary
77) = 00 0 )
Representing mantissa in binary
0.239) = 0.00
0 000 0
Floating point representation is an
follows:
Sign Exponent Mantissa
0
1001101 00111101
4
D
= 4 3 )
0100 1010 1110 1000
[Ans. D]
The decimal number is 0.239 2
We
have
to
find
hexadecimal
representation with normalization.
Binary representation of 0.239 is
0.00111101000101
is 0.00
0 000 0 ) 2
After
normalization
we
have
1.11101000101 2
Then, biased exponent = 10 + 64 = 74
5.
6.
[Ans. A]
34.4)
23.4) =
053.6)
[Ans. C]
Let b , b , b , b
are binary and
h , h , h , h , g , g , g , g as discussed in
Question then
b b b b
h h h h
g g g g
0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0
0 0 0 1
0 0 0 1
0 0 0 1
0 0 1 1
0 0 1 0
0 0 1 1
0 0 1 0
0 0 1 1
0 0 1 0
0 1 1 0
0 1 0 0
0 1 1 0
0 1 1 1
0 1 0 1
0 1 1 1
0 1 0 1
0 1 1 0
0 1 0 1
0 1 0 0
0 1 1 1
0 1 0 0
1 1 0 0
1 0 0 0
1 1 0 0
1 1 0 1
1 0 0 1
1 1 0 1
1 1 1 1
1 0 1 0
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 0
1 0 1 1
1 1 1 0
1 0 1 0
1 1 0 0
1 0 1 0
1 0 1 1
1 1 0 1
1 0 1 1
1 0 0 1
1 1 1 0
1 0 0 1
1 0 0 0
1 1 1 1
1 0 0 0
0 0 0 0
Now clearly g is high at position 0, so
option (A) is wrong, also g is high at
position 1, so option (B) is also wrong, for
g h , h , h , h )g is high at
g h , h , h , h ) = m 2,6,7,5,4, 2, 3, 5)
g h , h , h , h ) = m 2,4,5,6,7, 2, 3, 5)
Hence option (C) is correct answer.
th
th
th
Page 266
GATE QUESTION BANK
7.
[Ans. C]
Overflow condition is check with the
expression x yz yxz where x is MSB of
first number, y is MSB of second and z is
MSB of output (all in same size, 4 bit
here)
Here x =1
y=0&
z=0
So x yz xyz = 0
So no overflow will be there.
8.
[Ans. A]
0 2.2 5) = 400 22. 2)
0 0
00
0. 0 ) = 2 7 6 .5 )
40022. 2)
27 6.5)
= 35 03.4 2)
9.
[Ans. D]
Hexadecimal value 0x00000000 in binary
10.
0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0
0
0
0
0
0
0
0
0
0
0
0
0
Checking options.
(a) 10
Sign = 1
0) = 0 0 = .0 0 2
The exponent is biased by 2
,
where e is the number of bits used
for the exponent field which is 8.
2
= 27
For the 32 bit IEEE 754 format, the
bias is + 127 and so 3 + 127 = 130.
In binary (130) is encoded as 1 0 0
00010.
Thus, it is not equal to exponent field.
(b) 13
Sign = 1
3) = 1101 = 1.101 2
3
27 = 30
Hence 30) = 00000 0 exponent
(c) 26
26) = 0 0 = . 0 0 2
27 4 = 3 and 3 )
= 00000
But fraction part does not match
[Ans. D]
r
)
2r
)= r
)
2 =
)
)
r
2r
= r
r
2r
=r
2r
Given equation will satisfy for every vale
of r, however with radix r = 2 we cannot
have sign 2 in it. So answer is r > 2.
11.
[Ans. D]
sign Exponent
1
1
0
0
0
0
0
1
1
12.
Fraction
1
0
1
0
0
0
0
0
0
0
0
0
Digital Logic
[Ans. B]
2 7) = 028 )
(1
001
2
13.
th
1 7)8
001
010
8
111
F
[Ans. A]
2s complement of P is given as
2s complement of 8 P = 2
th
th
87 )
87 )
Page 267
GATE QUESTION BANK
Left shift by 3 bits = 3 8)

87 ) =
000 0
00 00
3
000
8)
14.
[Ans. B]
Range of 2s complement number is for n
bit is from
2 ) to 2
) so
smallest number is 2
= 2 =
28
15.
[Ans. 5]
Given
3 2)
= 3. )
20)
3r
r 2
=r
2r
3
r
=r
2
2 r
r 5
=
2 2
r=5
16.
3
3
So binary representation is
1100
C
0001
1
0110
6
0100
4
0000
0
0000
0
0000
0
0000
0
0
0
Digital Logic
r
r
[Ans. 3]
Given 23) = x 8)
5
2 5 3 5 ) = x y 8)
38 = xy 8
xy = 30
So possible combination of (x, y) are
(1, 30); (2, 15); (3, 10); (5, 6); (6, 5);
(10, 3); (15, 2); (30, 1)
However 8 is a symbol in base y, so y
must be > 8. So that means only three
combination of (x, y) are only possible.
17.
[Ans. A]
4.25
Sign bit = 1
4.25
= .78 25
2
So exponent = 3 + 127 (biased)
= 30)
= 00000 0)
antissa = 0.78 25 = 00
th
th
th
Page 268
GATE QUESTION BANK
Digital Logic
Boolean Algebra & Karnaugh Maps

CS 2005
1.
The switching expression corresponding
to f(A,B,C,D) = (1,4,5,9,11,12) is
(A) B
+
D+ A D
(B) AB +ACD+
D
(C) AC + B + A
(D) BD+ AC +BC
2.
A line L in a circuit is said to have a stuck

at 0 fault if the line permanently has a
logic value 0. Similarly a line L in a circuit
is said to have a stuck at - 1 fault if the
line permanently has a logic value 1. A
circuit is said to have a multiple stuck-at
fault if one or more lines have stuck at
faults. The total number of distinct
multiple stuck - at faults possible in a
circuit with N lines is
(A) 3N
(C) 2N 1
(B) 3N 1
(D) 2N
CS - 2006
3.
Consider a Boolean function f(w, x, y, z).
Suppose that exactly one of its inputs is
allowed to change at a time. If the
function happens to be true for two
input
vectors
i
w x y z
n i
w x y z
w would like
the function to remain true as the input
changes from i to i i n i differ in
exactly one bit position), without
becoming false momentarily. Let
f(w, x, y, z,) = (5, 7, 11, 12, 13, 15).
Which of the following cube covers of
f will ensure that the required property
is satisfied?
(A) w
x z w x y x yz x y z w y z
(B) w x y , w
xz wyz
(C) w x ,
y z x z, w x y z
(D) w z y, w y z, w
x z x y z x y z
4.
(A) f (x1, x2 . xn) = x f (x1, x2 . xn) +

x1f (x1, x2 .. xn)
(B) f (x1, x2 . xn) = x2f (x1, x2 . xn) +
x f (x1, x2 .. xn)
(C) f (x1, x2 . xn) = x f (x1, x2 . 0) +
xn f (x1, x2 .. 1)
(D) f (x1, x2 . xn) = f (0, x2 . xn) +
f (1,x2 .. xn)
5.
The
Boolean
function
for
a
combinational circuit with four inputs is
represented by the following Karnaugh
map.
PQ
00
01
11
10
00
01
11
10
RS
Which of the product terms given below

is an essential prime implicant of the
function?
(A) QRS
(C)
(B) PQS
(D)
CS - 2007
6.
What is the maximum number of
different Boolean functions involving n
Boolean variables?
(A) n
(C) 2
(B) 2
(D) 2
7.
Consider the following Boolean function

of four variables
f w x y z)
1 3 4 6 9 11 12 14)
The function is
(A) Independent of one variable
(B) Independent of two variables
(C) Independent of three variables
(D) Dependent on all the variables
Given a Boolean function f (x1, x2 .. xn),

which of the following equation is NOT
true
th
th
th
Page 269
GATE QUESTION BANK
8.
Digital Logic
Let f(w, x y z)
0 4 5 7 8 9 13 15).
Which of the following expressions are NOT
equivalent to f?
(P) x y z + w x y + w y z + x z
(Q) w y z + w x y + x z
(R) w y z + w x y + x y z + x y z
(S) x y z + w x y + w y
(A) P only
(C) R and S
(B) Q and S
(D) S only
9.
Define the connective * for the Boolean

variable X and Y as: X* Y = X Y +
Let Z = X * Y.
Consider the following expression P, Q
and R.
P: X = Y * Z
Q:Y=X*Z
R: X * Y * Z = 1
(A) Only P and Q are valid
(B) Only Q and R are valid
(C) Only P and R are valid
(D) All P, Q, R are valid
)
c
11.
+
+
Which of the following Karnaugh Maps
correctly represents the expression?
)

10 and 11.
Consider the expression
10.
Which of the following expressions does

not correspond to the Karnaugh Map
obtained in Q.10?
(A) + a + ab+ d
(B) + + +
d
(C) + + + d
++
(D) +
CS - 2008
12. In the Karnaugh map shown below, X
denotes
ont r t rm. Wh t is th
minimal
form
of
the
function
represented by the Karnaugh map
th
th
th
Page 270
GATE QUESTION BANK
ab
cd 00
00 1
01
11
10
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
13.
01
1
11
10
1
X
X
1
. +
. +
. +
. +
.
. + . .
. .
. + .
Given f f and f in canonical sum of

products form (in decimal) for the
circuit
f1
f
f2
f3
f
m 45678)
f
m 1 6 15)
f
m 1 6 8 15)
Then f is
(A) m 4 6)
(C)
(B)
m 4 8)
(D)
14.
15.
m 6 8)
m 4 6 8)
P, Q, R are Boolean variables, then

(P + ) (P. + P.R) (. + ) simplifies to
(A) P.
(C) P. + R
(B) P.
(D) P. + Q
Consider the following Boolean function
of four variables
f(A, B, C, D) = (2, 3, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13)
The function is
(A) Independent of one variable
(B) Independent of two variables
(C) Independent of three variables
(D) Dependent on all the variables
Digital Logic
CS 2010
16. The minterm expansion of
f (P, Q, R) = PQ + Q + P is
(A) m + m + m + m
(B) m + m + m + m
(C) m + m + m + m
(D) m + m + m + m
CS - 2011
17. The simplified SOP (Sum Of Product)
form of the Boolean expression
(P+ + ).(P+ +R). (P+Q+)
(A) (. + )
(C) (. + )
(D) (P.Q+R)
(B) (P+ . )
CS - 2012
18. The truth table
X
Y
f(X, Y)
0
0
0
0
1
0
1
0
1
1
1
1
represents the Boolean function
(A) X
(C)
(B) X + Y
(D) Y
CS - 2013
19. Which one the following expressions
does NOT represent exclusive NOR of
x and y ?
(A) xy + x y
(C) x
y
(B) x y
(D) x
y
CS - 2014
20. Consider
the
expression for F:
following
Boolean
F(P, Q, R, S) = PQ +
+
The minimal sum-of-products form of F is
(A) PQ + QR + QS (C) + + +
(B) P + Q + R + S (D)
+
+
21.
th
The dual of a Boolean function

x x . x + . ) written as
is
the same expression as that of F with +
and swapped. F is said to be self dual if
. The number of self dual
function with n Boolean variables is
th
th
Page 271
GATE QUESTION BANK
(A) 2
(B) 2
22.
23.
Digital Logic
Consider
the
following
minterm
expression for F:
)
0 2 5 7 8 10 13 15
Th mint rms 2 7 8 n 13 r o not
r t rms. Th minim l sum of
products for F is
L t
not th Ex lusiv O
O )
op r tion. L t 1 n 0
not th
binary constants. Consider the following
Boolean expression for F over two
variables P and Q:
)
))
( 1 )
)
0))
The equivalent expression for F is
(A) P + Q
(C) P Q
(A)
(B)
(B)
(C) 2
(D) 2
(C)
(D)
(D)

1.
[Ans. A]
f(A, B, C, D) = (1, 4, 5, 9, 11, 12)
The K map for f is
wxz 0101 (5)

wxy 1100 12)
xyz 0101 5)
xyz 0111 7)
wyz 1011 11)
CD
00
AB
01
00
10
01
4.
[Ans. D]
A is true statement
f x x x )
x f x x x )+x f x x x )
f x x x ) x +x )
f x x x )
Similarly B is also true
To prove (C) and (D)
Let f x x x ) x + x + x
Then (C) f x x x ) x + x + x
x x + x + 0) + x x + x + 1)
x x +x )+x
x x +x x +x
x +x +x
f x x x )
So (C) can be true, let check for D
f x x x ) f 0 x x )+ 1 x x )
0+x +x )+ 1+x +x )
=1
f x x x )
It is not true, and we know that if a
statement is not true even for one
om in tion it
nt
g n r l
statement
1
1
11
10
11
2.
[Ans. C]
Total no. of distinct multiple stuck at
faults in a circuit with N lines is 2
1.
3.
[Ans. A]
f (w, x, y, z) = (5, 7, 11, 12, 13, 15)
Draw the K map
yz
10
wx
00
01
11
10
01
1
11
10
1
1
th
th
th
Page 272
GATE QUESTION BANK
5.
[Ans. D]
RS
7.
01
11
10
00
01
11
10
So
6.
8.
[Ans. A]
Consider a simple method let w = 1,
x = 1, y = 1, z = 1 then the value of f is 1.
Consider each statement
(P) x y z + w xy + wy z + xz
=000+010+101+11=1
(Q) w y z + wx y + xz
000+100+11=1
(R) w y z + wx y + xyz + xy z
=000+100+111+101=1
(S) x y z + wx y + w y
=000+100+01=0
So statement (S) is false because w = 1,
x = 1, y = 1, z = 1 the value of f is 0. (S)
is not contain the essential minterms.
So option not containing S is answer
which is option (A)
9.
[Ans. D]
PQ
00
is essential prime implicants.
[Ans. C]
Let the binary constant be the value of
the function f(x x x ) for the
combination of variables whose decimal
code is i. Then every switching function
can be expressed in form.
f (x x . x ) = x x x +
x x x + + x x x .
A factor
is either 0 or 1 if the
corresponding minterm is contained in
canonical form of the function. Then
there are r = 2 coefficients each of
which can have values either 0 or 1
hence
there
are
2
possible
assignments.
+
Z = X*Y
y +
from eq. (i)
P:X=
= YZ +
by eq.(i)
=Y(XZ + X Z ) + Y Z
= XYZ + X YZ + Y Z
Q:Y=
Y = XZ + X Z by eq.(i)
Y =XZ + X Z
R:
= 1 if we will take the truth
table for P, Q, R, then all are valid
formulas
[Ans. B]
Given
f(w, x, y, z) = (1, 3, 4, 6, 9, 11, 12, 14)
Corresponding K map for f is
yz
00
wx
00
01
11
10
10.
[Ans. A]
a
00
+
01
00
01
11
10
cd
01
11
10
ab
1
1
Digital Logic
+
11
10
1
1
f(w, x, y, z) = xz + x z
So f (w, x, y, z) is independent of two
variables w and y.
th
th
th
Page 273
GATE QUESTION BANK
11.
It depends on 3 variables A, B and C.

So it is independent of one variable.
[Ans. A]
Option (A) does not correspond to Kmap option in question 10.
+
16.
Digital Logic
[Ans. A]
+
12.
[Ans. A]
The K-Map is
( + )+( + )
+
ab
00
01
00
01
cd
11
11
17.
+ )
+ )
15.
+
+
100)
+ )
)
+ )
+ )
+ )
+
14.
(( + ) +
1
+ )
[Ans. B]
+
+
+
+
111) 110) 010)
m +m +m +m
13.
10
10
[Ans. C]
f and f are connected with AND gate so
when f = m(6, 8) then f is true for
m (1, 6, 8, 15)
[Ans. A]
+ )
+ )
+ )
)
+
+
+
+
)
+
+
+ )
(
+
1 + ))
+ )
+ )
+ )
+
1+ )
[Ans. A]
f (A, B, C, D =
18.
X
0
0
1
1
01
11
19.
01
y)
xy + x y)
x + y) x + y ))
x y + xy . i)
Option (A): is same as (i)
Option (B): x y
x y + xy same as (i)
Option (C): x
y xy + x y same as (i)
Option (D): x
y
x y + xy not same
as (i)
Option (D) is not correct.
10
10
[Ans. D]
Exclusive NOR of x and y (x
(x
00
11
f(X, Y)
0
0
1
1
( + )
(2, 3, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13)
00
Y
0
1
0
1
Now equation for f(X, Y) = X
CD
AB
[Ans. A]
y)
th
th
th
Page 274
GATE QUESTION BANK
20.
Digital Logic
[Ans. A]
K-map for given expression
RS
PQ
00
00
01
01
11
11
10
10
QS
PQ
QR
So minimal sum of products is PQ + QR + QS
21.
[Ans. D]
A function F is self dual if it has equal
number of minterms and maxterms, also
mutually exclusive term should not be
included.
The number of mutually exclusive terms
(pair wise) is
2
Number of function possible by taking any
of the one term from the above mentioned
mutually exclusive pair is = 2
22.
[Ans. B]
RS
PQ 00 01 11 10
x
00 1
01
1 x
x 1
11
QS
10 x
All four corner =

Minimal sum of products for F is
QS +
23.
[Ans. D]
1 )
)
)
)
{ 1
)
)
0) {
0)
1
0
{
1
0
+
)
th
th
th
Page 275
GATE QUESTION BANK
Digital Logic
Logic Gates
CS 2005
1.
A two-way switch has three terminals a, b
and c. In ON position (logic value 1), a is
connected to b, and in OFF position, a is
connected to c. Two of these two way
switches S1 and S2 are connected to a
bulb as shown below.
b
a
c
Switch
c S1
c
Switch
S2
c
CS - 2007
4. The following expression was to be realized
using 2 input AND and OR gates. However,
during the fabrication all 2 input AND
gates were mistakenly substituted by
2 input NAND gates.
(a. b).c + (.c).d + (b.c).d + a.d
What is the function finally realized?
(A) 1
(B) + + +
(C) + b + +
(D) + + c +
Bulb
Which of the following expressions, if

true, will always result in the lighting of
the bulb?
(A) S1.
(C)
(B) S1+ S2
(D) S1
S2
2.
5. The line T in the following figure is

permanently connected to the ground.
X1
X2
X3
X2
X4
X3
X4
Which of the following expressions is

equivalent to (A B) C
(A) (A + B + C) ( )
)
(B) (A + B + C) (
(C) ABC + (B C) + (A C)
Which of the following inputs (X1 X2 X3 X4)

X4
will
detect the fault?
X4
(A) 0000
(B) 0111
(C) 1111
(D) None of these
(D) None of these

CS - 2006
3.
The majority function is a Boolean
function f (x, y, z) that takes the values 1
whenever a majority of the variables x, y
and z. In the circuit diagram for the
majority function shown below, the logic
gates for the boxes labeled P and Q are,
respectively
z
y
P
X3
CS - 2009
6. What is the minimum number of gates
required to implement the Boolean
function (AB + C) if we have to use only
2-input NOR gates?
(A) 2
(C) 4
(B) 3
(D) 5
1
f
(A) XOR, AND

(B) XOR, XOR
(C) OR, OR
(D) OR, AND
th
th
th
Page 276
GATE QUESTION BANK
CS 2010
7. What is the Boolean expression for the
output f of the combinational logic circuit of
NOR gates given below?
P
Q
Q
R
R
RP
R
R
Q
R
R
R
R
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
CS 2011
8. Which one of the following circuits is NOT
equivalent to a 2-input XNOR (exclusive
NOR) gate?
(A)
Digital Logic
CS 2014
10. Consider the following combinational
function block involving four Boolean
variables x, y, a, b where x, a, b are inputs
and y is the output.
f (x, y, a, b)
{
if (x is 1) y = a;
else y = b;
}
Which one of the following digital logic
blocks is the most suitable for
implementing this function?
(A) Full adder
(B) Priority encoder
(C) Multiplexer
(D) Flip-flop
(B)
(C)
(D)
CS - 2012
9.
What is the minimal form of the Karnaugh
map shown below? Assume that X
enotes ont re term
(A)
(B)
(C) +a
(D) +
th
th
th
Page 277
GATE QUESTION BANK
Digital Logic
Answers Keys and Explanations

1.
2.
(
(
(
[Ans. C]
Either both ON or OFF i.e.
[Ans. C]
Given (
(
)
)
))
)
[Ans. C]
( )
( )
( )
Replace AND gate with NAND gate,
(
)
(
)
(
)
So A is false (not correct option)
)(
(B) (
)
)(
(
(
)
So option C is correct
( )
)
(
)
So B is false (not correct option)
(
)
(C)
(
)
3.
)
4.
Now (A),
(
)(
5.
)
)
[Ans. D]
X1
X2
X3
X2
X3
[Ans. D]
f=
where
()
( )
( )
Now we know a 3 variable majority
circuit is given as
( )
Now on comparing, we get that there is
no on actual expression, so we have to
eliminate from equation (i) we know
that
X4
X3 X4
X3
X3
X4
X4
X4
X3 X4
X4
(
)
So the eliminate , Q must also be present
in P and in addition P must contain some
other terms so by observation option A, B
& C are eliminated
Now option (D)
(
)
X4 +
y
1
But both
n
c nt o ur t s me t me so none o these
th
th
th
Page 278
GATE QUESTION BANK
6.
(B)
[Ans. B]
= AB + C
= (A + C) (B + C)
((
)
(
))
(
A
C
Digital Logic
(C)
(D)
((
B
C
7.
) +(
[Ans. A]
(P + Q) (Q+R) = Q+RP
)(
)
(
Q
Q
pt on
s not
9.
[Ans. B]
ab
00
01
11
10
00
01
cd
Q
(P + R) (Q+R) = R+PQ
(
(
11
)
10
C=
8.
( )
[Ans. D]
(A)
x
y
10.
[Ans. C]
output ne
nput nes
)(
)
se e t ne
th
th
th
Page 279
GATE QUESTION BANK
Digital Logic
Logic Gate Families

CS - 2005
1.
Consider the following circuit
x
z
(A) f is independent of x
(B) f is independent of y
(C) f is independent of z
(D) None of x, y, z is redundant

1.
[Ans. D]
The given circuit is
x
+ yz
y
z
f = x + yz
)
=x (
=x
K map:
) [
= 1]
yz
x
00
01
0
1
11
10
1
1
(
)
So none of x, y, z is redundant.
th
th
th
Page 280
GATE QUESTION BANK
Digital Logic
Combinational and Sequential Digital Circuits

CS 2005
1.
Consider the following circuit involving a
positive edge triggered D FF.
3.
How many pulses are needed to change

the contents of a 8-bit upcounter from
10101100 to 00100111 (rightmost bit is
the LSB)?
(A) 134
(C) 124
(B) 133
(D) 123
4.
Which of the following input sequences

will always generate a 1 at the output z at
the end of the third cycle?
A
X
Q
CLK
A
B
Consider the following timing diagram.

Let represent the logic level on the line
A in the i-th clock period.
CL
0
K
X
Clock
Clock
A
1
0
0
B
0
0
1
C
1
1
0
(B)
1
1
1
0
1
1
1
0
1
(C)
0
1
1
1
0
1
1
1
1
(D)
0
1
1
0
1
1
1
0
1
(A)
Let represent the complement of A. The

correct output sequence on Y over the
clock periods 1 through 5 is
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
2.
Consider the following circuit
CLK
The flip-flops are positive edge triggered

D FFs. Each state is designated as a two
bit string
. Let the initial state be 00.
The state transition sequence is
(A) 001101
5.
The circuit shown below implements a

2-input NOR gate using two 2 1 MUX
(control signal 1 selects the upper input).
What are the values of signals x, y and z?
(B) 0011
(C) 00100111
0
1
(D) 00110110
0
0z
(A) 1, 0, B
(B) 1, 0, A
th
th
(C) 0, 1, B
(D) 0, 1, A
th
Page 281
GATE QUESTION BANK
CS - 2006
6.
You are given a free running clock with a
duty cycle of 50% and a digital waveform
f which changes only at the negative edge
of the clock. Which one of the following
circuits (using clocked D-flip-flops) will
delay the phase of f by 180 ?
(A)
D
8.
Given
Digital Logic
two
three
bit
numbers
and c, the carry in,
the function that represents the carry
generate function when these two
numbers are added is
(A)
+
+
+
+
+
+
(B)
D Q
(C)
+(
(
) (
(D)
+
+

clk
(B)
D Q
D Q
f
g
clk
9.
D Q
D Q
D Q
(D)
(C) c
(D)
clk
7.
Consider the circuit below . Which one

of the following options correctly
represents f(x,y,z)?
x
0
MUX
1
y
z
0
1
MUX
f
+
+
c
c
CS - 2007
10. How many 3-to-8 line decoders with an
enable input are needed to construct a
6-to-64 line decoder without using any
other logic gates?
(A) 7
(C) 9
(B) 8
(D) 10
11.
x
y
(A) xz + xy + yz
(B) xz + xy +yz
binary adder for adding unsigned

binary numbers is used to add the two
numbers. The sum is denoted by
c c
c and the carry out by c .
correctly
identifies
the
overflow
condition?
(A) c ()
(B)
c + c
clk
+
+
)[
)]
We co si er the
itio of two 2s
complement numbers
(C)
f
(C) xz + xy + yz
(D) xz + xy + yz
th
Suppose only one multiplexer and one

inverter are allowed to be used to
implement any Boolean function of n
variables. What is the minimum size of
the multiplexer needed?
th
th
Page 282
GATE QUESTION BANK
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
12.
2 i e to 1 i
2
i e to 1
2
i e to 1
2
i e to 1
e
i e
i e
i e
The counter is connected as follows

A4 A3 A2 A1
In a look-ahead carry generator, the carry

generate function
the carry
propagate function
for inputs,
re give y
where
is the input carry. Consider a
two-level logic implementation of the
look-ahead carry generator. Assume that
all
are available for the carry
generator circuit and that the AND and
OR gates can have any number of inputs.
The number of AND gates and OR gates
needed to implement the look-ahead
carry generator for a 4-bit adder with
as its outputs are
respectively
(A) 6, 3
(C) 6, 4
(B) 10, 4
(D) 10, 5
Clear to
0
No
change
Load
input
Count
next
Count = 1
Load = 0
Clock
Clear
0
Inputs
1
Assume that the counter and gate delays

are negligible. If the counter starts at 0,
then it cycles through the following
sequence
(A) 0, 3, 4
(C) 0, 1, 2, 3, 4
(B) 0, 3, 4, 5
(D) 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
14.
The following circuit implements a two

input AND gate using two 2-1
multiplexers.
a
ab
What are the values of X1, X2, and X3?

(A)
0
(B)
1
(C)
1
(D)
0
The control signal functions of a 4-bit

binary counter are given below ( where X
is o t c re)
Clear Clock Load Count Function
1
4-bit counter
Clear
The expressions for the sum bit and the

carry bit
of the look-ahead carry
adder are given by
13.
Digital Logic
15.
th
Which of the following input sequences

for a cross coupled R S flip flop
realized with two NAND gates may lead to
an oscillation?
(A) 11, 00
(C) 10, 01
(B) 01, 10
(D) 00, 11
th
th
Page 283
GATE QUESTION BANK
16.
What is the final value stored in the linear

feedback shift register if the input is
101101?
101101
+
1 1
20.
The Boolean expression for the output f of

the multiplexer shown below is
R
XOR
(A) 0110
(B) 1011
Digital Logic
(C) 1101
(D) 1111
R
R
CS - 2008
17. What Boolean function does the circuit
below realize?
(A)
(B)
(C) P + Q + R
(D)
z
3 to 8
y
f (x, y, z)
Decoder
(A) xz + x z
(B) xz xz
18.
CS - 2011
Common data for questions 21 and 22:
Consider the following circuit involving
three D-type flip-flops used in a certain
type of counter configuration.
(C) x y + yz
(D) xy + y z
D Q
clock
The two numbers given below are

mu tip ie usi g the ooths gorithm
Multiplicand: 0101 1010 1110 1110
Multiplier: 0111 0111 1011 1101
How many additions/Subtractions are
required for the multiplication of the
above two numbers?
(A) 6
(C) 10
(B) 8
(D) 12
CS - 2010
19. In the sequential circuit shown below, if
the initial value of the output
is 00,
what are the next four values of
?
1
D Q
21.
Clock
(A) 11,10,01,00
(B) 10,11,01,00
clock
clock
If some instance prior to the occurrence

of the clock edge, P, Q and R have a value
0, 1 and 0 respectively, what shall be the
value of PQR after the clock edge?
(A) 000
(C) 010
(B) 001
(D) 011
(C) 10,00,01,11
(D) 11,10,00,01
th
th
th
Page 284
GATE QUESTION BANK
22.
23.
If all the flip-flops were reset to 0 at

power on, what is the total number of
distinct output (states) represented by
PQR generated by the counter?
(A) 3
(C) 5
(B) 4
(D) 6
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D) PQ
26.
The minimum number of D flip-flops

needed to design a mod-258 counter is
(A) 9
(C) 512
(B) 8
(D) 258
CS - 2013
24. In the following truth table, V = 1 if and
only if the input is valid.
Inputs
Outputs
V
0
0
0
0
x
x
0
1
0
0
0
0
0
1
x
1
0
0
0
1
1
x
x
1
0
1
0
1
x
x
x
1
1
1
1
What function does the truth table
represent?
(A) Priority encoder
(B) Decoder
(C) Multiplexer
(D) Demultiplexer
Digital Logic
The above synchronous sequential circuit

built using JK flip flops in initialized
with
000 The state sequence
for this circuit for the next 3 clock cycles
is
(A) 001, 010, 011
(C) 100, 110, 111
(B) 111, 110, 101
(D) 100, 011, 001
27.
Let
2 . A circuit is built by giving the
output of an n bit binary counter as
input to an
to 2 bit decoder. This
circuit is equivalent to a
(A) k bit binary up counter.
(B) k bit binary down counter.
(C) k bit ring counter.
(D) k bit Johnson counter
CS - 2014
25. Consider the 4 to 1 multiplex with two
select lines and given below
0
1 4 to 1
Multiplexer
2
3
The minimal sum of products form of

the Boolean expression for the output F of
the multiplexer is
th
th
th
Page 285
GATE QUESTION BANK
Digital Logic

1.
[Ans. A]
Let initially Q =
Now
5.
[Ans. D]
x x
Given x = 1 1 0 1 1 0
Clock = 0 1 2 3 4 5 and
A=
Then
Clock A
D
P=A +B
C = xP + y
x(
x(
)
)
y
from emorg theorem)

Now from option (A)
Put x = 1, y = 0, = B we get
0 0 0 0
From option (B)
Put x = 1, y = 0 & = A
NS
11
01
10
00
11
01
From option (C)

Put x = 0, y = 1 & = B
[Ans. D]
Upcounter will go upto its highest count
first then it will start from clear and go
upto required value so from
1 0 1 0 1 1 0 0 to 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
3
then from
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 00000000
0 0 1 0 0 1 1 1 40
So total = 83 + 40 = 123
[Ans. A]
A B C
P(let)
x
x
y
Also given (required)
[Ans. D]
00
11
01
10
00
11
4.
3.
1
3
2.
rom optio
)
Put x = 0, y = 1 & = A
0
Which is required
So correct option is (D)
Z
1 0 1 1
0
0 0 1 0
1
0
0
0 1 0 1
0
1
1
We got answer with first option no need
to check for other options.
6.
[Ans. B]
Hint: Invertor provides 1 0 phase
FF with Q output 360 or 0
FF with output gives 1 0 phase
th
th
th
Page 286
GATE QUESTION BANK
7.
[Ans. A]
9.
[Ans. C]
B=
A=
S=c c
c
The over flow condition V
V=
c
c
c
is c so
V=c
c
So the over flow condition is
c
c
10.
[Ans. C]
For the construction of a 6 64 decoder
by using 3 8 line decoder
x
0
1
y
0
1
x
y
Let the output of first uppermost Mux is f
f
xz
yz
The output of second Mux is
f = (xz
y z)y
xy
= xy z
y y z xy
= xy z + y z xy
[
= y z xy z
xy z z ) [a + = 1]
= y z xy z
xyz xyz
= y z xy z + xyz
xyz
xyz
[a + a = a]
= y z + xz y
y) xy z
z)
= y z xz
xy [a + = a]
= xz
xy y z
8.
[Ans. D]
Consider
38
11.
[Ans. C]
To implement n variable function, we
require a data selector with n 1 select
inputs and 2
data inputs. So minimum
size of multiplexer needed is 2
line to
1 line
12.
[Ans. B]
A 4-bit adder with
and
as
its output require 2 1 bit adder and a
single one bit adder require 5 AND gates
and 2 OR gates in two level logic. So the
required gate are 10 AND gate and 4 OR
gates.
13.
[Ans. D]
If load = 0 and count = 1 then counter
count the sequence 0000, 0001, 0010,
0011, 0100, 0101, 0000 in decimal if
count 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and then 0 and repeat
the sequence. After 0101 clear = 1
So again 0000 as count output.
14.
[Ans. A]
1
1 or
1 or
1
1 or
1
So the statement (D) generate a carry c
always
extra decoder for combining
the result 6 64
and
000
000
001
001
010
010
011
011
100
100
101
101
110
110
111
111
So the carry c will be generated if
Digital Logic
th
th
th
ab
Page 287
GATE QUESTION BANK
So, a.b = (a + b ) +
If = b, = 0, = a
then RHS = (a . b + b . ) a + 0 .
=a.b.a
=a.b
15.
Digital Logic
xyz
xyz
x yz
z
3 8
decodes
xy z
xy z
xy z
[Ans. B]
xyz
xyz
= xz
= (x z ) xz)
= (x + z) (x
z)
= xx
xz
x z zz
= xz
xz
S R
1 1
1 0
0
0 1
1
0 0 Invalid
Now since 00 leads to invalid state it
cannot lead to an oscillation
So (A) & (D) are wrong options
In both option B & C oscillation will occur
but in option (C) oscillation will start after
one clock cycle however in option (B)
oscillation will state with first clock cycle
so B is more correct answer
16.
[Ans. A]
Clock
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
18.
Output
0110
1011
1101
0110
1011
1101
0110
101101
+
So option A
17.
xz)
[Ans. B]
f
xyz
x yz
xy z xyz
=x z y
y) xz y y )
= x z 1) xz 1)
=x z
xz
[Ans. B]
ooths gorithm requires ex mi tio
of the multiplier bits and shifting of the
partial product. Prior to the shifting, the
multiplicand may be added to the partial
product, subtracted from the partial
product or left unchanged according to
the following rules.
1. The multiplicand is subtracted from
the
partial
product
upon
encountering
the
first
least
significant 1 in a string of 1s i the
multiplier.
2. The multiplicand is added to the
partial product upon encountering
the first 0 i
stri g of 0s i the
multiplier.
3. The partial product does not change
when the multiplier bit is identical to
the previous multiplier bit.
As in multiplier we see that a change
occurs in bit as 0 changes to 1 and 1
changes to 1.
Multiplier:
0111
0111
1011
1101
1 1
f=f
th
th
th
Page 288
GATE QUESTION BANK
19.
[Ans. A]
Clock to next flipflop is by Q and +ve edge
trigger so it will be a down counter
After
After
After
After
20.
Initial
1st Clock
2nd Clock
3rd Clock
4th Clock
26.
[Ans. C]
Values of J and K in each flip flop from
left to right will be
J = 1, 0, 0
K = 0, 1, 1
According to these inputs
will be
100
Now based on new outputs J K will be
J = 1, 1, 0
K = 0, 0, 1
And
will be 110
Now new J K
J = 1, 1, 1
L = 0, 0, 0
And
will be 110
27.
[Ans. C]
0
1
0
1
0
[Ans. B]
(
21.
0
1
1
0
0
)
)
[Ans. D]
)
f
)
)
Digital Logic
n - bit
binary
counter
0 1 0) the ext st te
0 1 1)
2
bit
decode
r
1
)
22.
[Ans. B]
There are four distinct states.
000 010011100 000)
23.
[Ans. A]
Mod 258 counter has 258 different states.
So minimum number of bits required
each state is ceiling of og 25
, each
of which requires one flip-flop.
24.
[Ans. A]
Truth table given represent the priority
encoder i.e, 4 2 priority encoder V = 0
indicates output is invalid and V = 1
indicates output is valid
25.
[Ans. A]
0
(
So output of n-bit binary counter move

from 1, 2, 3, and so on according to that
and so on output will be high.
1
)
So answer
th
th
th
Page 289
GATE QUESTION BANK
DMGT
Mathematical Logic
CS - 2005
1.
What is the first order predicate calculus
statement equivalent to the following?
Every teacher is liked by some student
( )
(A) ( ),
( ),
( )
( )-]
(
),
(
)
(B)
( ),
( )
( )-( )
(C) ( ) ( ),
( )
( )-,
( )
( )
(D) ( ),
( )
( )-,
2.
3.
5.
Which one of the first order predicate

calculus statements given below correctly
expresses
the
following
English
statement?
Tigers and lions attack if they are hungry
of threatened.
( )
( ))
(A)
[(
(D) .
(
( ( ))/
( ( )
(B)
[(
( )
( ))
( )
{(
( ))
( )}]
(C)
[(
(D)
[(
*(
6.
( )
( )
( ))
(
( ))}]
( )
( )
( )+]
( )
( ))
( ))
A logical binary relation , is defined as

follows :
A
B
AB
True
True
True
True
False
True
False
True
False
False
False
True
Let ~ be the unary negation (NOT)
operator, with higher precedence, than
. Which one of following is equivalent
A B?
(A) (~A B)
(C) ~(~A~B)
(B) ~(A~B)
(D) ~(~AB)
( )))
( )))
CS - 2006
4.
Consider the following propositional
statements:
P1: ((A B) C) ((A C) (B C))
P2: ((A B) C) ((A C) (B C))
(A) P1 is a tautology, but not P2.
(B) P2 is a tautology, but not P1.
(C) P1 and P2 are both tautologies
(D) Both P1 and P2 are not tautologies
( ))
( )}]
Let P, Q and R be three atomic

propositional assertions. Let X denote
(
)
and Y denote
(
) (
). Which one of the
following is a tautology?
(A) X Y
(C) Y X
(B) X Y
(D) Y X
Let P(x) and Q(x) be arbitrary predicates.
always TRUE?
( )
( )))
(A) ((
((
( )) (
( )))
( )))
(B) ( ( ( )
( )))
(( ( ( ))
(
(
( )))
(C) ( ( ( ))
(
)
(
)))
(( (
( )
{(
CS - 2007
7.
Which of the following is TRUE about
formulae in Conjunctive Normal Form?
(A) For any formula, there is a truth
assignment for which at least half the
clauses evaluate to true.
(B) For any formula, there is a truth
assignment for which all the clauses
evaluate to true.
th
th
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Page 290
GATE QUESTION BANK
(C) There is a formula such that for each

truth assignment, at most one-fourth
of the clauses evaluate to true.
8.
9.
Let Graph (x) be a predicate which denotes

that x is a graph. Let Connected (x) be a
predicate which denotes that x is connected.
Which of the following first order logic
sentences DOES NOT represent the
statement. N every graph is connec ?
(A) (Graph(x) Connected (x))
(B) x(Graph (x) Connected (x))
(C)
(Graph(x) Connected (x))
(D)
(Graph (x) Connected (x))
Which one of these first-order logic
formulae is valid?
(A)
( ( )
Q(x))
(( ( ( ))
( )))
(
(B)
( ( ) Q(x))
(( ( ( ))
( )))
(
(C)
( ( ) Q(x))
( )))
(( ( ( )) (
( )
( )
(D)
DMGT
Each finite state automaton has an

equivalent pushdown automaton
( ))
(A) (
( )
( ))
(
(B)
(
( )
( )
( ))
(
( )
(
(C)
( ( )
(
)
(
(D)
( ( )
12.
Which of the following is the negation of

(
))[
(
(
))(A) [
(
(
))(B) [
(
(
))(C) [
(
(
))(D) [
(
13.
Which of the following first order

m
?H
( )
first order formula with x as free variable,
and is a first order formula with no free
variable
(A) [
( x, (x))] [ x,
(x)]
(B) [ x,
(x)] [
( x, (x))]
(C) [(
( ))
, x, ( )
(D) [(
( ))
- ,
( )
-
CS - 2008
10. P and Q are two propositions. Which of
the following logical expressions are
equivalent?
1)
2)
(
)
3) (
) (
) (
)
4) (P Q) (P ~Q) (~P Q)
(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 1, 2 and 3
(C) Only 1, 2 and 4
(D) All of 1, 2, 3 and 4
CS - 2009
14. Consider the following
formulae:
i.
x P x
11.
15.
Let fsa and pda be two predicates such

that fsa(x) means x is a finite state
automaton, and pda(y) means that y is a
pushdown automaton. Let equivalent be
another predicate such that equivalent
(a, b) means a and b are equivalent.
Which of the following first order logic
statement represents the following:
ii.
xP x
iii.
x P x
iv.
xP x
well-formed
Which of the above are equivalent?

(A) i and iii
(C) ii and iii
(B) i and iv
(D) ii and iv
th
Which one of the following is the most

appropriate logical formula to represent
the statement:
G
m
.
The following notations are used:
G(x): x is a gold ornament
S(x): x is a silver ornament
P(x): x is precious
th
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Page 291
))
))
GATE QUESTION BANK
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
16.
x(P(x) (G(s) S(x)))

x((G(x) S(x) P(x))
x ((G(x) S(x))
P(x))
x((G(x) S(x))
P(x))
The binary operation

is defined as
follows ;
P
Q
P Q
T
T
T
T
F
T
F
T
F
F
F
T
Which one of the following is equivalent
to P Q?
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
CS 2010
17. Suppose the predicate F(x, y, t) is used to
represent the statement that person x can
fool person y at time t. Which one of the
statements below expresses best the
meaning of the formula
(F(x, y, t))?
(A) Everyone can fool some person at
some time.
(B) No one can fool everyone all the time.
(C) Everyone cannot fool some person
all the time.
(D) No one can fool some person at some
time.
CS - 2011
18. Which of the following option is correct
given three positive integers x, y and z,
and a predicate
P(x) = (x = 1) y ( z(x = y * z)
(y = x) (y = 1))
(A) P(x) being true means that x is a
prime number
(B) P(x) being true means that x is
number other than 1
(C) P(x) is always true irrespective of the
value of x
(D) P(x) being true means that x has
exactly two factors other than 1 and x
DMGT
CS - 2012
19. Consider the following logical inferences.
I1: If it rains then the cricket match will
not be played
The cricket match was played
Inference: There was no rain
I2: If it rains then the cricket match will
not be played
It did not rain
Inference: The cricket match was played
Which of the following is True?
(A) Both I1 and I2 are correct inferences
(B) I1 is correct but I2 is not correct
inference
(C) I1 is not correct I2 is a correct
inference
(D) Both I1 and I2 are not correct
inference
20.
What is the correct translation of the

following statement into mathematical
logic?
m
mb
(A)
(
( ) rational(x))
(B)
(
( )
( ))
(C)
(
( ) rational(x))
(D)
(
( ) real(x))
CS - 2013
21. Which one of the following is NOT logically
( ))?
equivalent to ( ( )
(A)
( ( )
( ))
(B)
( ( )
( ))
(C)
( ( )
( ))
( ))
(D)
( ( )
22.
What is the logical translation of the

following statement?
N
m
.
(A)
(F( ) ( ))
(F( )
(F( )
(B)
(C)
(D)
th
th
(F( )
( ))
( ))
( ))
th
Page 292
GATE QUESTION BANK
DMGT
CS - 2014
23. Consider the statement
N
Predicate glitter (x) is true if x glitters and

predicate gold (x) is true if x is gold.
Which one of the following logical
formulae represents the above
statement?
(A)
:
( )
( )
(B)
:
( )
( )
(C)
:
( )
( )
( )
(D)
:
( )
24.
Which one of the following propositional

logic formulas is TRUE when exactly two
of p, q and r are TRUE?
)
(A) ((
) (
)
(B) ( (
)
) (
)
) ) (
(C) ((
)
(
(
)
)
(
)
(D)
25.
Which of the following Boolean

expressions is NOT a tautology?
(A) ((
b) (b
)) (
) ( b (
(B) (
))
(C) (
b ) (
)
(b
)
(D)
26.
Consider the following statements:

P: Good mobile phones are not cheap
Q: Cheap mobile phones are not good
L: P implies Q
M: Q implies P
N: P is equivalent to Q
Which one of the following about L, M and
N is CORRECT?
(A) Only L is TRUE.
(B) Only M is TRUE.
(C) Only N is TRUE.
(D) L, M and N are TRUE.
27.
The CORRECT formula for the sentence,
(A)
(
( )
C ( ))
(B)
(
( ) C ( ))
(C)
(
( ) C ( ))
(D)
(
( )
C ( ))
th
th
th
Page 293
GATE QUESTION BANK
DMGT

1.
[Ans. B]
E
b
m
:
then
the
logical
expression
is
(x)[teacher (x)
(y) [student ( )
( )-Where likes (y, x) means y likes x, such
that y represent the student and x
represents the teacher.
2.
[Ans .B]
X: (
)R
Y: (P ) ( R)
X: P + QR (P+Q) + R P Q + R
Y: (P +R) + (Q + R) P + Q + R
Clearly XY
Consider XY
(P Q + R)(P + Q + R)
(P Q + R) + P + Q + R
(P Q ) .R + P + Q + R
(P + Q).R + P + Q + R
PR + QR + P + Q + R
(PR + R) + (QR + Q ) + P
(P + R) (R + R) + (Q + Q ) (R + Q ) + P
(P + R) + (R + Q ) + P
P + P + R + R + Q
1+1+ Q
1
XY is a tautology
3.
[Ans. A]
4.
[Ans. D]
: ((A B) C) ((A
LHS:
(A B) C
AB C
(A B)
C
A
B
C
RHS:
(A C) (B C)
(A + C) (B + C)
AB+C
C
LHS HS
C)
is not a tautology
: ((A B) C) ((A C) (B C))
LHS ((A+ B) C)
(A B)
C
AB
C
HS (A C) (B C)
(A
C)
(B
C)
A
B
C
C
LHS HS
is also not a
tautology
Therefore both
and
are not
tautologies. Correct choice is (D).
5.
[Ans. D]
T
m
b
I
an animal is a tiger or lion, then (if the
animal is hungry or threatened, then it
will attacks). Therefore the correct
translation is
( )
( ))
[(
( )
{(
Which is choice (D)
( ))
( )}]
6.
[Ans. D]
By using min terms we can define
A B AB AB
AB
A AB
(A A ). (A B )
A B
(A) A B A
B A B
(B) (A
B) (A B )
(A (B ) )
(A B)
AB
(C) ( A
B) (A
B)
(A (B ) )
(A B)
AB
(D) ( A B) (A
B)
(A B )
A. B A B
(D) A B
7.
[Ans. D]
In conjunctive normal form, for any
particular assignment of truth values, all
except one clause, will always evaluate to
true, So (D) is correct answer
(B C))
th
th
th
Page 294
GATE QUESTION BANK
8.
[Ans. A]
T
N
m
T
10.
[Ans. A]
When ( ( )) FALSE, then the
formula
( ( ( ))
F: ( ( )
( ))
(
)))becomes
( (
TRUE. If
( ( )) TRUE and
( ( )
( )) TRUE, then
( ( )) TRUE, and
F TRUE. Hence formula F is valid.
[Ans .B]
(
)
(
) (
(
(
(
)
(
) (
(
(
)
.
) (
) (
)
(
)
)
)
(
) (
(
( )
(
representation.
m
which is
w
the same as
*
( )
( )+
Which is choice (B)
Alternate solution
We can translate the given statement
N T (
)
(
( )
( ))
(
( )
( ))
(
( )
( ))
(
( )
( ))
Which is choice (B)
9.
( ))
(
m
DMGT
12.
[Ans. D]
[
, x,
)) is the logical
))]
))]
( u, v, ))]
13.
[Ans .C]
( ))
- ,
Consider ,(
( )
( )) is FALSE, then
If (
( )
is
TRUE, and hence the entire statement is
( )) is TRUE and
TRUE. If (
,(
- is TRUE, then is TRUE,
( ))
and hence the entire statement is TRUE.
14.
[Ans .B]
( )
( )
& iv ( ( ))
Clearly, choices i and iv are equivalent.
ii
( )
( )
and iii , ( )( )
Clearly ii & iii are not equivalent to each
other or to i & iv.
15.
[Ans. D]
T
m
((G( )
w
)
)
( ))
S( ))
(D)
m
. N w
given ornament cannot be both gold and
silver at the same time.
Choice (B)
((G( ) S( ))
( )) is
incorrect.
)
)
Hence only statements 1, 2 and 3 are

equivalent.
11.
[Ans. A]
F
w
fsa, there exists a y
which is a pda and which is equivalent to
.
th
th
th
Page 295
GATE QUESTION BANK
[Ans. A]
17.
T
F
F
20.
[Ans. C]
Some real numbers are rational
( )
,
( )-
21.
[Ans. A and D]
( ))
( ( )
(
, ( )
(
)
,
, ( )
(
,
, ( )
(
(
,
)
(
T
T
T
F
F
T
F
F
~Q
~P
18.
[Ans. A]
The given statement reads,
P(x) is true whenever x is not 1 and for
every y, if there is a z such that x = y*z,
then either x = y or y = 1
In other words, P(x) is true whenever x is
prime.
19.
[Ans. B]
Let p : It rains
q : cricket match will not be played
I :
which is not a tautology.

So I is incorrect inference
[Ans. B]
(F(
))
(
F(
)), which means
there does not exist a person who can fool
every one at all times.
Which corresponds ,
) -
,(
,
-
( )
T
F
T
I :
P Q
~Q ~P
()
~P Q
(
)
~P
~Q
16.
DMGT
)C
)- Option B
)))-
22.
[Ans. D]
None of my friends are perfect
i.e., All of my friends are not perfect
((F( ) ( ))
(F( ) ( ))
( ))
(F( )
Alternatively
( )) gives there exist some of
(F( )
my friends who are perfect.
( )) there does not exists
(F( )
any friend who is perfect i.e., none of my
friends are perfect.
So (D) is correct.
23.
[Ans. D]
(A) For all x, which glitter are not gold
(B) For all x, which are gold, glitter
(C) There are few x, which are gold and
not glitter
(D) There are few x, which glitters and
not gold.
Clearly I is correct since it is in the form

of Modus Tollens (rule of contrapositive)
th
th
th
Page 296
GATE QUESTION BANK
26.
[Ans. D]
Now let us assume
m b
b m b
P statement implies that
b (
b)
Q statement implies that
b
( b )
P and Q are equivalent and the imply
each other thus option (D) is the correct
option
27.
[Ans. D]
Given statement is not all rainy days are
cold
This means all rainy days need not be cold
So there is atleast one day which is
(rainy) and (not cold)
So the representation is
( )
(
C ( ))
Option (D) is correct
T
F
T
T
T
F
F
F
T
T
T
T
T
F
T
F
T
F
F
T
F
F
F
T
F
F
F
T
T
F
F
T
F
T
F
F
F
F
F
(
(
))
[Ans. B]
25.
[Ans. B]
1. If p is false, q and r are true
( (F T) T) (F T
T)
(T T) F
T
2. If q is false, p and r are true
( (T F) T) (T F
T)
(T T) F
T
3. If r is false, p and q are true
( (T T) F) (T T
F)
(F F) T
F T
T
In all case it is giving true.
24.
DMGT
Hence this not a tautology
th
th
th
Page 297
GATE QUESTION BANK
DMGT
Combinatorics
CS - 2005
1.
What is the minimum number of ordered
pairs of non-negative numbers that
should be chosen to ensure that there are
two pairs (a, b) and (c, d) in the chosen
set such that a c mod 3 and
b d mod 5
(A) 4
(C) 16
(B) 6
(D) 24
5.
Suppose that the robot is not allowed to

traverse the line segment from (4,4) to
(5,4). With this constraint , how many
distance paths are there for the robot to
reach (10,10)starting from (0,0)
(A)
(B)
(C) ( )
(D) (
2.
Let G(x)=1/(1 x)2= g(i)

| |
. What is g(i)?
(A) i
(C) i
(B) i + 1
(D)
(B)
(
(
)
)
(C)
(D)
CS - 2007
and 5
Suppose that a robot is placed on the
Cartesian plane. At each step is allowed to
move either one unit up or one unit right,
i.e., if it is at (i, j) then it can move to
either (i
j)o (i j
)
4.
How many distinct paths are there for the
robot to reach the point (10,10) starting
from the initial position(0,0)?
(A) (
(B)
(C)
(D) None of these
( )
where
CS - 2006
3.
For each element in a set of size 2n, an
unbiased coin is tossed. The 2n coins
tosses are independent. An element is
chosen if the corresponding coin toss
were head. The probability that exactly n
elements are chosen is
(A)
CS - 2008
&7
Let Xn denote the number of binary
strings of length n that contain no
consecutive 0s.
6.
Which of the following recurrences does
Xn satisfy?
(A) Xn 2Xn1
(C) Xn X n/2 n
7.
8.
(B) Xn Xn/2 1
(D) Xn Xn1 Xn2
The value of X5 is
(A) 5
(B) 7
(C) 8
(D) 13
In how many ways can b blue balls and r

red balls be distributed in n distinct
boxes?
(A)
(B)
)(
)
(
(
(
)
)
)(
)(
(C)
(D)
(
(
)
)
CS 2014
9.
The number of distinct positive integral
factor of 2014 is __________.
th
th
th
Page 298
GATE QUESTION BANK
DMGT

1.
2.
[Ans. C]
The number of pairs ( a mod 3, b mod 5 )
is 3 5 = 15
(since a mod 3 can be 0, 1, or 2 and
b mod 5 can be 0, 1, 2, 3, or 4)
If 16 ordered pairs are chosen at least 2
of them must have (a mod 3, b mod 5) the
same (basic pigeon hole principle).
Let such two pairs be (a, b) and (c, d)
then
a mod 3 c mod 3 ac mod 3
and b mod 5 d mod 5
bd mod 5
( ) ( )
(
4.
[Ans. A]
Each path from (0,0) to (10,10) consists
of 20 steps which contains 10 horizontal
moves and 10 vertical moves. The 10
horizontal moves, we can choose in
ways.
5.
[Ans. C]
The number of paths from (0,0)to (10,10)
via the line segment from (4,4) to (5,4)
= C(8,4).C(11,5)
6.
[Ans. D]
There are only two possibilities for the
strings counted by
. First is that the
sequence ends in 1 and the second
possibility is that ending in 0. If a string
ends in 1, then the number of possibilities
for the first
bits such that there are
no consecutive 0s is
. If a n-bit string
ends in 0, then the (n 1) st bit must be 1
and the number of possibilities for the
first n 2 bits such that there are no
consecutive 0s is
.
=
3.
7.
[Ans. D]
,
[Ans. B]
(
Put n = 2
(
(i
(Since r is a dummy variable, r can be

replaced by i)
g(i)
g(i)
3.
8.
3,
,
5,
3.
[Ans. A]
The number of ways to distribute b blue
balls in n distinct boxes is equal to the
number of solutions of the equation
b,
which
is
distribution of the r red balls
is
. Since the distribution of red
balls and blue balls are independent, the
[Ans. A]
The probability that exactly n elements
are chosen
= the probability of getting n heads out
2n tosses
( ) ( )
( inomia fo mu a)
th
th
th
Page 299
GATE QUESTION BANK
required
is
9.
number
of
ways
)(
(
DMGT
)
)
[Ans. 8]
Resu t : If n is a powe of p ime
(n p ) then n has x + 1 factors (they
are ( p p p
p ))
Result 2: Every number can be written as
product of powers of primes
(n p p
p ) then by product rule
the no.of factors
)(
)
=(
(
)
The given number is 2014
2014 =
53
So the no. of integral factors
)(
)(
)
=(
th
th
th
Page 300
GATE QUESTION BANK
DMGT
Sets and Relations

CS 2005
1.
Consider the set H of all 33 matrices of
the type
[
Where a, b, c, d, e and f are real numbers

and abc
. Under the matrix
multiplication operation, the set H is
(A) a group
(B) a monoid but not a group
(C) a semigroup but not a monoid
(D) neither a group nor a semigroup
2.
3.
4.
5.
The set {1, 2, 4, 7, 8, 11, 13, 14} is a group

under multiplication modulo 15. The
inverses of 4 and 7 are respectively
(A) 3 and 13
(C) 4 and 13
(B) 2 and 11
(D) 8 and 14
Let R and S be any two equivalence
relations on a non-empty set A.
TRUE?
(A)
,
are both equivalence
relations
(B)
is an equivalence relation
(C)
is an equivalence relation
(D) Neither
nor
is an equivalence
relation
Let f:B C and g:A B be two functions
and let h=f o g . Given that h is an onto
function. Which one of the following is
TRUE?
(A) f and g should both be onto functions
(B) f should be onto but g need not be
onto
(C) g should be onto but f need not be
onto
(D) both f and g need not be onto
The following is the Hasse diagram of the
poset [{a, b, c, d, e}, ].
e
The poset is
(A) not a lattice
(B) a lattice but not a distributive lattice
(C) a distributive lattice but not a
Boolean algebra
(D) a Boolean algebra
6.
Let A, B and C be non-empty sets and let

X=(A B) C and Y=(A C) (B C).
(A) X=Y
(B)
(C)
(D) none of these
7.
Let A be a set with n elements. Let C be a

collection of distinct subsets of A such
that for any two subsets S1 and S2 in C,
either S1
S2 or S2 S1 . What is the
maximum cardinality of C?
(A) n
(C)
(B) n+1
(D) n!
8.
Let f be a function from a set A to a set B, g

is a function from B to C, and h is a
function from A to C, such that
h(a)= g(f(a)) for all a A. Which of the
following statements is always true for all
such functions f and g?
(A) g is onto h is onto
(B) h is onto
f is onto
(C) h is onto
g is onto
(D) h is onto
f and g are onto
CS - 2006
9.
Given a set of elements N=* , ,,n+ and
two arbitrary subsets A N and B N,
how many of the n! permutations from
N to N satisfy min ,(A)-= min ,(B)-,
where min (S) is the smallest integer in
the set of integers , and ( ) is the set of
integers
obtained
by
applying
permutation to each element of ?
th
th
th
Page 301
GATE QUESTION BANK
(A) (n |A B|)|A|| B|
|B| )n
(B) (|A|
|
|
(C) ! | |
(D)
10.
.|
15.
What is the cardinality of the set of

integers X defined below?
X = {n | 1 n 123, n is not divisible by
either 2, 3 or 5}
(A) 28
(C) 37
(B) 33
(D) 44
16.
Let P, Q and R be sets. Let denote the

symmetric difference operator defined as
P Q = (P Q) (P Q). Using Venn
diagrams, determine which of the
following is/are TRUE?
)=(
) (
(I) P (
)
(
)
(
) (
(II) P
=
)
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) Neither I nor II
(D) Both I and II
17.
For the set N of natural numbers and a

binary operation f: NN N, an element
z N is called an identity for f,
if f(a, z) = a = f(z, a), for all a N. Which
of the following binary operations have
an identity?
(I) f(x, y) = x + y 3
(II) f(x, y) = max(x, y)
(III) f(x, y) = xy
(A) I and III only
(B) II and III only
(C) I and II
(D) None of these
Let = * , , 3, , m+,m>3. Let

X1 ,............Xn be subsets of S each of size
3. Define a function f from S to the set
of natural numbers as, f(i) is the
number of sets
that contains the
element i. That is f(i) = |{ j|i
|}.Then
m
f (i) is
i 1
(A) 3m
(B) 3n
(C) 2m + 1
(D) 2n + 1
11.
Let X, Y, Z be sets of sizes x, y and z

respectively. Let W=X
Y and E be the
set of all subsets of W. The number of
functions from Z to E is
(C)
(A)
(B) Z
(D)
12.
A relation R is defined on ordered pairs of

integers as follows
(x, y) R (u, v) if x<u and y>v. Then R is
(A) Neither a partial order nor an
Equivalence Relation
(B) A Partial order but not a Total order
(C) A Total Order
(D) An Equivalence Relation
13.
14.
The set {1, 2, 3, 5, 7, 8, 9} under

multiplication modulo 10 is not a group.
Given below are four possible reasons.
Which one of them is false?
(A) It is not closed
(B) 2 does not have an inverse
(C) 3 does not have an inverse
(D) 8 does not have an inverse
DMGT
CS - 2007
18. How many different non-isomorphic
Abelian groups of order 4 are there?
(A) 2
(C) 4
(B) 3
(D) 5
19.
Let E, F and G be finite sets.

Let = (E F) (F G) and
Y = (E (E G)) (E F ).
Which one of the following is true ?
(A)
(B)
(C) X = Y
(D) X and
th
Consider the set S={a, b, c, d}. Consider

the following 4 partitions
, , ,
on
}, = {ab
, cd
}, = {abc
, d},
: 1={abcd
= *a, b, c, d+
Let be the partial order on the set of
partitions = ( , 2 3 , 4 ), defined
as follows: i j if and only if i
refines j . The poset diagram for ( , )
is
th
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Page 302
GATE QUESTION BANK
(A)
Consider the following ordered pairs

(i) (101,22)
(ii) (22,101)
(iii) (145,265)
(iv) (0,153)
Which of these ordered pairs of natural
numbers are contained in P.
(A) (i ) and (iii) (C) (i) and (iv)
(B) (ii) and (iv) (D) (iii) and (iv)
(B)
22.
(C)
(D)
21.
Let S be a set of n elements. The number

of ordered pairs in the largest and the
smallest equivalence relations on S are
(A) n and n
(C) n2 and 0
2
(B) n and n
(D) n and 1
Consider the set of (columm)vectors

defined by X = *x |x
x
x = ,
where x = ,x , x , x - +.
(A) *, , , - , , , , - + is a basis for
the subspace X.
(B) *, , , - , , , , - + is a linearly
independent set , but it does not span
X and therefore is not a basis of X.
(C) is not a subspace of .
CS - 2008
23. A set of Boolean connectives is
functionally complete if all Boolean
functions can be synthesized using those.
Which of the following sets of connectives
is NOT functionally complete?
(A) EX-NOR
(B) Implication, negation
(C) OR, negation
(D) NAND
24.
If P, Q, R are subsets of the universal set U,

then (P Q R) (
Q R)
is
(A)
(B) P
(C)
(D) U
25.
Consider the following Hasse diagrams.
20.
DMGT
A partial order P is defined on the set of

natural numbers as follows. Here x/y
denotes integer division.
i. (0, 0) P.
ii. (a, b) if and only a %
b%
and (a/10, b/10) P.
i.
th
th
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Page 303
GATE QUESTION BANK
28.
ii.
iii.
DMGT
Consider the binary relation

R = {(x, y),(x,z), (z,x),(z,y)} on the set
{x,y,z}. Which one the following is TRUE ?
(A) R is symmetric but NOT antisymmetric.
(B) R is NOT symmetric but antisymmetric
(C) R is both symmetric and antisymmetric
(D) R is neither symmetric nor antisymmetric
CS - 2010
29. Consider the set S = {1, ,
}, where
and
are cube roots of unity. If *
denotes the multiplication operation,
the structure {S, *} forms
(A) a group
(B) a ring
(C) an integral domain
(D) a field
30.
What is the possible number of reflexive

relations on a set of 5 elements?
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
iv.
Which all of the above represents a

lattice
(A) (i) and (iv) only
(B) (ii) and (iii) only
(C) (iii) only
(D) (i), (ii) and (iv) only
CS 2009
26. For the composition table of a cyclic
group shown below
* a b c d
a a b c d
b b a d c
c c d b a
d d c a b
Which one of the following choices is
correct?
(A) a, b are generators
(B) b, c are generators
(C) c, d are generators
(D) d, a are generators
27.
Which one of the following is NOT

necessarily a property of a Group?
(A) Commutativity
(B) Associativity
(C) Existence of inverse for every element
(D) Existence of identity
CS - 2012
31. How many onto (or surjective)
functions are there from n- element
(n2) set to a 2-element set?
(A)
(C)
)
(B)
(D) (
CS - 2013
32. A binary operation on a set of integers
is defined as y = x
. Which one
of the following statement is TURE about
?
(A) Commutative but not associative
(B) Both commutative and associative
(C) Associative but not commutative
(D) Neither commutative nor associative
CS - 2014
33. A pennant is a sequence of numbers, each
number being 1 or 2. An n-pennant is a
sequence of numbers with sum equal to n.
For example, (1,1,2) is a 4-pennant. The
set of all possible 1-pennants is {(1)}, the
set of all possible 2-pennants is {(2),
(1,1)} and the set of all 3-pennants is
{(2,1), (1,1,1), (1,2)}. Note that the
pennant (1,2) is not the same as the
pennant (2,1). The number of 10pennants is ______________.
th
th
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Page 304
GATE QUESTION BANK
34.
Let S denote the set of all functions

* , +
* , +. Denote by N the
number of functions from S to the set
{0,1}. The value of log log is ______.
35.
A non-zero polynomial f(x) of degree 3

has roots at x = 1, x = 2 and x =3. Which
one of the following must be TRUE?
(A) f( )f( )
(B) f( )f( )
(C) f( ) f( )
(D) f( ) f( )
36.
Consider the following relation on subsets

of the set of integers between 1 and 2014.
For two distinct subsets U and V of S we
say U<V if the minimum element in the
symmetric difference of the two sets is in
U.
Consider the following two statements:
S1: There is a subset of S that is larger
than every other subset.
S2: There is a subset of S that is smaller
than every other subset.
(A) Both S1 and S2 are true
(B) S1 is true and S2 is false
(C) S2 is true and S1 is false
(D) Neither S1 nor S2 is true
37.
Let and be finite sets and f:

be a
function. Which one of the following
statements is TRUE?
(A) For any subsets A and B of X,
|f(A B)| = |f(A)| |f(B)|
(B) For any subsets A and B of X,
f(A B) = f(A) (B)
(C) For any subsets A and B of X ,
|f(A B)| = min * |f(A)|,|f(B)|+
(D) For any subsets S and T of Y,
f (
T) = f ( ) f (T)
38.
Consider the set of all functions

f:* , ,,
+ * , ,,
+ such that
f(f(i)) = i, for all
i
. Consider
the following statements:
P. For each such function it must be the
case that for every i, f(i) = i.
Q. For each such function it must be the
case that for some i, f(i) = i.
R. Each such function must be onto.
DMGT

(A) P, Q and R are true
(B) Only Q and R are true
(C) Only P and Q are true
(D) Only R is true
39.
th
There are two elements x, y in a group

(G,) such that every element in the group
can be written as a product of some
number of x's and y's in some order. It is
known that
= = =
=
Where e is the identity element. The
maximum number of elements in such a
group is ____.
th
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Page 305
GATE QUESTION BANK
DMGT

1.
[Ans. A]
The set H is closed, since multiplication of
upper triangular matrices will result only
in upper triangular matrix.
Matrix multiplication is associative, i.e.
A (B C) = (A B) C.
(iii)The identity element is
I should be = [
S is reflexive.
Now, (x, y) R S
(x, y) R and (x, y) S
(y, x) R and (y, x) S (Since R and S are
symmetric)
(y, x) R S
(x, y) R S
(y, x) R S
Therefore R S is symmetric.
Now consider
(x, y) and (y, z) R S
(x, y) and (y, z) R
and (x, y) and (y, z) S
(x, z) R and (x, z)S (Since R and S are
transitive)
(x, z) R S
R S is transitive also
Since
is reflexive, symmetric and
transitive.
R S is equivalence relation.
Note: A similar argument cannot be made
for R S.
and this belongs to H as I is an upper

triangular as well as lower triangular
matrix.
If AH, then |A = abc. Since it is given that
abc 0, this means that |A 0 i.e., every
matrix belonging to H is non-singular and
has a unique inverse.
The set H along with matrix
multiplication is a group.
2.
3.
[Ans .C]
The set S = {1, 2, 4, 7, 8, 11, 13, 14} is a
group under multiplication modulo 15.
The identity element for this group is
e = 1 since, x , x mod 5 = x
Now let the inverse of 4 be
.
Therefore (
) mod 15 = e = 1
(by the definition of inverse)
ince ( ) mod 5 =
= 4 (This inverse is unique)

Similarly let the inverse of 7 be 7 .
(77 ) mod 15 = 1
(7.7 ) mod 15 =1 inverse clearly 1,2
cannot be 7
7.
5
7.
5
Putting each element of the set as 7 by
trial and error we get (7.1) mod 15= 7,
(7.2) mod 15 =14; (7.4) mod 15 = 13;
(7.7) mod 15 = 4; (7.8) mod 15 = 11;
(7.11) mod 15 = 2; (7.14) mod 15 = 8,
(7 3) mod 5 = 9 mod 5 =
7 =13
So
and 7 are respectively 4 and 13.
Correct choice is (C).
4.
[Ans. B]
Consider the arrow diagram shown below
B
C
A
g
f
a
1
b
2
3
h
h (a) = f(g (a)) =
h (b) = f(g (b)) =
Here f is onto but g is not onto, yet h is
onto.
As can be seen from the diagram for h to be
onto
f should be onto, but g need not be onto.
Answer is (B).
5.
[Ans. B]
a
[Ans. C]
R S is an equivalence relation as can be
seen from proof given below.
Let xA (x, x)R and (x, x)S(since R
and S are reflexive)
(x, x)R S also.
d
[{a, b, c, d, e+,e
th
th
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Page 306
GATE QUESTION BANK
The poset [{a, b, c, d, e},] is a lattice (since

every pair of elements has LUB and GLB)
but it is not a distributive lattice. Because
distributive lattice satisfies the following
conditions. For any x, y, z,
x (y z) = (x y) (x z)
x (y z) = (x y) (x z)
Where and are meet and join
operations respectively.
For given poset [{a, b, c, d, e}]
b (c d) = b a = b
(b c) (b d) = e e = e
So it is not distributive. (Also, the element
b has 2 complements c and d, which is not
possible in a distributive lattice, since, in a
distributive lattice, complement if exists, is
always unique). Hence it is not a Boolean
algebra.
6.
[Ans. A]
Let A denote the complement of set A.
= (A B) C = (A B ) C
= A (B C)
= (A C) (B C)
= (A C ) (B C )
= (A C ) (B C)
= (A C B ) (A C C)
= A (B C) ( A C C = )
=
7.
[Ans. B]
The set C with the subset relation is a
total order. Hence the elements of C can be
ordered as
. We have
| | | |if i j.
The longest possible chain is

= A. Hence the
maximum cardinality of C is n
.
8.
[Ans. C]
If g is not ONTO, then no way h can be
ONTO.
h is ONTO
g is ONTO.
Let A = {1}, B = {1, 2}, C = {1}, ( ) = ,
g(1) = 1, g(2) = 2, shows that h = g of need
not be ONTO even when g is ONTO.
Option A is wrong
9.
[Ans. C]
If A = B, then for any ,
min , (A)- = min, (B)-.
Hence the number of permutation which
satisfy the criterion in this special case is n
!.
Only the choice n!
DMGT
|
equal to n !. Hence
the correct answer must be n!

10.
[Ans. B]
f(i)just represents | | | |
| |, because f(i) equals the total number
of occurrences of element i in the set .
f(i) = 3n ( | | = 3).
11.
[Ans. D]
| | = x, | | = y and | | = z
Given
=
So| | = xy
|E| = | | =
So the number of distinct functions from Z to
E
= |E|| |
=( ) =
12.
[Ans. A]
(x, y) R(u, v) iff x < u and y > v
(x, x) (x, x) since x x and x x
So R is not reflexive,
R is neither a partial order, nor an
equivalence relation.
13.
[Ans. C]
Let A= {1, 2, 3, 5, 7, 8, 9}
Construct the Cayley table for any x, y A
such that
x * y = (x.y) mod 10
1 2 3 5 7 8 9
1 1 2 3 5 7 8 9
2 2 4 6 0 4 6 8
3 3 6 9 5 1 4 7
5 5 0 5 5 5 0 5
7 7 4 1 5 9 6 3
8 8 6 4 0 6 4 2
9 9 8 7 5 3 2 1
We know that 0 A. So it is not closed.
( .5)mod
A
Therefore, (A) is true.
The identity element = 1
(
) mod 10 = 1
From the table we see that
does not
exist.
Since, (3 7)mod
=
7 is the inverse of 3 and 7 A.
(C)is false
(D) is true since 8 does not have inverse.
th
th
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Page 307
GATE QUESTION BANK
14.
[Ans. C]
Consider the following Venn diagram for
= (E F) (F G)
E
Again the number of elements divisible by

5 will be in multiples of 5
i.e.,
=
elements
Total number of elements divisible by 2
and 3 or 5 is 20 + 24 = 44
16.
E
DMGT
[Ans. B]
(
)
U
= (E
(E
= (E
G))
(E
(E G))
E
F)
(E F)
F
(
)
(shaded)
So X=Y
Or alternatively the solution can be
obtained
From Boolean algebra as follows:
= (E F) (F G)
= EF FG
= EF (FG)
= EF (F
G)
= EFF
EFG
= EFG
imilarly, = (E (E G)) (E F)
= (E EG) (E F )
= E (EG) EF
= E (E
G ) EF , EE = = EG EF
= EG (EF )
= EG (E
F)
= EE G EFG
= EFG
X=Y
15.
Now
(
)is
And
[Ans. D]
=
*n|
n
3,
n is divisinle by either , 3 or 5+
The number of elements divisible 2 and 3
must be in a multiple of 6
i.e., 6, , 8, , 3 , ..
The no. of such elements =
=
th
th
th
Page 308
GATE QUESTION BANK
Now (
And
DMGT
) (
) =?
=
. . (A)
And
And
is
(
. . (B)
17.
Now (
)=
[Ans. C]
f: N N N
If f (a, z) = a = f(z, a) then on element
z N is called the identity
(i). f(x, y) = x y 3 Now f(a, y) = a y
f(y, a ) = y + a 3
Clearly f(a, y) = a = f(a, y)for y = 3 and a
And
(ii). f(x, y) = max (x, y)

Now f(a, y) = max(a, y)
and f(y, a) = max(y, a)
If we take y = 1 then f(y, a) = f(a, y) = a
always
The identity exists
(iii). f(x, y) = x
f(a, y) = a
f(y, a) = y no identity is there but
f(a, y) f(y, a )for all a N
C is correct
)=
18.
th
[Ans. A]
Let G = {e, a, b, c} be an Abelian group of
order 4, where e is the identity element and
is the group operation. ince the order of
each element divides the order of the
group, ord (a), ord (b) and ord (c) can be
either 2 or 4. If any of the orders is 4 then
the group is cyclic and hence isomorphic to
(the group {0, 1, 2, 3} under addition
modulo 4).
Otherwise, if ord (a) = ord (b) = ord (c) = 2,
then a a = b b = c c = e.
a b can only be c and similarly
th
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Page 309
GATE QUESTION BANK
b c = a and c a = b.
Hence only two non-isomorphic Abelian
groups of order 4 exist.
19.
22.
[Ans. A]
= *x
|x
x
x = ,
(x
)
where x =
,x ,x }
Let = ( , , ) ( , , )
( , , )=( , , )
Clearly ( , , )
(
)=( , , )
,
. , .
=
= }
= =
=
contains L. I vectors also
For any x
( , , )
x= ( , , )
(x , x , x ) = ( , , ) ( , , )
forms a basis for the subspace ,
(x , x , x ) = (
, , )
=
Clearly S spans X
23.
[Ans. A]
The remaining 3 sets are functionally
complete
24.
[Ans. D]
Let
A=(
= .(
[Ans. C]
A partition
is called a refinement of the
partition if every set in , is a subset of
one of the sets in .
is a refinement of , and
and are refinements of
and are not comparable since neither
is a refinement of the other.
So the poet diagram for ( , ) is
Which is choice (C).

20.
[Ans. B]
Let S be a set of n elements say
* ,
, 3,., n+. Now the smallest
equivalence relation on S must contain all
the reflexive pairs *( , ), ( , ), (3, 3) .,
(n, n)} and its cardinality is therefore n.
The largest equivalence relation on S is
S S, which has cardinality n n = n .
The largest and the smallest equivalence
relations on S have cardinalities n and n
respectively. The correct choice is (B).
DMGT
)
)/
=
= U.
25.
)
(
) ,
)
= U]
[Ans. A]
a
21.
[Ans. D]
It can be seen that ( , )
if and only if
the decimal digit of b at the 10th place is
greater than or equal to that corresponding
to , . This follows from the fact that
%
returns the decimal digit at units
place and
truncates the digit at the
units place.
The rule %
%
specifies that the
decimal digit of b at the units place must
be decimal digit of b at the units place
must be greater than or equal to that of a.
The rule (
,
)
respectively
specifies this rule for all the other digit
positions.
Hence, only (145, 265) and (0, 153) P.
It is a lattice because for each pair

supremum and infimum exists
a
is not a lattice because lub (e, d) does not

exist (b and c are not comparable).
th
th
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Page 310
GATE QUESTION BANK
27.
[Ans. A]
Group properties are closure, associativity
existence of identity and existence of
inverse for every element. Commutativity
is not required for a mathematical
structure to a group.
28.
[Ans. D]
Given, R={(x, y),(x, z),(z, x),(z, y)} on the set
{x, y, z}, here (x, y) R but x = z (y, x) R.
is not symmetric.
Also (x, z) R and (z, x) R.
is not antisymmetric.
R is neither symmetric nor anti-symmetric.
29.
[Ans. A]
{S, *} is a group. To be a ring, an integral
domain, or a field, there must be two
binary operations.
30.
[Ans. C]
Let S be a set of n elements. A relation
R
SS is reflexive if (r, r) R r S.
Each of the remaining elements of SS may
or may not be present in R. Hence the
number of reflexive relations on S is
.
When n = 5, the answer is
.
31.
[Ans. C]
Let n = 2. There are only 2 onto functions
as shown below:
f
is not a lattice since lub (e, d) does not
exist.
a
c
b
d
is a lattice since every pair has lub as well

as glb.
26.
[Ans. C]
If an element is a generator, all the
elements must be obtained as powers of
that element.
Try a, b, c, d one by one to see which are
the generators.
a=a
a = a. a = a
a = a. a = a. a = a and so on.
a is not the generator.
b=b
b = b. b = a
b = b. b = b. a = b
b = b. b = b. b = a and so on
b is not the generator
c=c
c = c. c = b
c = c. c = c. b = d
c = c. c = c. d = a
Since all of a, b, c, d have been generated as
powers of c,
c is a generator of this group.
Similarly
d=d
d = d. d = b
d = d. d = d. b = c
d = d. d = d. c = a
d is the other generator.
DMGT
For n = 2
Option (A)
=
=
Option (B)
=
=3
Option (C)
=
=
)= (
)=
Option (D) (
So only the option (C) gives the correct answer.
th
th
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Page 311
GATE QUESTION BANK
32.
33.
34.
[Ans. A]
x y=x
y
x y=y
x
As sign in commutative so x
y is
equal to y
x so x y is commutative.
Now check associativity
x (y z) = x (y
z )
(y
=x
z )
=x
y
z
y z
(x y) z = (x
y ) z
= (x
y )
z
=x
y
x y
z
x (y z) (x y) z
So not associative
Option (A) is Correct.
[Ans. *] Range 88.9 to 89.1
For 10 pennants we need to consider
minimum 5 coordinates, maximum 10
coordinates in n tuple
For 5 tuple all entries are 2 [i.e (2, 2, 2, 2,2)]
So no. of 5 tuples = 1
For 6 tuple 4 entries are 2 (remaining are
1) So no.of 6 tuples 6 = 5
1) so no.of 7 tuples 7 = 35
For 10 tuple all entries are [ie. (1, 1, 1, 1,
1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1) so no.of 10 tuples = 1]
No.of 10 pennants
=
5 35
8 9
= 89
[Ans. 16]
If |A| = m, |B| = n then the no. of functions
from A to B is
..( )
|
|
And
=
.( )
Given S is set of all function of
f: * , +
* , +
(A)
(B)
By (2) domain (A) contains elements
So S contains
function (by (1))
Given N is the no.of function from S to {0, 1}
So N =
(by( ))
So
log log N
35.
[Ans. A]
Since, the roots of f(x) = 0 i.e., x =1 2, 3
lies between 0 and 4 and f(x) is of degree 3
f( ) and f(4) are of opposite signs
f( ). f( )
.
36.
[Ans. A]
For statements , (empty set) is example
is larger than all the elements
For statement , (itself * , , .
+
is example)
S is smaller than all the elements
So option (A) is correct
37.
[Ans. D]
f:
defined by f(a) = , f(b) = ,
f(c) = where
X = *a, b, c+ = * , +
Let A = {a, c}, B = {b, c} be subsets of X
Then |f(A B)| = 2; |f(A)| = 2 ; |f(B)| = 2
f(A B) = * + f(A) = * , + f(B) = * , +
f(A) f(B) = * , +
|f(A B)| = 1
ptions (A), (B)and (C) are not true
Hence, option (D) is correct
38.
[Ans. B]
a. Since f(f(i)) = i
Every element in codomain has some
pre image. So f is onto. So R is true
b. To have this type function we can have
either
ption f(i) = i i
In this case P, Q are both true
Option 2 Take any pair x, y in
* , , .
+ and map f(x) = y, f(y) = x
Do like this for all pairs
ince * , , , .
+ contains odd of
elements, one element z will be left finally
For that element we must have f(z) = z
So in this case only Q is true
P is false
nly , are true
o option (B) is correct
39.
[Ans. 4]
Given x x = e y y = e, x y x y = e,
y x y x = e ( )
From (1) we can observe for any number
of x, ys (in any order) the result of binary
operation is e except for one x, y
[for example x y y x = x e x = x
x = e]
= log log
= log
DMGT
= 6
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GATE QUESTION BANK
DMGT
And also we can observe that the group is

abelian. So the possible elements
x
y
}
e 3
x y
And for any other combination of x, ys.
So the group contains almost 4 elements
th
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GATE QUESTION BANK
DMGT
Graph Theory
CS 2005
1.
Let G be a directed graph whose vertex set
is the set of numbers from 1 to 100. There
is an edge from a vertex i to a vertex j iff
either j = i + 1 or j = 3i. The minimum
number of edges in a path in G from
vertex 1 to vertex 100 is:
(A) 4
(C) 23
(B) 7
(D) 99
2.
3.
Let G be a simple connected planar graph

with 13 vertices and 19 edges. Then, the
number of faces in the planar embedding
of the graph is
(A) 6
(C) 9
(B) 8
(D) 13
Which one of the following graphs is NOT
planar?
CS - 2006
Common Data for Questions 4, 5, 6:
The
vertices of a graph G correspond
to all subsets of a set of size n, for n 6.
Two vertices of G are adjacent if and only
if the corresponding sets intersect in
exactly two elements.
4.
The number of vertices of degree zero in
G is
(A) 1
(C) n +1
(B) n
(D)
5.
The maximum degree of a vertex in G is

)
(C)
(A) (
(D)
(B)
6.
The number of connected components in

G is
(A) n
(C)
(B) n +2
(D)
7.
Consider the undirected graph G defined

as follows. The vertices of G are bit
strings of length n. We have an edge
between vertex u & vertex v only if u and
v differ in exactly one bit position (in
other words, v can be obtained from u by
flipping a single bit). The ratio of the
chromatic number of G to the diameter of
G is
(C) 2 / n
(A)
(D) 3 / n
(B) 1 / n
( )
( )
( )
( )
CS - 2007
8.
Which of the following graphs has an
Eulerian circuit?
(A) Any k-regular graph where k is an
even number
(B) A complete graph on 90 vertices
(C) The complement of a cycle on 25
vertices
9.
Let G be the non-planar graph with the

minimum possible number of edges.
Then G has
(A) 9 edges and 5 vertices
(B) 9 edges and 6 vertices
(C) 10 edges and 5 vertices
(D) 10 edges and 6 vertices
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GATE QUESTION BANK
CS- 2008
10. What is the chromatic number of the
following graph?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
15.
DMGT
I and II
III and IV
IV only
II and IV
Let G = (V, E) be a graph. Define

(G) = id d where
is the number of
d
(A) 2
(B) 3
11.
(C) 4
(D) 5
G is a simple undirected graph. Some

vertices of G are of odd degree. Add a
node v to G and make it adjacent to each
odd degree vertex of G. The resultant
graph is sure to be
(A) Regular
(B) Complete
(C) Hamiltonian
(D) Euler
CS - 2009
12. Which one of the following is TRUE for any
simple connected undirected graph with
more than 2 vertices?
(A) No two vertices have the same
degree
(B) At least two vertices have the same
degree
(C) At least three vertices have the same
degree
(D) All vertices have the same degree
13.
vertices of degree d in G. If S and T are

two different trees with (S) = (T), then
(A) | S | = 2| T |
(B) | S | = | T | 1
(C) | S | = | T |
(D) | S | = | T | + 1
What is the chromatic number of an

n-vertex simple connected graph which
does not contain any odd length cycle?
Assume n
(A) 2
(C) n 1
(B) 3
(D) n
CS - 2011
16. K4 and Q3 are graph with the following
structures.
K4
Q3

TRUE in relation to these graphs?
(A) K4 is planar while Q3 is not
(B) Both K4 and Q3 are planar
(C) Q3 is planar while K3 is not
(D) Neither K4 nor Q3 is planar
CS 2012
17. Let G be a simple undirected planar graph
on 10 vertices with 15 edges. If G is a
connected graph, then the number of
bounded faces in any embedding of G on
the plane is equal to
(A) 3
(C) 5
(B) 4
(D) 6
18.
Which of the
isomorphic to
following
graphs
is
CS - 2010
14. The degree sequence of a simple graph is
the sequence of the degrees of the nodes
in the graph in decreasing order. Which of
the following sequences cannot be the
degree sequence of any graph?
I. 7, 6, 5, 4, 4, 3, 2, 1
II. 6, 6, 6, 6, 3, 3, 2, 2
III. 7, 6, 6, 4, 4, 3, 2, 2
IV. 8, 7, 7, 6, 4, 2, 1, 1
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GATE QUESTION BANK
19.
( )
( )
( )
( )
Let G be a complete undirected graph on

6 vertices. If vertices of G are labeled, then
the number of distinct cycles of length 4
in G is equal to
(A) 15
(C) 90
(B) 30
(D) 360
CS - 2013
20. Which of the following statement is/are
TRUE for undirected graphs?
P: Number of odd degree vertices is even.
Q: Sum of degrees of all vertices is even
(A) P only
(B) Q only
(C) Both P and Q
(D) Neither P nor Q
21.
Consider an undirected random graph of

eight vertices. The probability that there
is an edge between a pair of vertices is
1/2. What is the expected number of
unordered cycles of length three?
(A) 1/8
(C) 7
(B) 1
(D) 8
22.
The line graph L(G) of a simple graph G is

defined as follows:
There is exactly one vertex v(e) in
L(G) for each edge e in G.
For any two edges e and e' in G, L(G)
has an edge between v(e) and v(e'), if
and only if e and e' are incident with
the same vertex in G.
Which of the following statements is/are
TRUE?
P. The line graph of a cycle is a cycle.
Q. The line graph of a clique is a clique.
R. The line graph of a planar graph is planar.
S. The line graph of a tree is a tree.
(A) P only
(B) P and R only
(C) R only
(D) P, Q and S only
DMGT
CS 2014
23. Let G=(V,E) be a directed graph where V
is the set of vertices and E is the set of
edges. Then which one of the following
graphs has the same strongly connected
components as G ?
(
)
(A)
*( ) ( )
+
(
)
(B)
*( ) ( )
+
(
)
(C)
*( )
}
(
)
(D)
is the set of
vertices in
24.
Consider the direct graph given below

P

(A) The graph does not have any
topological ordering
(B) Both PQRS and SRQP are topological
ordering
(C) Both PSRQ and SPRQ are topological
ordering
(D) PSRQ is the topological ordering
25.
Consider an undirected graph G where

self-loops are not allowed. The vertex set
of G is
*( )
+. There is
an edge between (a, b) and (c, d)
b
.T
b
of edges in this graph is __________.
26.
An ordered n tuple (
) with
is called graphic if there
exists a simple undirected graph with n
vertices having degrees
respectively. Which of the following
6-tuples is NOT graphic?
(A) (1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1)
(B) (2, 2, 2, 2, 2, 2)
(C) (3, 3, 3, 1, 0, 0)
(D) (3, 2, 1, 1, 1, 0)
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GATE QUESTION BANK
27.
The maximum number of edges in a

bipartite graph on 12 vertices is __________.
28.
A cycle on n vertices is isomorphic to its

complement. The value of n is ________.
29.
The number of distinct minimum

spanning trees for the weighted graph
below is ________
2
2
DMGT
2
1
1
2
30.
Let G be a group with 15 elements. Let L

be a subgroup of G. I
k
L
and that the size of L is at least 4. The size
of L is __________.
31.
If G is a forest with n vertices and k

connected components, how many edges
does G have?
(A) k
(B) k
(C) n k
(D) n k + 1
32.
L
vertex in a graph. For all planar graphs
following is TRUE?
(A) In any planar embedding, the
number of faces is at least
(B) In any planar embedding,
number of faces is less than
the
(C) There is a planar embedding in

which the number of faces is less
than
(D) There is a planar embedding in
which the number of faces is at most
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GATE QUESTION BANK
DMGT

1.
[Ans. B]
Since along any path, at each step the
vertex labels can atmost be triple and
since
, we must have the
shortest path length from vertex 1 to 100
greater than or equal to 5. The path
Since we want exactly 2 elements in

common, we can choose these in
ways and then we can add or not add
remaining n 3 elements.
This can be done in
ways.
Total number of subsets with at least 2
elements in common with {1, 2, 3} is
given by
and for 4 elements
subsets is
for 5 elements
subsets is
and so on.
Out of these
is less than
shows that the shortest path length is less

than or equal to 7. It can be shown that
the shortest path length cannot be 5 or 6,
hence it is 7.
2.
3.
[Ans. B]
Given V = 13, E = 19
Let R be the number of regions.
R = E V +2
Then
and
than
[Ans. A]
is same as
which is known to be
non-planar. G2, G3 and G4 can be redrawn
as follows so they are planar.
4.
[Ans. C]
The vertices of degree zero are vertex
corresponding to the empty set, and those
corresponding to the singleton sub-sets of
the given set of n elements. Hence the
number of vertices of degree 0 is n + 1.
5.
[Ans. C]
L
b S *
4
. +
Consider a subset containing 2 elements
of the form {1, 2}. Now {1, 2} will be
adjacent to any subset with which it has
exactly 2 elements in common. These sets
can be formed by adding zero or more
elements from remaining n 2 elements
to the set {1, 2}. Since each of these
elements may be either added or not
added, number of ways of making such
sets containing 1 and 2 is
.
The vertices with 2 elements will have
degrees.
Now consider the subsets of 3 elements
say {1, 2, 3}
is same as
is greater
The maximum degrees in this graph is

occurring for 3 element and 4 element
subsets both of which have
degrees which is correct answer.
6.
[Ans. B]
The number of connected components
in G is determined by the degree of
vertices and edges of vertices. There are
vertices whose degree is zero, so
they can form
connected
components. The remaining vertices of
the graph G are all connected as a single
component. So the total number of
connected component is
.
7.
[Ans. C]
The shortest distance between two
vertices u and v whose corresponding
bit strings are at hamming distance d is
of length d. Hence, the diameter of G is
n. Also, since all the paths between any
two given vertices are all of odd length
and are all of even length, we get that
the chromatic number of G is 2. Hence
the required ratio is .
8.
[Ans. A]
Any k regular graph for k (even no)
Eulerian circuit because we have a result
y
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Page 318
GATE QUESTION BANK
every vertex has even degree, then it has
And since k regular graph where k-even

number is connected and every vertex is
of even degree Option (A) is correct
9.
[Ans. B]
K5 and
are the smallest non planar
graphs. K5 has 5 vertices and
= 10
edges and
has 6 vertices and
edges. So, the non planar graph
with the minimum number of edges is
with 9 edges and 6 vertices.
Note: K5 is the non planar graph with the
minimum number of vertices.
10.
[Ans. B]
a
(B) Complete graph on 90 vertices does

not contains Euler circuit, because
every vertex has odd degree odd(89)
(C) The complement of a cycle on 25
vertices must contain Euler circuit,
where of each vertex is even (22)
13.
[Ans. A]
If a n-vertex simple connected graph
contains no cycles of odd length, then its
chromatic number is two. Since the
vertices can be alternately colored with
the first color, the second color, then the
first color and the second color and so on.
Alternatively, since a simple connected
graph with no cycles of odd length must
be bipartite, and since the chromatic
number of bipartite graph is always 2 (in
a bipartite graph each partition requires
one color there are no edges within a
partition of a bipartite graph and there
are only two partitions).
14.
[Ans. D]
The length of a degree sequence gives the
number of vertices in the corresponding
graph. All the given sequences have
length equal to 8, since graphs are simple,
no vertex can have degree more than 7.
The sequence 8, 7, 7, 6, 4, 2, 1, 1 is not
possible.
A vertex can have degree 6 when it is
connected to every other, except one.
When there are four vertices of degree six
each, then there are at most two vertices
of degree two each (if no vertex is of
degree 1), in which case other vertices
are of degree at least 4. Hence the
sequence 6, 6, 6, 6, 3, 3, 2, 2 cannot be
possible.
The other two sequences are possible.
15.
[Ans. C]
Given, ( ) =
c
d
e
Let us try to color the graph with two

colors.
From the path (a, b, c, d, e), we see that a
and e must be colored with the same
color. But this is not possible since there
is an edge between a and e. It is easy to
see that 3 colors sufficient. A pattern of
coloring is given and we can observe that
the chromatic number of the given graph
is 3.
11.
12.
[Ans. D]
A connected graph has an Euler circuit if
and only if every vertex is of even degree.
A K-regular graph has all vertices of
degree K each. Hence if K is even, a
connected K-regular graph has an Euler
circuit.
DMGT
i d = Sum of degrees
d
[Ans. C]
Whenever in a graph of vertices have
even degrees, it will surely have an Euler
circuit.
(A) Since in a k-regular graph, every
vertex has exactly k degrees and if k
is even, every vertex in the graph has
even degrees. k-regular graph need
not be connected, hence k-regular
graph may not contain Euler circuit
By handshaking lemma, ( )
where,
is the number of edges in G.
(T).
If S and T are two trees with (S)
In a tree,
S
and
T
Where |S| is the number of vertices of
tree S and |T| is the number of vertices of
tree T.
S
T
S
T
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Page 319
GATE QUESTION BANK
16.
[Ans. B]
Both the graphs are planar as can be seen
from their planar representation.
17.
[Ans. D]
n = 10
e = 15
In a simple connected planar graph,
b
regions as e
Out of this, one region is unbounded and
the other 6 are bounded.
So correct answer is 6, which is Option (D).
18.
[Ans. B]
Check invariants are one by one.
Step 1: All 4 choices have same number of
vertices and edges as given graph.
Step 2: So we find degree sequence of
given graph which is (1, 1, 2, 2, 2, 2, 2, 4).
Degree sequence of graph in option (A) is
(1, 1, 1, 2, 2, 2, 3, 4).
Degree sequence of graph in option (B) is
(1, 1, 2, 2, 2, 2, 2, 4).
Degree sequence of graph in option (C) is
(1, 1, 2, 2, 2, 2, 3, 3).
Degree sequence of graph in option (D) is
(1, 1, 2, 2, 2, 2, 2, 4).
So only options (A) and (C) are not
isomorphic to given graph, since degree
sequence of these graphs is not same as
given graph.
Step 3: Now to decide between option (B)
and (D), which one is isomorphic to given
graph, we check the number of cycles.
In given Graph there is one cycle of length 5.
But in Graph (B) has one cycle of length 5.
So only Graph (B) can be isomorphic to
given Graph.
19.
[Ans. C]
The graph given is K6
In K6, every cycle of length 4 corresponds
to selecting 4 vertices out of 6 vertices,
which can be done in
ways and then
ordering the 4 vertices in circular
permutation in 3! ways (since vertices are
labeled). So final answer is
.
DMGT
20.
[Ans. C]
P : Number of odd degree vertices is even
Q : Sum of degree of all vertices is even
Q is true.
Reason: Calculating the sum of degrees of
all vertices. Take any edge, it is joining
two vertices (not necessarily distinct),
hence contribution 2 in the sum of
degrees.
H

all vertices is 2e (is even)
Note: It is valid even in case of self loops
P is also true:
Reason: We have established that sum of
degree of all vertices is even
Let us assume, that the number of odd
degree vertices is odd, so, the
contribution of odd degree vertices in
total sum is odd
Now the contribution of even degree
vertices is also even (whether the number
is even or odd). So, total sum becomes
odd, which is not possible. Hence P is true
Note: Include vertex of degree zero in
even degree vertices.
21.
[Ans. C]
We need to find unordered cycles of
length 3 so we choose any 3 vertices from
8 vertices. This can be done in
ways.
To make a cycle we need to choose edge
between the selected vertices. The
probability of choosing any edge is 1/2.
So for three edges =
Expected no. of cycle =
22.
th
( )
[Ans. A]
L b
y .I
L( )
1. There will be an edge between two
vertices corresponding to the
adjacent edges in the cycle
2. Degree of each vertex in L(C) will be z.
3. L(C) will be connected.
Hence L(C) will also be a cycle So, (P) is True
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GATE QUESTION BANK
(Q) L n b
q
Consider line graph L(Kn).
L(Kn) has
vertices
matrix (1). Out of 144 vertices, 100

vertices are like this no.of edges for these
= 800
Out of the remaining 44 vertices, the
corner vertices [ie. (1, 1), (1, 12), (12, 1),
(12, 12)] has 3 edges as shown in matrix
(2) so 4
The remaining 40 vertices has 5 edges as
shown in matrix (3) so 4
5=200
So total no of edges
=
Since the graph is undirected no.of edges
For n>3, there will be two edges say

e1, e2
n
n
So V(e1), V(e2) will not be adjacent in
L(Kn).
Hence L(Kn) is not always a clique
(Q) is False
23.
[Ans. B]
Take an example for Graph G
.
.
A
B
Then option A and D will be eliminated.
Let G is below graph
A
B
Then
is a graph with below structure
=
26.
25.
( 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1)
(
(
(
[
)
)
)
(
(
(
)
)
)
( )
(
)
(
)
(
)
( )
(
(
(
)
)
)
(
(
(
)
)
)
(
(
(
( 1, 1)
( 0, 0)
(1, 1)
Got all zeros so graphic

Option (B)
( 2, 2, 2, 2, 2, 2)
( 1, 1, 2, 2, 2)
( 1, 1, 1, 1)
( 2, 2, 2, 1, 1)
( 1, 1, 1, 1)
( 1, 1,)
( 0, 0)
(1, 1)
[Ans. 506]
Given vertex set is
V = {(i, j)|1
}
Imagine vertex set as a matrix as follows
)
)
)
( 1, 1, 1, 1)
( 1, 1, 1, 1)
[Ans. C]
PQRS is not a topological ordering
because no edge is there from Q to R
PSRQ and SPRQ are topological
ordering because
S
Q and
Q exits
b
y y
(
(
(
[Ans. C]
Apply Havel Hakimi algorithm to the
four options
Option (A)
A
B
In G the number of strongly connected
components are 2 ,where as in
it is
only one.
24.
DMGT
Got all zeros so graphic

Option (C)
2 2 0
(3, 3, 3, 1, 0, 0)
)
)
)
(
(
(
)
)
)
)
)
)
(
(
(
)
)
)
1
(2, 2, 0, 0, 0)
(2, 2, 0, 0, 0)
(1,
0, 0)
( )
(
(
(
)
)
)
(
(
(
)
)
)
(
(
(
(4)
Got negative number. So it is not graphic

Option (C) is correct
All the vertices (except in 1st row, 1st

column, last row, last column) has 8 edges
to the neighboring vertices as shown in
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GATE QUESTION BANK
27.
[Ans. 36]
Max no.of edges in bipartite graph on n
group is not equal to given group. Thus the

order cannot be 3 or 5. Hence it is 5.
vertices is given by
.
28.
31.
[Ans. C]
If G is a tree with n vertices then
no.of edges = n 1
If G is forest (collection of trees) with k
connected components then the edges
= n k.
32.
[Ans. A]
By Euler formula
[Ans. 5]
Result 1: In a cycle graph
no.of vertices = n, edges = n
Result 2: If a graph G is isomorphic to its
complement then E(G) =
(
.( )
By Hand shaking theorem.
4=n1
n=5
29.
DMGT
( )
[Ans. 6]
In graph portion
.
,
Two
And in subgraph
2
1
From (1) we have

f=2+ev
=2+en
ST are possible
2
So no. of faces is atleast

Option (A)is answer
2
2
Three ST
2
1
possible
1
So these two sub graphs are divided by only

single edge
So total no. of ST
30.
[Ans. 5]
L
subgroup divides order of group.

3, 5, 15 can be the order of subgroup in this
problem since there are 4 elements and the
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Page 322
GATE QUESTION BANK
DBMS
ER Diagrams
CS 2005
1.
Let
and
be two entities in an ER
diagram with simple single-valued
attributes. R1 and R2 are two relationships
between
and , where R1 is
one-to-many and R2 is many-to-many. R1
and R2 do not have any attributes of their
own. What is the minimum number of
tables required to represent this situation
in the relational model?
(A) 2
(C) 4
(B) 3
(D) 5
2.
3.
The following table has two attributes A

and C where A is the primary key and C is
the foreign key referencing A with
on-delete cascade.
A C
2 4
3 4
4 3
5 2
7 2
9 5
6 4
The set of all tuples that must be
additionally
deleted
to
preserve
referential integrity when the tuple (2, 4)
is deleted is:
(A) (3,4) and (6,4)
(B) (5,2) and (7,2)
(C) (5, 2) (7, 2) and (9, 5)
(D) (3, 4) (4, 3) and (6, 4)
Consider the entities hotel room, and
person with a many to many relationship
lodging as shown below:
HotelRoom
Lodging
Person
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Person
Hotel Room
Lodging
None of these
CS - 2008
Linked Answer Questions 4 & 5
Consider the following ER diagram
4.
The minimum number of tables needed to

represent M, N, P, R1, R2 is
(A) 2
(C) 4
(B) 3
(D) 5
5.
Which of the following is a correct

attribute set for one of the tables for the
correct answer to the above question?
(A) {M1, M2, M3, P1}
(B) {M1, P1, N1, N2}
(C) {M1, P1, N1}
(D) {M1, P1}
CS - 2012
6.
Given the basic ER and relational models,
which of the following is INCORRECT?
(A) An attributes of an entity can have
more than one value
(B) An attribute of an entity can be
composite
(C) In a row of a relational table, an
attribute can have more than one
value
(D) In a row of a relational table, an
attribute can have exactly one value
or a NULL value
If we wish to store information about the

rent payment to be made by person(s)
occupying different hotel rooms, then this
information should appear as an attribute
of
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Page 323
GATE QUESTION BANK
DBMS

1.
[Ans. B]
4.
[Ans. B]
M, P Entity sets, will become tables
N Weak Entity set, will become a table
R1 Relationship set with cardinality
N:1, will not be a table
R2 Identifying Relationship set, will
not be a table
Total No of tables = 3
1) M=(M1, M2, M3, P1)
2) P =(P1, P2)
3) N =(N1, P1, N2)
5.
[Ans. A]
The correct attribute set is
{M1, M2, M3, P1}
6.
[Ans. C]
An attribute of an Entity can be atomic,
Multi-valued, and composite.
An attribute (or) column of a table
must take exactly one value (or) a NULL
value.
Option A Correct, Multivalued
Attribute
Option B Correct, Composite Attribute
Option C Incorrect, since column
cannot take multiple values
Option D Correct, column in a table
takes single value (or) NULL.
1: N
E1
E2
N: N
E1, E2 are entities will become tables

Relationship with cardinality 1:N
will not be a table
[Primary key of 1- side [E1] will be
included as foreign key of N side [E2]]
Relationship with cardinality N:N
will become a table.
Total No of tables = 3 = {E1, E2, }
2.
[Ans. C]
A
rimary key Parent column
C Foreign key Child column
C refers to A O -DELETE CASCADE,
when
parent
gets
deleted,
all
corresponding child rows will be deleted
automatically.
(2, 4) is deleted [Parent =2] (5, 2) and
(7, 2) will get deleted
(5, 2) is deleted [Parent = 5] (9, 5) will
get deleted
(9, 5) is deleted [Parent = 9]
no child
rows for parent = 9
(7, 2) is deleted [Parent = 7]
no child
rows for parent = 7
Total no. of parents deleted = {2, 5, 9, 7}
Total no. of rows deleted
= {(5, 2), (7, 2), (9, 5)}
3.
[Ans. C]
rent payment is a descriptive attribute,
because it is related to the Lodging
Relationship.
rent ayment
neither belongs to
Hotel Room nor to a Person Entity Sets.
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GATE QUESTION BANK
DBMS
Functional Dependencies & Normalization

CS 2005
1.
Which-one of the following statements
about normal forms is FALSE?
(A) BCNF is stricter than 3NF
(B) Lossless,
dependency-preserving
decomposition into 3NF is always
possible
(C) Lossless,
dependency-preserving
decomposition into BCNF is always
possible
(D) Any relation with two attributes is in
BCNF
CS - 2006
5.
The following functional dependencies
are given:
AB CD, AF D, DE F, C G, F E,
G A
Which one of the following options is
false?
(A) {CF}+ = {ACDEFG}
(B) {BG}+ = {ABCDG}
(C) {AF}+ = {ACDEFG}
(D) {AB}+ = {ABCDG}
6.
2.
Consider
a
relation
scheme
R= (A, B, C, D, E, H) on which the
following functional dependencies hold:
*A B, BC D, E C, D A+. What are the
candidate keys of R?
(A) AE, BE
(B) AE, BE, DE
(C) AEH, BEH, BCH
(D) AEH, BEH, DEH
3.
A table has fields F1, F2, F3, F4, F5 with

the following functional dependencies
F1 F3; F2 F4; (F1. F2) F5
In terms of Normalization, this table is in
(A) 1 NF
(C) 3 NF
(B) 2 NF
(D) None of these
4.
In a schema with attributes A, B, C, D and

E following set of functional dependencies
are given
A B
A C
CD E
B
D
E
A
Which of the following functional
dependencies is NOT implied by the
above set?
(A) CD AC
(C) BC CD
(B) BD CD
(D) AC BC
Consider a relation R with five attributes

V, W, X, Y and Z. The following functional
dependencies hold:
VY W, WX Z, and ZY V. which of
the following is a candidate key for R?
(A) VXZ
(C) VWXY
(B) VXY
(D) VWXYZ
CS - 2007
7.
FALSE?
(A) Any relation with two attributes is in
BCNF.
(B) A relation in which every key has
only one attribute is in 2NF.
(C) A prime attribute can be transitively
dependent on a key in a 3NF relation.
(D) A prime attribute can be transitively
dependent on a key in a BCNF
relation.
8.
Consider the following implications

relating to functional and multivalued
dependencies given below, which may or
may not be correct.
i) If A B and A C then A BC
ii) If AB and AC then A BC
iii) If A BC and A B and A C
iv) If A BC and A B and A C
Exactly how many of the above
implications are valid?
(A) 0
(C) 2
(B) 1
(D) 3
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GATE QUESTION BANK
CS - 2008
9.
Consider the following relational schemes
for a library database:
Book
(Title,
Author,
Catalog_no,
Publisher, Year, Price)
Collection (Title, Author, Catalog_no)
With
the
following
functional
dependencies:
i) Title Author Catalog_no
ii) Catalog_no Title, Author, Publisher,
Year
iii) Publisher, Title, Year Price
Assume {Author, Title} is the key for both
schemes. Which of the following
statements is true?
(A) Both Book and Collection are in
BCNF
(B) Both Book and Collection are in 3NF
only
(C) Book is in 2NF and Collection is in
3NF
(D) Both Book and Collection are in 2NF
only
CS - 2011
10. Consider a relational table with a single
record from each registered student with
the following attributes.
1. Registration_Num:
Unique
registration
number
of
each
registered student
2. UID: Unique identity number, unique
at the national level for each citizen
3. BankAccount_Num: Unique account
number at the bank. A student can
have multiple accounts or joint
accounts. This attribute stores the
primary account number
4. Name: Name of student
5. Hostel_Room: Room number of the
hostel
Which of the following options is
INCORRECT?
(A) BankAccount_Num is a candidate key
(B) Registration_Num can be a primary
key
DBMS
(C) UID is a candidate key if all students

are from the same country
(D) If S is a superkey such that SUID is
NULL then S UID is also a superkey
CS - 2012
11. Which of the following is TRUE?
(A) Every relation in 3NF is also in BCNF
(B) A relation R is in 3NF if every non-prime
attribute of R is fully functionally
dependent on every key of R
(C) Every relation in BCNF is also in 3NF
(D) No relation can be in both BCNF and
3NF
CS - 2013
and 13
Relation R has eight attributes
ABCDEFGH. Fields of R contain only
atomic values.
F={CH G, A BC, B CFH, E A,
FEG+ is a set of functional dependencies
(FDs) so that F is exactly the set of FDs
that hold for R.
12. How many candidate keys does the
relation R have?
(A) 3
(C) 5
(B) 4
(D) 6
13.
The relation R is
(A) In 1NF, but not in 2NF
(B) In 2 NF, but not in 3 NF
(C) In 3NF, but not in BCNF
(D) In BCNF
CS - 2014
14. Consider
the
relation
scheme
R = (E, F, G, H, I, J, K, L, M, N) and the set
of functional dependencies {*E, F+ *G+,
*F+ *I, J+, *E, H+ *K, L+, *K+ *M+,
*L+ *N+} on R. What is the key for R?
(A) {E, F}
(C) {E, F, H, K, L}
(B) {E, F, H}
(D) {E}
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GATE QUESTION BANK
15.
Given the following statements:

S1: A foreign key declaration can always
be replaced by an equivalent check
assertion in SQL.
S2: Given the table R(a, b, c) where a and
b together form the primary key, the
following is a valid table definition.
CREATE TABLE S (
a INTEGER,
d INTEGER,
e INTEGER,
PRIMARY KEY (d),
FOREIGN KEY (a) references R)
CORRECT?
(A) S1 is TRUE and S2 is FALSE.
(B) Both S1 and S2 are TRUE.
(C) S1 is FALSE and S2 is TRUE.
(D) Both S1 and S2 are FALSE.
16.
Given the following two statements:

S1: Every table with two single-valued
attributes is in 1NF, 2NF, 3NF and BCNF.
S2: AB C, D E, E C is a minimal
cover for the set of functional
dependencies AB C, D E, AB E,
E C.
(A) S1 is TRUE and S2 is FALSE.
(B) Both S1 and S2 are TRUE.
(C) S1 is FALSE and S2 is TRUE.
(D) Both S1 and S2 are FALSE.
17.
The maximum number of superkeys for

the relation schema R(E,F,G,H) with E as
the key is _____________.
18.
A prime attribute of a relation scheme R is

an attribute that appears
(A) in all candidate keys of R.
(B) in some candidate key of R.
(C) in a foreign key of R.
(D) only in the primary key of R.
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DBMS
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Page 327
GATE QUESTION BANK
DBMS

1.
2.
[Ans. C]
2NF, 3NF decomposition guarantees
both dependency preservation and loss
less join.
BCNF decomposition Only guarantees
loss less join.
BCNF decomposition, at times satisfies
dependency preservation and at times
not.
BCNF wont guarantee the dependency
preservation property.
Highest normal form of Relation =

Least normal form among all FDs
NF
4.
[Ans. B]
Relation = R(A, B, C, D)
F Set of FDs *( ) A B
( )AC
( ) CD E
( )BD
( ) E A+
Option (A):- CD AC Correct
( )CD E
] By transitivity
( )E A
CD A
CD C
]
] CD AC
( )A C
CD A
(By union rule)
Option (B):- BD CD
Cannot be
derived from given set of FDs
Option (C):- BCCD can be derived
(4)BD, By Augmentation rule BCCD
Option (D):- ACBC Can be derived
( )AB+By augmentation rule
AC BC
5.
[Ans. C]
Relation=R(ABCDEFG)
Set of FDs F are
[Ans. D]
Relation = R(A, B, C, D, E, H)
Set of FDs are
1)
2)
3)
4)
AB
BCD
EC
DA
A B C D E H
AEH
BEH
DEH
Candidate key = {AEH, BEH, DEH}
3.
[Ans. A]
Table has fields Simple attributes
= F1, F2, F3, F4, F5
F=set of FDs
( )F F
( )F F
]
( )F , F F
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
6)
AB CD
AF D
DE F
CG
FE
GA
A B C D E F G
ACDEFG
CF

ABCDG
BG

AF
ADEF
ABCDG
AB
As closure of AF = AF = {ADEF}
Option (C) is incorrect.
Candidate key
=(F1, F2)[F1+F2]
Prime Attribute
= {F1, F2}
Now we will assign the highest normal

form to each FD
1) FD : F F is in 1NF, since it violated
NF. F is part of key.
2) FD : F F also violated NF, since
F is part of key.
3) FD : F , F , F is in BCNF, since
(F1, F2) is key
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Page 328
GATE QUESTION BANK
6.
7.
8.
9.
[Ans. B]
Relation = R(V, W, X, Y, Z)
F Set of FDs *VY W, WX Z, ZY V+
V
W X Y Z

VXZ

VXY
Candidate key VXY
[Ans. D]
Statement (D) is false because in BCNF
relation a prime attribute cant be
transitively dependent on a key.
10.
[Ans. A]
Since students can have joint accounts,
two students can have same bank account
number. So, BankAccount_Num can not be
candidate key.
11.
[Ans. C]
A table is said to be in BCNF if it is already
in 3 NF and all determinants are keys
12.
[Ans. B]
Relation = R(ABCDEFGH)
F Set of FDs are
[Ans. C]
In DBMS, we can see that
If A B and A C then A BC
and A BC then A B and A C
Hence answer is (C).
[Ans. C]
1) Book (Title, Author, Catalog-NO,
Publisher, Year, Price)
FDs on book are
I. Title, Author Catalog-NO
II. Catalog-NO Title, Author,
Publisher, Year
III. Publisher, Title, Year Price
Key = {Author, Title}
Prime Attributes = {Author, Title}
FD1: Title, Author Catalog-NO is in
BCNF.
FD2: Catalog-NO Title, Author,
Publisher, Year has to be decomposed
FD . : Catalog-NO Title is in NF
FD . : Catalog-NO Author is in 2NF
FD . : Catalog-NO Publisher is in NF
FD . : Catalog-NO Year is in 2NF
FD3: Publisher, title, year Price is in 2NF
Book is in 2NF
2) Collection (Title, Author, Catalog-NO)
FDs on collection are
( ) Title, Author Catalog-NO
Key = {Author, Title}
Prime Attributes = {Author, Title}
FD : Title, Author Catalog-NO is in BCNF
Collection is in BCNF
[In 3NF, 2NF, 1NF also]
DBMS
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
CHG
ABC
BCFH
EA
FEG
A B
C
D E F G
CH

A

B

E

F
Candidate keys are *AD, BD, ED, FD+
13.
th
[Ans. A]
Candidate keys = {AD, BD, ED, FD}
Prime attributes = {A, B, D, E, F}
Lets assign highest Normal form to each
FD
1) CH G is in NF
2) A BC can be treated as
A B is in NF
A C is in NF,A is part of key3) B CFH can be written as
B C is in NF
B F is in NF
B H is in NF
4) E A is in NF, Since A is prime
5) F EG can be written as
F E is in NF
F G is in NF
Relation is in 1NF only.
th
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Page 329
GATE QUESTION BANK
14.
[Ans. B]
Relation = R (EFGHIJKLMN)
F Set of FDs are
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
E
EF
EFH
Key
15.
EF G
F IJ
EH KL
KM
LN
DBMS
which is a single valued attribute and it is

referencing the primary key (ab) of
relation R (a, b, c), which is a composite
key.
A single value attribute cannot refer a
composite key.
S is false
16.
[Ans. A]
S1 is true because if R(a, b) is relation
and a b is dependency then this
relation is in 1NF, 2NF, 3NF and BCNF
S2 is false because AB E cannot be
removed from minimal cover.
17.
[Ans. 8]
Given Relation = R (E, F, G, H)
Key = E
Maximum no. of Super Keys = ?
SNo SUPER KEYS
1
{E}
2
{E, F}
3
{E, G}
4
{E, H}
5
{E, F, G}
6
{E, G, H}
7
{E, F, H}
8
{E, F, G, H}
18.
[Ans. B]
Prime Attribute = Part of some candidate
key.
Relation = R (ABCDEF)
Candidate keys are {AB, CD}
Total No of prime Attributer = 4
= {A, B, C, D}
E F G H I J K L M N

EFH
[Ans. D]
S1: Manager (Name, DeptID)
Department (Dept Name, Deptid)
In a given relation Manager DeptID is a
foreign key referencing Deptid (P.K) of
relation Department.
Lets declare the foreign key by an
equivalent check assertion as follows:CREATE TABLE Manager (Name
Varchar (10),
DeptID INT (6), check (DeptID IN (select
Deptid from Department)),
PRIMARY KEY (Name));
The above use of check assertion is good
to declare the foreign key as far as
insertion is considered for relation
manager (will not insert any tuple in
Manager containing such DeptID value
which is not present in any tuple of
Department).
But the above declaration will fail to
implement changes done in Department
relation in terms of deletion & updation.
For an instance if a deptid present in
Department gets deleted, then respective
reference in Manager should also be
deleted.
S is false
S : The given table definition is not valid
due to invalid foreign key declaration.
Attribute a is declared as foreign key
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GATE QUESTION BANK
DBMS
Relational Algebra & Relational Calculus

CS - 2005
1.
Let r be a relation instance with schema
R= (A, B, C, D). We define r1=A,B,C(R)
and r2=
r Let S =r1 * r2 where *
denotes natural join. Given that the
decomposition of r into r1 and r2 is lossy,
which one of the following is TRUE?
(A) s r
(C) r s
(D) r*s=s
(B) r s=r
(B) Courses in which a proper subset of

female students are enrolled
(C) Courses in which only male students
are enrolled
5.
Consider the relation employee (name,

sex, supervisorName) with name as the
key. supervisorName-gives the name of
the supervisor of the employee under
consideration. What does the following
Tuple
Relational
Calculus
query
produce? {e name|employee e
x [ employee x
x. supervisorNamee name
x sex=male]}
(A) Names of employees with a male
supervisor
(B) Names of employees with no
immediate male subordinates
(C) Names of employees with no
immediate female subordinates
(D) Names of employees with a female
supervisor
6.
Consider a selection of the form

A100(r), where r is a relation with 1000
tuples. Assume that the attribute values
for A among the tuples are uniformly
distributed in the interval [0,500]. Which
one of the following options is the best
estimate of the number of tuples
returned by the given selection query?
(A) 50
(C) 150
(B) 100
(D) 200
7.
Consider the following relation schemas:

-Schema = ( -name, -city, assets)
a-Schema = (a-num, -name, bal)
-Schema = ( -name, a-number)
Let branch, account and depositor be
respective instances of the above
schemas. Assume that account and
CS - 2006
2.
Consider the relations r1 (P, Q, R) and
r2 (R, S, T) with primary keys P and R
respectively. The relation n contains
2000 tuples and r2 contains 2500 tuples.
The maximum size of the join r1 r2 is
(A) 2000
(C) 4500
(B) 2500
(D) 5000
3.
Which of the following relational query

languages have the same expressive
power?
(I) Relational algebra
(II) Tuple relational calculus restricted
to safe expressions
(III) Domain
relational
calculus
restricted to safe expressions
(A) II and III only
(C) I and III only
(B) I and II only
(D) I, II and III
CS - 2007
4.
Information about a collection of
students is given by the relation studInfo
(studId, name, sex). The relation enroll
(studId, CourseId) gives which student
has enrolled for (or taken) what course
(s). Assume that every course is taken by
at least one male and at least one female
student. What does the following
relational algebra expression represent?
courseld(( studld( sex=female(studInfo))
courseld(enroll)) enroll)
(A) Courses in which all the female
students are enrolled
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Page 331
GATE QUESTION BANK
depositor relations are much bigger than

the branch relation.
Consider the following query:
c-name b-city= Agra al<0 (branch
(account depositer)))
Which one of the following queries is the
most efficient version of the above
query?
(A) c-name bal< 0 b-city = Agra branch
account) depositer)
(B) c-name b- ity = Agra branch
depositer))
bal< 0 account
(C) c-name b- ity = Agra branch
b- ity = Agra al< 0 account
depositer)
(D) c-name b- ity = Agra branch
b- ity = Agra al< 0 account
depositer))
CS - 2008
8.
Let R and S be two relations with the
following schema
R(P,Q,R1, R2, R3)
S(P,Q ,S1, S2)
Where {P,Q} is the key for both schemas.
Which of the following queries are
equivalent?
I.
R S
II.
R
(S)
III.
R
(S))
P(
IV.
(R) ( P,Q (R)
(S)))
P(
(A) Only I and II
(B) Only I and III
(C) Only I, II and III
(D) Only I, III and IV
CS - 2009
9.
Let R and S be relational schemes such
that R={a, b, c} and S={c}. Now consider
the following queries on the database:
I. R-S (r) R-S R-S(r)
s R-S,S (r))
II. {t|t R-S (r) us vr
(u = v[s] t = v [R S]))}
III. {t|t R-S (r) vr us
(u = v[s] t = v [R S]))}
DBMS
IV.
Select R.a, R.b

from R, S
Where R.c = S.c
Which of the above queries
equivalent?
(A) I and II
(C) II and IV
(B) I and III
(D) III and IV
are
CS - 2010
10. The following functional dependencies
hold for relations R(A, B, C) and
S(B, D, E):
B A,
A C
The relation R contains 200 tuples and
the relation S contains 100 tuples. What
is the maximum number of tuples
possible in the natural join R S?
(A) 100
(C) 300
(B) 200
(D) 2000
CS - 2011
11. Consider a relational table r with
sufficient number of records, having
attributes A1, A2 An an let 1 p n
Two queries Q1 and Q2 are given below.
Q1: (
where c is a
)
constant
Q2:
where
and
are constants. The database can be

configured to do ordered indexing on A
or hashing on A . Which of the following
statements is TRUE?
(A) Ordered indexing will always
outperform hashing for both queries
(B) Hashing will always outperform
ordered indexing for both queries
(C) Hashing
outperform
ordered
indexing on Q1, but not on Q2
(D) Hashing will outperform ordered
indexing on Q2, but not on Q1
CS - 2012
12. Suppose R (A,B) and R (C,D) are two
relation schemas. Let r and r be the
corresponding relation instances. B is a
th
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Page 332
GATE QUESTION BANK
foreign key that refers to C in R . If data

in r and r satisfy referential integrity
constraints. Which of the following is
ALWAYS TRUE?
(A)
r
r =
(B)
r
r =
(C)
r =
r
(D)
r
r
CS - 2013
13. Consider the following relational schema.
Students (roll no: integer, sname: string)
Courses (course no: integer,
cname: string)
Registration (rollno: integer,
courseno: integer, percent: real)
Which of the following queries are
equivalent to this query in English?
Fin the istin t names of all stu ents
who score more than 90% in the course
num ere 107
(I) SELECT DISTINCT S.sname FROM
Student as S, Registration as R
WHERE R.rollno=S.rollno AND
R.courseno=107 AND
R. percent>90
(II)
Registration Stu ent

(III) {T|S stu ents R Regitration
S rollno = R rollno R.courseno
=107R per ent>90T sname
=S.sname)}
(IV) {< S > |S R < S S >
Stu ents < S 107 R >
Registration R > 90 }
(A) I, II, III and IV
(B) I, II and III only
(C) I, II and IV only
(D) II, III and IV only
DBMS
size(r(R))<size(s(S)), the join will have

fewer number of disk block accesses if
(A) relation r(R) is in the outer loop.
(B) relation s(S) is in the outer loop.
(C) join selection factor between r(R)
and s(S) is more than 0.5.
(D) join selection factor between r(R)
and s(S) is less than 0.5.
15.
What is the optimized version of the

relation
algebra
expression
r ))) where A1, A2
are sets of attri utes in r with A1 A2

and F1, F2 are Boolean expressions
based on the attributes in r?
(A)
r
(B)
r
(C)
r
(D)
r
16.
Consider the relational schema given

below, where eId of the relation
dependent is a foreign key referring to
empId of the relation employee. Assume
that every employee has at least one
associated dependent in the dependent
relation.
employee (empId, empName, empAge)
dependent(depId, eId, depName, depAge)
Consider the following relational algebra
query:
employee
employee
epen ent
The above query evaluates to the set of

empIds of employees whose age is
greater than that of
(A) some dependent.
(B) all dependents.
(C) some of his/her dependents.
(D) all of his/her dependents.
CS - 2014
14. Consider a join (relation algebra)
between relations r(R) and s(S) using
the nested loop method. There are 3
buffers each of size equal to disk block
size, out of which one buffer is reserved
for intermediate results. Assuming
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Page 333
GATE QUESTION BANK
DBMS

1.
2.
3.
4.
[Ans. C]
Relation =R(A, B, C, D)
r =
R
r =
r
As e omposition of R into r and r is
LOSSY Spurious tuples will e generate
s = r r Natural Join]
Will get r + spurious tuples
r is a proper su set of s [r s]
1 2
4
stu info 3
enroll
enroll
Selects only
girls students
Assumes that all girl students
joined in all courses
It selects the course ID in which only a proper subset
of girl students are enrolled.
[Ans. A]
It consider only pairs of tuples that have the
same value on R.
Stu i
1
stu info =
2
3
Step: 1
[Ans. D]
All given relational query language have the
same expressive power.
[Ans. B]
Every Course
Must e taken y at least
one male and at least one female student.
Let us assume there are only 2 courses
{MCA, MBA}
MCA
Course opte
y all girls + 1-boy
[3girls + 1-boy]
MBA Course opted by 2 girls + 1-boy
[2girls + 1-boy]
Let total no of students = 5,
where 3 girls 2-boys.
{A, B, C} girls
{D, E} Boys
Student info
Enroll
Stud
Name sex
Stud Course
id
id
id
1
A
F
1
MCA
2
B
F
2
MCA
3
C
F
3
MCA
4
D
M
4
MCA
5
E
M
1
MBA
2
MBA
5
MBA
Step: 2
stu info
enroll
= Stud ID
Course ID
1
MCA
1
MBA
2
MCA
2
MBA
3
MCA
3
MBA
Step: 3 Step(2) enroll
= Stud ID
Course ID
3
MBA
Step: 4
(step.3)=MBA, course in
whi h proper su set of female stu ents are
enrolled.
5.
th
[Ans. C]
employee (name, sex, supervisor name)
Foreign key
{e. name|Employee e x
[ employee (x)
x. supervisor name # e. name
x. sex= Male]}
we are using 2 tuple variables
e free tuple varia le referring employee
x Bounded tuple variable referring all the
subordinates of the selected free tuple
varia le e
Finally the formulae x F
verifying
whether all the subordinates of the
particular employee are males (or) not.
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GATE QUESTION BANK
Formulae will be true if all subordinates of

an employee are males.
Employee
Name Sex Supervisor
Name
a
M
x
M
a
y
M
a
z
M
a
b
M
u
F
b
v
M
b
1) If e name = a then x ={x y z} a will e
selected, since all his subordinates are
Males.
2) If e name = then x={u v} will not be
selected, since all his subordinates are
NOT Males.
Query returns the names of employees
with no immediate female subordinates.
6.
7.
[Ans. D]
Given:
There are 100 tuples
These are uniformly distributed, in the
interval [0,500]
So for values A100 There will e 200
tuples returned by the given selected query.
R
P
1
2
4
(1)
S =
Q
a
c
d
3 rows created
Row:1 P&Q are same
Row:2 Only P same
Row:3 Only Q same
P Q
1 a
P
= 1
= 1
S =
s )=
P Q
1 a
P
= 1
P Q
1 a
P
= 1
S ))
Queries (1),(3) and (4) are equivalent,

because they all are operating on complete
key (PQ). Where are Query (2) considering
only part of key (P), hence it is different.
9.
[Ans. C]
II and IV are equivalent.
10.
[Ans. A]
R (A, B, C) and S (B, D, E)
F= Set of FDs = {B A A
B is the key for R A B
R
A B C =200rows B
Key = B
Parent table = R
Parent column =B
8.
Q
a
b
d
( ran h
a ount
epsitor )
Most efficient version of this query.
a ount
P
1
2
3
[Ans. B]
b - Schema = (b-name, b-city, assets)
a - Schema = (a-num, b-name, bal)
d - Schema = (c-name, a-number)
DBMS
C}
C
S
D E
=100rows
Child table = S
Child column = B
Max rows of R S
= Max always from the child table only.
= 100 rows
100 rows
200 rows
Employee
Dept
eno ename dno
dno
dname
1
D1
D1
2
D1
D2
:
:
100
D20
D200
Child table =
Primary key =
Employee foreign
dno
key = dno
parent table =
Dept
ran h
epositor )
[Ans. D]
R (P, Q, R1, R2, R3)
S (P, Q, S1, S2)
Key= P+Q for oth ta les
omposite key
Let us consider the following instances:-
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GATE QUESTION BANK
Emp Dept Maximum rows

= All Employee = 100 rows.
Maximum rows of natural join = Total no.
of rows from child table.
11.
[Ans. C]
If records are accessed for a particular value
from table, hashing will do better. If records
are accessed in a range of values, ordered
indexing will perform better.
12.
[Ans. A]
R AB
R CD
B is a foreign key & referring to C & C is a
candidate key.
So,
r
r =
13.
[Ans. A]
Find the distinct names of all students who
score more than 90% in the course no. 107
1. SQL query
Condition would give all s.name having
score > 90 and attending course no. 107
and DISTINCT S.sname will give distinct
student names
TRUE
2. Relational algebra
gives projection of all students
meeting the on ition an gives
DISTINCT value
TRUE
3. Tuple calculus gives DISTINCT student
name having score > 90 and course no is
107
TRUE
4. Domain calculus
Domain calculus is equivalent to
relational algebra and provide distinct
value for the query
TRUE
14.
DBMS
Let r(A,B,C) = 30,000 rows 25 rows fit in

1-block Total Blocks required for
r = 1200 lo ks
S(C,D,E) = 60,000 rows 30 rows fit in 1block Total Blocks reqd for
s =2000 lo ks
If' r is use as the outer relation:r requires 30000/25 = 1200 lo ks of
storage and s requires
(60000/30) = 2000 blocks of storage. The
formula for number of block accesses is
(nr bs + br) i.e. 30000 2000+1200 =
60,001,200 disk accesses are required for a
nested loop join.
If s is use as the outer relation:The formula for number of block accesses is
(ns br + bs) i.e. 60000 1200+2000 =
72,002,000.
So the numbers of block accesses are less if
r is use outsi e
15.
[Ans. A]
=
16.
r )))
r
(
r )))
r )
[Ans. D]
Every employee
has at least one
dependent.
EMPLOYEE
empId empName empAge
1
A
50
2
B
60
3
C
70
DEPENDENT
depId
eId
depName depAge
D1
1
X
30
D2
1
Y
40
D3
2
Z
50
D4
2
U
80
D5
3
V
90
D6
3
W
100
Empi =1 An employee having 2 younger
dependents [empAge > depAge]
[Ans. A]
As Size(r(R)) < Size (s(S)), let us consider
the following illustration
Consider these relations with the following
properties:
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GATE QUESTION BANK
DBMS
Empi = 2
An employee having 1
younger & 1 older dependent
[empAge < depAge]
Empi = 3
An employee having 2 ol er
dependents [empAge < depAge]
employee
employee
employee
employee
epen ent
returns {1 2 3} employee i s
epen ent
returns {2 3}
Final Answer {1, 2, 3} {2 3} = {1}
Employee whose age is greater than all his
dependents.
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GATE QUESTION BANK
DBMS
SQL
CS - 2005
1.
The relation book (title, price) contains
the titles and prices of different books.
Assuming that no two books have the
same price, what does the following SQL
query list?
select title
from book as B
where (select count (*) from book as T
where T.price>B. Price) < 5
(A) Titles of the four most expensive
books
(B) Title of the fifth most inexpensive
book
(C) Title of the fifth most expensive book
(D) Titles of the five most expensive
books
2.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
3.
Do not supply any item

Supply exactly one item
Supply one or more items
Supply two or more items
A table student with schema (roll, name,

hostel, marks) and another table hobby
with schema (roll, hobbyname) contains
records as shown below.
Table student
Roll
Name
Hostel Marks
1798 Manoj Rathod
7
95
2154 Soumic Banerjee
5
68
2369 Gumma Reddy
7
86
2581 Pradeep Pendse
6
92
2643 Suhas Kulkarni
5
78
2711 Nitin Kadam
8
72
2872 Kiran Vora
5
92
2926 Manoj Kunkalikar
5
94
2959 Hemant Karkhanis
7
88
3125 Rajesh Doshi
5
82
In an inventory management system

implemented at a trading corporation,
there are several tables designed to hold
all the information. Amongst these, the
following two tables hold information on
which items are supplied by which
suppliers, and which warehouse keeps
which items along with the stock-level of
these items.
Supply = (supplierid, itemcode)
Inventory = (itemcode, warehouse,
stocklevel)
For a specific information required by the
management, following SQL query has
been written.
Select distinct STMP supplierid
From supply as STMP
Where not unique
(Select ITMP. supplierid
From Inventory, Supply as ITMP
Where STMP.supplierid= ITMP. supplierid
and ITMP.itemcode= Inventory. itemcode
and Inventory. warehouse = Nagpur);
For the warehouse at Nagpur, this query
will find all suppliers who
Table hobby
Roll
Hobby name
1798 chess
1798 music
2154 music
2369 swimming
2581 cricket
2643 chess
2643 hockey
2711 volleyball
2872 football
2926 cricket
2959 photography
3125 music
3125 chess
The following SQL query is executed on
the above tables:
select hostel
from student natural join hobby
where marks > = 75 and roll between
2000 and 3000;
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GATE QUESTION BANK
Relations S and H with the same schema

as those of these two tables respectively
contain the same information as tuples. A
new relation S is obtained by the
following relational algebra operation:
S =
( .
.
(S)) (H))
(
The difference between the number of
rows output by the SQL statement and the
number of tuples in S is
(A) 6
(C) 2
(B) 4
(D) 0
DBMS
in decreasing balance order and

assigning ranks using ODBC
Which two of the above statements are
correct?
(A) 2 and 5
(C) 1 and 4
(B) 1 and 3
(D) 3 and 5
5.
Consider the relation enrolled (student,

course) in which (student, course) is the
primary key, and the relation paid
(student, amount) where student is the
primary key. Assume no null values and
no foreign keys or integrity constraints.
Given the following four queries:
Query 1: Select student from enrolled
where student in (Select student from
paid)
Query 2: Select student from paid where
student in (Select student from enrolled)
Query 3: Select E. student from enrolled E,
paid P where E. student = P. student
Query 4: Select student from paid where
exists (select * from enrolled where
enrolled. student = paid. student)
correct?
(A) All queries return identical row sets
for any database
(B) Query 2 and Query 4 return identical
row sets for all databases but there
exist databases for which Query 1
and Query 2 return different row
sets
(C) There exist databases for which
Query 3 returns strictly fewer rows
than Query 2
(D) There exist databases for which
Query 4 will encounter an integrity
violation at runtime.
CS - 2006
4.
Consider the relation account (customer,
balance) where customer is a primary key
and there are no null values. We would
like to rank customers according to
decreasing balance. The customer with
the largest balance gets rank 1. Ties are
not broken but ranks are skipped: if
exactly two customers have the largest
balance they each get rank 1 and rank 2 is
not assigned.
Query 1: Select A. customer,
count (B. customer) from account A,
account B where
A. balance < = B. balance group by
A. customer
Query 2: Select A. customer,
1+ count (B. customer) from account A,
account B where A. balance< B. balance
group by A. customer
Consider these statements about Query 1
and Query 2.
1. Query 1 will produce the same row
set as Query 2 for some but not all
databases.
2. Both Query 1 and Query 2 are correct
implementations of the specification
3. Query 1 is a correct implementation
of the specification but Query 2 is not
4. Neither Query 1 nor Query 2 is a
correct implementation of the
specification
5. Assigning rank with a pure relational
query takes less time than scanning

and 7
Consider a database with three relation
instances shown below. The primary keys
for the Drivers and Cars relations are did
and cid respectively and the records are
stored in ascending order of these
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GATE QUESTION BANK
primary keys as given in the tables. No

indexing is available in the database.
D: Drivers relation
did
dname
rating age
22 Karthikeyan
7
25
29
Salman
1
33
31
Boris
8
55
32
Amoldt
8
25
58 Schumacher
10
35
64
Sachin
7
35
71
Senna
10
16
74
Sachin
9
35
85
Rahul
3
25
95
Ralph
3
53
R : Reserves relation
did cid
day
22 101 10/10/06
22 102 10/10/06
22 103 08/10/06
22 104 07/10/06
31 102 10/11/06
31 103 06/11/06
31 104 12/11/06
64 101 05/09/06
64 102 08/09/06
74 103 08/09/06
C : Cars relation
cid cname colour
101 Renault blue
102 Renault
red
103 Ferrari green
104 Jaguar
red
6.
What is the output of the following SQL

query?
Select D.dname
from Drivers D
where D.did in (select R. did
from Cars C, Reserves R
where R. cid = C.cid
and C. color = red
intersect
select R. did
from Cars C, Reserves R
where R. cid = C.cid and
DBMS
C.color = green)
(A) Karthikeyan, Boris
(B) Sachin, Salman
(C) Karthikeyan, Boris, Sachin
(D) Schumacher, Senna
7.
Let n be the number of comparisons

performed when the above SQL query is
optimally executed. If linear search is
used to locate a tuple in a relation using
primary key, then n lies in the range
(A) 36 40
(C) 60 64
(B) 44 48
(D) 100 104
CS - 2007
8.
Consider the table employee (empId,
name, department, salary) and the two
queries Q1, Q2 below. Assuming that
department 5 has more than one
employee, and we want to find the
employees who get higher salary than
anyone in the department 5, which one of
the statements is TRUE for any arbitrary
employee table?
Q1: Select e.empId
From employee e
Where not exists
(Select * From employee s Where
s.department = 5 and
s.salary>=e.salary)
Q2: Select e. empId
From employee e
Where e. salary > Any
(Select distinct salary From employee s
Where s.department = 5)
(A) Q1 is the correct query.
(B) Q2 is the correct query.
(C) Both Q1 and Q2 produce the same
answer
(D) Neither Q1 nor Q2 is the correct
query
CS - 2008
Common Data for Questions 9 &10
Consider the following relational schema:
Student (school-id, sch-roll-no, sname,
saddress)
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Page 340
GATE QUESTION BANK
School (school-id, sch-name, sch-address,

sch-phone)
Enrolment (school-id, sch-roll-no, erollno,
exam name)
Exam Result (erollno, exam name, marks)
9.
10.
What does the following SQL query

output?
SELECT
sch - name, COUNT (*)
FROM
School C, Enrolment E,
Exam Result R
WHERE
E. school id = C.school-id
AND
E. exam name = R. exam name
AND
E. Erollno = R.erollno
AND
R.marks = 100 AND S.school-id IN
(SELECT school-id
FROM student
GROUP BY school-id
HAVING COUNT (*) > 200)
GROUP BY school-id
(A) For each school with more than 200
students appearing in exams, the
name of the school and the number
of 100s scored by its students
(B) For each school with more than 200
students in it, the name of the school
and the number of 100s scored by its
students
(C) For each school with more than 200
students in it, the name of the school
and the number of its students
scoring 100 in at least one exam
(D) Nothing; the query has a syntax error
Consider the following tuple relational
calculus query.
{t | E Enrolment t= E. school id
| {x x Enrolment x. school id
= t ( B ExamResult
. erollno = x. erollno
B. exam name = x. exam name
. marks 35)+
| {x | x Enrolment x. school-id = t+
100> 35}
DBMS
If a student needs to score more than 35

marks to pass an exam, what does the
query return?
(A) The empty set
(B) Schools with more than 35% of its
students enrolled in some exam or
the other
(C) Schools with a pass percentage
above 35% over all exams taken
together
(D) Schools with a pass percentage
above 35% over each exam
CS - 2009
Common data for Questions 11 and 12
Suppliers (sid: integer, sname: string,
city:string, street: string)
Parts (pid:integer, pname: string,
color:string)
Catalog (sid:integer, pid:integer,
cost: real)
11. Consider the following relational query
on the above database:
SELECT S.sname
FROM Suppliers S
WHERE S.sid NOT IN (SELECT C. sid
FROM Catalog C
WHERE C.pid NOT IN (SELECT P.pid
FROM Parts P
WHERE P.color<> blue))
Assume that relations corresponding to
the above schema are not empty. Which
one of the following is the correct
interpretation of the above query?
(A) Find the names of all suppliers who
have supplied a non-blue part
(B) Find the names of all suppliers who
have not supplied a non-blue part
(C) Find the names of all suppliers who
have supplied only blue parts
(D) Find the names of all suppliers who
have not supplied only blue part
12.
th
Assume that, in the suppliers relation

above, each supplier and each street
within a city has a unique name, and
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Page 341
GATE QUESTION BANK
(sname, city) forms a candidate key. No

other functional dependencies are
implied other than those implied by
primary and candidate keys. Which one of
the following is TRUE about the above
schema?
(A) The schema is in BCNF
(B) The schema is in 3NF but not in
BCNF
(C) The schema is in 2NF but not in 3 NF
(D) The schema is not in 2NF
CS - 2010
13. A relational schema for a train
reservation database is given below.
Passenger (pid, pname, age)
Reservation (pid, class, tid)
Table: Passenger
pid
pname
Age
0
Sachin
65
1
Rahul
66
2
Sourav
67
3
Anil
69
Table: Reservation
pid
class
tid
0
AC
8200
1
AC
8201
2
SC
8201
5
AC
8203
1
SC
8204
3
AC
8202
What pids are returned by the following
SQL query for the above instance of the
tables?
SELECT pid
FROM
Reservation
WHERE class = AC AND
EXISTS (SELECT *
FROM Passenger
WHERE age > 65 AND
Passenger.pid = Reservation.pid)
(A) 1, 0
(C) 1, 3
(B) 1, 2
(D) 1, 5
DBMS
CS - 2011
14. Database table by name Loan_Records is
given below.
Borrower
Bank_
Loan_
Manager
Amount
Ramesh Sunderajan 10000.00
Suresh
Ramgopal 5000.00
Mahesh Sunderajan 7000.00
What is the output of the following SQL
query?
SELECT count(*)
FROM
(SELECT Borrower, Bank_Manager FROM
Loan_Records) AS S
NATURAL JOIN
(SELECT Bank_Manager, Loan_Amount
FROM Loan_Records) AS T);
(A) 3
(C) 5
(B) 9
(D) 6
15.
Consider a database table T containing

two columns X and Y each of type integer.
After the creation of the table, one record
(X = 1, Y = l) is inserted in the table.
Let MX and MY denote the respective
maximum values of X and Y among all
records in the table at any point in time.
Using MX and MY, new records are
inserted in the table 128 times with X
and Y values being MX +1, 2*MY + 1
respectively. It may be noted that each
time after the insertion, values of MX and
MY change.
What will be the output of the following
SQL query after the steps mentioned above
are carried out?
SELECT Y FROM T WHERE X=7;
(A) 127
(C) 129
(B) 255
(D) 257
CS - 2012
16. Which of the following statements are
TRUE about an SQL query?
P: An SQL query can contain a HAVING
clause even if it does not a GROUP BY
clause
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Page 342
GATE QUESTION BANK
Q: An SQL query can contain a HAVING

clause only if it has a GROUP BY clause
R: All attributes used in the GROUP BY
clause must appear in the SELECT clause
S: Not all attributes used in the GROUP BY
clause need to apper in the SELECT clause
(A) P and R
(C) Q and R
(B) P and S
(D) Q and S
departments(dept-id,
dept-name,
manager-id, location-id)
You want to display the last names and
hire dates of all latest hires in their
respective departments in the location ID
1700. You issue the following query:
SQL>SELECT last-name, hire-date
FROM employees
WHERE (dept-id, hire-date) IN
(SELECT dept-id, MAX(hire-date)
FROM employees JOIN departments
USING(dept-id)
WHERE location-id = 1700
GROUP BY dept-id);
What is the outcome?
(A) It executes but does not give the
correct result.
(B) It executes and gives the correct
result.
(C) It generates an error because of
pairwise comparison.
(D) It generates an error because the
GROUP BY clause cannot be used
with table joins in a sub- query.
Common Data for Questions 17 and 18

Consider the following relation A, B & C.
A. Id
Name Age
12
Arun
60
15 Shreya 24
99
Rohit
11
B.
Id
15
25
98
99
Name
Shreya
Hari
Rohit
Rohit
Age
24
40
20
11
C.
Id
10
99
Phone
2200
2100
Area
02
01
17.
How many tuples does the result of the

following relational algebra expression
contain? Assume that the schema of A
is the same as that of A.
(A ) .
C
.
(A) 7
(C) 5
(B) 4
(D) 9
18.
How many tuples does the result of the

following SQL query contains?
SELECT A.Id
FROM A
WHERE A.Age>All (SELECT B.Age FROM
B WHERE . name = Arun)
(A) 4
(C) 0
(B) 3
(D) 1
DBMS
20.
SQL allows duplicate tuples in relations,

and
correspondingly
defines
the
multiplicity of tuples in the result of joins.
Which one of the following queries
always gives the same answer as the
nested query shown below:
select * from R where a in (select S.a from
S)
(A) Select R.* from R, S where R.a=S.a
(B) Select distinct R.* from R,S where
R.a=S.a
(C) Select R.* from R,(select distinct a
from S) as S1 where R.a=S1.a
(D) Select R.* from R,S where R.a=S.a
and is unique R
21.

employee(empId,empName,empDept)
customer(custId,custName,salesRepId,
rating)
salesRepId is a foreign key referring to
empId of the employee relation. Assume
CS - 2014
19. Given the following schema:
employees (emp-id, first-name,
last-name, hire-date, dept-id, salary)
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Page 343
GATE QUESTION BANK
8.7
19
Ganesh
8765
ganesh@civil
9.3
18
Swati
9876
swati@mech
9.4
19
Shankar
7853
shankar@cse
9.5
19
Swati
1287
swati@ee
X
Shankar
2345
shankar@math
Student
Age
Student
Name
Student Email
9.4
Given an instance of the STUDENTS

relation as shown below:
CPI
22.
Student
ID
that each employee makes a sale to at

least one customer. What does the
following query return?
SELECT empName
FROM employee E
WHERE NOT EXISTS (SELECT custId
FROM customer C
WHERE C.salesRepId = E.empId
AND C.rating< GOOD);
(A) Names of all the employees with at
least one of their customers having a
GOOD rating.
(B) Names of all the employees with at
most one of their customers having a
GOOD rating.
(C) Names of all the employees with
none of their customers having a
GOOD rating.
(D) Names of all the employees with all
their customers having a GOOD
rating.
DBMS
For (StudentName, StudentAge) to be a

key for this instance, the value X should
NOT be equal to ________
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Page 344
GATE QUESTION BANK
DBMS

1.
[Ans. D]
No two books will have same price.
Let us consider the table as follows:TITLE PRICE
T1
100
T2
200
T3
300
T4
400
T5
500
T6
600
As the given Query is a Correlated Sub
Query, Outer Query executes first and
Inner Query executes second and executes
once for each row written by the outer
query.
SELECT title From book as B
Final Result Rows from the Outer Query

where Condition is Satisfied.
TITLE
T1
T2
T3
Query returns the titles
T4
Of 5 most expensive books
T5
T6
2.
[Ans. D]
SUPPLY
Supplierid Item
code
S1
I1
S1
I2
S1
I3
S2
I4
S2
I5
S3
I6
TITLE
T1
T2
T3
T4
T5
T6
WHERE (SELECT count(*) FROM book as
T WHERE T.price > B.price)<5
INNER QUERY
SELECT count (*) FROM
book as T WHERE
T.price > 100;=5
book as T WHERE
T.price > 200;=4
book as T WHERE
T.price > 300;=3
book as T WHERE
T.price > 400;=2
book as T WHERE
T.price > 500;=1
book as T WHERE
T.price > 600;=0
<5
<5
Item
Code
I1
I2
I3
I4
I5
I6
Result
Not
Qualified
<5
Qualified
<5
Qualified
<5
Qualified
<5
Qualified
<5
Qualified
INVENTORY
Ware
house
Nagpur
Nagpur
Nagpur
Nagpur
Nagpur
Nagpur
Stock
level
S1 Supplier has 3-items [I1, I2, I3,] at

Nagpur Warehouse
S2 Supplier has 2-items [I4,I5] at
Nagpur Warehouse
S3 Supplier has 1-item [I6] at Nagpur
Warehouse
SELECT distinct STMP. supplierid
FROM supply as STMP
TITLE
S1
S2
S3
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Page 345
GATE QUESTION BANK
WHERE NOT UNIQUE

(SELECT ITMP. supplierid FROM inventory,
supply as ITMP WHERE ITMP. supplierid =
STMP. supplierid AND ITMP. itemcode =
Inventory. itemcode AND inventory. warehouse
= Nagpur),
INNER QUERY
OUT
PUT
NOT
UNIQUE
Query: 2
S =
( .
.
(S)) (H))
(
returns only DISTINCT rows
= 3 rows {7, 6, 5}
Final Answer = Difference in no. of rows =
4 rows
4.
[Ans. C]
Table A
Customer
Balance
1
10
2
20
3
10
4
15
SELECT ITMP.supplierid
3-rows
Qualified
FROM Inventory,supply as ITMP {I1, I2,I3}
WHERE ITMP.supplierid = S1
AND
ITMP.itemcode =
Inventory.itemcode
AND
inventory.warehouse
=Nagpur;
2-rows
FROM Inventory, supply as ITMP{I4, I5}
WHERE ITMP.supplierid = S2
AND
ITMP.itemcode =
Inventory.itemcode
AND
Inventory.warehouse
=Nagpur;
1-row
FROM Inventory,supply as ITMP {I6}
WHER ITMP.supplierid = S3
AND
ITMP.itemcode =
Inventory.itemcode
AND
Inventory.warehouse
= Nagpur;
DBMS
Qualified
Table B
Customer Balance
1
10
2
20
3
10
4
15
Not
Qualified
Output of Query 1
Customer
Count (B. Customer)
1
4
2
1
3
4
4
2
Final Result = *S1, S2+ suppliers are selected

Suppliers supplying 2(or) more items
3.
[Ans. B]
Student Natural Join Hobby WHERE
Marks> =75 AND roll BETWEEN 2000 AND 3000
Roll Name
Hostel Marks Habby Name
2369 Gumma Reddy
7
86
Swimming
2581 Pradeep Pendse 6
92
Cricket
2643 Suhas Kulkarni
5
78
Chess
2643 Suhas Kulkarni
5
78
Hockey
2872 Kiran Vora
5
92
Football
2926 Manoj
5
94
Cricket
Kunkalikar
2959 Hemant
7
88
Photography
Karkhanis
Query: 1
SELECT hostel
FROM
student NATURAL JOIN hobby
WHERE marks > = 75
AND
roll BETWEEN 2000 AND 3000;
returns 7 rows *7, 6, 5, 5, 5, 5, 7+
Output of Query 2
Customer
Count (B. Customer)
1
3
2
1
3
3
4
2
If there are no duplicates of balance then
they produce same row set else not (See
table above). Both are not producing
desired output.
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Page 346
GATE QUESTION BANK
5.
[Ans. B]
PAID
Student Amount
1
2000
Primary Key =
Student
When R.cid = c.cid and c.colour = Red

Table - 2
did
cid
day
22
102
10/10/06
22
104
07/10/06
31
102
10/11/06
31
104
12/11/06
64
102
08/09/06
Table 1 Table 2 gives 2 values of did =
22 and 31
With these values in driver relation
gives KarthiKeyan and Boris.
ENROLLED
Student
Course
1
MCA
1
MBA
Primary Key =
Student + Course
Query 1:- SELECT student

FROM enrolled
WHERE student in (SELECT
student FROM Paid)
returns 2 rows *1, 1+
Query 2:- SELECT Student
FROM Paid
WHERE student in (SELECT
Student FROM
enrolled)
returns 1 rows *1+
7.
[Ans. C]
Counting the number of comparisions
leads to approximately 62.
8.
[Ans. B]
EMPLOYEE
Empid
Name
Dept
Salary
1
A
5
1000
2
B
5
2000
3
C
4
3000
4
D
4
1500
5
E
4
500
We want to find employees who get higher
salary than anyone in the department 5
Correct Output for the above query on the
given data would be employees {2, 3, 4}
Q1:- SELECT e. empId
FROM employee e
WHERE not exists (SELECT *
FROM employee s
WHERE
s.department=5 and
s.salary >=e.salary);
returns rows *2, 3+
Query 3:- SELECT e.student

FROM enrolled e, paid p
WHERE e.student = p. student,
returns 2 rows *1, 1+
Query4:- SELECT
FROM
WHERE
student
paid
EXISTS (SELECT * FROM
enrolled WHERE
enrolled. student
= paid. student),
returns 1 rows *1+
Final Result = Query 2 and Query 4
returns identical row sets for all
databases, but there exist database for
which Query 1 and Query 2 return
different row sets on the relations.
6.
DBMS
[Ans. A]
When R.cid = c.cid and c.colour = Green
Table - 1
did
cid
day
22
103
08/10/06
31
103
06/11/06
74
103
08/09/06
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GATE QUESTION BANK

e.emp
Id
INNER QUERY
OUT
PUT
NOT
EXISTS
11.
[Ans. *](Answer is not matching with IIT

keys)
SUPPLIERS
Sid Sname
City Street
S1 A
S2 B
S3 C
SELECT * FROM
1 row Not
employee s
Qualified
WHERE s. department
=5 and s.salary>=1000;
SELECT * FROM
No rows Qualified
employee s
WHERE s. department =5
and s.salary>=2000;
SELECT * FROM
No rows Qualified
employee s
WHERE s.department =5
and s.salary >=3000;
SELECT * FROM
1 row Not
employee s
Qualified
WHERE s. department=5
and s.salary >=1500;
SELECT * FROM
2 rows Not
employee s
Qualified
WHERE s. department=5
and s.salary >=500;
Q2:-
Sid
S1
S1
S2
S2
S3
S3
10.
SELECT
FROM
WHERE
[Ans. D]
If SELECT clause consists aggregate and
non aggregate. All non-aggregate
columns in the SELECT list must appear in
Group by clause. But in this query Group
by consists school_id instead of sch_name
[Ans. C]
Here, we used division operator.
Numerator produces all who scores more
than 35 marks, denominator checks all
exams. Hence it produces pass percentage
above 35% over all exams taken together.
PARTS
Pname
Color
Blue
Blue
Blue
Green
Green
Green
Pid
P1
P2
P3
P4
P5
P6
e. empId
employee E
e.salary
>
ANY
(SELECT
distinct
salary
FROM
employee s WHERE
s.department=5);
returns *2, 3, 4+ employees
Final Answer = Only Q2 is giving the correct
result
9.
DBMS
CATALOG
Pid
Cost
P1
P2
P3
P4
P5
P6
S1 Supplier supplying only lue parts,

[P1, P2]
S2 Supplier supplying both Blue &
Green parts. [P3, P4]
S3 Supplier supplying only Green parts,
[P5, P6]
Initial Query
SELECT
S.sname
FROM
Suppliers S
WHERE
S.sid NOT IN (SELECT C.sid
FROM Catalog C
WHERE C.pid NOT IN (SELECT
P.pid FROM Parts P
WHERE P.colour< blue));
After execution of second inner query:SELECT S.sname
FROM Suppliers S
WHERE S.sid NOT IN (SELECT C.sid
FROM Catalog C
WHERE C.pid NOT
IN (P4, P5, P6);
Main Query returns output as {S3}
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GATE QUESTION BANK
After execution of first inner query:SELECT S.sname

FROM
Suppliers S
WHERE S.sid NOT IN(S1, S1, S2);
Final Answer = Names of Suppliers who
supplies Only non-blue parts
12.
[Ans. B]
pid is a primary key, sname and city are
candidate keys. Hence all are prime
attributes and there is a relationship
between prime attributes hence it is not in
BCNF but in 3 NF
13.
[Ans. C]
In the given SQL query, we have to select
the pid in which the value of class filed is
AC. In the reservation table and age> 65
and the value of
passenger.pid= reservation.pid
So according to SQL Query
In this WHERE class = AC
So it select the pid = 0, 1, 5, 3 and for
SELECT *FROM passenger where age>65
and
Passenger.pid = reservation.pid from
passenger table we get the
Pid Pname Age
1
Rahul
66
2
Sourav 67
3
Anil
69
S Natural Join T
Borrower Bank Manager Loan Amount
Ramesh
Sunderajan 10000.00
Ramesh
Sunderajan 7000.00
Suresh
Ramgopal
5000.00
Ramesh
Sunderajan 10000.00
Ramesh
Sunderajan 7000.00
Query :SELECT Count(*)
FROM
((SELECT Borrower, Bank_Manager
FROM Loan_Records ) AS S
NATURAL JOIN
(SELECT Bank_Manger Loan_Amount
FROM Loan_Records) AS T);
Returns count =5
15.
16.
[Ans. C]
Borrower
Ramesh
Suresh
Mahesh
S
Bank_Manager
Sunderajan
Ramgopal
Sunderajan
T
Bank_Manager
Sunderajan
Ramgopal
Sunderajan
[Ans. A]
The entries inserted in order are
X 1 2 3 4
5
6
7
Y 1 3 7 15 31 63 127
One can also solve the recursion and find
out that Y = 2X 1
1
AC
3
AC
So the pid return from given query is(1, 3)
14.
DBMS
Loan_Amount
10000.00
5000.00
7000.00
th
[Ans. C]
P: An SQL query can contain a HAVING
clause even if it does not have a GROUT
BY clause
SELECT avg(salary)
FROM emp
HAVING avg(salary)
1000; Valid
SQL Statement, P is TRUE
Q: An SQL query can contain a HAVING
clause only if it has a GROUP BY clause
FALSE
R: All attributes used in the GROUP BY
clause must appear in the SELECT
clause
SELECT
avg(salary), min(salary),
max(salary)
FROM
emp
GROUP BY
deptno,gender;
VALID SQL Statement, R is FALSE.
S: Not all attributes used in the GROUP BY
clause need to appear in SELECT clause
TRUE
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Page 349
GATE QUESTION BANK
17.
[Ans. A]
A
=
(A )
ID
12
15
99
25
98
99
98
18.
ID
12
15
99
25
98
Name
Arun
Shreya
Rohit
Hari
Rohit
Rohit
Rohit
Age
60
24
11
40
20
11
20
Name
Arun
Shreya
Rohit
Hari
Rohit
C
ID
10
10
10
10
10
99
99
Option: (B) SELECT DISTINCT R.* FROM R,

S WHERE R.a = S.a
Option: (C) SELECT R.* FROM R,(SELECT
DISTINCT a FROM S) AS S1 WHERE
R.a = S1.a
Option: (D) SELECT R.* FROM R,S WHERE
R.a = S.a AND UNIQUE R
Given
Option
Option
Option
Query
(A)
(B)
(C)
A
a
a
a
1
1
1
1
1
1
2
1
2
1
2
2
1
2
2
2
2
2
Option (D)
Error: ORA 00936: missing expression
Only option (C) is given the same output
as the given Query
Age
60
24
11
40
20
Phone
2200
2200
2200
2200
2200
2100
2100
Area
02
02
02
02
02
01
01
[Ans. B]
In this (Select B. Age
from B
where B. Name = Arun)
So all A.Age will be selected, so Ans 3.
19.
[Ans. B]
Inner query will have a join between
employee and departments and will
return dept id and hire date of
employees who are having location 1700
and latest line date (in sorted order)
20.
[Ans. C]
Will prove by taking the following
illustration with relation R and S as
follows:
R
S
a
a
1
1
1
1
2
2
2
2
Given Query:-SELECT * FROM R WHERE a
IN (SELECT S.a FROM S)
Option: (A) SELECT R.* FROM R,S WHERE
R.a = S.a
DBMS
21.
[Ans. D]
SalesRepId is a foreign key referring to
empId of the employee relation. Assume
that each employee makes a sale to at least
one customer.
EMPLOYEE
empId empName empDept
1
A
2
B
3
C
CUSTOMER
custId custName salesRepId rating
C1
1
GOOD
C2
1
GOOD
C3
2
GOOD
C4
2
BAD
C5
3
BAD
C6
3
BAD
empId = 1 Employee with all their
customers [C1, C2] having GOOD rating
empId = 2 Employee with one customer
having GOOD [C3] and other having BAD
[C4]
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Page 350
GATE QUESTION BANK
DBMS
empId = 3 Employee with all their

customer [C5, C6] having BAD rating
Query:SELET
empName
FROM
employee E
WHERE NOT EXISTS (SELECT
FROM
WHERE
AND
e.emp
Id
1
custId
customer C
C.salesRepId= E.empID
C.rating < GOOD);
INNER QUERY
SELECT custId
FROM customer C
WHERE C.salesRepId = 1
AND C.rating < GOOD;
SELECT custId
FROM customer C
WHERE C.salesRepId =2
AND C.rating < GOOD
SELECT custId
FROM customer C
WHERE C.salesRepId =3
AND C.rating< GOOD;
OUT NOT
PUT EXISTS
No Qualified
rows
1
Not
row Qualified
2
Not
rows Qualified
Final Result =*1+ employee with all

their customers having a GOOD rating.
22.
[Ans. 19]
Key = (StudentName, StudentAge)
Composite Key
Composite Key Combination of 2
columns must be Unique
As 2 rows having same StudentName
Shankar. Obviously StudentAge should
not be fulfill the key. So X! = 19 [X can take
any value other than 19]
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Page 351
GATE QUESTION BANK
DBMS
Transactions and Concurrency Control

CS 2005
1.
A company maintains records of sales
made by its salespersons and pays them
commission based on each individuals
total sales made in a year. This data is
maintained in a table with following
schema:
salesinfo = (salespersonid, totalsales,
commission)
In a certain year, due to better business
results, the company decides to further
reward its salespersons by enhancing the
commission paid to them as per the
following formula.
If commission < = 50000, enhance it by
2%
If 50000 < commission < = 100000,
enhance it by 4%
If commission > 100000, enhance it by
6%
The IT staff has written three different
SQL scripts to calculate enhancement for
each slab, each of these scripts is to run as
a separate transaction as follows:
T1 Update salesinfo
Set commission = commission * 1.02
Where commission < = 50000;
T2 Update salesinfo
Where commission > 50000 and
commission is < =100000;
T3 Update salesinfo
Where commission > 100000;
Which of the following options of running
these transactions will update the
commission of all salespersons correctly?
(A) Execute T1, followed by T2 followed
by T3
(B) Execute T2, followed by T3; T1
running concurrently throughout
(C) Execute T3, followed by T2; T1
running concurrently throughout
(D) Execute T3, followed by T2 followed
by T1
2.
Amongst the ACID properties of a

transaction, the Durability property
requires that the changes made to the
database by a successful transaction
persist
(A) Except in case of an Operating

System crash
(B) Except in case of Disk crash
(C) Except in case of a power failure
(D) Always, even if there is a failure of
any kind
CS - 2006
3.
Consider the following log sequence of
two transactions on a bank account,
with initial balance 12000, that transfer
2000 to a mortgage payment and, then
apply a 5% interest.
1. T1: start
2. T1: B old= 12000, new=10000
3. T1: M old = 0, new = 2000
4. T1: commit
5. T2: start
6. T2: B old=10000, new = 10500
7. T2: commit
Suppose the database system crashed
just before log record 7 is written.
When the system is restarted, which
one statement is true of the recovery
procedure?
(A) We must redo log record 6 to set B
to 10500
(B) We must undo log record 6 to set B
to 10000 and then redo log records
2 and 3
(C) We need not redo log records 2 and
3 because transaction T1 has
committed
(D) We can apply redo and undo
operations in arbitrary order
because they are idempotent
CS - 2007
4.
Consider
the
following
schedules
involving two transactions. Which one of
the following statements is TRUE?
S1:r1(X); r1 (Y); r2(X); r2(Y); w2 (Y); w1(X)
S2:r1(X); r2 (X); r2(Y); w2(Y); r1 (Y); w1(X)
(A) Both S1 and S2 are conflict
serializable
(B) S1 is conflict serializable and S2 is not
conflict serializable
(C) S1 is not conflict serializable and S2 is
conflict serializable
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Page 352
GATE QUESTION BANK
(D) Both S1 and S2 are not conflict

serializable
5.
Consider the following two transactions

T1 and T2.
T1: read(A);
read(B);
if A = 0 then B B+1;
write(B);
T2: read (B);
read (A);
if B 0 then AA 1;
write(A);
Which of the following schemes, using
shared and exclusive locks, satisfy the
requirements for strict two phase locking
for the above transactions?
S2: lock S(B);
(A) S1: lock S(A);
read (A);
read(B);
lock S(B);
lock S(A)
read(B);
read(A);
if A = 0
if B0
then
then
BB+1;
A A 1;
write (B);
write(A);
commit;
commit;
unlock (A);
unlock (B);
unlock (B);
unlock (A);
(B)
S1: lock X(A);

S2: lock X(B);
read (A);
read (B);
lock X(B);
lock X(A);
read(B);
read(A);
if A = 0
if B 0
then BB+1;
then
write (B);
AA 1;
unlock (A);
write (A);
commit;
unlock (A);
unlock (B);
commit;
unlock (B);
(C)
(D)
DBMS
S1: lock S(A);

read (A);
lock X(B);
read(B);
if A = 0
then
BB+1;
write (B);
unlock (A);
commit;
unlock (B);
S1: lock S(A);
read (A);
lock X(B);
read(B);
if A = 0
then
BB+1;
write (B);
unlock (A);
unlock (B);
commit;
S2: lock S(B);

read (B);
lock X(A);
read(A);
if B 0
then
AA 1;
write (A);
unlock (A);
commit;
unlock (B);
S2: lock S(B);
read (B);
lock X(A);
read(A);
if B 0
then
AA 1;
write (A);
unlock (A);
unlock (B);
commit;
CS 2009
6.
Consider two transactions T1 and T2, and
four schedules S1, S2, S3, S4 of T1 and T2 as
given below:
T1: R1[x] W1 [x] W1 [y]
T2: R2 [x] R2 [y] W2 [y]
S1: R1[x] R2 [x] R2[y] W1 [x] W1 [y] W2 [y]
S2: R1[x] R2 [x] R2[y] W1 [x] W2 [y] W1 [y]
S3: R1[x] W1 [x] R2[x] W1 [y] R2 [y] W2 [y]
S4: R2[x] R2 [y] R1[x] W1 [x] W1 [y] W2 [y]
Which of the above schedules are conflictserializable?
(A) S1 and S2
(C) S3 only
(B) S2 and S3
(D) S4 only
CS - 2010
7.
Which of the following concurrency
control protocols ensure both conflict
serializability
and
freedom
from
deadlock?
I. 2-phase locking
II. Time-stamp ordering
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) Both I and II
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Page 353
GATE QUESTION BANK
8.
Consider the following schedule for

transactions T1, T2 and T3
T1
T2
T3
Read(X)
Read(Y)
Read(Y)
Write(Y)
Write(X)
Write(X)
Read(X)
Write(X)
Which one of the schedules below is the
correct serialization of the above?
(A) T1 T3 T2
(B) T2 T1 T3
(C) T2 T3 T1
(D) T3 T1 T2
CS - 2012
9.
Consider the following transactions with
data items P and Q initialized to zero:
T1: read (P);
read(Q);
if P = 0 then Q: = Q + 1 ;
write (Q).
T2: read(Q);
read (P);
if Q = 0 then P: = P + 1 ;
write (P).
Any non-serial interleaving of T1 and T2
for concurrent execution leads to
(A) A serializable schedule
(B) A schedule that is not conflict
serializable
(C) A conflict serializable schedule
(D) A schedule for which a precedence
graph cannot be drawn
11.
DBMS
Consider the following schedule S of

transactions T1, T2, T3, T4:
T1
T2
T3
T4
Reads (X)
Writes(X)
Commit
Writes (X)
Commit
Writes (Y)
Reads(Z)
Commit
Reads (X)
Reads (Y)
commit

CORRECT?
(A) S is conflict serializable but not
recoverable
(B) S is not conflict serializable but is
recoverable
(C) S is both conflict serializable and
recoverable
(D) S is neither conflict serializable nor
is it recoverable
12.
CS - 2014
10. Consider the following four schedules due
to three transactions (indicated by the
subscript) using read and write on a data
item x, denoted by r(x) and w(x)
respectively. Which one of them is conflict
serializable?
(A) r (x); r (x); w (x); r (x); w (x)
(B) r (x); r (x); w (x); r (x); w (x)
(C) r (x); r (x); r (x); w (x); w (x)
(D) r (x); w (x); r (x); r (x); w (x)
th
Consider the transactions T1, T2, and T3

and the schedules S1 and S2 given below.
T1: r1(X); r1(Z); w1(X); w1(Z)
T2: r2(Y); r2(Z); w2(Z)
T3: r3(Y); r3(X); w3(Y)
S1: r1(X); r3(Y); r3(X); r2(Y); r2(Z);
w3(Y); w2(Z); r1(Z); w1(X); w1(Z)
S2: r1(X); r3(Y); r2(Y); r3(X); r1(Z);
r2(Z); w3(Y); w1(X); w2(Z); w1(Z)
about the schedules is TRUE?
(A) Only S1 is conflict-serializable.
(B) Only S2 is conflict-serializable.
(C) Both S1 and S2 are conflictserializable.
(D) Neither S1 nor S2 is conflictserializable.
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GATE QUESTION BANK
DBMS

1.
[Ans. D]
Transactions must execute in order
T3 T2 T1.
Because if sales person XYZ Commission
= 49,999, then If T1 executes first then
its new commission would be
49,999 1.02 = 50,998 [which is greater
than 50,000]
Now if T2 executes second, then sales
person XYZ will get hike again, because
his commission is greater than 50,000
This is absolutely wrong.
So the perfect order of execution is
T3 T2 T1.
2.
[Ans. D]
Always, even if there is a failure of any
kind.
3.
[Ans. C]
In data base transaction system if
transaction is commit then it becomes
permanent there is no effect of any failure
so we need not redo log records 2 and 3
because transaction T1 has committed.
4.
[Ans. C]
Schedule S1 Not Conflict Serializable,
Since Cycle is formed.
Schedule S2 Confilict Serializable, Since
there is no cycle = Serial Schedule T2 T1
Schedule : S1
Schedule : S2
T1
T2
T1
T2
r1(x)
r1(x)
r1(y)
r2(x)
r2(x)
r2(y)
r2(y)
w2(y)
w2(y)
r1(y)
w1(x)
w1(x)
Before relasing exclusive lock, commit

operation is necessary.
6.
[Ans. B]
Schedule S2
T
R x
R
R
5.
T2
T1
x
y
x
y
y
Dependency graph T
cycles.
Schedule S3
T
R x
x
T S2 has no
T
y
y
T S Salso
Dependency graph T
has no cycles. So, S and S are conflict
serizlizable.
7.
[Ans. B]
In 2 phase locking concurrency control
protocol it ensures the conflict serilizable
schedule but it may not free from deadlock
Ex.
T
l(A)
l(A)
(A)
(B)
u(A)
Deny
T in waiting
T1
T2
l(A)
l(B)
(B)
(A)
T for unlock
In time stamp ordering protocol it ensure

conflict serializablity and free from dead
lock
[Ans. C]
T1: A required shared lock because it
reads only.
B requires exclusive lock because it
perform read and write operation.
T2 : similarly it performs shared lock on B
and exclusive lock on A.
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GATE QUESTION BANK
8.
[Ans. A]
Given Schedule Serializable, Since no
cycle is formed
Serial Order =T1 T3 T2
T1
T2
T3
Read(X)
Read(Y)
Read(Y)
Write(Y)
Write(X)
Write(X)
Read(X)
Write(X)
T
T1
DBMS
T2
Reads(X)
T3
T4
Writes(X)
Commit
Writes(X)
Commit
Writes(Y)
Reads (Z)
Commit
Reads (X)
Reads (Y)
Commit
T1
T2
T4
T3
T
T
12.
9.
[Ans. B]
T
r (P)
r (Q)
w (Q)
T
r (Q)
r (P)
w (P)
Cycle present so not conflict serializable

10.
[Ans. D]
Schedule in option D
T
T
T
r(x)
w(x)
r(x)
r(x)
w(x)
Dependency graph (T ) (T ) (T )
Conflict serializable.
11.
[Ans. C]
Given Schedule is Recoverable since all
transactions read the committed data only.
Given Schedule is SerializableSince there is
no cycle in the graph
Equivalent Serializable Schedule =
T2 T3 T1 T4
th
[Ans. A]
Test for Conflict Serializability Precedence
Graph
Graph without Cycle Schedule is Conflict
Serializable
Graph with Cycle Schedule is NOT Conflict
Serializable
Schedule S1 No Cycle Conflict Serializable
Whereas Schedule S2 Cycle Not Conflict
Serializable
Schedule: S1
S1
T1
T2
T3
r1(X)
r3(Y)
r3(X)
r2(Y)
r2(Z)
w3(Y)
w2(Z)
r1(Z)
w1(X)
w1(Z)
No cycle schedule is conflict serializable
Equivalent serializable order =
T2 T3 T1
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GATE QUESTION BANK
DBMS
r2(Z),w1(Z)
T1
T2
r2(Y),w3(Y)
r3(X),w1(X)
T3
Schedule: S2
S2
T2
T1
r1(X)
T3
r3(Y)
r2(Y)
r3(X)
r1(Z)
r2(Z)
w3(Y)
w1(X)
w2(Z)
w1(Z)
Cycle is formedSchedule is NOT conflict
serializable
Equivalent serializable order
= T2 T3 T1
r1(Z),w2(Z)
T1
T2
r2(Z),w1(Z)
r2(Y),w3(Y)
r3(X),w1(X)
T3
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GATE QUESTION BANK
DBMS
File Structures
(Sequential files, Indexing, B and
CS - 2005
1.
Which one of the following is a key factor
for preferring B+ -trees to binary search
trees for indexing database relations?
(A) Database relations have a large
number of records
(B) Database relations are sorted on the
primary key
(C) B+ -trees require less memory than
binary search trees
(D) Data transfer from disks is in blocks
2.
4.
Consider the relation enrolled (student,

course) in which (student, course) is the
primary key, and the relation paid
(student, amount) where student is the
primary key. Assume no null values and
no foreign keys or integrity constraints.
Assume that amounts 6000, 7000, 8000,
9000 and 10000 were each paid by 20%
of the students. Consider these query
plans (Plan 1 on left, Plan 2 on right) to
list all courses taken by students who
have paid more than x.
enrolled
paid
enrolled
Probe
index on
student
Sequential
scan, select
amount > x
Probe
index on
student
Indexed nested
loop join
paid
Sequential
scan
Indexed nested
loop join
Select on
amount > x
Project on
course
A B-tree used as an index for a large

database table has four levels including
the root node. If a new key is inserted in
this index, then the maximum number of
nodes that could be newly created in the
process are
(A) 5
(C) 3
(B) 4
(D) 2
CS - 2006
3.
In a database file structure, the search key
field is 9 bytes long, the block size is 512
bytes, a record pointer is 7 bytes and a
block pointer is 6 bytes. The largest
possible order of a non-leaf node in a B+
tree implementing this file structure is
(A) 23
(C) 34
(B) 24
(D) 44
trees)
Project on course
A disk seek takes 4ms, disk data transfer

bandwidth is 300 MB/s and checking a
tuple if amount is greater than x takes
10 s. Which of the following statement is
correct?
(A) Plan 1 and Plan 2 will not output
identical row sets for all databases
(B) A course may be listed more than
once in the output of Plan 1 for some
databases
(C) For x = 5000, Plan 1 executes faster
than Plan 2 for all databases
(D) For x = 9000, Plan 1 executes slower
than Plan 2 for all databases
CS - 2007
5.
The order of a leaf node in a B+-tree is the
maximum number of (value, data record
pointer) pairs it can hold. Given that the
block size is 1K bytes, data record pointer
is 7 bytes long, the value field is 9 bytes
long and a block pointer is 6 bytes long,
what is the order of the leaf node?
(A) 63
(C) 67
(B) 64
(D) 68
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GATE QUESTION BANK

and 7
Consider the
tree in the adjoining
figure, where each node has at most two
keys and three links.
6.
Keys K15 then K25 are inserted into this

tree in that order. Exactly how many of
the following nodes (disregarding the
links) will be present in the tree after the
two insertions?
(A) 1
(B) 2
7.
(C) 3
(D) 4
Now the key K50 is deleted from the B+

tree resulting after the two insertions
made earlier. Consider the following
statements about the
tree resulting
after this deletion.
(i) The height of the tree remains the
same.
(ii) The node
K20
(disregarding the links) is present in the
tree.
(ii) The root node remains unchanged
(disregarding the links).
Which one of the following options is
true?
(A) Statements (i) and (ii) are true
(B) Statements (ii) and (iii) are true
(C) Statements (iii) and (i) are true
(D) All the statements are false
CS - 2008
8.
Consider a file of 16384 records. Each
record is 32 bytes long and its key field is
of size 6 bytes. The file is ordered on a
DBMS
non-key field, and the file organization is

unspanned. The file is stored in a file
system with block size 1024 bytes, and
the size of a block pointer is 10 bytes. If
the secondary index is built on the key
field of the file, and a multi-level index
scheme is used to store the secondary
index, the number of first-level and
second-level blocks in the multi-level
index are respectively
(C) 256 and 4
(A) 8 and 0
(B) 128 and 6
(D) 512 and 5
9.
A clustering index is defined on the fields

which are of type
(A) Non-key and ordering
(B) Non-key and non-ordering
(C) Key and ordering
(D) Key and non-ordering
CS - 2009
10. The following key values are inserted into
a B+-tree in which order of the internal
nodes is 3, and that of the leaf nodes is 2,
in the sequence given below. The order of
internal nodes is the maximum number of
tree pointers in each node, and the order
of leaf nodes is the maximum number of
data items that can be stored in it. The
B+-tree is initially empty.
10, 3, 6, 8, 4, 2, 1. The maximum number
of times leaf nodes would get split up as a
result of these insertions is
(A) 2
(C) 4
(B) 3
(D) 5
CS - 2013
11. An index is clustered , if
(A) It is on a set of fields that form a
candidate key.
(B) It is on a set of fields that include the
primary key
(C) The data records of the file are
organized in the same order as the
data entries of the index
(D) The data records of the file are
organized not in the same order as
the data entries of the index
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GATE QUESTION BANK
DBMS

1.
2.
[Ans. D]
The transfer of data from disk to primary
memory is in the form of data blocks if a
data block is larger than indexing is easy
due to this
tree is better than binary
search tree data structure if large amount
of data can be access.
Size of Key = K = 9 Bytes

Size of Block Pointer = BP = 6 Bytes
(n K) + (n RP) + BP = B
(n 9) + (n 7) + 6 = 1024
n = CEIL (1018/16) = CEIL (63.62) = 63
6.
[Ans. A]
Final tree is
[Ans. A]
20
40
root (first level)
15
second level
third level
3.
4.
5.
7.
50
30
15
[Ans. A]
After deletion of K 50, we get following
- tree
20
[Ans. C]
Size of Key = K=9 Bytes
Size of Block = B = 512 Bytes
Size of Record Pointer = RP = 7 Bytes
Size of Block Pointer = BP = 6 Bytes
Order (non-leaf node) of B + Tree = n =?
(n BP) + (n
) K=B
(n 6) + (n
) 9 =512
n=CEIL (521/15) = CEIL (34.73) = 34
[Ans. C]
The seek time of disk is 4ms and data
transfer node is 300 MB/s. So if x = 5000
then plan 1 execute faster than plan 2 for
all database.
40
20 25
10
fourth level
If insertion takes place then new node can

be inserted at each level shown by dashed
box and in this process the new root can
be created. Hence 5 is the answer
50
30
30
15
10
15
20
25
40
30
40
So (i) is true
(ii) is also true
(iii) is false because root not remain
unchanged
8.
[Ans. C]
DATA FILE
File Ordered on Non Key field
Total no. of Records = 16384 records
Size of the Record = 32 Bytes
INDEX FILE
Type of Index = Secondary Index ( ey)
DENSE INDEX
Size of Key = 6 Bytes
Size of block pointer =10 Bytes
[Ans. A]
Order (leaf node) = max (value, record
pointers) = n =?
Size of Block = B = 1K bytes
= 1024 Bytes
Size of Record Pointer = RP = 7 Bytes
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Page 360
GATE QUESTION BANK
Size of the Block =1024 Bytes

Size of the Index Record
= 10 + 6 = 16 Bytes
No. of Index Records that can fit in a
single block = 1024/16 = 64
Total No. of Index Records = DENSE =
16384 index records
Total No. of Blocks for First Level Index =
16384/64 = 256 blocks
Total No. of Blocks for Second Level Index
= 256/64=4 blocks
9.
10.
DBMS
Insert: 4
4
3*
4*
8* 10*
6*
Insert: 2
4
[Ans. A]
A clustering index is defined on the fields
which are of type non-key and ordering.
2* 3*
4*
6*
8* 10*
Insert: 1
4
[Ans. C]
Insert into B+ Tree in the order 10, 3, 6,
8, 4, 2, 1 & Calculate the No. of leaf Splits
2
Order of Non Leaf Node = 3

K1
Max Pointers = 3
Min Pointers = CEIL (3/2) =2
Min Pointers for ROOT = 2
K1
Order of Leaf Node = 2

I1
I2
1* 2*
3*
4*
6*
8* 10*
Total no. of Leaf Splits in B+ Tree=4

11.
Max Keys = 2
Min Keys = 1
[Ans. C]
Clustered if the data is ordered in same
order as the index order
Insert : 10
10*
Insert: 3
3* 10*
Insert: 6
6
3*
6*
1
10*
Insert: 8
6
3*
6*
8* 10*
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GATE QUESTION BANK
Computer Networks
Introduction to Computer Networks

CS 2005
1.
In a network of LANs connected by
bridges, packets are sent from one LAN to
another through intermediate bridges.
Since more than one path may exist
between two LANs, packets may have to
be routed through multiple bridges. Why
is the spanning tree algorithm used for
bridge-routing?
(A) For shortest path routing between
LANs
(B) For avoiding loops in the routing
paths
(C) For fault tolerance
(D) For minimizing collisions
2.
In a packet switching network, packets

are routed from source to destination
along a single path having two
intermediate nodes. If the message size is
24 bytes and each packet contains a
header of 3 bytes, then the optimum
packet size is:
(A) 4
(B) 6
(C) 7
(D) 9
CS 2007
3.
Match the following :
P. SMTP 1. Application layer
Q. BGP
2. Transport layer
R. TCP
3. Data link layer
S. PPP
4. Network layer
5. physical layer
(A) P 2, Q 1, R 3, S 5
(B) P 1, Q 4, R 2, S 3
(C) P 1, Q 4, R 2, S 5
(D) P 2, Q 4, R 1, S 3
4.
Let us consider a statistical time division

multiplexing of packets. The number of
sources is 10. In a time unit, a source
transmits a packet of 1000 bits. The
number of sources sending data for the
first 20 time units is 6, 9, 3, 7, 2, 2, 2, 3, 4,
6, 1, 10, 7, 5, 8, 3, 6, 2, 9, 5 respectively.
The output capacity of multiplexer is

5000 bits per time unit. Then the average
number of backlogged of packets per time
unit during the given period is
(A) 5
(B) 4.45 (C) 3.45 (D) 0
5.
A group of 15 routers are interconnected

in a centralized complete binary tree with
a router at each tree node. Router i
communicates with router j by sending a
message to the root of the tree. The root
then sends the message back down to
router j. The mean number of hops per
message, assuming all possible router
pairs are equally likely is
(A) 3
(B) 4.53 (C) 4.26 (D) 5.26
CS 2008
6.
How many bytes of data can be sent in 15
seconds over a serial link with baud rate
of 9600 in asynchronous mode with odd
parity and two stop bits in the frame?
(A) 10,000 bytes
(C) 15,000 bytes
(B) 12,000 bytes
(D) 27,000 bytes
CS 2014
7.
In the following pairs of OSI protocol
layer/sub-layer and its functionality. The
INCORRECT pair is
(A) Network layer and Routing
(B) Data
Link
Layer
and
Bit
synchronization
(C) Transport layer and End-to-end
process communication
(D) Medium Access Control sub-layer
and Channel sharing
8.
A bit-stuffing based framing protocol uses

an 8-bit delimiter pattern of 01111110. If
the output bit-string after stuffing is
01111100101, then the input bit-string is
(A) 0111110100
(C) 0111111101
(B) 0111110101
(D) 0111111111
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GATE QUESTION BANK
Computer Networks
Answer keys & Explanations

1.
[Ans. B]
Spanning Tree Algorithm is used for
bridges for avoiding loops in the routing
paths. Spanning Tree algorithm will make
sure that there will be only one path
between every 2 LANs
2.
[Ans. D]
Consider choices
(A) Packet size = 4 then message size =
4 3 = 1 byte (required 24 packets)
(B) Packet size = 6 then message size =
6 3 = 3 bytes (required 8 packets)
(C) Packet size = 7 then message size =
(D) Packet size = 9 then message size =
So 4 packets is optimum message size & 9
is optimum packet size.
3.
[Ans. B]
SMTP ---------- Application layer
BGP ------------ Network layer
TCP ------------ Transport layer
PPP ------------- Data link layer
4.
[Ans. C]
Total no. of source = 10
Packet size = 1000 bits
Output capacity of multiplexer= 5000 bits
Average number of backlogged of
packet = 3.45
5.
[Ans. D]
Mean Number of hop = 5.26
6.
[Ans. B]
How many bytes of data can be sent in 15
seconds?
Baud Rate = 9600 [9600 signals can be
transmitted per second]
Mode = Asynchronous Mode

To send ever 8-bits, we have to send
1start bit, 2 stop bits, and 1 parity bit.
Total bits required to send 8-bit character
= 8 + 1 + 2 + 1 = 12 bits
[over head = 4 bits/byte]
Each signal can transmit 1-bit of data.
To send 8-bits we have to send
12 bits 12 signals to be used for 8-bit
data.
Thus total no of 8-bit characters sent per
second
= 9600/12
= 800 characters [Bytes/second]
Total Bytes transmitted in 15 seconds
= 800 15 = 12,000 Bytes.
7.
[Ans. B]
Since Bit Synchronization
Physical
Layer Responsibility, Its not Data Link
Layers Responsibility
8.
[Ans. B]
8-bit delimeter = 01111110 We will
stuff with 0 after every 5 consecutive 1s
Output String = 011111 00101 [Stuffed
bit has been highlighted]
Then, Input String = 0111110101 [After
destuffing the stuffed 0]
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GATE QUESTION BANK
Computer Networks
Medium Access Sublayer

(LAN Technologies: Ethernet, Token Ring)
CS 2005
1.
TRUE about CSMA/CD
(A) IEEE 802.11 wireless LAN runs
CSMA/CD protocol
(B) Ethernet is not based on CSMA/CD
protocol
(C) CSMA/CD is not suitable for a high
propagation delay network like
statellite network.
(D) There is no contention in a CSMA/CD
network
2.
3.
4.
A network with CSMA/CD protocol in the

MAC layer is running at 1 Gbps over a
1 km cable with no repeaters. The signal
speed in the cable is 2 108 m/sec. The
minimum frame size for this network
should be
(A) 10000 bits
(C) 5000 bits
(B) 10000 bytes
(D) 5000 bytes
A channel has a bit rate of 4 kbps and oneway propagation delay of 20 ms. The
channel uses stop and wait protocol. The
transmission
time
of
the
acknowledgement frame is negligible. To
get a channel efficiency of at least 50%,
the minimum frame size should be
(A) 80 bytes
(C) 160 bytes
(B) 80 bits
(D) 160 bits
In a TDM medium access control bus LAN,
each station is assigned one time slot per
cycle for transmission. Assume that the
length of each time slot is the time to
transmit 100 bits plus the end-to-end
propagation delay. Assume a propagation
speed of 2 108 m/sec. The length of the
LAN is 1 km with a bandwidth of
10 Mbps. The maximum number of
stations that can be allowed in the LAN so
that the throughput of each station can be
2/3 Mbps is:
(A) 3
(B) 5
(C) 10
(D) 20
5.
Suppose the round trip propagation delay

for a 10 Mbps Ethernet having 48-bit
jamming signal is 46.4 s. The minimum
frame size is:
(A) 94 (B) 416 (C) 464 (D) 512
CS 2006
6.
Station A needs to send a message
consisting of 9 packets to Station B using
a siding window (window size 3) and
go-back-n error control strategy. All
packets are ready and immediately
available for transmission. If every 5th
packet that A transmits gets lost (but no
acks from B ever get lost), then what is
the number of packets that A will
transmit for sending the message to B?
(A) 12
(C) 16
(B) 14
(D) 18
CS 2007
7.
In Ethernet when Manchester encoding is
used the bit rate is
(A) Half the baud rate
(B) Twice the baud rate
(C) Same as the baud rate
(D) None of these
8.
There are n stations in a slotted LAN.

Each station attempts to transmit with a
probability p in each time slot. What is the
probability that ONLY one station
transmits in a given time slot?
(A) np(1 p)n 1
(C) p(1 p)n 1
n
1
(B) (1 p)
(D) 1 (1 p)n 1
9.
In a token ring network the transmission

speed is 10 bps and the propagation
speed is 200 meters/ s. The 1-bit delay in
this network is equivalent to :
(A) 500 meters of cable
(B) 200 meters of cable
(C) 20 meters of cable
(D) 50 meters of cable
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Page 364
GATE QUESTION BANK
10.
11.
12.
A broadcast channel has 10 nodes and

total capacity of 10 Mbps. It uses polling
for medium access. Once a node finishes
transmission, there is a polling delay of
80 s to poll the next node. Whenever a
node is polled, it is allowed to transmit a
maximum of 1000 bytes. The maximum
throughput of the broadcast channel is
(A) 1 Mbps
(C) 10 Mbps
(B) 100/ 11 Mbps (D) 100 Mbps
Common Data for Questions 11 & 12:
Consider a token ring topology with N
stations (numbered 1 to N) running token
ring protocol where the stations are
equally spaced. When a station gets the
token it is allowed to send one frame of
fixed size. Ring latency is tp, while the
transmission time of a frame is tt. All
other latencies can be neglected.
The maximum utilization of the token
ring when tt = 3 , tp = 5 ms, N =10 is
(A) 0.545
(C) 0.857
(B) 0.6
(D) 0.961
14.
Computer Networks
The minimum frame size required for

CSMA/CD based computer network
running at 1 Gbps on a 200m cable
with a link speed of 2 10 m/s is
(A) 125 bytes
(B) 250 bytes
(C) 500 bytes
CS 2013
15. Determine the maximum length of the
cable (in km) for transmitting data at a
rate of 500 Mbps in an Ethernet LAN with
frames of size 10,000 bits. Assume the
signal speed in the cable to be
2,00,000 km/s.
(A) 1
(C) 2.5
(B) 2
(D) 5
The maximum utilization of the token

ring when tt = 5ms , tp = 3 ms, N =15 is
(A) 0.545
(C) 0.9375
(B) 0.655
(D) 0.961
CS 2008
13. A computer on a 10Mbps network is
regulated by a token bucket. The token
bucket is filled at a rate of 2Mbps. It is
initially filled to capacity with 16
Megabits. What is the maximum duration
for which the computer can transmit at
the full 10Mbps?
(A) 1.6 seconds
(C) 5 seconds
(B) 2 seconds
(D) 8 seconds
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GATE QUESTION BANK
Computer Networks

1.
[Ans. C]
CSMA/CD is not suitable for a high
propagation delay network like satellite
network.
2.
[Ans. A]
Access Method = CSMA/CD
Bandwidth = B = 1Gbps = 109 bits/sec
Distance = d = 1km = 103 mts
Speed of Signal = s = 2 108 mts/sec
Minimum Frame Size =
=?
= 2 d/s B bits
= 2
3.
4.
5.
[Ans. C]
109=10,000 bits
[Ans. D]
Bandwidth = B = 4 Kbps
= 4 103 bits/sec
Propagation Delay = Tp = 20 ms
= 20 10 sec
Protocol = Stop-and-Wait
Transmission Time for Ack = Negligible
= 0 sec
Channel Efficiency = 50% = 1/2
[Utilization]
Minimum Frame Size = F = ?
T
fficiency
T
2T
1
2
2 20 10
4 10
160 bits
[Ans. C]
2
n
10
3
6.
Number of packets = 16
7.
[Ans. A]
Manchester ncoding
2 signals will be
used for sending 1-bit. For sending 10
bits, we have to send 20 signals. Hence
baud rate is twice the bandwidth.
Bandwidth = Baud rate/2 [Half the baud
rate]
8.
[Ans. A]
p(1) = n p 1
=
n
1 n 1
= np 1
100
15 10
10
9.
p 1
[Ans. C]
LAN = Token Ring
Bandwidth = B = 10 bits/sec
Propagation Speed = 200 mts/micro
seconds [signal travels 200 meters in
10 seconds]
1 bit delay in this network = ?
As B= 10 bits/sec, To place 1-bit in the
channel it takes 10 sec
As signal travels 200 meters in 10-6
seconds, then how much distance 1-bit
travels in 10 sec ?
10 seconds 200 meters
10 seconds ? meters
= 20 meters
[Ans. C]
Round
trip
propagation
delay
(2 T ) 46.4 sec 46.4 10
Frame size
2 T
andwidth
46.4 10
10 10
464 bits
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GATE QUESTION BANK
10.
[Ans. B]
Polling delay 80 s
Max t
8000 bits, 800 s at 10 Mbps
Max throughput =
10
DR
10 Mbps
11.
[Ans. C]
LAN = Token Ring
Total no. of Stations = N = 10
Ring Latency = t = 5 ms
Transmission Time = t = 3 ms
Max Utilization
U = (N t ) / ((N t +t )
= (103) / ((103) + 5)
= 30/35
= 0.857
12.
[Ans. D]
LAN = Token Ring
Total no. of Stations = N = 15
Ring Latency = t = 3 ms
Transmission Time = t = 5 ms
Max Utilization
U= (N t ) / ((N t )+ t )
= (155) / ((155 )+ 3)
= 75/78
= 0.961
13.
[Ans. B]
Bandwidth = B =10 Mbps
Token Bucket filled at the rate = r
= 2 Mbps
Capacity of Token Bucket = C
= 16 Mega bits
Max Duration at which computer can
transmit at fully 10 Mbps rate = S = ?
S = C/(B r)
= 16/(10 2)
= 2 seconds.
14.
[Ans. B]
Min frame size
15.
2
2
Computer Networks
[Ans. B]
Distance of the Cable = d = ? [in kms]
Bandwidth = B = 500 Mbps
= 500 106 bits/sec
LAN = Ethernet Access Control
Protocol = 1 Persistent CSMA/CD
Size of Frame = F = 10,000 bits
Speed of Signal = S = 2,00,000 km/sec
d
2
bits
s
10,000 = 2 (d/ 2, 00,000) 500 106
d = 2 kms
data rate
10
2 10
10
2 10
2000 bits = 250 bytes
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GATE QUESTION BANK
Computer Networks
The Data Link Layer

(Flow and Error Control Techniques)
CS 2005
1.
The maximum window size for data
transmission using the selective reject
protocol with n bit frame sequence
numbers is:
(A) 2
(C) 2 1
(B) 2
(D) 2
2.
Consider the following message

M = 1010001101. The cyclic redundancy
check (CRC) for this message using the
divisor polynomial x
x
x
1 is:
(A) 01110
(C) 10101
(B) 01011
(D) 10110
CS 2006
3.
Station A uses 32 byte packets to transmit
messages to station B using a sliding
window protocol. The round trip delay
between A and B is 80 milliseconds and
the bottleneck bandwidth on the path
between A and B is 128 kbps. What is the
optimal window size that A should use?
(A) 20
(C) 160
(B) 40
(D) 320
4.
5.

TRUE?
(A) Both Ethernet frame and IP packet
include checksum fields
(B) Ethernet frame includes a checksum
field and IP packet includes a CRC
field
(C) Ethernet frame includes a CRC field
and IP packet includes a checksum
field
(D) Both Ethernet frame and IP packet
include CRC fields
Suppose that it takes 1 unit of time to
transmit a packet (of fixed size) on a
communication link. The link layer uses a
window flow control protocol with a
window size of N packets. Each packet

causes an ack or a nak to be generated by
the receiver and ack/nak transmission
times are negligible. Further, the round
trip time on the link is equal to N units.
Consider time i > N. if only acks have
been received till time i(no naks), then
the goodput evaluated at the transmitter
at time i(in packets per unit time) is
(A) 1 N/ i
(C) 1
(B) i/ (N + i)
(D) 1 e
CS 2007
6.
The message 11001001 is to be
transmitted using the CRC Polynomial
x
1 to protect it from errors. The
message that Should be transmitted is:
(A) 11001001000 (C) 11001010
(B) 11001001011 (D) 110010010011
7.
The distance between two stations M & N

is L kilometers. All frames are K-bits long.
The propagation delay per kilometer is
t seconds. Let R bits/sec be the channel
capacity. Assuming that processing delay
is negligible, the minimum number of bits
for the sequence number field in a frame
for maximum utilization, when the
sliding window protocol is used, is:
(A) [log
(B) [log
]
]
(C) [log
(D) [log
CS 2008
8.
Data transmitted on a link uses the
following 2D parity scheme for error
detection :
Each sequence of 28 bits is arranged
in a 4 7 matrix ( rows r through r ,
and columns d thorugh d ) and is
padded with a column d an row r of
parity bits computed using the Even
parity scheme . Each bit of column d
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GATE QUESTION BANK
(respectively , row r ) gives the parity

of the corresponding row (respectively ,
column). These 40 bits are transmitted
over the data link .
0
The table shows data received by a

receiver and has n corrupted bits. What
is the minimum possible value of n ?
(A) 1
(C) 3
(B) 2
(D) 4
CS 2009
9.
Let G(x) be the generator polynomial
used for CRC checking. What is the
condition that should be satisfied by G(x)
to detect odd number of bits in error?
(A) G(x) contains more than two terms
(B) G(x) does not divide 1 + x , for any
k not exceeding the frame length
(C) 1 + x is a factor of G(x)
(D) G(x) has an odd number of terms
10.
11.

and 11:
Frames of 1000 bits are sent over a
10 bps duplex link between two hosts.
The propagation time is 25 ms. Frames
are to be transmitted into this link to
maximally pack them in transit (with in
the link)
What is the minimum number of bits ( )
that will be required to represent the
sequence numbers distinctly? Assume
that no time gap needs to be given
between transmission of two frames.
(A) l 2
(C) l 4
(B) l 3
(D) l 5
Computer Networks
always piggy backed. After sending 2

frames, what is the minimum time the
sender will have to wait before starting
transmission of the next frame? (Identify
the closest choice ignoring the frame
processing time)
(A) 16 ms
(C) 20 ms
(B) 18 ms
(D) 22 ms
CS 2012
12. Consider a source computer (S)
transmitting a file size 106 bits to a
destination computer (D) over a network
of two routers (R1 and R2) and three (L1, L2,
and L3). L1 connects S to R1;L2 connects R1
to R2; and L3 connects R2 to D. Let each link
be of length 100 km. Assume signals travel
over each link at a speed of 108 meters per
second. Assume that the link bandwidth
on each link is 1Mbps. Let the file be
broken down into 1000 packets each of
size 1000bits. Find the total sum of
transmission and propagation delays in
transmitting the file from S to D?
(A) 1005 ms
(C) 3000 ms
(B) 1010 ms
(D) 3003 ms
CS 2014
13. Consider a token ring network with a
length of 2 km having 10 stations
including a monitoring station. The
propagation speed of the signal is
2
10 m/s and the token transmission
time is ignored. If each station is allowed
to hold the token for 2 sec, the minimum
time for which the monitoring station
should wait (in sec) before assuming
that the token is lost is _______.
14.
Suppose that the sliding window protocol

is used with the sender window size of 2 ,
where is the number of bits identified in
the earlier part and acknowledgments are
th
Consider a selective repeat sliding

window protocol that uses a frame size of
1 KB to send data on a 1.5 Mbps link with
a one-way latency of 50 msec. To achieve
a link utilization of 60%, the minimum
number of bits required to represent the
sequence number field is ________.
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15.
Consider the store and forward packet

switched network given below. Assume
that the bandwidth of each link is
10 bytes / sec. A user on host A sends a
file of size 10 bytes to host B through
routers R1 and R2 in three different ways.
In the first case a single packet containing
the complete file is transmitted from A to
B. In the second case, the file is split into
10 equal parts, and these packets are
transmitted from A to B. In the third case,
the file is split into 20 equal parts and
these packets are sent from A to B. Each
packet contains 100 bytes of header
information along with the user data.
Computer Networks
Consider only transmission time and

ignore
processing,
queuing
and
propagation delays. Also assume that
there are no errors during transmission.
Let T1, T2 and T3 be the times taken to
transmit the file in the first, second and
third case respectively. Which one of the
following is CORRECT?
A
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
R2
R1
T1 T2 T3
T1 T2 T3
T2 = T3 , T3 < T1
T1 = T3, T3 > T2

1.
[Ans. B]
In the case of selective reject protocol; the
maximum window size =
2.
3.
[Ans. B]
Given round trip delay
t = 80 ms = 80 10
R = 128 Kbps = 128 10 bps
L = Rt = 128 10 80 10
So, optimal window size
[Ans. A]
Message = data word=1010001101
Divisor x
x
x
1
110101 6 bits]
CRC = ? [Remainder]
Augmented data word
= data word + 5 bits[zeros]
= 101000110100000
110101 101000 1101010110
110101
111011
110101
011101
000000
111010
110101
011111
000000
111110
110101
n
4.
[Ans. C]
Ethernet frame include a CRC field and IP
packet include a checksum field.
5.
[Ans. C]
The link later uses a window from control
protocol with a window size of N packets
and round trip time is equal to N units.
Goodput = Packets/unit time
= N packets/N units = 1.
6.
[Ans. B]
Message = data word =11001001
Divisor x
1
1. x
0. x
0. x
1. x
1001 4 bits]
Code word
= data word +3 redundant bits =?
Augmented dataword = 11001001 000
010110
000000
101100
110101
110010
110101
001110
000000
01110
40
01110
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GATE QUESTION BANK

1001) 1100 11010011
1001
1011
1001
0100
0000
1000
1001
0011
0000
0110
0000
1100
1001
1010
1001
011
9.
[Ans. C]
The polynomial generator used for CRC
checking must satisfy at least two
conditions to detect odd numbers of
errors:
1. It should be not divisible by x
2. It should be divisible by 1 + x
Therefore 1 x is a factor of G(x)
10.
[Ans. D]
The link is a duplex hence we need not to
wait for twice the propagation time for
sending the frame belonging to next
window. If the sender window is of size N.
Transmitting 10 bits require = 1 sec
1
N 1000 bits require
N 10
10
N 10 sec Nm sec
Nm sec = 25 m sec, N = 25 2
Minimum number of bits required is 5 to
represent sequence numbers distinctly
11.
[Ans. B]
Time taken to send 10 bits 1 sec
Time taken to send 2 frames = 32 m sec
(1 frame = 1000 bits)
Time taken for the first frame to be
acknowledged 25 2 50 m sec
Then waiting time 50 32 18 m sec
12.
[Ans. A]
Size of files = 10
Total Routes = 2{ , }
Total links = 3 { , , }
Length of each Link
= d= 100 km = 100 10
Speed of signal of each link
= s= 10 mts Sec
Remainder 011
Code word = Data word + Remainder
11001001 011
7.
[Ans. C]
Frame Size = K bit
Propagation delay = t sec/km
Channel capacity = Rbits/sec
Distance = L km
Round trip delay = 2Lt sec.
Window size w =
1
1
# of bits = log
8.
[Ans. C]
The receiver will calculate all the row and
column parities and found that there is an
error in 1-row and 2- columns.
No. of errors detected in rows = 1 [r1]
No. of errors detected in columns = 3 [d5,
d2, d0]
Minimum possible errors
= max (errors in rows, errors in columns)
= max (1, 3) = 3 errors.
0
Computer Networks
L1
S
1
0
1
0
0
1
0
0
0
0
1
1
1
0
0
1
L2
R
d= 100 kms
s = 10 mts sec
L3
R
d= 100 kms
s = 10 mts sec
D
d= 100 kms
s = 10 mts sec
Band width = B = 1 MBPS = 10 bits sec

File is broken in to 1000 packets
n 1000 Packets
Size of Packet = F = 1000 bits
[10 bits 1000 packet 1000]
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GATE QUESTION BANK
Find the sum of [T

T ] in transmitting
a file from S to D?
1000 bits
T
10 sec 1ms
10 bits sec
d 100 10
T
10 sec 1 ms
s
10
T
1ms
T
1ms
T ] for I frame from S to D
3 T
3 T
3 1ms 3 1ms 6 ms
T
T ] for I frame 6 ms
T
T ] for II frame 1ms
7 ms 7ms 6ms 1ms]
Receiver will reactive I frame after
6 ms and the successive frames in 1ms
only.
Total T
T ] for 1000 packet
=
6 ms for I packet
999 ms for 999 packet
1005 ms
Ring latency of token to be

considered. [Time for token to
traverse the entire ring]
Ring Latency = Distance/Speed
10
2
10 seconds
2 10
10 10 seconds
Minimum Time Monitor Station should
wait
= (n 1) token holding time + ring
latency
10 1
2
10 seconds
10
10 seconds
18
10 seconds
10
10 seconds
28
10 seconds
28 micro seconds.
P4
S
L1
P3
P2
L2
14.
P1=6 ms
L3
All packets are ready & reach to

destination in 1 ms gap
13.
Computer Networks
Total number of Stations in the Ring = n
= 10 stations [including monitor station]
Length (or) distance of Ring
= 2 km = 2
10 mts
Propagation Speed = 2
10 m/s
Token Holding time of each station
= 2 micro seconds = 2
10 seconds
Ignore token transmission time
Minimum time monitor station should
wait before assuming that token is lost is
= ? [in Micro Seconds]
Minimum time monitor station should get
the token = (n 1) token holding time +
ring latency
(n 1) Excluding Monitor station
(n 1) stations token holding time to

be considered
th
[Ans. 5]
Size of Frame = F = 1KB = 1024 Bytes
= 1024 8 bits
Bandwidth
1.5 Mbps
1.5
10 bits/sec
One Way Latency= Propagation
Time = T = 50 msec 50 10 sec
Utilization = 60% = 60/100
Minimum number of bits required to
represent the sequence number= ?
Let window size = number of frames in
sender window = n
Utilization
= n F bits / (F + 2 B) bits
60
n
1024 8 bits 1024
8
100 2
2
50
10
1.5
10 bits
n
60 1024
8
2
50
10
2
1.5
10
1024
8
100
n 949152
11.58
12 approx
2
81920
n = 24
Total number of Frames in Sender
Window = Sender Window Size
= 24 frames.
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Computer Networks
Minimum number of bits required to

represent the sequence number in sender
window = log 24 4.58 5 bits
15.
[Ans. D]
Given Bandwidth = 10 bytes/sec
L 10 bytes
Case: 1
L = 1000 bytes
Header size = 100 bytes
Total Frame size = 1000+100=1100
bytes
1100 8
T
1100 s
10
8
So, T
3300 s
Case: 2
L 100 bytes
Total Frames size = 100 + 100 = 200 bytes
T
200 s for 1 packet
or 10 packets T
2000 s
So, T
2000 200 200 2400 s
Case: 3
L = 50 bytes
Total frame size = 50 + 100 = 150 bytes
T
150 s for 1 packet
or 20 packets T
So, T
3000 150
T
T
T
T
3000 s
150 3300 s
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GATE QUESTION BANK
Computer Networks
Routing & Congestion Control

CS 2005
1.
Count to infinity is a problem associated
with
(A) link state routing protocol
(B) distance vector routing protocol
(C) DNS while resolving host name
(D) TCP for congestion control
and 3:
Consider a simple graph with unit edge
costs. Each node in the graph represents a
router. Each node maintains a routing
table indicating the next hop router to be
used to relay a packet to its destination
and the cost of the path to the destination
through that router. Initially, the routing
table is empty. The routing table is
synchronously updated as follows. In each
updated interval, three tasks are
performed.
(i) A node determines whether its
neighbours in the graph are
accessible. If so, it sets the tentative
cost to each accessible neighbour as
1. Otherwise, the cost is set to .
(ii) From each accessible neighbor, it
gets the costs to relay to other nodes
via that neighbor (as the next hop)
(iii) Each node updates its routing table
based on the information received in
the previous two steps by choosing
the minimum cost.
B
2.
For the graph given above, possible routing

tables for various nodes after they have
stabilized, are shown in the following
options. Identify the correct table?
3.
(A)
Table for
node A
A B B 1
C C 1
D B 3
E C 3
F C 4
(C)
Table for
node B
A A 1
B C C 1
D D 1
E C 2
F D 2
(B)
Table for
node C
A A 1
B B 1
C D D 1
E E 1
F E 3
(D)
Table for
node D
A B
B B
C C
D
E E
F F
3
1
1
1
1
Continuing from the earlier problem,

suppose at some time t, when the costs
have stabilized, node A goes down. The
cost from node F to node A at time
( t + 100) is:
(A) > 100 but finite
(B)
(C) 3
(D) 3 and 100
CS 2008
4.
Two popular routing algorithms are
Distance vector (DV) and Link state (LS)
routing . Which of the following are true?
S1: Count to infinity is a problem only
with DV and not LS routing
S2: In LS, the shortest path algorithm is
run only at one node
S3: In DV, the shortest path algorithm is
run only at one mode
S4: DV requires lesser number of network
messages than LS
(A) S1, S2 and S4 ONLY
(B) S1, S3 and S4 ONLY
(C) S2 and S3 ONLY
(D) S1 and S4 ONLY
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CS 2010
and 6:
Consider a network with 6 routers R1 to
R6 connected with links having weights
as shown in the following diagram.
7
R2
AS
6
R1
4
R3
6.
R6
5.
R5
All the routers use the distance vector

based routing algorithm to update their
routing tables. Each router starts with its
routing table initialized to contain an
entry for each neighbor with the weight of
the respective connecting link. After all
the routing tables stabilize, how many
links in the network will never be used
for carrying any data?
(A) 4
(C) 2
(B) 3
(D) 1
Suppose the weights of all unused links in
the previous question are changed to 2
and the distance vector algorithm is used
again until all routing tables stabilize.
How many links will now remain unused?
(A) 0
(C) 2
(B) 1
(D) 3
CS 2011
and 8:
Consider a network with five nodes, N1 to
N5 as shown below
N1
1
N5
N2
N4
The network uses a Distance Vector

Routing protocol. Once the routes have
stabilized, the distance vectors at
different nodes are as following:
N1: (0, 1, 7, 8, 4)
N2: (1, 0, 6, 7, 3)
N3: (7, 6, 0, 2, 6)
N4: (8, 7, 2, 0, 4)
B5: (4, 3, 6, 4, 0)
Each distance vector is the distance of the
best known path at the instance to nodes,
N1 to N5, where the distance to itself is 0.
Also, all links are symmetric and the cost
is identical in both directions. In each
round, all nodes exchange their distance
vectors with their respective neighbors.
Then all nodes update their distance
vectors. In between two rounds, any
change in cost of a link will cause the two
incident nodes to change only that entry
in their distance vectors.
The cost of link N2 N3 reduces to
2(in both directions). After the next
round of updates, what will be the new
distance vector at node, N3
(A) (3, 2, 0, 2, 5)
(C) (7, 2, 0, 2, 5)
(B) (3, 2, 0, 2, 6)
(D) (7, 2, 0, 2, 6)
R4
N3
Computer Networks
7.
8.
After the update in the previous question,

the link N1-N2 goes down. N2 will reflect
this change immediately in its distance
vector as cost, . After the NEXT ROUND
of update, what will be the cost to N1 in
the distance vector of N3?
(A) 3
(C) 10
(B) 9
(D)
CS 2012
9.
An Internet Service Provider (ISP) has the
following chunk of CIDR-based IP address
available with it: 245.248.128.0/20. The
ISP wants to give half of this chunk of
addresses of Organization A, and a
quarter of Organization B, while retaining
the remaining with itself. Which of the
following of a valid allocation of
addresses to A and B?
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GATE QUESTION BANK
(A) 245.248.136.0/21 and

245.248.128.0/22
(B) 245.248.128.0/21 and
245.248.128.0/22
(C) 245.248.132.0/22 and
245.248.132.0/21
(D) 245.248.136.0/24 and
245.248.132.0/21
CS 2013
10. Assume that source S and destination D
are connected through two intermediate
routers labeled R. Determine how many
times each packet has to visit the network
layer and the data link layer during a
transmission from S to D.
Computer Networks
12.
An IP router implementing Classless

Inter-domain Routing (CIDR) receives a
packet with address 131.23.151.76. The
routers routing table has the following
entries:
Prefix
Output Interface
Identifier
131.16.0.0/12
3
131.28.0.0/14
5
131.19.0.0/16
2
131.22.0.0/15
1
The identifier of the output interface on
which this packet will be forwarded is
___________
13.
Which one of the following is TRUE about

the interior gateway routing protocols
Routing Information Protocol (RIP) and
Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)?
(A) RIP uses distance vector routing and
OSPF uses link state routing
(B) OSPF uses vector routing and RIP
uses link state routing
(C) Both RIP and OSPF use link state
routing
(D) Both RIP and OSPF uses distance
vector routing
(A) Network layer 4 times and

Data link layer 4 times
(B) Network layer 4 times and
(C) Network layer 4 times and
(D) Network layer 2 times and
CS 2014
11. Consider the following three statements
about link state and distance vector
routing protocols, for a large network
with 500 network nodes and 4000 links.
[S1] The computational overhead in link
state protocols is higher than in distance
vector protocols.
[S2] A distance vector protocol (with split
horizon) avoids persistent routing loops,
but not a link state protocol.
[S3] After a topology change, a link state
protocol will converge faster than a
distance vector protocol.
Which one of the following is correct
about S1, S2, and S3 ?
(A) S1, S2, and S3 are all true
(B) S1, S2, and S3 are all false
(C) S1 and S2 are true, but S3 is false
(D) S1 and S3 are true, but S2 is false.
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Computer Networks

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
[Ans. B]
Associated with distance vector routing
algorithm
[Ans. C]
Table for node B
A
A
B
C
C
D
D
E
C
F
D
Routing table
For R1
R2
R3
R4
R5
R6
1
1
1
2
2
R1
R2
R3
R4
R5
R2
R3
R4
R5
R6
12
7
9
1
5
Next hop
R2
R2
R2
R5
R5
12
8
9
1
4
Next hop
R3
R4
R3
R4
R6
For R4
R1
R2
R3
R5
R6
[Ans. C]
For R5
R4
8
6
R1
3
2
9
9
13
Next hop
R1
R2
R4
R5
R5
For R3
[Ans. D]
S1 True, Since ount To Infinity is only
a problem with DV but not LS
S2
alse, since in LS, the shortest path
algorithm is run at all nodes
S3
alse, since in DV, we dont use any
shortest path algorithm
S4 True, since in DV, each node shares
its routing table only with its
neighbors, where as inLS each node
broadcast its routing table to all
nodes in the network.
5
2
7
8
12
Next hop
R3
R3
R4
R4
R4
For R2
[Ans. A]
Node A goes down at time t. At time
t 100 the cost from Node to node
A will definitely be > 100 and finite,
because Node will receive cost from
neighbor D where as D will have 3
neighbors {B, C, E} and at least one
neighbor will give finite cost.
R2
5
3
12
12
16
Next hop
R3
R3
R3
R3
R3
R3
R5
R1
R2
R3
R4
R6
R6
4
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For R6
9.
[Ans. A]
Network ID = 245.248.128.0/20
alf of this IP addresses to A
ISP wants
VLSM
Quarter to Organization
to give
Retaining the remaining with
itself [Quarter]
Total subnets 2
2 level subnetting
osts Subnet 2
2
Next hop
R1
16
R5
R2
12
R5
R3
13
R5
R4
5
R5
R5
4
R5
So it is clear visualize from the all routing
table construction that we never use the
direct path between
6
R1
R2
and
R4
Computer Networks
R6
So two links never be used for carrying

data.
6.
[Ans. B]
After changing the weights of unused link
R1 R2 & R4 R6 to 2. Then the no. of
unused links are only one [R5 R6]
R2
R4
6
R1
8
2
R6
4
R3
R5
Link R5-R6 will
be unused
7.
8.
[Ans. A]
In the next round, every node will send
and receive distance vectors to and from
neighbours, and update its distance
vector. N3 will receive (1, 0, 2, 7, 3) from
N2 and it will update distance to N1 and
N5 as 3 and 5 respectively
Total soultions 2
S. No
Organization Network ID/
Subnet mast
A 50
245.248.128.0 21
1
25
245.248.136.0 22,
245.248.140.0/22
A 50
245.248.136.0 21
2
25
245.248.128.0 22,
245.248.140.0/22
[Ans. C]
In the next ground, N3 will receive
distance from N2 to N1 as infinite. It will
receive distance from N4 to N1 as 8. So it
will update distance to N1 as 8+2 =10
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10.
Computer Networks
[Ans. C]
Network Layer = 4 times &
Data link layer = 6 times
S
Network
Network
Data link
Data link
Physical
Physical
11.
[Ans. D]
S1 True, since in Link State Routing
every node has to execute the
shortest path algorithm.
S2
False, since looping problem is not
eliminated completely by Split
Horizon.
S3 True, since in Link State each node
broadcast the topology changes to
all other nodes in the network,
where as Distance Vector informs
only to its neighbors.
12.
[Ans. 1]
IP Address = 131.23.151.76
Binary Value of given IP Address =
10000011. 00010111. 10010111.
0100110
We always compare the IP with the
Highest Mask.
131.19.0.0/16
10000011.00010011.00000000.
00000000 Match Failed
131.22.0.0/15
10000011.00010110.00000000.
00000000 Match Success
As the first 15 network bits of
131.22.0.0/15 and 131.23.151.76 are
same. So the outgoing interface will be
1.
13.
[Ans. A]
RIP Routing Information Protocol uses
Distance Vector Routing Algorithm
OSPF Open Shortest Path First Protocol
uses Link State Routing Algorithm
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Computer Networks
TCP/IP, UDP and Sockets, IP(V4)

CS 2005
1.
Packets of the same session may be
routed through different paths in:
(A) TCP, but not UDP
(B) TCP and UDP
(C) UDP, but not TCP
(D) Neither TCP nor UDP
2.
The address resolution protocol (ARP) is

used for:
(A) Finding the IP address from the DNS
(B) Finding the IP address of the default
gateway
(C) Finding the IP address that
corresponds to a MAC Address
(D) Finding the MAC address that
corresponds to an IP Address
3.
An organization has a class B network and

wishes to for m subnets for 64
departments. The subnet mask would be:
(A) 255.255.0.0
(C) 255.255.128.0
(B) 255.255.64.0
(D) 255.255.252.0
4.
Trace-route reports a possible route that

is taken by packets moving from some
host A to some other host B. Which of the
following
options
represents
the
technique used by trace-route to identify
these hosts?
(A) By progressively querying routers
about the next router on the path to
B using ICMP packets, starting with
the first router.
(B) By requiring each router to append
the address to the ICMP packet as it
is forwarded to B. The list of all
routers en-route to B is returned by
B in an ICMP reply packet.
(C) By ensuring that an ICMP reply
packet is returned to A by each
router en-route to B, in the ascending
order of their hop distance from A
(D) By locally computing the shortest
path from A to B
5.
On a TCP connection, current congestion

window size is Congestion Window = 4 KB.
The window size advertised by the receiver
is Advertise Window = 6 KB. The last byte
sent by the sender is Last Byte Sent= 10240
and the last byte acknowledged by the
receiver is last byte acked = 8192.
The current window size at the sender is:
(A) 2048 bytes
(C) 6144 bytes
(B) 4096 bytes
(D) 8192 bytes
6.
In a communication network, a packet of

length L bits takes link L1 with a
probability of p1 or link L2 with a
probability of p2 . Link L1 and L2 have bit
error probability of b1 and b2
respectively. The probability that the
packet will be received without error via
either L1 or L2 is:
(A) (1 b1)Lp1 + (1 b2)Lp2
(B) [1 (b1+b2)L]p1 p2
(C) (1 b1)L (1 b2)L p1 p2
(D) 1 (b1Lp1 + b2Lp2)
7.
A company has a class C network address

of 204.204.204.0. It wishes to have three
subnets, one with 100 hosts and two with
50 hosts each. Which one of the following
options represents a feasible set of subnet
address/subnet mask pairs?
(A) 204.204.204.128/255.255.255.192
204.204.204.0/255.255.255.128
204.204.204.64/255.255.255.128
(B) 204.204.204.0/255.255.255.192
204.204.204.192/255.255.255.128
204.204.204.64/255.255.255.128
(C) 204.204.204.128/255.255.255.128
204.204.204.192/255.255.255.192
204.204.204.224/255.255.255.192
(D) 204.204.204.128/255.255.255.128
204.204.204.64/255.255.255.192
204.204.204.0/255.255.255.192
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CS 2006
8.
For which of the following reason does
Internet Protocol (IP) use the
time-to-live (TTL) field in the IP
datagram header?
(A) Ensure packets reach destination
within that time
(B) Discard packet that reach later than
that time
(C) Prevent packets from looping
indefinitely
(D) Limit the time for which a packet
gets queued in intermediate routers
9.
10.
Computer Networks
11.
A program on machine X attempts to

open a UDP connection to port 5376 on a
machine Y and a TCP connection to port
8632 on machine Z. However, there are
no applications listening at the ports y
and Z. An ICMP port Unreachable error
will be generated by
(A) Y but not Z
(B) Z but not Y
(C) Neither Y nor Z
(D) Both Y and Z
12.
A subnetted Class B network has the

following
broadcast
address:
144.16.95.255. Its subnet mask
(A) is necessarily 255.255.224.0
(B) is necessarily 255.255.240.0
(C) is necessarily 255.255.248.0
(D) could be any one of 255.255.224.0,
255.255.240.0, 255.255.248.0
Two computers C1 and C2 are configured

as follows. C1 has IP address 203.197.2.53
and netmask 255.255. 128.0. C2 has IP
address 203.197.75.201 and netmask
255.255.192.0. Which one of the
(A) C1 and C2 both assume they are on
the same network
(B) C2 assumes C1 is on same network,
but C1 assumes C2 is on a different
network
(C) C1 assumes C2 is on same network,
but C2 assumes C1 is on a different
network
(D) C1 and C2 both assume they are on
different network

and 14:
Consider the diagram shown below
where a number of LANs are connected
by (transparent) bridges. In order to
avoid packets looping through circuit in
the graph, the bridges organize
themselves in a spanning tree. First, the
root bridge is identified as the sends with
the least serial number. Next, the root
sends out (one or more) data unit to
enable the setting up of the spanning tree
of shortest paths from the root bridge to
each bridge. Each bridge identifies a port
(the root port) through which it will
forward frames to the root bridge. Port
conflicts are always resolved in favour of
the port with the lower index value. When
there is a possibility of a multiple bridge
forwarding to the same LAN(but not
through the root port), ties are broken as
follows: bridge closest to the root get
preference and between such bridges, the
one with lowest serial number is
preferred.
A router uses the following routing table:

Destination Mask
Interface
144.16.0.0
255.255.0.0
Eth0
144.16.64.0 255.255.224.0
Eth1
144.16.68.0 255.255.255.0
Eth2
144.16.68.64 255.255.255.224 Eth3
A packet bearing a destination address
144.16.68.117 arrives at the router. On
which interface will it be forwarded?
(A) Eth0
(C) Eth2
(B) Eth1
(D) Eth3
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GATE QUESTION BANK
(C)
B1
H2
H1
B3
H6
H5
1 B4
3
H9
13.
14.
H4
H3
2
B5
Computer Networks
H10
H8
B2
H12
H11
Port
3
1
4
CS 2007
15. The address of a class B host is to be split
into subnets with a 6 bit subnet number.
What is the maximum no. of subnets and
the maximum no. of hosts in each subnet?
(A) 62 subnets and 262142 hosts
(B) 64 subnets and 262142 hosts
(C) 62 subnets and 1022 hosts
(D) 64 subnets and 1024 hosts
16.

the timeout value used in TCP.
(i) The timeout value is set to the RTT
(Round Trip Time) measured during
TCP connection establishment for
the entire duration of the connection.
(ii) Appropriate
RTT
estimation
algorithm is used to set the timeout
value of a TCP connection.
(iii) Timeout value is set to twice the
propagation delay from the sender to
the receiver
Which of the following choices hold?
(A) (i) is false, but (ii) and (iii) are true
(B) (i) and (iii) are false, but (ii) is true
(C) (i) and (ii) are false, but (iii) is true
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii) are false
17.
Consider a TCP connection in a state

where there are no outstanding ACKs. The
sender sends two segments back to back.
The sequence numbers of the first and
second segments are 230 and 290
respectively. The first segment was lost,
Consider the correct spanning tree for the

previous question. Let host H1 send out a
broadcast ping packet Which of the
following options represents the correct
forwarding table on B3?
(A)
Port
3
1
2
(B)
Hosts
H1, H2
H3, H4
H5, H6
H7, H8, H9, H10
H11, H12
Hosts
H1, H2, H3, H4
H5, H7, H9, H10
H7, H8, H11, H12
For the given connection of LANs by

bridges, which one of the following
choices represents the depth first
traversal of the a spanning tree of
bridges?
(A) B1, B5, B3, B4, B2
(B) B1, B3, B5, B2, B4
(C) B1, B5, B2, B3, B4
(D) B1, B3, B4, B5, B2
Hosts
H1, H2, H3, H4
H5, H6, H9, H10
H7, H8, H11, H12
Port
3
1
4
2
(D)
H7
Hosts
H3, H4
H5, H6, H9, H10
H1, H2
H7, H8, H11, H12
Port
4
3
1
2
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but the second segment was received

correctly by the receiver. Let X is the
amount of data carried in the first
segment (in bytes) and Y is the ACK
number sent by the receiver.
The values of X and Y (in that order) are
(A) 60 and 290
(C) 60 and 231
(B) 230 and 291
(D) 60 and 230
18.
Which one of the following uses UDP as

the transport Protocol?
(A) HTTP
(C) DNS
(B) Telnet
(D) SMTP
CS 2008
19. What is the maximum size of data that the
application layer can pass on to the TCP
layer below?
(A) Any Size
(B) 216 bytes size of TCP header
(C) 216 bytes
(D) 1500 bytes
20.
If a class B network on the internet has a

subnet mask 255.255.248.0, what is the
max no. of hosts per subnet?
(C) 2046
(A) 1022
(B) 1023
(D) 2047
21.
A client process P needs to make a TCP

connection to a server process S.
Consider the following situation: the
server process S executes
a socket(), a
bind() & a listen() system call in that
order, following which it is preempted.
Subsequently, the client process P
executes a socket() system call followed
by connect( ) system call to connect to the
server process S. The server process has
not executed any accept() system call.
Which one following events could take
place?
(A) connect() system call returns
successfully
(B) connect () system call blocks
(C) connect() system call returns an
error
Computer Networks
(D) connect() system call returns in a

core dump
22.
In the slow start phase of the TCP

congesting control algorithm the size of
the congestion window
(A) Does not increase
(B) Increases linearly
(C) Increases quadratic ally
(D) Increases exponentially
23.
Which of the following system calls

results in the sending of SYN packets?
(A) socket
(C) listen
(B) blind
(D) connect
CS 2009
24. While operating a TCP connection, the
initial sequence no. is to be derived using
a time of day (TOD) clock that keeps
running
even when the host is down.
The low order 32 bit of the counter of the
TOD clock is to be used for the initial
sequence numbers. The clock counter
increments once per milli second. The
maximum packet lifetime is given to be
64s.
Which one of the choices given
below is closest to the minimum
permissible rate at which sequence
numbers used for packets of
a
connection can increase?
(A) 0.015/s
(C) 0.135/s
(B) 0.064/s
(D) 0.327/s
CS 2010
25. One of the header fields in an IP datagram
is the Time-to-Live (TTL) field. Which of
the following statements best explains the
need for this field?
(A) It can be used to prioritize packets.
(B) It can be used to reduce delays.
(C) It can be used to optimize
throughput.
(D) It can be used to prevent packet
looping.
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26.
Suppose computers A and B have IP

addresses 10.105.1.113 and 10.105.1.91
respectively and they both use the same
netmask N. Which of the values of N given
below should not be used if A and B
should belong to the same network?
(A) 255.255.255.0
(B) 255.255.255.128
(C) 255.255.255.192
(D) 255.255.255.224
CS 2012
27. In the IPV4 addressing format, the
number of networks allowed under Class
C address is
(A) 2
(C) 2
(B) 2
(D) 2
28.
29.
Which of the following transport layer

protocol is used to support electronic
mail?
(A) SMTP
(C) TCP
(B) IP
(D) UDP
Consider an instance of TCPs Additive
Increase Multiplicative Decrease (AIMD)
algorithm where the window size at the
start of the slow start phase is 2 MSS and
the threshold at the start of the first
transmission is 8 MSS. Assume that a
timeout occurs during the fifth
transmission. Find the congestion
window size at the end of the tenth
transmission.
(A) 8 MSS
(C) 7 MSS
(B) 14 MSS
(D) 12 MSS
CS 2013
30. The transport layer protocols used for
real time multimedia, file transfer, DNS
and email, respectively are
(A) TCP, UDP, UDP and TCP
(B) UDP, TCP, TCP and UDP
(C) UDP, TCP, UDP and TCP
(D) TCP, UDP, TCP and UDP
31.
Computer Networks
In an IPv4 datagram, the M bit is 0, the

value of HLEN is 10, the value of total
length is 400 and the fragment offset
value is 300. The position of the
datagram, the sequence numbers of the
first and the last bytes of the payload,
respectively are
(A) Last fragment, 2400 and 2789
(B) First fragment, 240 and 2759
(C) Last fragment, 2400 and 2759
(D) Middle fragment, 300 and 689
CS 2014
32. Let the size of congestion window of a
TCP connection be 32 KB when a timeout
occurs. The round trip time of the
connection is 100 msec and the maximum
segment size used is 2 KB. The time taken
(in msec) by the TCP connection to get
back to 32 KB congestion window is _____.
33.
Which one of the following socket API

function converts an unconnected active
TCP socket into a passive socket?
(A) Connect
(C) Listen
(B) Bind
(D) Accept
34.
In the diagram shown below, L1 is an

Ethernet LAN and L2 is a Token Ring
LAN. An IP packet originates from S and
traverses to R, as shown. The links within
each ISP and across the two ISPs, are all
point to point optical links. The initial
value of the TTL field is 32. The maximum
possible value of the TTL field when R
receives the datagram is ______.
ISP1
ISP2
LAN L2
S LAN L1
35.
th
Host A (on TCP/IPV4 network A) sends

an IP datagram D to host B (also on
TCP/IPV4 network B). Assume that no
error occurred during the transmission of
D. When D reaches B, which of the
following IP header field(s) may be
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GATE QUESTION BANK
different from that of the original

datagram D?
(i) TTL (ii) Checksum (iii) Fragment
Offset
(A) (i) only
(B) (i) and (ii) only
(C) (ii)and (iii) only
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
36.
37.
Every host in an IPv4 network has a

1 second resolution real time clock
with battery backup. Each host needs to
generate up to 1000 unique identifiers
per second. Assume that each host has a
globally unique IPv4 address. Design a
50-bit globally unique ID for this purpose.
After what period (in seconds) will the
identifiers generated by a host wrap
around?
Computer Networks
An IP router with a Maximum

Transmission Unit (MTU) of 1500 bytes
has received an IP packet of size
4404 bytes with an IP header of length
20 bytes. The values of the relevant fields
in the header of the third IP fragment
generated by the router for this packet
are
(A) MF bit: 0, Datagram Length: 1444;
Offset: 370
(B) MF bit: 1, Datagram Length: 1424;
Offset: 185
(C) MF bit: 1, Datagram Length: 1500;
Offset: 370
(D) MF bit: 0, Datagram Length: 1424;
Offset: 2960

1.
2.
3.
[Ans. B]
In both TCP & UDP, packets of same
session will be routed in different paths,
because they are using IP protocol in the
Network Layer which is purely a
connection less protocol. Theoretically we
say that TCP is connection oriented
protocol, it doesnt mean that packets of
same session will travel in the same path,
we are simulating the connection by using
buffers at both sender and receiver.
Finally TCP is using a Virtual connection.
[Ans. D]
ARP: Finding the MAC address that
corresponds to an IP address
[Ans. D]
In a class B network initial two octets are
all 1s but third octet specifies the
physical network for subnet of 64
department or 2 so initial 6 bits of third
octets are 1s
11111111 . 11111111 .11111100 . 00000000
255
.
255
.
252 .
0
4.
[Ans. C]
ICMP reply packet is returned to A by
each router en-router to B.
5.
[Ans. B]
Congestion window = cwnd = 4KB
Receiver window = rwnd = 6KB
Current Window Size = min(cwnd, rwnd)
= min(4KB, 6KB) = 4KB
Just to confuse us they provided the
additional information like Last Byte Sent
and Last Byte Acknowledged, which are
totally not required in finalizing the
window size.
6.
[Ans. A]
Probability (p via L = 1 b
Probability (p via L = 1 b
Probability p) via L or L = p
7.
p
p
p
[Ans. D]
Class of network = class-C network
[n=24, h=8] [25h hosts/Network]
Network Address = 204.204.204.0
Requirement = 3 subnets
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Subnet No of Hosts/Subnet
1
100
2
50
3
50
Types of subnetting = VLSM
No of subnets = 2
No of hosts/subnet =2
2
2 levels subnetting required.
Initially Total Subnets = 2 2
2
n 1 1 bit to be taken from host
n 25
h 8
9.
[Ans. C]
The two computers
configured as follows:
IP address
and
8.
1
2
3
1
2
3
Network ID/ Mask

204.204.204.0/255.255.255.128
204.204.204.128/255.255.255.192
204.204.204.192/255.255.255.192
204.204.204.128/255.255.255.128
204.204.204.0/255.255.255.192
204.204.204.64/255.255.255.192
are
203.197.75.201
AND
255.255.128.0
255.255.192.0
203.197.0.0
203.197.64.0
Network address
Network address
203.197.2.53 203.197.00000010.00111001
255.255.192.0 255.255.11000000.00000000
203.197.0.0
203.197.0.0
203.197.75.201
255.255.128.0
203.192.0.0
assumes is on same network but

assume is on different network
10.
[Ans. C]
Boolean And (Destination Address, Mask)
Must give the Network ID
Given Destination Address =
144.16.68.117 = 144.16.68.01110101
Router always considers the Highest
Mask first, then second highest, and so
on
First Highest Mask:Destination Network ID =144.16.68.64
and Mask = 255.255.255.224
Boolean And (144.16.68.117,
255.255.255.224)=144.16.68.96 Not
matching with NetworkID
Second Highest Mask:Destination Network ID =144.16.68.0 and
Mask = 255.255.255.0
Boolean And (144.16.68.117,
255.255.255.0)=144.16.68.0 Matched
with Network ID
Hence, the outgoing interface = Eth2
11.
[Ans. A]
Because UDP generate the error that
machine you are trying to reach is not
responding unlike TCP.
12.
[Ans. D]
Broadcast Address with in a network
All host bits will be 1s. ontinuous 1s]
We cannot confidently say the exact no. of
network bits in a subnetted network.
As all options are appropriate for the
given question.
Total solution = 2
Hosts/
subnet
100
50
50
100
50
50
203.197.2.53
and
Netmask
S. No Subnet
Computer Networks
[Ans. C]
TTL field in IP Datagram To prevent
packets from looping indefinitely.
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: 080-65700750, info@thegateacademy.com Copyright reserved. Web: www.thegateacademy.comPage 386
GATE QUESTION BANK
Broadcast Address = 144. 16.95.255

=144. 16. 01011111.11111111
Option A = 255. 255.224.0
=255.255.11100000.00000000
Option B = 255. 255.240.0 =
255.255.11110000.00000000
Option C = 255. 255.248.0 =
255.255.11111000.00000000
13.
1024
[Ans. B]
TCP is using an appropriate RTT
estimation algorithm to set the timeout
value of a TCP connection. It is dynamic
and will change with every segment.
Initial value of RTT is greater than that of
twice the propagation delay.
17.
[Ans. D]
Difference between two consecutive
packets is amount of data carried in first
packet.
Here, 290 230 = 60
X = 60
Y = 230
18.
[Ans. A]
Application layer can pass data of Any
Size to Transport Layer. The Transport
Layer can send data of any size in
multiple segments. Segmentation &
Reassembly is the responsibility of
Transport Layer to send data of any size
given by the application layer.
19.
[Ans. B]
The maximum size of data that the
application layer can pass on to the TCP
layer is 2 bytes size of TCP header.
[Ans. A]
By looking at the above diagram Bridge
3 will broadcast to all the hosts as
follows:Hosts
Port
H1, H2, H3, H4
3
H5, H6, H9, H10
1
H7, H8, H11, H12
2
20.
[Ans. C]
11111111 . 11111111 . 11111000 .
00000000
No. of hosts per subnet
=2
2 2048 2= 2046
21.
[Ans. C]
Connect ( ) system call returns an error.
[Ans. C]
The class B is defined as follows
22.
[Ans. D]
In the slow start phase, the size of the
congestion window increases exponentially.
23.
[Ans. D]
Connect system call is responsible for
synchronize the packets
[Ans. A]
Spanning tree for the given diagram is as
follows:B1
H1 H2
H3 H4
3
2
1
B5
B3
2
H5 H6
H7 H8
B4
B2
H9 H10
H11 H12
Three Possible Depth First Traversals are

1.
1
5
3
4
2
2.
1
3
4
2
5
3.
1
3
2
4
5
Possibility: 1 is matching with Option A.
So obviously Answer = A
15.
16.
14.
2
1022
Computer Networks
0
1
16
0
net id
31
host id
Maximum number of subnet = 2

2 = 62
Maximum number of host in each subnet
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24.
[Ans. B]
0.064 is closest to the minimum
permissible rate at which sequence
number used for packet of a connection
can increase.
25.
[Ans. D]
Whenever Time to live field reaches 0
we discard the packet. So, it can be used
to prevent packet looping
26.
27.
[Ans. C]
Numbers of networks in class are 2
as in class there
Out of 24 bits 3-bits are used for representation

class i.e. 110
21 bits.
With 21 bits we can make 2 networks
28.
[Ans. D]
IP address of A = 10.105.1.113
10.105.1.01110001
IP address of B = 10.105.1.91
10.105.1.0101011011
29.
For finding network address we take AND
of IP address with the netmask N. So we
check one by one.
(A) (i) 255.255.255.0 = N
10.105.1.01110001
Taking AND
10.105.1.00000000
IP address of A
[Ans. C]
UDP and TCP are transport layer protocol.
TCP supports electronic mail.
Option correct
[Ans. C]
1st 2 MSS
} Slow Start
2nd 4 MSS
3rd 8 MSS
4th 9 MSS } additive increase
5
10
Time out threshold
8 4
6th
7th
8th
9th
10th
(ii) By taking and with B

255.255.255.00000000
10.105.1.01011011
10.105.1.00000000
So both belong to same network
(B) (i) 255.255.255.128
255.255.255.10000000
10.105.1.01110001 IP of A
10.105.1.00000000
(ii) 255.255.255.10000000
10.105.1.01011011 IP of B
10.105.1.0000000
So both belong to same network
Computer Networks
5MSS} multiplicative decrease

4 MSS
5 MSS
6 MSS
7MSS
30.
[Ans. C]
Real time multimedia UDP
File transfer - TCP
DNS UDP
Email TCP
31.
[Ans. C]
M = 0: Means to more fragmentation so it
represent the last fragment.
HLEN = 10:
Header length 10 4 40 bytes
Payload: 400 40 360 bytes [0 to 359]
Fragment offset : 300 means
300 8 2400 bytes
Sequence number of first fragment = 2400
Sequence number of last fragment
= 2400 + 359
= 2759
(D) (i) 255.255.255.11100000

10.105.1.01110001 IP of A
10.105.1.01100000
(ii) 255.255.255.11100000
10.105.1.010111011 IP of B
10.105.1.01100000
Both are not same so it not belong to
same network
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GATE QUESTION BANK
32.
[Ans. *] Range 1100 to 1300

Size of Congestion Window = cw = 32KB
Round Trip Time = 100 msec
Maximum Segment Size = 2KB
Initial Congestion Window Size= initial
cw = 1MSS = 2KB [Default Value]
Time Out occurs at cw = 32KB , then
Phase = Slow-Start Phase with the
following changes:Threshold = cw/2 =16KB
Current cw = 2KB [initial cw]
Phase = Slow Start Phase
Round
Threshold
Current
Congestion
Window
2KB
4KB
16KB
8KB
16KB
16KB
16KB
18KB
16KB
Phase
incoming connection requested to this

socket.
34.
100msec
Slow-Start
Phase
Slow-Start
Phase
100msec
16KB
Congestion
Avoidance
Phase
100msec
20KB
16KB
100msec
22KB
16KB
Congestion
Avoidance
Phase
Congestion
Avoidance
Phase
24KB
16KB
100msec
26KB
16KB
10
28KB
16KB
11
30KB
16KB
12
32KB
16KB
Congestion
Avoidance
Phase
Congestion
Avoidance
Phase
Congestion
Avoidance
Phase
Congestion
Avoidance
Phase
Congestion
Avoidance
Phase
100msec
ISP1
30
ISP2
27
26
LAN L2
35.
[Ans. D]
Host A sends a datagram D to Host B and
it has been delivered successfully.
All the 3 given options can change while
datagram D reaches ost .
1) TTL It decrements at every router.
[Initial Value will be different from the
final value]
2) Checksum As IPV4 header will be
reconstructed at every router;
obviously checksum also will be
calculated at every router. So the
initial value of checksum will be
different from the final value.
3) Fragment Offset Any intermediate
router can fragment the packet if
packet size is greater than maximum
transmission unit [MTU] of the next
network. So obviously the initial value
of fragment offset will be different
from the final value.
36.
[Ans. 256]
Given that each host has a globally unique
IPV4 address and we have to design
50 bit unique Id. So, 50 bit in the sense
(32 + 18). So, it is showing that IP
Address (32 bit) followed by 18 bits.
1000 unique Ids 1 sec
2 unique ids 2 1000 2
256
100msec
100msec
100msec
100msec
1200 msec
33.
31
29 28
S LAN L1
100msec
100msec
[Ans. 26]
Initial TTL Value = 32
TTL value will be decremented by 1 at
each Router on the way to the
Destination.
TTL value will be 26 when packet reaches
R
32
Round
Trip Time
Slow-Start
Phase
Slow-Start
Phase
Computer Networks
[Ans. C]
The listen function converts an
unconnected socket into a passive socket,
indicating that the kernel should accept
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GATE QUESTION BANK
37.
Computer Networks
[Ans. A]
Size of received IP Datagram
= 4404 bytes = 20 byte IP Header + 4384
payload
Maximum Transmission unit [MTU]
= 1500 bytes
Obviously, Router will fragment the 4384
Payload as follows:
S.No
1
2
3
Size of
1500
1500
1444
Datagram
IP Header
200
20
20
Payload
1480
1480
1424
MF bit
1
1
0
Value
Starting
0
1480
2960
Payload
Byte No
Ending
1479
2959
4383
Payload
Byte No
Fragment
0/8 =
1480/8 2960/8
Offset
0
= 185
= 370
Thus for 3 IP fragment values are as
follows:
Size of Datagram = 1444 bytes
MF bit Value = 0 [Since this is the last
fragment]
Fragment Offset = 370
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GATE QUESTION BANK
Computer Networks
Application Layer
CS 2005
1.
A HTML form is to be designed to enable
purchase of office stationery. Required
items are to be selected (checked). Credit
card details are to be entered and then
the submit button is to be pressed. Which
one of the following options would be
appropriate for sending the data to the
server? Assume that security is handled
in a way that is transparent to the form
design.
(A) only GET
(B) only POST
(C) either of GET or POST
(D) neither GET nor POST
CS 2006
2.
HELO and PORT, respectively
commands from the protocols
(A) FTP and HTTP
(B) TELNET and POP3
(C) HTTP and TELNET
(D) SMTP and FTP
are
CS 2008
3.
Provide the best matching between the
entries in the two columns given in the
table below:
I
Proxy Server a.
Firewall
II
aZaA, D
b.
Caching
III
SLIP
c.
P2P
IV
DNS
d.
PPP
(A) I a, II d, III c, IV b
(B) I b, II d, III c, IV a
(C) I a, II c, III d, IV b
(D) I b, II c, III d, IV a
CS 2010
4.
Which one of the following is not a clientserver application?
(A) Internet chat
(C) E-mail
(B) Web browsing
(D) Ping
CS 2011
5.
Consider different activities related to
email
m1: Send an email from a mail client to a
mail server
m2: Download an email form mailbox
server to mail client
m3: Checking email in a web browser
Which is the application level protocol
used in each activity?
(A) m1: HTTP m2: SMTP m3: POP
(B) m1: SMTP m2: FTP m3: HTTP
(C) m1: SMTP m2: POP m3: HTTP
(D) m1: POP m2: SMTP m3: IMAP
CS 2012
6.
The protocol data unit (PDU) for the
application layer in the Internet stack is
(A) Segment
(C) Message
(B) Datagram
(D) Frame
CS 2014
7.
Identify the correct order in which the
following actions take place in an
interaction between a web browser and a
web server.
1. The web browser requests a webpage
using HTTP.
2. The web browser establishes a TCP
connection with the web server.
3. The web server sends the requested
webpage using HTTP.
4. The web browser resolves the
domain name using DNS.
(A) 4,2,1,3
(C) 4,1,2,3
(B) 1,2,3,4
(D) 2,4,1,3
8.
A graphical HTML browser resident at a

network client machine Q accesses a
static HTML webpage from a HTTP server
S. The static HTML page has exactly one
static embedded image which is also at S.
Assuming no caching, which one of the
following is correct about the HTML
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Page 391
GATE QUESTION BANK
webpage
loading
(including
the
embedded image)?
(A) Q needs to send at least 2 HTTP
requests to S, each necessarily in a
separate TCP connection to server S
(B) Q needs to send at least 2 HTTP
requests to S, but a single TCP
connection to server S is sufficient
(C) A single HTTP request from Q to S is
sufficient, and a single TCP
connection between Q and S is
necessary for this
(D) A single HTTP request from Q to S is
sufficient, and this is possible
without any TCP connection between
Q and S
9.
Computer Networks
An IP machine Q has a path to another IP

machine H via three IP routers R1, R2,
and R3.
QR1R2R3H
H acts as an HTTP server, and Q connects
to H via HTTP and downloads a file.
Session layer encryption is used, with DES
as the shared key encryption protocol.
Consider the following four pieces of
information:
[I1] The URL of the file downloaded by Q
[I2] The TCP port numbers at Q and H
[I3] The IP addresses of Q and H
[I4] The link layer addresses of Q and H
Which of I1, I2, I3, and I4 can an intruder
learn through sniffing at R2 alone?
(A) Only I1 and I2 (C) Only I2 and I3
(B) Only I1
(D) Only I3 and I4
Answers Keys & Explanations

1.
2.
[Ans. D]
HELO and PORT commands are from
the protocol SMTP and FTP.
3.
[Ans. D]
Proxy server
KaZaA, DC++
SLIP
DNS
4.
5.
m3 Checking email in a web browser

HTTP
[Ans. C]
GET or POST can be used sending the
data to the server.
aching
P2P
PPP
irewall
[Ans. D]
Ping is utility to check connectivity either
between client-client or client-server
6.
[Ans. C]
PDU is called a message in application
layer, segment in transport layer,
datagram in network layer and frame in
data link layer
7.
[Ans. A]
Firstly DNS will translate the URL into IP
address, then TCP connection will be
established. After that browser will
request for webpage and at the end
server will respond for request
8.
[Ans. B]
Q: Client Accessing a Static HTML web
page from HTTP Server
S: Server Static HTML page has exactly
one Static mbedded Image located in S
only
No Caching
How HTML Web Page Loads?
HTTP Uses TCP Protocol 1-TCP
Connection must be established first
[Ans. C]
m1 Send an email from a mail client to
a mail server SMTP
m2 Download an email from a mail
client to a mail server POP
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GATE QUESTION BANK
Computer Networks
[HTTP 1.1 uses Persistent Connection,

One TCP connection can serve multiple
requests]
Q must send 2 HTTP requests One for
Web Page and the other for the Image.
9.
[Ans. C]
1) Station Q will be downloading a file
from TTP server and 3 routers
R1, R2, and R3 between Q and H.
2) Sniffing at R2 alone
what
information will be disclosed?
Only IP addresses & Port Numbers
3) As IP addresses & Port Numbers
remains same for the entire journey
to the destination, so sniffing will get
both IP addresses and Port Numbers
of Q and .
4) URL Station Q alone knows the
URL and requests the DNS server for
destination IP. As URL wont be
included in the packet, so the routers
in the middle are totally unaware of
URLs.
5) Link Layer Addresses of Q and H
Ethernet Address (or) MAC address
(or) Physical Address. As the
physical addresses changes from
Hop to Hop, Sniffing at R2 will know
only the physical addresses of R1 and
R2 but not Q and H.
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GATE QUESTION BANK
Computer Networks
Network Security
CS -2005
1.
Suppose that two parties A and B wish to
setup a common secret key (D-H key)
between themselves using the DiffieHellman key exchange technique. They
agree on 7 as the modulus and 3 as the
primitive root. Party A chooses 2 and
party B chooses 5 as their respective
secrets. Their D-H key is:
(A) 3
(C) 5
(B) 4
(D) 6
CS -2008
4.
The total number of keys required for a
set of n individuals to be able to
communicate with each other using
secret key and public key cryptosystems,
respectively are :
(A) n (n 1) and 2n
CS -2007
2.
Exponentiation is a heavily used
operation in public key cryptography.
Which of the following options is the
tightest upper bound on the no. of
multiplications required to compute
b modulo m, 0b, nm?
(A) O (log n)
(C) O (n/log n)
(D) O (n)
(B) O (n )
CS -2009
5.
In the RSA public key cryptosystem, the
private & public keys are (e, n) & (d, n)
respectively, where n=p * q and p and q
are large primes. Besides, n is public & p
& q are private . Let M be an integer such
that 0<M<n & (n) = (p 1) (q 1).
Now consider the following equations.
(A) M = Me mod n
M = (M )d mod n
(B) ed = 1 mod n
(C) ed = 1 mod (n)
(D) M = Me mod (n)
M = (M )d mod (n)
Which of the above equations correctly
represent RSA cryptosystem?
(A) I and II
(C) II and IV
(B) I and III
(D) III and IV
3.
A firewall is to be configured to allow host

in a private network to freely open TCP
connections & send packets on open
connections. However, it will only allow
external hosts to send packets on existing
open TCP connections or connections
that are being opened (by internal host )
but not allow them to open TCP
connections to hosts in the private
network. To achieve this he minimum
capability of the firewall should be that of
(A) A combinational circuit
(B) A finite automation
(C) A pushdown automation with one
stack
(D) A pushdown automation with two
stacks
(B) 2n and
(C)
and 2n
(D)
and n
CS -2011
6.
A layer-4 firewall (a device that can look
at all protocol headers up to the transport
layer ) CANNOT
(A) Block entire HTTP traffic during
9:00 PM and 5:00 AM
(B) Block all ICMP traffic
(C) Stop incoming traffic from a specific
IP address but allow outgoing traffic
to the same IP address
(D) Block TCP traffic from a specific user
on a multi-user system during
9:00PM and 5:00AM
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GATE QUESTION BANK
Computer Networks
CS -2013
7.
Using public key cryptography, X adds a
digital signature to message M, encrypts
<M, > and sends it to Y, where it is
decrypted. Which one of the following
sequences of keys is used for the
operations?
(A) ncryption :Xs private key followed
by Ys private key;
Decryption: Xs public key followed
by Ys public key
(B) ncryption: Xs private key followed
by Ys public key;
Decryption: Xs public key followed
by Ys private key
(C) ncryption: Xs public key followed
by Ys private key;
Decryption : Ys public key followed
by Xs private key
(D) ncryption : Xs private key followed
by Ys public key;
Decryption : Ys private key followed
by Xs public key
CS- 2014
8.
Which of the following are used to
generate a message digest by the network
security protocols?
(P) RSA
(Q) SHA 1
(R) DES
(S) MD5
(A) P and R only
(C) Q and S only
(D) R and S only
(B) Q and R only
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Computer Networks

1.
[Ans. B]
p=7
g = primitive root = 3
Party A chooses = a = 2
Party B choose = b = 5
D-H Key = k =?
k= g
(mod p) = 3
(mod 7) = 4
2.
[Ans. C]
O(n/ log n) is the tightest upper bound.
3.
[Ans. D]
A pushdown automata with two stacks
4.
[Ans. C]
8.
[Ans. C]
RSA (Rivert, Shamir, Adleman) is a public
key crypto system.
SHA 1 (Secure Hash Algorithm) is a
hash function to generate a message
digest
DES (Data Encryption standard) is a
symmetric key algorithm for encryption
MD5 is a message digest algorithm
Secret key -------Public key ------- 2n

5.
[Ans. B]
I and III equation correctly represent RSA
cryptosystem
6.
[Ans. D]
To block TCP traffic from specific user,
requires information of specific user
which is done by application layer. To
block HTTP data, layer-4, i.e., transport
layer can be used because it can block
port used by HTTP
7.
[Ans. D]
Decrypting first with Ys private key
ensures confidentiality and rest of the
things follows that way
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GATE QUESTION BANK
Compiler Design
Introduction to Compilers
CS-2005
1.
Consider line number 3 of the following
C program.
int min( ){
/* Line 1 */;
int I, n;
/* Line 2 */;
fro(I=0, I<n,I++)
/* Line 3 */;
}
Identify the compilers response about
this line while creating the object-module
(A) No compilation error
(B) Only a lexical error
(C) Only syntactic errors
(D) Both lexical and syntactic errors
CS-2010
2.
Which data structure in a compiler is used
for managing information about variables
and their attributes?
(A) Abstract syntax tree
(B) Symbol table
(C) Semantic stack
(D) Parse table
CS-2011
3.
In a complier, keywords of a language are
recognized during
(A) Parsing of the program
(B) The code generation
(C) The lexical analysis of the program
(D) Dataflow analysis
CS-2014
4.
performed during compilation?
(A) Dynamic memory allocation
(B) Type checking
(C) Symbol table management
(D) Inline expansion

1.
2.
[Ans. C]
In 2nd line no mis-spelling is there. It is int
only.
Error is underlined function fro ( )
which is a syntactical error rather than
lexical so correct option is C.
[Ans. B]
As we know symbol table is a Data
structure containing record for each
identifier, with fields for the attribute of
the identifier. The symbols entered into
symbol table are nothing but identifier

and operators. It contains information
about variables and their attributes.
3.
[Ans. C]
Keywords are recognized during lexical
analysis
4.
[Ans. A]
Dynamic memory allocation is performed
at run time not on compile time.
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GATE QUESTION BANK
Compiler Design
Syntax Analysis
CS-2005
1.
The grammar A AA |(A)| is not
suitable for predictive-parsing because
the grammar is
(A) ambiguous
(B) left-recursive
(C) right-recursive
(D) an operator-grammar
2.
3.
Consider the grammar E E + n|E n|n

For a sentence n + n n, the handles in
the right-sentential form of the reduction
are
(A) n, E + n and E + n n
(B) n, E + n and E + E n
(C) n, n + n and n + n n
(D) n, E + n and E n
5.
Consider the following grammar

S FR
R *S |
F id
In the predictive parser table, M, of the
grammar the entries M[S, id] and M[R, $]
respectively
(A) {S FR} and {R }
(B) {S FR} and { }
(C) {S FR} and {R *S}
(D) {F id} and {R }
Linked Answer Questions 6 and 7
Which one of the following grammars
generates the language L = {aibj | i j }?
(A) S A |
a b|a|b
A aA|
b|
(B) S aS|Sb|a|b
(C) S A |
a b|
A aA|
b|
(D) S A |
a b|
A aA|a
b|b
6.
Consider the grammar

S (S) | a
Let the number of states in SLR(1), LR(1)
and LALR(1) parsers for the grammar be
n1, n2 and n3 respectively. The following
relationship holds good
(A) n1< n2< n3
(C) n1 = n2 = n3
(B) n1 = n3< n2
(D) n1 n3 n2
CS-2006
4.
Consider the following grammar.
S S*E
SE
E F + E
E F
F id
Consider the following LR(0) items
corresponding to the grammar above.
(i) S S*.E
(ii) E F.+E
(iii) E F+.E
Given the items above, which two of them
will appear in the same set in the
canonical sets-of-items for the grammar?
(A) (i) and(ii)
(C) (i) and (iii)
(B) (ii) and (iii)
(D) None of these
7.
In the correct grammar above, what is the

length of the derivation (number of steps
starting from S) to generate the string
a bm with l m?
(A) max (l,m) + 2
(C) l + m + 3
(B) l + m + 2
(D) max (l, m) + 3
CS-2007
8.
Which one of the following is a top-down
parser?
(A) Recursive descent parser
(B) Operator precedence parser
(C) An LR(k) parser
(D) An LALR(k) parser
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9.
Consider the grammar with

non-terminals N = {S,C,S }, terminals
T = {a,b,i,t,e}, with S as the start symbol,
and the following set of rules
S iCtSS1| a
S1eS|
Cb
The grammar is NOT LL(1) because:
(A) It is left recursive
(B) It is right recursive
(C) It is ambiguous
(D) It is not context-free
10.
Consider the following two statements:

P : Every regular grammar is LL(1)
Q : Every regular set has LR(1) grammar
(A) Both P and Q are true
(B) P is true and Q is false
(C) P is false and Q is true
CS-2008
13. Which of the following describes a handle
(as
applicable
to
LRparsing)
appropriately?
(A) It is the position in a sentential form
where the next shift or reduce
operation will occur
(B) It is a non-terminal whose
production will be used for reduction
in the next step
(C) It is a production that may be used
for reduction in a future step along
with a position in the sentential form
where the next shift or reduce
operation will occur.
(D) It is the production p that will be
used for reduction in the next step
along with a position in the
sentential form where the right hand
side of the production may be found.
14.
Linked Answer Questions Q.11 & Q.12

Consider the CFG with {S,A,B} as the nonterminal alphabet, {a,b} as the terminal
alphabet, S as the start symbol and the
following set of production rules :
S aB
S bA
B b
A a
B bS
A aS
B aBB
A bAA
11.
Which of the following strings is

generated by the grammar?
(A) aaaabb
(C) aabbab
(B) aabbbb
(D) abbbba
12.
For the correct answer string to above

Q. 11 how many derivation trees are
there?
(A) 1
(C) 3
(B) 2
(D) 4
Compiler Design
An LALR(1) parser for a grammar G can

have shift reduce (S-R) conflicts if & only
if
(A) The SLR(1) parser G has S-R conflicts
(B) The LR(1) parser for G has S-R
conflicts
(C) The LR(0) parser for G has S-R
conflicts
(D) The LALR(1) parser for G has
reduce-reduce conflicts
CS-2010
15. The grammar S aSa | bS | c is
(A) LL(1) but not LR(1)
(B) LR (1) but not LL(1)
(C) Both LL(1) and LR(1)
(D) Neither LL(1) nor LR(1)
CS-2012
Statement for Linked Answer Question 16
and 17:
For the grammar below, a partial LL(1)
parsing table is also presented along with
the grammar. Entries that need to be
filled are indicated as E1, E2, and E3. is
the empty string, $ indicates end of input,
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and, |separates alternate right hand side

of productions.
S a A b B | b A a B |
AS
BS
a
B
$
s
E1
E2
AS
AS
Error
E3
CS-2013
18. What is the maximum number of reduce
moves that can be taken by a bottom up
parser for a grammar with no epsilon and
unit production
(i.e., of type A and A a )to parse a
string with n tokens?
(A) n/2
(C) 2n 1
(B) n 1
(D)
19.
16.
The FIRST and FOLLOW sets for the nonterminals A and B are
(A) FIRST(A) = {a,b,} = FIRST(B)
FOLLOW (A) = {a,b}
FOLLOW (B) = {a,b,$}
(B) FIRST(A) = {a,b,$}
FIRST (B) = {a,b,}
FOLLOW (A) = {a, b}
FOLLOW (B) = {$}
(C) FIRST(A) = {a,b,} = FIRST(B)
FOLLOW(A) = {a,b}
FOLLOW(B) =
(D) FIRST(A) = {a,b,} = FIRST(B)
FOLLOW(A) = {a,b}
FOLLOW(B) = {a,b}
17.
The appropriate entries for E1, E2, E3 are

(A) E1: SaAbB, AS
E2: SbAaB, BS
E3: BS
(B) E1: SaAbB, S
E2: SbAaB, S
E3: S
(C) E1: SaAbB, S
E2: SbAaB, S
E3: BS
(D) E1: AS, S
E2: BS, S
E3: BS
Compiler Design
Consider the following two sets of LR(1)

items of an LR(1) grammar.
X c. X, c|d
X c.X,$
X .c X, c|d
X .cX,$
X .d, c|d
X .d,$
Which of the following statement related
to merging of the two sets in the
corresponding LALR parser is / are
FALSE?
1. Cannot be merged since look aheads
are different
2. Can be merged but will result in S R
conflict
3. Can be merged but will result in R R
conflict
4. Cannot be merged since goto on c
will lead to two different sets.
(A) 1 only
(C) 1 and 4 only
(B) 2 only
(D) 1, 2,3 and 4
CS-2014
20. A canonical set of items is given below
S . R
R.
On input symbol < the set has
(A) a shift-reduce conflict and a
reduce-reduce conflict.
(B) a shift-reduce conflict but not a
reduce-reduce conflict.
(C) a reduce-reduce conflict but not a
shift-reduce conflict.
(D) neither a shift-reduce nor a reducereduce conflict.
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21.
Compiler Design
Consider the grammar defined by the

following production rules, with two
operators and
S
T
T
U|T U
|
id
U id
(A)
is left associative, while is right
associative
(B)
is right associative, while is left
associative
(C) oth and are right associative
(D) oth and are left associative

1.
[Ans. A]
Given grammar is Ambiguous,that is the
reason that it is not suitable for Predictive
paring.
2.
[Ans. D]
E
E+n|En|n
Input String n + n n
E + n n reduction E
n
En
reduction E
E+n
E
reduction E
En
So the reduction are n, E + n, E n
3.
[Ans. B]
S
(S) | a
Parsers
No. of States
SLR (1)
n
LR(1)
n
LALR(1)
n
The number of states of deterministic
finite automata in SLR (1) and LALR (1)
parsers are equal, so n
n . The number
of states of deterministic finite automata
in LR (1) or canonical LR is greater than
the number of states of deterministic
finite automata of SLR(1) and LALR(1)
So n
n
n .
4.
[Ans. D]
Construct the canonical set-of-items and
observe the same.
5.
[Ans. A]
Construct Predictive parser table as
follows
Nonterminal
Id
*
$
S
S
FR
R
R
*S
R
F
F
id
So M[S, id] = {S
FR}
and M[R, $] = {R }
6.
[Ans. D]
SA |
a b|
A aA|a
b|b
From the above grammar,
( ) *a b +
a b|
(A) a
A aA|a
( ) b
b|b
By substituting C, A and B in S.
S AC L(S) = {ambn| m > n}
(S) *a b |m n+
S
(S) *a b |m n or m n+ *a b |i
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GATE QUESTION BANK
7.
8.
9.
[Ans. A]
In the q no. 6 if grammar generates a b
or a b then the length is max (l, m) if it
generates a b initially we include two
extra derivation so the total length is
max (l, m) + 2.
lm
aabbab.
lm
So aabbab is generated by the grammar.
12.
[Ans. A]
Predictive parser and recursive descent
parser are example of top-down parser.
Where as LR(k) and LALR(k) parser are
bottom up parser
[Ans. B]
There are two parse trees for the string
aabbab from left most derivation and one
from right most derivation.
S
[Ans. A]
S
i C t SS | a
S
eS |
C
b
S
i C t SS
i b t SS [apply C
Compiler Design
b]
After second step of derivation i, b, t are

terminals but the left nonterminal symbol
is S so grammar it left recursive after step
2. It is noted that in some cases we cant
observe the left recursion in initial step of
derivation but after some step of
derivation we can seen the left recursion.
S
B
a
a
10.
11.
[Ans. A]
Regular grammar is well recognized by
LL(1) parsers and LR (1) parser is stronger
and more than powerful than LL (1) so
regular grammar is also accepted by LR (1)
parser. Every regular set has LR (1)
grammar. So both statements are correct.
[Ans. C]
S
aB
lm
aaBB
lm
aabB
lm
aabbS
lm
aabbaB
b
a
B
b
13.
[Ans. D]
Definition of handle is given in (D) option.
14.
[Ans. B]
LALR (1) parser uses the LR (1) items. So
LALR (1) parser or for a grammar G can
have S-R conflict if add only if the LR (1)
parser for G has S-R conflicts.
15.
[Ans. C]
S aSa|bS|c
The above grammar is LL (1) because,
First ,aSa- first ,bS- (a) (b)
&&
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First ,bS- first ,c- (b) (c)

&&
First ,c- first ,aSa- (c) (a) =
As the above grammar is LL(1), also
LR (1) because LL(1) grammar is always
LR (1) grammar.
16.
17.
A
B
b
S bAa
S
AS
S
X c.X, $
X .c.X, $
X .d, $
X .cX, c|d
X .cX, c|d |$
X .d, c|d | $
1.
2.
[Ans. C]
S aAb | bAa |
AS
BS
LL(1) Parsing table:
a
S aAb
S
AS
S
[Ans. D]
X c.X, c|d
X .cX, c|d
X .d, c|d
[Ans. A]
S aAbB | bAaB |
AS
BS
First of S = {a, b, }
First of A = {a, b, }
First of B = {a, b, }
Follow of S = {$, a, b}
Follow of A = {b, a}
Follow of B = {$, a, b}
18.
19.
Compiler Design
3.
4.
$
S
error
S
[Ans. B]
If n tokens are there in string, then one
reduction is required for each token. But
at the end two tokens will be reduced to
two terminals because grammar does not
have any unit production. So for last two
token =1
)
For remaining (n
) tokens = (n
Merging of two state depends on

core part (production rule with
dotoperator), not on look ahead.
The two states are not containing
reduce item, so after merging the
merged state cannotcontain any S R
conflict
As there is no Reduce item in any of
the state, so cant have R R conflict
Merging of state does not depend on
further goto on any terminal. So all
statements are false
20.
[Ans. D]
No any conflict, because both items will
be in different states of canonical sets.
21.
[Ans. B]
Consider the following derivation tree
S
T
T
Total = 1 + n 2
=n 1
*
U
id
id
+
Q
id
id
P
Q
id
String = (id id) (id (id id))

* is left associative is right associative
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Compiler Design
Syntax Directed Translation

CS-2005
Linked Answer Questions 1 & 2
Consider the following expression
grammar. The semantic rules for
expression calculation are stated next to
each grammar production.
E number
|
|
1.
2.
E.val=number.val
E(1).val = E(2).val + E(3).val
E(1).val = E(2).val E(3).val
The above grammar and the semantic

rules are fed to a yacc tool (Which is an
LALR(1) parser generator) for parsing
and evaluating arithmetic expressions.
Which one of the following is true about
the action of yacc for the given grammar?
(A) It detects recursion and eliminates
recursion
(B) It detects reduce-reduce conflict,
and resolves
(C) It detects shift-reduce conflict, and
resolves the conflict in favor of a shift
over a reduce action
(D) It detects shift-reduce conflict, and
resolves the conflict in favor of a
reduce over a shift action
Assume the conflicts in Q.1 are resolved
and an LALR (1) parser is generated for
parsing arithmetic expressions as per the
given grammar. Consider an expression 3
2 + 1. What precedence and
associativity
properties
does
the
generated parser realize?
(A) Equal
precedence
and
left
associativity; expression is evaluated
to 7
(B) Equal
precedence
and
right
associativity; expression is evaluated
to 9
(C) Precedence of
is higher than that
of
, and both operators are left
associative; expression is evaluated
to 7
(D) Precedence of
is higher than
that of
, and both operators are
left associative; expression is
evaluated to 9
CS-2006
3.
Consider the following translation
scheme.
S R
R * *print **); R |
E F
*print ( ); }| F
F (S) | id {print (id.value);}
Here id is a token that represents an
integer and id.value represents the
corresponding integer value. For an input
* 3 4, this translation scheme prints
(A) 2 * 3 + 4
(C) 2 3 * 4 +
(B) 2 * + 3 4
(D) 2 3 4 + *
CS-2008
4.
Which of following are true?
I. A programming language which does
not permit global variables of any
kind & has no nesting of
procedures/functions, but permits
recursion can be implemented with
static storage allocation
II. Multi-level access link(or display)
arrangement is needed to arrange
activation records only if the
programming
language
being
implemented
has
nesting
of
producers/ functions
III. Recursion in programming languages
cannot be implemented with
dynamic storage allocation.
IV. Nesting of producers/ functions &
recursion require a dynamic heap
allocation scheme and cannot be
implemented with a stack based
allocation scheme for activation
records
V. Programming
languages
which
permits a function to return a
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GATE QUESTION BANK
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Compiler Design
function as its result cannot be

implemented with a stack based
storage allocation scheme for
activation records
(II) & (V) only
(I),(III) & (IV) only
(I),(II) & (V) only
(II),(III) & (V) only

1.
[Ans. C]
E
number | | Then A
compiler detects shift-reduce conflict, and
resolves the conflict in favor of a shift
over a reduce action. Consider the
following configuration where shiftreduce conflict occurs
Stack Input
2.
[Ans. C]
With look ahead we would prefer to shift
because the look ahead has higher
precedence than over + and both
operation are left associative. So
expression 3
6
7 will be
evaluated.
3.
[Ans. D]
So an input 2 * 3 + 4, it prints from the

above parse tree as 234 +*.
4.
[Ans. A]
Consider each statement separately
I.
If a programming language doesnt
permit global variables and no
nesting procedures then we cant
use the recursion with static
storage because there is no stack
support. For example Fortran
doesnt support the recursion. So
statement is false
II.
Statement is true.
III.
Recursion
in
programming
languages will be implemented
with dynamic storage. For example
C language implement recursion
with the help of heap if size is also
increases because heap stores the
all activation records of a recursion.
So statement is false.
IV.
Statement is false because we can
implement recursion either with
the help of heap or a stack.
V.
Statement is true.
S
R
E
*
{print}
id
{print}
id
3
{print}
id
E {print}
F
{print}
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Compiler Design
Intermediate Code Generation

CS-2006
1.
Consider the following C code segment.
for(i=0; i<n; i++){
for(j=0; j<n; j++){
if(i%2)
{x + = (4 * j + 5 * i);
y + = (7 + 4 *j);
}
}
}
Which one of the following is false?
(A) The code contains loop-invariant
computation
(B) There is scope of common subexpression elimination in this code
(C) There is scope of strength reduction
in this code
(D) There is scope of dead code
elimination in this code
2.
Consider these two functions and two

statements S1 and S2 about them.
int work1(int *a, int i, int j)
{
int x = a [i + 2];
a[ j ] = x + 1 ;
return a [i+2] 3;
}
int work2 (int *a, int i, int j)
{
int t1 = i + 2;
int t2= a [t1];
a [ j] = t2 1;
return t2 3;
}
S1: The transformation from work 1 to
work2 is valid, i.e., for any program state
and input arguments, work2 will compute
the same output and have the same effect
on program state as work1
S2: All the transformations applied to
work1 to get work2 will always improve
the performance (i.e. reduce CPU time) of

work2 compared to work1
(A) S1 is false and S2 is false
(B) S1 is false and S2 is true
(C) S1 is true and S2 is false
(D) S1 is true and S2 is true
CS-2008
3.
Some code optimizations are carried out
on the intermediate code because
(A) They enhance the portability of the
compiler to other target processors
(B) Program analysis is more accurate
on intermediate code than on
machine code
(C) The information from data flow
analysis cannot otherwise be used
for optimization
(D) The information from the front end
cannot otherwise be used for
optimization
CS-2009
4.
TRUE?
I. There exists parsing algorithm for some
programming
languages
whose
complexities are less than (n3)
II. A programming language which allows
recursion to be implemented with static
storage allocation
III. No L-attributed definition can be
evaluated in the framework of bottom-up
parsing
IV. Code improving transformations can
be performed at both source language &
intermediate code level
(A) I & II
(C) III & IV
(B) I & IV
(D) I, III & IV
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CS-2010
5.
Which languages necessarily need heap
allocation in the runtime environment?
(A) Those that support recursion.
(B) Those that use dynamic scoping.
(C) Those that allow dynamic data
structures.
(D) Those that use global variables.
CS-2011
6.
Consider two binary operators and ' '
with the precedence of operator being
lower than that of the operator .
Operator
is right associative while
operator is left associative. Which one of
the following represents the parse tree
for expression (7 3 4 3
)
(A)
c a b;
d c a;
e c a;
x c c;
if (x a) *
y a a;
+
else {
d d d;
e e e;
}
7.
Suppose the instruction set architecture

of the processor has only two registers.
The only allowed compiler optimization is
code motion, which moves statements
from one place to another while
preserving correctness. What is the
minimum number of spills to memory in
the compiled code?
(A) 0
(C) 2
(B) 1
(D) 3
8.
What is the minimum number of register

needed in the instruction set architecture
of the processor to compile this code
segment without any spill to memory? Do
not apply any optimization other than
optimizing register allocation
(A) 3
(C) 5
(B) 4
(D) 6
(B)
7
2
3
7
4
3
3
(C)
(D)
2
7
2
3
3
4
3
4
7
CS-2013
Common Data for Questions 7 & 8
The following code segment is executed
on a processor which allows only register
operands in its instructions. Each
instruction can have almost two source
operands and one destination operand.
Assume that all variables are dead after
this code segment.
Compiler Design
CS-2014
9.
One of the purposes of using intermediate
code in compilers is to
(A) make parsing and semantic analysis
simpler.
(B) Improve error recovery and error
reporting.
(C) Increase the chances of reusing the
machine-independent code
optimizer in other compilers.
(D) Improve the register allocation.
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GATE QUESTION BANK
10.
Consider the basic block given below.

a
b
c
c
a
d
d
b
c
e
d
b
a
e
b
The minimum number of nodes and edges
present in the DAG representation of the
above basic block respectively are
(A) 6 and 6
(C) 9 and 12
(B) 8 and 10
(D) 4and4
11.
Compiler Design

(A) A basic block is a sequence of
instructions where control enters the
sequence at the beginning and exits
at the end.
(B) Available expression analysis can be
used for common sub expression
elimination.
(C) Live variable analysis can be used for
dead code elimination.
(D) x 4 5 x
0 is an example of
common sub expression elimination.

1.
2.
[Ans. D]
(A) i%2 is inner loop invariant, it can be
moved before inner loop
(B) 4*j is common sub expression
appeared in two statements
(C) 4*j can be reduced to j<<2 by
strength reduction.
(D) There is no dead code in given code
segment. So there is not scope of
dead code elimination in this code.
Hence only option (D) is FALSE.
[Ans. D]
Both work1 and work2 performs the
same task so S1 is true. But code in work2
will improve performance.
In work1:
int x = a[i+2];
Here a[i+2] is computed twice.
return a[i + 2] 1
In work2;
t
i
t
a,t -;
return t
3
Therefore option S2 is also correct.
3.
[Ans. B]
Some code optimizations are carried out
on the intermediate code because
program analysis is more accurate on
intermediate code than on machine code.
4.
[Ans. B]
Recursion cannot be implemented with
static storage allocation.
L attributed definition can be evaluated
if all rules are at the end and all attributes
are synthesized.
So I and IV are correct.
5.
[Ans. C]
Runtime environment mean we deal with
dynamic memory allocation and heap is a
dynamic data structure. So it is clear that
those languages that allow dynamic data
structure
necessarily
need
heap
allocation in the runtime environment.
6.
[Ans. B]
2
7
3
4
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GATE QUESTION BANK
7.
[Ans. B]
c a b;
x c c;
if (x a) * (i)
y a a;
+
else {
d
c a;
e c a; . (ii)
d d d;
e e e;
+
(i) Is to store c*c, it needs one memory
spill.
(ii) Is uses previous same(i) memory
spill to store c*a.
Number of memory spills are used in
above program is one. With the use of
one memory cell and two registers the
above optimized code can be executed.
8.
[Ans. B]
R
R
R c a b
R
R R
d ca
R
R
R e c a
R
R R
x cc
if(R
R )
if(x 0)
{
R
R R
y ab
}
else
{
R
R R
d dd
R
R R
e ea
}
4 registers are required
Option (B) is correct
9.
[Ans. C]
Intermediate code is machine
independent code which makes it easy to
retarget the compiler to generate code for
newer and different processors.
10.
Compiler Design
[Ans. A]
e, d
c
a, d
11.
th
[Ans. D]
x=4*5
x= 20 is the example of constant
folding not of common sub expression
elimination
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GATE QUESTION BANK
SE & WT
Introduction to Software and Software Engineering

CS-2009
1.
The coupling between different modules
as a software is categorized as follows
I. Content coupling
II. Common coupling
III. Control coupling
IV. Stamp coupling
V. Data coupling
Coupling between modules can be ranked
in the order as strong (least desirable) to
weakest (most desirable) as follows
(A) I II III IV - V
(B) V IV III II I
(C) I III V II IV
(D) IV II V III I
CS-2014
2.
Match the following:
1) Waterfall
a)
model
2)
Evolutionary
model
b)
3)
Componentbased
software
engineering
Spiral
development
c)
4)
d)
3.

(A) The requirements document also
describes how the requirements that
are listed in the document are
implemented efficiently.
(B) Consistency and completeness of
functional requirements are always
achieved in practice.
(C) Prototyping is a method of
requirements validation.
(D) Requirements review is carried out
to find the errors in system design.
4.
In the context of modular software

design, which one of the following
combinations is desirable?
(A) High cohesion and high coupling
(B) High cohesion and low coupling
(C) Low cohesion and high coupling
(D) Low cohesion and low coupling
Specifications
can be
developed
incrementally
Requirements
compromises
are inevitable
Explicit
recognition
of risk
Inflexible
partitioning of
the project
into stages
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
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SE & WT

1.
[Ans. A]
Functional dependences can be measure
between two metrics
a) Cohesion
b) Coupling
Coupling is the measure of interdependencies
among modules. As per Modularity coupling
should be low.
Low
High
Content
coupling
Common
coupling
Control
coupling
Stamp
coupling
Low
coupling
Data coupling
Procedural
cell
Inclusion
coupling
coupling
External
coupling
Coupling spectrum
Import
coupling
2.
[Ans. B]
Waterfall model is inflexible partitioning
because if once a phase is completed, it is
difficult to repeat that if any error
encounters in the later phases
Model is incremental
development
Spiral model is used where risk faction is
more important
3.
[Ans. C]
Option (A) is false because implementation
details are not given in requirement
documents.
Option (B) is false because practically it
cannot be achieved perfectly
Option (D) is false because requirement
review is done on requirement document
after that design phase starts.
Option (C) is true.
4.
[Ans. B]
Cohesion is a measure of internal strength
within a module, whereas coupling is a
measure of inter dependency among the
modules. So in the context of modular
software design there should be high
cohesion and low coupling.
th
th
th
Page 411
GATE QUESTION BANK
SE & WT
Process Modeling
CS 2009
1.
the Cyclomatic complexity of the control
flow graph as a program module. Which of
these are true?
I. The Cyclomatic complexity of a
module is level to maximum
number of linear independent
circuits in a graph.
II. The Cyclomatic complexity of a
module is the number of decisions in
the module plus one where a decision
is effectively any conditional statement
in the module.
III. The Cyclomatic complexity can also be
used as a number of linearly
independent paths that should be
tested during path coverage testing.
(A) I &II
(C) I & III
(B) II & III
(D) I, II & III
CS 2011
3.
defined in a correct good Software
Requirement Specification (SRS)
document?
(A) Functional Requirement
(B) Non - Functional Requirements
(C) Goals of Implementation
(D) Algorithms for software
Implementation
CS 2013
4.
The following figure represents access
graphs of two modules M1 and M2. The
filled circles represent methods and the
unfilled circles represent attributes. If
method m is moved to module M2 keeping
the attributes where they are, what can we
say about the average cohesion and
coupling between modules in the system
of two modules?
Module M1
CS 2010
2.
The Cyclomatic complexity of each of the
module A & B shown below is 10. What is
the Cyclomatic complexity of the sequential
integration shown on the right hand side.
Module M2
(A) There is no change.

(B) Average cohesion goes up but coupling
is reduced.
(C) Average cohesion goes down and
coupling also reduces.
(D) Average cohesion and coupling
increased.
A
A
B
B
(A) 19
(B) 21
(C) 20
(D) 10
th
th
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Page 412
GATE QUESTION BANK
SE & WT

1.
[Ans. B]
Cyclomatic complexity V(c) can be evaluated
by
4.
[Ans. A]
If a method m is moved to module M2 by
Keeping the attributes where they are
average cohesion and coupling between
modules will not change in the system.
Cohesion M2 and M1 are interchanged but
average cohesion will be the same for the
given system after moving the method m to
module M2
V(c) = Number of internal persons +1

External Regions
2.
[Ans. A]
Cyclomatic complexity also known as
structural complexity because it gives
internal view of code. It is used to find the
number of independent paths.
So in the problem
Both have cyclomatic complexity = 10 is

given. So
Cyclomatic complexity of this is
3.
[Ans. D]
A software requirements specification
(SRS), a requirements specification for a
software system, is a complete description
of the behavior of a system to be developed.
In addition it also contains non-functional
requirements. Algorithms are developed
during design phase.
th
th
th
Page 413
GATE QUESTION BANK
SE & WT
Project Management
CS-2009
1.
true?
I. The context diagram should depict the
system as a single bubble.
II. External entities should be identified
clearly at all levels of DFDs
III. Control information should not be
represented in a DFD
IV. A data store can be connected either to
another data store or to an external
entity.
(A) II & III
(C) I & III
(B) I, II & IV
(D) I, II & III
(A) 4000
(B) 5000
3.
(C) 4333
(D) 4667
A company needs to develop digital signal

processing software for one of its newest
inventions. The software is expected to
have 40000 lines of code. The company
needs to determine the effort in person
months needed to develop this software
using basic COCOMO model. The
multiplicative factor for this model is given
as 2.8 for the software development on
embedded
systems,
while
the
exponentiation factor is given as 1.20.
What is the estimated effort in person
months?
(A) 234.25
(C) 287.80
(B) 932.50
(D) 122.40
CS-2011
2.
A company needs to develop a strategy for
Software Product development for which it
has a choice of two programming language
L1& L2. The number of lines of code (LOC)
developed using L2 is estimated to be twice
the LOC developed with L1.The product will
have to be maintained for five years. Various
parameters for the company are given in
the table below.
Parameter
Language L1 Language L2
Man years
LOC /10000 LOC/10000
needed for
development
Development $ 10,00, 00 $ 7,50,000
cost per man
year
Maintenance 5 years
5 years
time
Cost of
$ 1,00, 000 $ 50, 000
maintenance
per year
Total cost of the project indicates cost of
yeayearyearm
development & maintenance. What is the
aintenancema
LOC for L1per
for which the cost of the project
intenance
using
L
is
equal to the cost of the project
1
year
using ?
th
th
th
Page 414
GATE QUESTION BANK
SE & WT

1.
[Ans. C]
II. In DFD external entities are represented
only at level 0 DFD or context diagram
IV. Between every external agent & data
store process is compulsory, i.e
Invalid Notations
Valid Notations
2.
[Ans. B]
L1 = x
L2 = 2x
Given,
Cost of project using L1
= Cost of project using
3.
[Ans. A]
Effort in person per month = ab
=2.8(40)1.20 = 234.22 Person month
th
th
th
Page 415
GATE QUESTION BANK
SE & WT
Validation and Verification

CS - 2010
1.
What is the appropriate paring of
items in the two columns listing
various activities encountered in a
software use cycle.
P. Requirements
1. Module
Capture
development
& integration
Q. Design
2. Domain
Analysis
R. Implementation
3. Structures &
Behavioral
Modeling
S. Maintenance
4. Performance
Tuning
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
2.
The following program is to be tested for

statement coverage:
Begin
if (a==b),{S1;exit; }
else if(c==d){S2;}
else {S3; exit;}
S4;
end
The test cases T1, T2, T3& T4 given
below are expressed in terms of the
properties satisfied by the values of
variables a, b, c & d. The exact values are
not given.
T1: a, b, c & d are all equal
T2: a, b, c & d are all distinct
T3: a = b &c != d
T4 : a!=b & c = d
Which of the test suites given below
ensures coverage of statements S1, S2, S3&
S4.
(A) T1,T2,T3
(C) T3,T4
(B) T2,T4
(D) T1,T2,T4
CS - 2011
3.
The following is comment written for a
C function.
/*This function computes the roots of
quadratic equation.
ax2 + bx + c = 0 the function stores
two real roots in * root1 & * root2 &
returns the status of validity of
roots. In handles four different
kinds of cases
i. When coefficient a is zero
irrespective of discriminant
ii. When discriminant is positive.
iii. When discriminant is zero
iv. When discriminant is negative
Only in cases (ii) & (iii) the stored roots
are valid otherwise 0 is stored in the
roots. The function returns 0 when the
roots are valid & 1 otherwise. The
function also ensures root1 >= root2
int get_QuadRoots (float a, float b, float c,
float *root 1, float *root2)*/
A software test engineer is assigned the
job of doing black box testing. He comes
up with the following test cases, many
of which are redundant
Test
Input set
Expected output set
case
a
b
c Root Root 2 Return
1
value
T1
0.0 0.0
7.0 0.0
0.0
1
T2
0.0 1.0
3.0 0.0
0.0
1
T3
1.0 2.0
1.0
1.0
1.0
0
T4
4.0
12.0 9.0 1.5
1.5
0
T5
1.0
2.0
3.0 3.0
1.0
0
T6
1.0 1.0
4.0 0.0
0.0
1
provide the set of non redundant
tests
using
equivalence
class
partitioning approach from input
perspective for black testing?
(A) T1, T2, T3, T6
(C) T2, T4, T5, T6
(B) T1, T3, T4, T5
(D) T2, T3, T4, T5
th
th
th
Page 416
GATE QUESTION BANK
CS - 2013
Common Data for Question 4 and 5
The procedure given below is required
to find and replace certain characters
inside an input character string supplied
in array A. The characters to be replaced
are supplied in array oldc, while their
respective replacement characters are
supplied in array newc. Array A has a
fixed length of five characters, while
arrays oldc and newc contains three
characters each.
However, the procedure is flawed.
void find_and_replace (char *A, char *oldc,
char *newc) {
for (int i = 0 ; i < 5 ; i++)
for (int j = 0 ; j < 3 ; j++)
if (A[i] == oldc [j])
A [i] = newc[j] ;
}
The procedure is tested with the
following four test cases.
4.
5.
SE & WT
1.

w
2.

w

3.

w

4.

w

The tester now tests the program on all
input strings of length five consisting of
h

w h
duplicates allowed. If the tester carries
out this testing with the four test cases
given above, how many test cases will
be able to capture the flaw?
(A) Only one
(C) Only three
(B) Only two
(D) All four
If array A is made to hold the string
which of the above four test

cases will be successful in exposing the
flaw in this procedure?
(A) None
(C) 3 and 4 only
(B) 2 only
(D) 4 only

1.
2.
[Ans. B]
These are all the activities encountered in
a software life cycle. Requirement capture
means requirement analysis we gather
the information about a particular
domain.
4.
[Ans. B]
There is problem in the given code because
Break statement is missing.
Correct implementation is
for (int j = 0; j < 3; j++)
if (A[i] == oldc[j])
{
A[i] = newc[j];
break;
}
In both the questions whether array contain
repeated element or not, flaw is due to oldc
and newc string only.
Flaw is in test case 3 and 4.
i = 0, j = 0
A[0] = a
oldc [0] = b
a
i = 0, j = 1
A[0] = a
[Ans. D]
h
h
h
h
3.
[Ans. C]
T1, & T2 checking same condition a = 0
hence, any one of T1 & T2 is redundant
T3 and T4: in both cases
discriminant (D) = b2 4ac = 0
Hence any one of it is redundant.
T5 : D > 0
T6: D < 0
th
th
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Page 417
GATE QUESTION BANK
oldc [1] = c
a c
i=0j=2
A[0] = a
oldc [2] = a
A [0] == oldc[2]
A [0] = newc[2]
Array content abcde
i = 1 j =0
a [1] = b
oldc [0] = b
a [1] == oldc[0]
a [1] = newc[0]
Array content = accde
i=1j=1
a [1] = c
oldc [1] = c
a[1] == oldc[1]
a[1] = newc[1]
adcde
flow
Two successive replacement but if should
break after one replacement.
5.
SE & WT
i= 0 j = 1
a [0] = b
a [0] = oldc[1]
a [0] = newc[1]
array content abcde
flow a
two replacements
[Ans. C]
There is problem in the given code because
Break statement is missing.
Correct implementation is
for (int j = 0; j < 3; j++)
if (A[i] == oldc[j])
{
A[i] = newc[j];
break;
}
In both the questions whether array contain
repeated element ot not, flaw is due to oldc
and newc string only.
Flaw is in test case 3 and 4.
Array abcde
i=0j=0
a [0] = a
oldc [0] = b
a [0] == oldc [0]
a [0] = newc [0]
array content bbcde
th
th
th
Page 418
GATE QUESTION BANK
SE & WT
HTML Structure
CS - 2005
1.
Consider the three commands: PROMPT,
HEAD and RCPT. Which of the following
options indicate a correct association of
these commands with protocols where
these are used?
(A) HTTP, SMTP, FTP
(B) FTP, HTTP, SMTP
(C) HTTP, FTP, SMTP
(D) SMTP, HTTP, FTP
CS - 2009
2.
Consider the HTML table definition given
below:
<table border=1>
<tr><td rowspan=2>ab</td>
<td colspan=2> cd </td>
</tr>
<tr><td>ef</td>
<td rowspan=2>gh</td>
</tr>
<tr><td colspan=2>ij</td>
</tr>
</table>
The number of rows in each column and
the number of columns in each row are:
(A) (2,2,3) and (2,3,2)
(B) (2,2,3) and (2,2,3)
(C) (2,3,2) and (2,3,2)
(D) (2,3,2) and (2,2,3)
CS - 2011
3.
HTML (Hyper Text Markup language) has
language elements which permit certain
actions other than describing the
structure of the web document. Which
one of the actions is NOT supported by
pure HTML (without any client or server
side scripting) pages?
(A) Embed web objects from different
sites into same page
(B) Refresh the page automatically after
a specified interval
(C) Automatically redirect to another
page upon download
(D) Display the client time as part of the
page
th
th
th
Page 419
GATE QUESTION BANK
SE & WT

1.
[Ans. B]
PROMPT: This command is used in FTP
(File Transfer Protocol)
HEAD: HEAD command is used in HTTP,
asks for the response identical to the one
that would correspond to a GET request,
But without the response body.
RCPT: This command is used in SMTP. It
is used to establish the return address or
return path.
2.
[Ans. C]
Rowspan is used to specifying how many
rows a cell should span Colspan is used to
specifying how many columns a cell should
span
Table looks like.
cd
ab
ef
gh
ij
3.
[Ans. D]
Date and Time can be displayed using
JavaScript
(A) For Embedding Object Tag is
available. <Object> Following
Objects can be Embedded,
ActiveX Controls, Flash,
Fireworks etc.
(B) <META http-equiv="refresh"
Content="5"> this will refresh a
page after 5 seconds
(C) <META http-equiv="refresh"
Content="5;
URL=http://www.othersite.com"> this
will Redirect a page after 5 seconds
(D) It needs JavaScript. Pure HTML does
not have any tag to show time on the
page.
th
th
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Page 420
GATE QUESTION BANK
SE & WT
XML and DTDs

CS - 2005
1.
Given below is an excerpt of xml
specification.
<! DOCTYPE library SYSTEM
" library .dtd ">
<Book>
<title> GATE 2005 </title>
<type value= " BROCHURE/>
<accno> 10237623786 </accno>
</Book>
<Book>
<type value= " FICTION" />
<accno> 0024154807 </accno>
</Book>
Given below are several possible excerpts
from "library.dtd" . For which excerpt
would the above specification be valid ?
(A) < ! ELEMENT Book (title+ , type, accno) >
<! ELEMENT title (# PCDATA )>
<! ELEMENT type EMPTY >
<! ATTLIST type value (BROCHURE
/FICTION/TECHNICAL) >
<! ELEMENT accno( # PCDATA ) >
(B) < ! ELEMENT Book (title? , type, accno) >
<! ELEMENT type ATTLIST >
<!ATTLIST type value (BROCHURE
< ! ATTLIST accno (# PCDATA) >
(C) <! ELEMENT Book (title* , type, accno) >
<! ELEMENT type ATTLIST >
<!ATTLIST type value (BROCHURE
<! ELEMENT accno( # PCDATA ) >
(D) < ! ELEMENT Book (title? , type, accno) >
<! ELEMENT type EMPTY >
<! ATTLIST type value (BROCHURE
<! ELEMENT accno (# PCDATA )>
CS - 2006
2.
Consider the following XML DTD describing
course information in a university:
<! ELEMENT Univ (Course+ , Prof+) >
<! ELEMENT Course (Title, Eval* ) >
<!ATTLIST Course number ID #REQUIRED
Instructor IDREF # IMPLIED >
<! ELEMENT Title ( # PCDATA) >
<! ELEMENT Eval( # PCDATA ) >
<! ATTLIST Eval Score CDATA # REQUIRED >
<! ELEMENT Prof Empty >
<! ATTLIST Prof Name ID # REQUIRED
Teaches IDREF # IMPLIED >
What is returned by the following
XQUERY?
Let $ as := //@ Score
For $c in /Univ/Course [Eval]
Let $cs :=$?c/Eval?@ Score
Where min ($cs) >avg ($ as)
return $c
(A) The professor with the lowest course
evaluation
(B) Professors who have all their course
evaluation above the university average
(C) The course with the lowest evaluation
(D) Course with all evaluations above the
university average
CS - 2013
3.
Match the problem domains in GROUP I with
the solution technologies in GROUP II.
GROUP I
GROUP II
(P) Service oriented
1) Interoperability
computing
(Q) Heterogeneous
2) BPMN
communicating
systems
(R) Information
3) Publish-findrepresentation
bind
(S) Process description 4) XML
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
th
th
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Page 421
GATE QUESTION BANK
SE & WT

1.
[Ans. D]
Book tag is repeated twice. <title> can be
either
1) Zero or more (*)
2) Zero or one (?)
<type>is EMPTY and have an attribute.
2.
[Ans. D]
Return $c - Query return 'c' where 'c' is
set as Course with all Evaluations
Where min ($cs) >avg ($ as) - min(cs) is
minimum score of each evaluation in a
course
avg(as) is average of all the scores in all
courses from all professors.
3.
[Ans. C]
Service oriented computer (
publish find bind
H
p
Information representation XML
Process
p
BPMN.
th
th
th
Page 422

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GATE QUESTION BANK

GATE QUESTION BANK

Data Structure and Algorithm

Computer Organization & Architecture

Data Structure and Algorithm Analysis

Introduction to Computer Organization

GATE QUESTION BANK

Discrete Mathematics & Graph Theory

Database Management System

Introduction to Computer Networks

#10. Compiler Design

#11. Software Engineering and Web Technology

Introduction to Software and Software

GATE QUESTION BANK

A is a 3 4 real matrix and Ax=B is an

If a square matrix A is real and symmetric,

The Eigenvectors of the matrix 0

written in the form 0 1 and 0 1. What is

Eigen values of a matrix

]. What is the matrix F?

Match the items in columns I and II.

] has one Eigenvalue

1are 5 and 1. What are the

Eigenvalues of the matrix = SS?

GATE QUESTION BANK

For what value of a, if any, will the

Eigen values of a real symmetric matrix

of the matrix is equal to the inverse of the

For the matrix A=0

normalized Eigenvectors is given as

Choose correct set of functions, which are

GATE QUESTION BANK

One of the Eigenvectors of the matrix

Consider a non-homogeneous system of

Consider the matrices

Consider a 33 real symmetric matrix S

For the given matrix A = [

one of the Eigen values is 3. The other two

and 6, respectively. What is the other

For what values of and the following

GATE QUESTION BANK

The inverse of the

The inverse of the matrix 0

The Eigenvalue of the matrix

The following simultaneous equation

The Eigenvalues of matrix 0

2.42 and 6.86

What is the minimum number of

Given the matrices J = [

The sum of Eigenvalues of the matrix, [M]

GATE QUESTION BANK

The determinant of matrix [

Let A be a 4x4 matrix with Eigenvalues

What are the Eigenvalues of the following

How many of the following matrices have

GATE QUESTION BANK

The value of the dot product of the

If the matrix A is such that

Which one of the following options

The product of the non zero Eigenvalues

the following does NOT

Then the determinant of A is equal to

2 matrix with elements

Which one of the following statements is

GATE QUESTION BANK

The rank of the matrix [