Table

Of Contents

Passage #1: Bone Structure

Answer Key

Passage #2: Dissociative Identity Disorder

10

Answer Key

15

Passage #3: Energy Dispersive X-ray Spectrometry

18

Answer Key

23

Passage #4: Magnetic Hard Disc Drive

26

Answer Key

32

Bone Structure
(1) The exceptional durability of bone and teeth
makes these tissues the most often and sometimes
only, surviving substances of the human body
subsequent to death. Their consistent presence in
the paleoanthropological, archaeological, and
forensic records makes them one of the most
analyzed materials in anthropological research.
Although, the constituent components of bone
and tooth enamel are similar, they vary
dramatically in proportion, formation, structure,
and reaction to post-deposition alteration
(diagenesis). Given that isotopic analysis
typically targets individual molecular compounds,
a basic comprehension of the composition
differences between bone and teeth is essential in
the molecular level research.
(2) An average adult human skeleton is
comprised of 206 bones, or elements, of four
general forms: (1) long bonescharacterized by
a hollow, tubular shaft (diaphysis) with flaring,
closed ends (epiphysis), found in the upper and
lower extremities, and whose main functions are
weight bearing, locomotion, and manipulation,
(2) flat bonescharacterized by thin, tabular
shaped bones, found in the cranial vault,
shoulder, rib cage, and pelvis, and whose primary
functions are protection and provision of large
areas for muscle attachment, (3) irregular bones
such as vertebrae, which exhibit a variety of
complex shapes and sizes depending on their
location and function, and (4) short bones such
as carpals and tarsals, are roughly cuboidal and
like irregular bones exhibit a variety of sizes,
shapes, and functions.
(3)Based on porosity, two types of bone (osseous)
tissue exist within adult human skeletal elements:
(1) compact tissuealso referred to as cortical
tissue depending on if the tissue is in the form of
a thick or a thin layeris a dense, tightly packed
tissue of 5%- 10% porosity, and (2) cancellous
tissuealso called spongy tissue, is a porous,
lightweight, honeycomb structured tissue, with
porosity of 75%-95%. Compact or cortical tissue

forms the outer walls of the long and short bone

diaphyses and the external surfaces of the flat and
irregular elements, varies in thickness depending
on the skeletal element, and comprises the bulk of
the osseous tissue in the human skeleton.
Trabecular tissue makes up the portion of bone
between the cortical layers of the flat and
irregular bones, the inner shafts of long bones,
and is the major tissue constituting long bone
epiphyses. Some skeletal elements, such as the
femur and the tibia, have a high proportion of
compact tissue, while others, such as vertebrae
and ribs, have higher proportions of cancellous
tissue.
(4)Although a wide array of shapes and sizes
exist in the human skeleton, the basic structure of
osseous tissue is that of a highly organized
structural matrix of protein with mineral crystals
interspersed within the gaps of the matrix, a
composition producing a tough, structural
integrity in human bone. Within this basic
structure human bone is composed of two
principal components: organic and inorganic.
(5)The organic component makes up ~30% of dry
bone by weight and is primarily comprised of
collagen. Collagena structural protein found
ubiquitously throughout vertebratesis the most
abundant protein found in the human body and
exists in several forms. Type I collagen, the
primary form of collagen found in human bone, is
organized into strong, flexible fibers with
alternating parallel and perpendicular orientation
to the bone surface. This alternating organization
provides the matrix for deposition of the mineral
component of the inorganic portion of bone.
(6) The inorganic component makes up ~70% of
dry bone by weight and is comprised principally
of a composite of calcium phosphate minerals
closely resembling the naturally occurring
mineral,
hydroxyapatite.
Biological
hydroxyapatite, or bioapatite, differs from the
geological hydroxyapatite in its lack of
stoichiometry (i.e., ratio of atoms remain the
same before and after a chemical reaction), small

crystal size, high rate of substitution, and

structural disorganization. The hydroxyapatite in
bone is considered impure due to its poor
crystalline structure that allows for elemental
substitutions, substitutions supplied by ingested
food and water or resulting from diagenetic
processes. In humans, the primary substitutions
occur in the phosphate (PO4) and hydroxyl (OH)
sites of the hydroxyapatite molecule, mainly
substituted with carbonate CO3 (although other
substitutions such as fluoride and chloride can
also occur). The carbonate substitution renders a
hydroxyapatite formula with a CO3 molecule in
place of either or both of the PO4 or OH
molecules. Therefore, human bone contains three
sites where oxygen, in varying content, may be
found: 1) the phosphate site (PO4), containing
35% oxygen, 2) the hydroxyl site (OH),
containing 1.6% oxygen, and 3) the carbonate site
(CO3), containing 3.3% oxygen.
(7) Although both the phosphate and carbonate
sites within the mineral component of bone house
oxygen available for analysis, a large proportion
of studies have primarily utilized the phosphate
site for several reasons. First is the high
proportion of analytical oxygen available in the
phosphate site (35%) as compared to the amount
available in the carbonate site (3.3%). Second, the
P-O bond of the PO4 molecule is stronger than
the C-O bond of the CO3 molecule, suggesting
the phosphate site is more diagenetically resistant.
Third is the strong correlation (R=0.930.99)
demonstrated to exist between the phosphate
oxygen and the oxygen composition of ingested
water. Taken together, these characteristics render
the phosphate site the most likely to yield useful
oxygen composition data, and therefore is a
common analyte choice for oxygen isotope
research.
(8) The carbonate site, although containing less
oxygen, is sometimes the chosen analyte for two
reasons. First, the strong correlation (R=0.98)
demonstrated to exist between the carbonate
oxygen and phosphate oxygen indicates that, after
conversion, the carbonate site reflects the same

isotopic signature as the phosphate site, and

therefore, is equally as informative in isotopic
studies. Second is the ease of oxygen extraction
from the carbonate molecule compared to that of
the more complex and lengthy process required
for oxygen extraction from the phosphate
molecule.
(9) The structural integrity and high mineral
content of bone render it one of the longest
surviving and, therefore, most abundant tissues
available for analysis following the death of a
vertebrate organism. Although typically not as
abundant, human tooth enamelthe hardest
substance in the human bodyis also a tissue
often chosen for isotopic analysis. Humans
develop two sets of dentition throughout their
lifetime. One set, the deciduous, or baby teeth,
begin mineralizing in utero and erupt from early
infancy though early childhood. Deciduous teeth
start erupting at approximately 6 months of age
and typically by the age of 2 years eruption is
complete, resulting in a full set of 20 teeth.
Beginning around the age of 6 years the
deciduous teeth begin to be displaced by the
emerging permanent teeth. The 20 deciduous
teeth are progressively lost throughout the early
childhood and pre-teenage years when they are
replaced by a full set of permanent teeth.
(10) The second set of human dentition, the
permanent teeth, mineralize from birth through
the early teenage years, and erupt from early
childhood through the late teenage years.
Beginning around the age of 6 years the first
permanent teeth emerge and continue to emerge
in a particular order until all 32 permanent teeth
are fully erupted. The first 28 permanent teeth
erupt at predictable intervals, with completion
around the age of 12. The remaining four teeth,
the third molars (wisdom teeth), exhibit highly
variable eruption and, in some cases, never erupt.
The typical eruption period for the third molars is
approximately 18-21 years of age.
(11) Both deciduous and permanent teeth have
three types of hard tissue: (1) enamel the

accreted layers of material covering the crown,

(2) dentinethe bulk of the inner tooth, and (3)
cementumthe outer layer of the roots. As with
bone, these components contain varying organic
and inorganic proportions. Tooth enamel is
composed of ~1% organic protein (amelogenin),
~2% water, and ~97% inorganic minerals
(hydroxyapatite). The organic portion of tooth
enamel is principally (90%) composed of the
protein amelogenin functioning similarly to the
collagen in bone, providing a structural matrix for
the deposition of inorganic minerals. The
inorganic mineral portion of tooth enamel
functions similarly to bone, but is composed of
larger crystals and a greater structural
organization, a structure allowing fewer ionic
substitutions than is found in bone. These
properties, along with the high mineral content,
afford enamel the characteristic of being the most
durable and elementally stable substance in the
human body.
(12) Even though human bone and tooth enamel
are highly durable materials, the human body
continually replaces damaged, fatigued osseous
tissue with new, structurally sound tissue, a
process known as remodeling or turnover. Bones
remodel by dissolution and replacement of bone
structural units (BSU). Through a complex osteo
cell-signaling system, weakened BSUsresulting
from injury, disease, or ageare destroyed by
osteoclastic activity with subsequent osteoblastic
deposition of new BSUs. A BSUs average
lifetime ranges from 3 to 20 years. The mean
annual turnover rate for adult compact and
cancellous tissue is 5% and 25% respectively, but
is variable depending on the individual and the
particular bony element in question. The turnover
rate of compact bone (5%) is a function of
damaged cell replacement and maintenance of
structural integrity. The faster turnover rate of
cancellous tissue (25%) is related to the support
of mineral homeostasisa sort of mineral
reservoir for the bodya necessary condition for
the maintenance of certain physiological
functions in humans. Cancellous tissue, therefore,
continually and quickly turns over constituent

elemental components while compact tissue does

so more slowly.
(13) In contrast to bone, tooth enamel is a dense,
static tissue, and once formed undergoes no postmineralization remodeling or element exchange
with its environment. Therefore, enamel
maintains its original elemental signature encoded
during mineralization. The lack of remodeling
and the miniature archival quality of teeth make
them one of the most often chosen bio-materials
for elemental isotopic analysis.
(14) Although an elementally durable material
that tends to resist external influences, the
elemental analysis of bone and teeth has
historically been riddled with difficulties,
difficulties brought about by the effects of
diagenesis. Anthropologically, diagenesis is
defined as the chemical alteration of biological
material, from both infiltration and leaching
within the depositional context that occurs from
the time of death to discovery in the
archaeological or forensic record.
(15) Although no skeletal tissue is immune to
digenetic processes, the dense, highly mineralized
structure of tooth enamel affords it a measure of
protection. Bone, on the other hand, is a more
porous tissue, allowing for greater potential of
diagenetic exchange. The initial biochemical
response of bone to its depositional environment
is similar to that of bone in a fresh, living state; a
response afforded it by the protection of retained
moisture and organic components. As the length
of deposition increases and the organic
components within and surrounding the skeletal
tissue decompose, the chemical composition of
the osseous tissue may change. The type and
extent of this change is largely dependent on the
surrounding environmental conditions and
whether the deposition is in a buried or surface
context. Within the deposition environment such
extrinsic factors as moisture, temperature, soil
pH, and the presence of microorganisms are
primary factors affecting the presence and rate of
diagenetic alteration of bone and teeth.

(16) Potential diagenetic effects on bony tissue in

regards to modern forensic material are often
disregarded due to the depositional context and/or
youth of the material being analyzed. Although it
is true that much of the material forensically
analyzed is generally less than 60 to 70 years of
age, these materials, as with archaeological
materials, are subject to diagenetic processes.
Skeletal remains deposited as the result of a crime
are discovered in a wide variety of depositional
contexts, many containing the same varying
microenvironments found within archaeological
sites. It is important to keep in mind that
diagenetic processes are not uniform and,
therefore, no concrete timeline can be developed
that delineates when osseous tissue becomes
diagenetically susceptible. Disregarding the
potential of postmortem alteration based on
temporal criteria, even for modern samples, is
highly cautioned against. A number of intrinsic
factors of bone such as size, shape, condition, and
age may also contribute to its chemical integrity.
For example, the highly porous, aged bones often
found in the elderly may succumb to diagenetic
processes more quickly than would healthy, dense
tissue found in younger adults. Similarly, the
incompletely mineralized bone of infants and
children are also vulnerable to diagenetic
alteration and are highly susceptible to not only
rapid chemical exchange, but to external
mechanical damage as well.
(17) A variety of techniques exist to assess
diagenetic alteration including (1) consideration
of the deposition context, (2) visual assessment
for signs of color, weight, porosity, and structure
changes, and (3) spectral techniques such as Xray diffraction, infrared spectroscopy, and Fourier
transform infrared spectroscopy (FTIR). When
postmortem alteration is suspected, various
sample preparation treatments are utilized to
remove diagenetically absorbed contaminants.
For bone and tooth enamel, contaminant removal
is typically performed via an acetic acid wash.
Once the acid wash is complete, the element
signature remaining more accurately reflects the
in vivo isotope condition.

Multiple Choice Questions

1. What is the primary purpose of authors study
of composition of bone and teeth?
A. To establish that the bone and teeth are
exceptionally durable materials
B. To differentiate structures of bone and
teeth
C. To highlight the quality of bone and teeth
as biomaterials used in isotopic research
D. To analyze the effect of environmental
factors on diagenesis of bone and teeth
E. To study diagenesis of bone and teeth
2. Diagenesis is chemical alteration of
biochemical and is
A. A constructive process that occurs from
the time of birth
B. A destructive process that occurs from the
time of birth
C. A destructive process that occurs within
the depositional context from infiltration
D. A destructive process that occurs within
the depositional context from leaching
E. A destructive process that occurs within
the depositional context from infiltration
and leaching from the time of death
3. The author implies that all of the following
statements about human bone and teeth
enamel are true EXCEPT
A. They are exceptionally durable
biochemical
B. They are diagenetically more resistant
C. They have similar constituent elements
D. Their constituent elements vary in
proportion and formation.
E. They are equally good biomaterials for
isotopic research
4. Which of the following change will decrease
utility of phosphate sites for oxygen isotopic
research?
A. An increase in proportion of analytic
oxygen available in phosphate site from
35% to 37%

B. An increase in diagenetical resistance of

phosphate site
C. A decrease in strength of P-O bond
D. A decrease in correlation that exists
between the phosphate oxygen and the
oxygen composition of ingested water
E. An increase in capability of phosphate site
to yield oxygen composition data
5. It can be inferred from the passage that the
human body
A. Cannot remodel the structure of bone and
teeth
B. Continually replaces damaged tissue with
new structurally sound tissue
C. Continuously replaces damaged tissue
with new structurally sound tissue
D. Resist remodeling of damaged tissue
E. Avoid remodeling of damaged tissue to
maintain durability
6. The deciduous and permanent teeth have
three types of hard tissue:
A. Enamel, dentine, and cementum
B. Inner tooth, dentine, and cementum
C. Enamel, covering layers, and cementum
D. Enamel, covering layers, and inner tooth
E. Enamel, dentine, and inner tooth
7. A basic understanding of the composition
differences between bone and teeth is critical
because
A. Bone and teeth appear in
paleoanthropological, archaeological, and
forensic records
B. Bone and teeth have similar constituent
components
C. Generally, isotopic analysis targets
individual molecular compounds in a
molecular level research.
D. Bone and teeth have different constituent
components.
E. Constituent components of bone and tooth
are similar in reaction to diagenesis.

8. Which one of the following is NOT a reason

to utilize the phosphate site for oxygen
isotope research?
A. The high proportion of analytical oxygen
is available in the phosphate site
B. The Phosphorous Oxygen bond is
relatively stronger.
C. A strong correlation exists between the
phosphate oxygen and the oxygen
composition of ingested water
D. Most likely, the phosphate site yields
useful oxygen composition data for
analysis
E. The phosphate site is diagenetically less
resistant
9. The author's conclusion concerning high
quality of teeth enamel for elemental isotopic
analysis will be weaken if
A. Teeth enamel become a denser tissue
B. It becomes more resistant to postmineralization
C. It stops undergoing elemental exchange
with its environment.
D. It no longer remains a static tissue
E. It gains miniature archival quality
10. Identify which of the following is a
cancellous tissue within adult human skeletal
elements.
A. A porous, lightweight, honeycomb
structured tissue, with porosity of 60%
B. A dense, lightweight, honeycomb
structured tissue, with porosity of 80%
C. A porous, lightweight, honeycomb
structured tissue, with porosity of 80%
D. A porous, lightweight, honeycomb
structured tissue, with porosity of 10%
E. A dense, tightly packed, honeycomb
structured tissue, with porosity of 75%95%
11. ___ is organized into strong, flexible fibers
with alternating parallel and perpendicular
orientation to the bone surface:
A. Matrix of protein
B. Osseous tissue

C. Bone tissue
D. Type I collagen
E. Collagen
12. Which of the following is NOT a form of
bone in human skeleton?
A. long bones
B. short bones
C. regular bones
D. flat bones
E. irregular bones
13. The deciduous set of teeth begins
A. forming in utero and erupt from early
infancy though early childhood
B. destroying in utero and erupt from early
infancy though early childhood
C. terminating in utero and erupt from early
infancy though early childhood.
D. finishing in utero and erupt from early
infancy though early childhood
E. dying in utero and erupt from early
infancy though early childhood
14. No concrete timeline can be developed that
defines when osseous tissue becomes
diagenetically susceptible because:
A. Much of the material forensically
analyzed is generally less than 60 to 70
years of age
B. Diagenetic processes are uniform under
the influence of intrinsic factors
C. Incompletely mineralized bone are
vulnerable to diagenetic alteration
D. Highly porous, aged bones often found in
the elderly may succumb to diagenetic
processes more quickly
E. Diagenetic processes are not uniform

B. A durable and surviving substance

without structural integrity, but with high
mineral contents
C. A durable and surviving substance
without structural integrity and low
mineral contents
D. A durable and dense substance with
structural integrity, but no mineral
contents
E. A porous, lightweight substance with no
mineral contents
16. Respectively, the inorganic and organic
component makes up ___ %, and ____ % of
dry bone by weight.
A. 70, 30
B. 65, 35
C. 60, 40
D. 30, 70
E. 40, 60
17. Which of the following is NOT a technique to
assess diagenetic alteration?
A. Consideration of the deposition context
B. Visual assessment
C. Spectral techniques
D. Fourier transform infrared spectroscopy
E. Acetic acid wash

15. In opinion of the author, which of the

following material is suitable for isotopic
analysis?
A. A durable and surviving substance with
high structural integrity and high mineral
contents

Answer Key
1. Option C is correct. The primary focus of the
author is to highlight quality of bone and teeth
as biochemical for oxygen isotopic research;
however, he emphasizes that teeth are better
than bone for oxygen isotopic research. (para
01 and 15)
2. Option E is correct. It correctly and
completely state the definition of diagenesis
given by the author. (para 14)
3. Option E is correct. Author emphasis that
teeth are better than bones for isotopic
research (para 15).
4. Option D is correct. In authors logic, the
existing high correlation makes the phosphate
site a common choice for oxygen isotopic
research. Hence, a decrease in the correlation
will decrease its utility. (para 07)

13. Option A is correct. In this context,

mineralizing means forming. (para 09)
14. Option E is correct. No concrete timeline can
be developed because diagenetic processes
are not uniform (para 16)
15. Option A is correct. By analogy, a durable
and surviving substance with high structural
integrity and high mineral contents is suitable
for isotopic analysis (para 09).
16. Option A is correct. First line of para 05 and
of para 06 give the answer.
17. Option E is correct. Acetic Acid Wash is a
contaminant removal technique (para 17)

5. Option B is correct. (para 12)

6. Option A is correct. Three types of hard tissue
are enamel, dentine, and cementum (para 11)
7. Option C is correct. Based on authors logic,
option C is correct. (para 01)
8. Option E is correct. The author has stated
three characteristics which jointly render
phosphate sites to yield useful oxygen
composition data for isotope research (para
07)
9. Option D is correct. Being a static tissue,
teeth enamel has high quality for elemental
isotopic analysis. (para 13)
10. Option C is correct. A cancellous tissue is a
porous, lightweight, honeycomb structured
tissue, with porosity of 75% - 95%. (para 03)
11. Option D is correct. (Para 05)
12. Option C is correct. The regular bone is not a
type of bones given in the passage. (para 02)

Dissociative Identity Disorder

(1) Multiple Personality Disorder (MPD) remains

a poorly understood phenomenon. With the fourth

edition of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual
(DSM-IV), there has been a name change to
Dissociative Identity Disorder (DID). The present
understanding of DID is reflected in its newer
name - Dissociative Identity Disorder. Many
definitions and theories attempt to illuminate the
complex construct of dissociation. Variously
defined as a discontinuity of states and as an
important survival mechanism, dissociation
provides a method of sectioning knowledge and
storing it in a largely state-dependent manner.
There is some evidence that pathological
dissociation arising out of trauma is qualitatively,
as well as quantitatively, different from normal
kinds of dissociation. The normal processes of
dissociation include daydreaming, highway
hypnosis, or "getting lost" in a book or movie, all
of which involve "losing touch" with awareness
of one's immediate surroundings.
(2) Dissociation has been defined as a jump
between behavioral states, or as a special and
distinct state of profound disconnection. The
American Psychological Association defines it as
a separation between processes that are normally
integrated, such as events, emotions, and
memories. It has been conceptualized as a
response to trauma, as a neural network, as a
survival mechanism, and as a
compartmentalization of information processing.
One conceptualization that has been common in
the past is the psychodynamic interpretation that
dissociation is a defense mechanism that protects
against unbearable anxiety, and as such is
considered a relatively immature defense.
(3) DIDs five most prominent symptoms are
amnesia, depersonalization, derealization,

alterations in identity, and identity confusion.

These disturbances cannot be the result of drugs
or a medical condition, nor can they, in children,
be the result of an imaginary companion.
(4) No single person with Dissociative Identity
Disorder (DID) is likely to have all the symptoms
on this list. Nor does the presence of any one or
even several of these symptoms necessarily imply
the existence of alter personalities. DID is at one
end of the dissociate continuum. At the other end,
dissociation is a very ordinary phenomenon that
is experienced by everyone. DID can take a
variety of forms and symptoms may differ widely
between individuals and within the same
individual over time. Since DID is a disorder
which is based on keeping of secrets, both from
the individual and from the outside world, the
symptoms are often subtle or masked. The
symptoms may change or become more
pronounced after a person becomes aware of
multiplicity of personality and he or she starts
working with it.
(5) A variety of instruments is available for the
diagnosis of DID, including the Structured
Clinical Interview for DSM Dissociative
Disorders (SCID-D), the Dissociative
Experiences Scale (DES) and the DES-taxon
(DES-T), the Dissociative Disorders Interview
Schedule (DDIS), and others. For children, there
are the Child Dissociative Checklist (CDC) and
the Child Behavior Checklist (CBCL), and others.
Most of these measures are structured clinical
interviews, although several are self-report
questionnaires. Most of them have been validated
and normed and can reliably diagnose DID. The
SCID-D can even catch cases of DID that have
been previously missed. The best way to diagnose
DID involves taking a very detailed history of
current symptoms, including somatization

10

symptoms and Schneiderian first rank symptoms,

the five core symptoms of DID, as well as a
history of childhood and past diagnoses. Patients
with DID are highly poly symptomatic,
presenting with almost every other disorder in the
DSM. Because of this factor, they are often
misdiagnosed and spend years in unproductive
treatment, receiving many incorrect diagnoses.
(6) The DSM- IV-TR (2001) lists four diagnostic
criteria for DID: (1) the presence of two or more
distinct identities or personality states (each with
its own relatively enduring pattern of perceiving,
relating to, and thinking about the environment
and self); (2) the recurrence of at least two of the
identities or personality states taking control of
the persons behavior; (3) the inability of the
person to recall important personal information
that is too extensive to be explained by ordinary
forgetfulness; and (4) the disturbance which is not
due to the direct physiological effects of a
substance e.g. a chaotic behavior during alcohol
intoxication or a general medical condition. In
children, the symptoms are not attributable to
imaginary playmates or other fantasy play.
(7) There has been considerable debate in the
past over whether DID exists as an entity, or
whether it is merely a fad or even iatrogenically
created. It has been called merely a variant of
schizophrenia, posttraumatic stress disorder
(PTSD), hysteria, or borderline personality
disorder. Supposedly it can be convincingly faked
by college students, or brought on by media
exposure. Kluft pointed out that actual
presentations of multiple personalities in the
clinicians office bear very little relation to what
is portrayed in the movies. Many people with
DID hide their alters rather than flaunt them; they
lie to cover their memory lapses; they try to
pass and they are often quite successful. In a

study comparing people with genuine multiple

personalities to simulators, he found that the
malingerers did a poor job of convincing experts
of their purported multiple personalities.
(8) Some people have argued that DID is merely
an artifact of Western civilization and diagnostic
criteria. Still others have made the claim that all
people have multiple personalities in some way.
Despite these assertions, DID does exist as a valid
and reliable category, even if there is room for
improvement in the diagnostic criteria, and as
such it is treatable.
(9) Research shows that DID affects about 1% of
the people and as many as 5-20% of people in
psychiatric hospitals. The statistics are even
higher among sexual-abuse survivors, others who
had undergone trauma. The statistics place DID
in the category of schizophrenia, depression, and
anxiety, making it one of the four major mental
health problems today.
(10) Severe dissociative disorders are almost
always the result of childhood trauma. Putnam
has described a window for trauma leading to
DID at around 3 to 10 years old. Alters appear at
around 4 to 8 years old, or at the latest by age 12.
Numerous correlational studies have confirmed a
high incidence of childhood traumasexual,
physical, and probably emotional abusein
adults and children with dissociative disorders or
very high levels of dissociation. Many studies
find that an earlier age of trauma, more severe
trauma, and more perpetrators also increase the
risk of developing a dissociative disorder.
Humans are born with the capacity for a few
basic states (resting, dreaming, awake and alert,
fussing, crying). These discrete states can be
distinguished by patterns of affect, motor activity,
spontaneous verbalization, heart rate, respiratory
patterns, and attention. Later, development and

11

experience contribute to the formation of more

numerous and complex states. Parents also help
children to know which state is appropriate for
various situations, and to integrate these various
states across contexts so that a unified sense of
self is developed. Abuse disrupts these processes
and finally leads to DID. Instead of being helpful
to the child, the abusive person is actively
reinforcing a situation in which the child is
overwhelmed with unbearable emotional and
physiological arousal, and has no way to manage
it.
(11) Researchers advise three ways to treat DID:
(1) Psychotherapy is the treatment of choice for
individuals suffering from any type of
dissociative disorder. (2) The use of medication,
except for the treatment of acute, specific
concurrent Axis I disorders, is not recommended.
Maintenance and effective use of prescriptions
given the multiple personality states is difficult to
attain. (3) The use of self-help is a growing trend.
People with disorder are starting to come together
to form mutual support groups within larger
communities. There are no overt reasons why a
support group for this disorder would not be
beneficial to individuals.
(12) DID is also present in children; the existence
of DID in children was first established by
Despine in 1840. The next reported childhood
case was presented at a course of the 1979
meeting of the American Psychiatric
Association, 139 years later. Children presenting
with dissociative disorders are often easier to treat
than adults, since their defenses are not as
entrenched or complex. However, dissociation
can also be more difficult to recognize in children
than in adults.
(13) Integration can be a goal to achieve in cases
of DID. However, integration, or the fusion of all

alters into one personality, is a controversial

topic. It is often a lengthy and subtle process, but
a few studies have begun to show that treatment
works and leads to stable integration. Integration
is associated with a wide variety of benefits,
including reduction of non-dissociative
symptoms. Still, there are disagreements about its
necessity, with some arguing that it is merely a
by-product of therapy rather than its explicit goal.
Full integration may be more important in
children than in adults, because they are still
developing.

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Which of the following is NOT a valid
current conceptualization of DID?
A. The DID is a response to trauma
B. The DID is a neural network
C. The DID is a survival mechanism
D. The DID is a compartmentalization of
information processing
E. The DID is a defense mechanism against
unbearable anxiety
2. Which of the following best describe
dissociation in cases of DID?
A. A psychological experience in which
people feel connected to their sensory
experience, sense-of-self, and personal
history.
B. A split in the physical brain in which there
can be two independent streams of
consciousness states at the same time.
C. A physical experience in which people
feel split into two states at the same time.
D. A psychological experience in which
people feel disconnected only from entire
environment
E. A special and distinct state of
psychological disconnection.
3. Pathological dissociation arising out of
trauma is different from highway hypnosis.

12

The symptoms of DID may change after a

person becomes aware of multiplicity of
personality
A. Both statements are true
B. Both statements are false
C. The first statement is true, and second is
false
D. The first statement is false, the second is
true
E. Both the statements cannot be inferred
from the passage
4. Which one of the following is NOT a
symptom of DID?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Amnesia
Depersonalization
Derealization
Alterations
Confusion

5. Which of the following is NOT a feature of

the symptoms of DID?
A. No single person with DID is likely to
have all the symptoms
B. The presence of several symptoms imply
the existence of alters.
C. Symptoms may differ widely between
individuals
D. Symptoms may differ within an individual
over time
E. The symptoms are often masked
6. Which diagnostic instrument may NOT be
used to diagnose DID in case of Mr. Walton
31, a soldier who have undergone a traumatic
war experience.
A. The DES
B. The DES-T
C. The DDIS
D. The CDC
E. The SCID-D
7. Patients with DID are often misdiagnosed
because DID is highly poly symptomatic.
A. Both the statement and reason are correct
and related;

B. Both the statement and the reason are

correct but NOT related;
C. The statement is correct but the reason is
NOT;
D. The statement is NOT correct, but the
reason is correct;
E. NEITHER the statement NOR the reason
is correct.
8. A schoolteacher behaves like a police officer
whenever he uses psychoactive drugs, which
influence the way he thinks, feels, and
behaves. He cannot recall the memories of
one state of behavior in another. Why a
therapist is unlikely to diagnose him a patient
with DID?
A. Absence of more than one distinct
identities states
B. Non recurring personality states taking
control of the teachers behavior
C. The teachers inability to recall memories
of the states of behavior
D. The behavior does not relate to pattern of
perceiving, relating to, and thinking about
the environment and self of the teacher
E. The behavior is due to the direct
physiological effects of psychoactive
drugs
9. In context of the passage, which of the
following is a valid inference about existence
of DID?
A. DID does not exist
B. It is merely a fad
C. It is not a valid category; it is only a
variant of PTSD
D. It exists and all people have multiple
personalities in some way
E. It exists as a valid and reliable category
10. Researchers are carrying out a survey to
collect DID-Statistics pertaining to five
groups of individuals. Which of the groups is
likely to have more than 20% individuals with
DID?
A. Group I: Individuals from general public

13

B. Group II: Individuals in psychiatric

hospitals
C. Group III: Individuals who never
underwent traumas
D. Group IV: Individuals who never
underwent sexual abuse
E. Group V: Sexual-abuse survivors
11. What is the age bracket for window of
trauma?
A. 3-6 year
B. 3-10 year
C. 4-8 year
D. 10-12 year
E. 4-8 year, or at the latest by age 12
12. What is NOT a variable to distinguish inborn
basic states of a child?
A. Motor activity
B. Spontaneous verbalization
C. Heart rate
D. Respiratory patterns
E. Cognitive processes
13. In cases of DID, psychotherapy is not a
treatment of choice preferable to use of
medicine because it is difficult to maintain
given the multiple personality states.
A. Both the statement and reason are correct
and related;
B. Both the statement and the reason are
correct but NOT related;
C. The statement is correct but the reason is
NOT;
D. The statement is NOT correct, but the
reason is correct;
E. NEITHER the statement NOR the reason
is correct.

D. A doctor aged 28 who had faced abuse at

an age of 6
E. A child aged 9 living with parents
15. Integration is fusion of all distinct states into
one
personality.
Integration does not reduce dissociative
symptoms.
A. Both statements are true
B. Both statements are false
C. The first statement is true, and second is
false
D. The first statement is false, the second is
true
E. Both the statements cannot be inferred
from the passage
16. In which edition of the Diagnostic and
Statistical Manual, the change of name from
Multiple Personality Disorder to Dissociative
Identity Disorder was made?
A. DSM-IV
B. DSM-III
C. DSM-V
D. DSM-VI
E. DSM-VII

14. In which of the following cases of DID, a

therapist will find treatment easier?
A. An army man aged 37 after war
B. A social scientist aged 50 having two
personalities
C. A woman aged 34 thinking herself an
actor and politician

14

Answer Key
1. See Para 02
A. Incorrect. It has been conceptualized as a
response to trauma.
B. Incorrect. It has been conceptualized as a
neural network.
C. Incorrect. It has been conceptualized as a
survival mechanism.
D. Incorrect. It has been conceptualized as a
compartmentalization of information
processing.
E. Correct. This conceptualization has been
common in the past.
2. See Para 02
A. Incorrect. Dissociation has state profound
disconnection, not connection
B. Incorrect. Dissociation is not a physical
split.
C. Incorrect. Dissociation is not a physical
experience.
D. Incorrect. Dissociation is disconnection
from other states, not only from
environment.
E. Correct. Dissociation is a special and
distinct
state
of
psychological
disconnection.
3. See Para 01 and 04.
A. Correct because pathological dissociation
arising out of trauma is different from
normal
dissociation
like
highway
hypnosis, and the symptoms of DID may
change after a person becomes aware of
multiplicity of personality.
B. Incorrect because statement 1 and 2 are
correct.
C. Incorrect because statement 1 and 2 are
correct.
D. Incorrect because statement 1 and 2 are
correct.
E. Incorrect because statement 1 and 2 are
correct.
4. See Para 03

A. Incorrect because Amnesia is a symptom

of DID
B. Incorrect because Depersonalization is a
symptom of DID
C. Incorrect because Derealization is a
symptom of DID
D. Incorrect because Alterations is a
symptom of DID
E. Correct because Identity Confusion , not
confusion, is a symptom of DID
5. See Para 04
A. Incorrect because no single person with
DID is likely to have all the symptoms.
B. Correct because the presence of several
symptoms does NOT imply the existence
of alters.
C. Incorrect because symptoms may differ
widely between individuals
D. Incorrect because symptoms may differ
within an individual over time
E. Incorrect because the symptoms are often
masked
6. See Para 05
A. Incorrect because the DES is a test
adults.
B. Incorrect because the DES-T is a test
adults.
C. Incorrect because the DDIS is a test
adults.
D. Correct because the CDC is a test
children
E. Incorrect because the SCID-D is a test
adults.

for
for
for
for
for

7. See Para 05
A. Correct. Patients with DID are often
misdiagnosed. The reasons is that DID is
highly poly symptomatic.
B. Incorrect because the statement and the
reason related
C. Incorrect because the statement the reason
is also correct
D. Incorrect because the statement is also
correct

15

E. Incorrect because both the statement and

the reason are correct.
8. See Para 06
A. Incorrect because more than one distinct
identities states exists: teacher and police
officer.
B. Incorrect because recurrence is present
whenever the teacher uses psychoactive
drugs.
C. Incorrect because the teachers inability to
recall memories is an indicates existence
of DID.
D. Incorrect because the behavior of teacher
is influenced: the way he thinks, feels, and
behaves.
E. Correct because the behavior under direct
physiological effects of psychoactive
drugs does not indicate existence of DID
9. See Para 07
A. Incorrect because DID exists as a valid
and reliable category, which is treatable.
B. Incorrect because DID is not a fad; it
exists as a valid and reliable category.
C. Incorrect because DID is not a variant of
PTSD; it exists as a separate valid and
reliable category.
D. Incorrect because it is merely an assertion
that all people have multiple personalities
in some way
E. Correct because DID exists as a valid and
reliable category, which is treatable.
10. See Para 09
A. Incorrect because the percentage is given
as 1%
B. Incorrect because the percentage is given
as 5%-20%
C. Incorrect because the individuals who
never underwent traumas are not likely to
have DID.
D. Incorrect because the individuals who
never underwent sexual abuse are not
likely to have DID.
E. Correct because it is given that statistics
are even higher for sexual-abuse survivors

11. See Para 10

A. Incorrect because correct age bracket is 310 year
B. Correct because the age bracket is 3-10
year.
C. Incorrect because correct age bracket is 310 year
D. Incorrect because correct age bracket is 310 year
E. Incorrect because correct age bracket is 310 year
12. See Para 10
A. Incorrect because the discrete states can
be distinguished by motor activity
B. Incorrect because the discrete states can
be
distinguished
by
spontaneous
verbalization
C. Incorrect because the discrete states can
be distinguished by heart rate
D. Incorrect because the discrete states can
be distinguished by respiratory patterns
E. Correct because it is not given that
cognitive processes distinguish the
discrete states.
13. See Para 11
A. Incorrect because psychotherapy is a
treatment of choice for DID, and use of
medicine, not psychotherapy, is difficult
to maintain given the multiple personality
states.
B. Incorrect because psychotherapy is a
treatment of choice for DID, and use of
medicine, not psychotherapy, is difficult
to maintain given the multiple personality
states.
C. Incorrect because psychotherapy is a
treatment of choice for DID, and use of
medicine, not psychotherapy, is difficult
to maintain given the multiple personality
states.
D. Incorrect because psychotherapy is a
treatment of choice for DID, and use of
medicine, not psychotherapy, is difficult

16

to maintain given the multiple personality

states.
E. Correct because psychotherapy is a
treatment of choice for DID, and use of
medicine, not psychotherapy, is difficult
to maintain given the multiple personality
states.
14. See Para 12
A. Incorrect because children with DID are
often easier to treat and the army man is
37.
B. Incorrect because children with DID are
often easier to treat and the social scientist
is 50.
C. Incorrect because children with DID are
often easier to treat and the woman is 34.
D. Incorrect because children with DID are
often easier to treat and the doctor is 28.
E. Correct because children with DID are
often easier to treat.
15. See Para 13
A. Incorrect. Both statements are true
B. Incorrect. Both statements are false
C. Correct. The first statement is true, and
second is false
D. Incorrect. The first statement is false, the
second is true
E. Incorrect. Both the statements cannot be
inferred from the passage
16. See Para 01
A. Correct because change
DSM-IV
B. Incorrect because change
DSM-IV
C. Incorrect because change
DSM-IV
D. Incorrect because change
DSM-IV
E. Incorrect because change
DSM-IV

was made in
was made in
was made in
was made in
was made in

17

Energy Dispersive X-ray

Spectrometry
(1) EDS makes use of the X-ray spectrum emitted
by a solid sample bombarded with a focused
beam of electrons to obtain a localized chemical
analysis. All elements from atomic number 4 (Be)
to 92 (U) can be detected in principle, though not
all instruments are equipped for 'light' elements
(Z < 10). Qualitative analysis involves the
identification of the lines in the spectrum and is
fairly straightforward owing to the simplicity of
X-ray spectra. Quantitative analysis entails
measuring line intensities for each element in the
sample and for the same elements in calibration
Standards of known composition.
(2) By scanning the beam in a television-like
raster and displaying the intensity of a selected Xray line, element distribution images or 'maps' can
be produced. Also, images produced by electrons
collected from the sample reveal surface
topography or mean atomic number differences
according to the mode selected. The scanning
electron microscope (SEM), which is closely
related to the electron probe, is designed
primarily for producing electron images, but can
also be used for element mapping, and even point
analysis, if an X-ray spectrometer is added. There
is thus a considerable overlap in the functions of
these instruments.
(3) X-ray intensities are measured by counting
photons and the precision obtainable is limited by
statistical error. For major elements it is usually
not difficult to obtain a precision of better than
1% (relative), but the overall analytical accuracy
is commonly nearer 2%, owing to other factors
such as uncertainties in the compositions of the
standards and errors in the various corrections
which need to be applied to the raw data.
(4) As well as producing characteristic X-ray
lines, the bombarding electrons also give rise to a
continuous X-ray spectrum, which limits the
detachability of small peaks, owing to the
presence of 'background'. Using routine

procedures, detection limits are typically about

1000 ppm (by weight) but can be reduced by
using long counting times
(5) Spatial resolution is governed by the
penetration and spreading of the electron beam in
the specimen. Since the electrons penetrate an
approximately constant mass, spatial resolution is
a function of density. A uniform constant density
is desirable. In the case of silicates (density about
3 g cm-3), the nominal resolution is about 2 m
under typical conditions, but for quantitative
analysis a minimum grain size of several
micrometers is desirable.
(6) Better spatial resolution is obtainable with
ultra-thin (~100 nm) uniform specimens, in which
the beam does not have the opportunity to spread
out so much. Such specimens can be analyzed in
a transmission electron microscope (TEM) with
an X-ray spectrometer attached, also known as an
analytical electron microscope, or AEM.
(7) Since the electron probe analyses only to a
shallow depth, specimens should be well polished
so that surface roughness does not affect the
results. Sample preparation is essentially as for
reflected light microscopy, with the provision that
only vacuum compatible materials must be used.
Opaque samples may be embedded in epoxy resin
blocks. For transmitted light viewing, polished
thin sections on glass slides are prepared.
(8) In principle, specimens of any size and shape
(within reasonable limits) can be analyzed.
However, many samples are electrically nonconducting and a conducting surface coat must be
applied to provide a path for the incident
electrons to flow to ground. The usual coating
material is vacuum-evaporated carbon (~10nm
thick), which has a minimal influence on X-ray
intensities on account of its low atomic number,
and (unlike gold, which is commonly used for
SEM specimens) does not add unwanted peaks to
the X-ray spectrum. However, steps should be
taken to maintain as constant a thickness as
possible.

18

(9) According to the Rutherford-Bohr model of

the atom, electrons orbit around the positive
nucleus. In the normal state, the number of orbital
electrons equals the number of protons in the
nucleus i.e. atomic number, Z. Only certain
orbital states with specific energies exist, which
are defined by quantum numbers. With increasing
Z, orbits are occupied on the basis of minimum
energy, those nearest the nucleus, and therefore
the most tightly bound, being filled first. Orbital
energy is determined mainly by the principal
quantum number (n). The shell closest to the
nucleus (n = 1) is known as the K shell; the next
is the L shell (n = 2), then the M shell (n = 3), etc.
The L shell is split into three subshells designated
L1, L2 and L3, which have different quantum
configurations and slightly different energies;
however, the K shell is unitary. Similarly, the M
shell has five subshells.

intense K line is K! (The less intense K! line

is usually not resolved, and the combined line is
designated K!,! or just K. The most intense L
line is L! . Because of the splitting of the L shell
into three subshells, the L spectrum is more
complicated than the K spectrum and contains at
least 12 lines, though many of these are weak.

(10) The populations of the inner shells are

governed by the Pauli exclusion principle, which
states that only one electron may possess a given
set of quantum numbers. The maximum
population of a shell is thus equal to the number
of possible states possessing the relevant
principal quantum number. In the case of the K
shell this is 2, for the L shell 8, and for the M
shell 18. Thus for Z 2 the K shell is full, and
for Z 10 the L shell is full.

(14) Energies are measured in electron volts (eV),

1 eV being the energy corresponding to a change
of 1 V in the potential of an electron (=
1.602 10!!" J). This unit is applicable to both
X-rays and electrons. X-ray energies of interest in
electron probe analysis are mostly in the range 110 keV.

(11) 'Characteristic' X-rays result from electron

transitions between inner orbits, which are
normally full. An electron must first be removed
in order to create a vacancy into which another
can 'fall' from an orbit further out. In electron
probe analysis vacancies are produced by electron
bombardment, which also applies to X-ray
analysis in the TEM.
(12) X-ray lines are identified by a capital Roman
letter indicating the shell containing the inner
vacancy (K, L or M), a Greek letter specifying the
group to which the line belongs in order of
decreasing importance , ), and a number
denoting the intensity of the line within the group
in descending order (1, 2, etc.). Thus the most

(13) Characteristic spectra may be understood by

reference to the energy level diagram, in which
horizontal lines represent the energy of the atom
with an electron removed from the shell (or
subshell) concerned. An electron transition
associated with X-ray emission can be considered
as the transfer of a vacancy from one shell to
another, the energy of the X-ray photon being
equal to the energy difference between the levels
concerned. For example, the K line results from
a K-L3 transition.

(15) The 'critical excitation energy' (! ) is the

minimum energy which bombarding electrons
must possess in order to create an initial vacancy.
Experiments have shown the dependence of !
on Z for the principal shells. In electron probe
analysis the incident electron energy (! ) must
exceed ! and should preferably be at least twice
! to give reasonably high excitation efficiency.
For atomic numbers above about 35, it is usual to
change from K to L lines to avoid the need for an
excessively high electron beam energy (which
has undesirable implications with respect to the
penetration of the electrons in the sample, and in
any case may exceed the maximum available
accelerating voltage).
(16) The preceding discussion treated X-rays as
photons possessing a specific energy (E).
Sometimes, it is more appropriate to describe X-

19

rays by their wavelength(), which is related to

energy by the expression: = 12396 where E
is in electron volts and is in , where
1 = 10!!" m.
(17) Since X-ray lines originate in transitions
between inner shells, the energy of a particular
line shows a smooth dependence on atomic
number, varying approximately as ! (Moseley's
law). The energies of the K! , L! and M!
lines are plotted against Z in Figure 4.
(18) The total X-ray intensity for a particular
shell is divided between several lines. In the case
of the K shell, more than 80% of the total
intensity is contained in the combined K!,! line.
The relative intensity of the K line decreases
with decreasing atomic number, in accordance
with the electron occupancies of the relevant
energy levels.
(19) Electron bombardment not only produces
characteristic X-ray lines resulting from electron
transitions between inner atomic shells but also a
continuous X-ray spectrum. This continuum
arises from interactions between incident
electrons and atomic nuclei. The intensity of the
continuum decreases monotonically with
increasing X-ray energy, and is approximately
proportional to Z. The main significance of the
continuum in the present context is that it
contributes the 'backgrounds' upon which characteristic elemental lines are superimposed.
(20) Energy-dispersive spectrometers (EDSs)
employ pulse height analysis: a detector giving
output pulses proportional in height to the X-ray
photon energy is used in conjunction with a pulse
height analyzer. A solid state detector is used
because of its better energy resolution. Incident
X-ray photons cause ionization in the detector,
producing an electrical charge, which is amplified
by a sensitive preamplifier located close to the
detector.
(21) The ED spectrum is displayed in digitized
form with the x-axis representing X-ray energy

(usually in channels 10 or 20 eV wide) and the yaxis representing the number of counts per
channel. Energy resolution is defined as the full
width of the peak at half maximum height
(FWHM). Conventionally, this is specified for the
Mn K peak at 5.89 keV. For Si(Li) and SDD
detectors, values of 130-150 eV are typical (Ge
detectors can achieve 115eV). The resolution of
an EDS is about an order of magnitude worse
than that of a WDS, but is good enough to
separate the K lines of neighboring elements.
(22) In processing the pulses from a solid state
detector prior to pulse-height analysis, it is
necessary to use certain integrating time to
minimize noise. The system consequently has a
specific 'dead time', or period after the arrival of
an X-ray photon during which the system is
unresponsive to further photons. This limits the
rate at which pulses can be processed and added
to the recorded spectrum. Throughput' passes
through a maximum above which it decreases
with further increases in input count rate. The
maximum throughput rate is a function of the
integration time and the design of the system.
(23) Energy resolution is determined partly by the
statistics of the detection process and partly by
noise fluctuations in the baseline upon which the
pulses are superimposed. The longer the
integration time, the more the noise is smoothed
out, and the better the energy resolution. There is
thus a 'tradeoff' between resolution and
throughput.
(24) The object of qualitative analysis is to find
what elements are present in an 'unknown'
specimen by identifying the lines in the X-ray
spectrum using tables of energies or wavelengths.
Ambiguities are rare and can invariably be
resolved by taking into account additional lines as
well as the main one. The ED spectrometer is
especially useful for qualitative analysis because
a complete spectrum can be obtained very
quickly. Aids to identification are provided, such
as facilities for superimposing the positions of the

20

lines of a given element for comparison with the

recorded spectrum

Multiple Choice Questions

1. The Pauli Exclusion Principle governs the
populations of the inner shells.
Electron bombardment produces
characteristic X-ray lines and a continuous Xray spectrum
A. Both statements are true
B. Both statements are false
C. The first statement is true, and second is
false
D. The first statement is false, the second is
true
E. Both the statements cannot be inferred
from the passage
2. Which of the following statements is a correct
interpretation of the Moseley's law?
A. The energy of a particular X-Ray line
shows an inverse dependence on atomic
number
B. The energy of a particular X-Ray line
varies approximately as Z2
C. The total X-ray intensity for a particular
shell is divided between several lines
D. The intensity of a particular X-Ray line
varies approximately as Z2
E. The intensity of a particular X-Ray line
varies approximately as Z
3. An electrical charge is produced in a detector
because incident X-ray photons cause
ionization in the detector.
A. Both the statement and reason are correct
and related;
B. Both the statement and the reason are
correct but NOT related;
C. The statement is correct but the reason is
NOT;
D. The statement is NOT correct, but the
reason is correct;
E. NEITHER the statement NOR the reason
is correct.

4. What do horizontal lines in an energy level

diagram represent?
A. The energy of the atom
B. The quantum number of an electron
C. Intensity of electron
D. Intensity of photons
E. Ionization Potential
5. Which of the following is the best description
of critical excitation energy?
A. The minimum energy which bombarding
electron must possess in order to create an
initial vacancy in a shell
B. The maximum energy which bombarding
particles possess while emitting X-Rays
C. The maximum energy which bombarding
electron can possess to trigger X-Rays
emission
D. The minimum energy which bombarding
electron can possess to trigger X-Rays
emission
E. The minimum energy which inner shell
electrons must possess in order to create
an initial vacancy in a shell
6. In qualitative analysis, ambiguities in
identification of elements present in a
specimen are resolved by
A. Finding what elements are present
B. Taking into account the main line in
spectrum
C. Using tables of energies or wavelengths
D. Using techniques other than Energy
Dispersive X-ray Spectrometry
E. Dispersing photons
7. While analyzing a specimen, you have
decreased integration time of an Energy
Dispersive X-ray spectrometer. What you
should expect?
A. An increase in noise
B. The smoothing out of noise
C. An increase in energy resolution
D. An decrease in throughput
E. A better resolution

21

8. What is the full width of the peak at halfmaximum height achievable for a Ge
detector?
A. 115eV
B. 5.89 keV
C. 130 eV
D. 150 eV
E. 10-20 eV
9. During an Energy Dispersive X-ray
Spectrometric analysis, you are failing to
obtain a better spatial resolution. What might
be a possible cause of this failure?
A. The density of the specimen is uniform
and constant
B. The grain size of the specimen is just
several millimeters
C. The specimen is ultra-thin
D. The grain size of the specimen is in the
range of 1-3 micrometers
E. The thickness of specimen is ~ 100 nm
10. What is the feature that makes Energy
Dispersive X-ray Spectrometry a special
choice for qualitative analysis?
A. It enables you to very quickly obtain a
complete spectrum
B. It can produce individual lines in a
spectrum
C. It can use a minimum grain size of several
micrometers
D. It can use relatively larger grain sizes of
samples
E. It enables you to identify an individual
line in a spectrum
11. What is the range of atomic numbers of
element that can be detected by Dispersive Xray Spectrometry?
A. 4-92
B. 4-10
C. 40-92
D. 1-100
E. 1-110
12. A sample is under experimental study using
Energy Dispersive X-ray Spectrometry. The

scientist performing the experimental study

has noted that the sample is electrically nonconducting; therefore, the sample is a not
suitable sample for the study. What coating
material he should use to make the sample
suitable for obtaining better resolution to
study the specimen?
A. vacuum-evaporated carbon with uniform
thickness
B. vacuum-evaporated carbon with nonuniform thickness
C. gold because it has high atomic number
D. gold with uniform thick coating (~10nm
thick)
E. nothing; the Energy Dispersive X-ray
Spectrometry is equally fit for electrically
non conducting samples
13. Spatial resolution is a function of density
because the electrons penetrate an
approximately constant mass.
A. Both the statement and reason are correct
and related;
B. Both the statement and the reason are
correct but NOT related;
C. The statement is correct but the reason is
NOT;
D. The statement is NOT correct, but the
reason is correct;
E. NEITHER the statement NOR the reason
is correct.
14. Which of the following model says that
electrons orbit around the positive nucleus?
A. Rutherford-Bohr model
B. Spectroscopic model
C. Pauli Principle
D. Energy level diagram
E. Moseleys law
15. What is the range of X-ray energies of interest
in electron probe analysis?
A. 1-10 keV
B. 130-150 keV
C. 1-10 nm
D. 1-10 eV
E. ~5.89 keV

22

Answer Key
1. See Para 10 and 19
A. Correct. The Pauli Exclusion Principle
governs the populations of the inner
shells.
B. Incorrect because both statements are true
C. Incorrect because second statement is also
true
D. Incorrect because first statement is also
true
E. Incorrect because both the statements can
be inferred from Para 10 and 19.
2. See Para 17
A. Incorrect because Moseleys law states
that the energy of a particular X-Ray line
various as Z2; it is a direct, not inverse
relationship.
B. Correct because Moseleys law states that
the energy of a particular X-Ray line
varies approximately as Z2
C. Incorrect because it not Moseleys law
D. Incorrect because Moseleys law is about
the energy of a particular X-Ray; it is not
about intensity of a particular X-Ray line
E. Incorrect because Moseleys law is about
the energy of a particular X-Ray; it is not
about intensity of a particular X-Ray line
3. See Para 20
A. Correct because an electrical charge is
produced in a detector due to incident Xray photons, which cause ionization in the
detector
B. Incorrect because both the statements are
related
C. Incorrect because the reason is also
correct
D. Incorrect because the statement is also
correct
E. Incorrect because both the statement and
the reason are correct.
4. See Para 13

A. Correct because horizontal lines in an

energy level diagram represent the energy
of the atom.
B. Incorrect because horizontal lines in an
energy level diagram does not represent
the quantum number of an electron
C. Incorrect because horizontal lines in an
energy level diagram does not represent
the intensity of electron
D. Incorrect because horizontal lines in an
energy level diagram does not represent
the intensity of photons
E. Incorrect because horizontal lines in an
energy level diagram does not represent
the ionization potential
5. See Para 15
A. Correct because critical excitation energy
is the minimum energy which bombarding
electron must possess in order to create an
initial vacancy in a shell
B. Incorrect because critical excitation
energy is not a maximum limit; it is also
not energy of electron during emission of
X-Rays
C. Incorrect because critical excitation
energy is not a maximum limit ; it is also
not for triggering X-Rays emission
D. Incorrect because critical excitation
energy is not for triggering X-Rays
emission
E. Incorrect because critical excitation
energy is not energy of inner shell
electrons
6. See Para 24
A. Incorrect because the ambiguities are
NOT resolved by finding what elements
are present; they are resolved by taking
into account the main line in spectrum.
B. Correct because the ambiguities are
resolved by taking into account the main
line in spectrum.
C. Incorrect because the ambiguities are
NOT resolved by using tables of energies
or wavelengths; they are resolved by

23

taking into account the main line in

spectrum.
D. Incorrect because the ambiguities are
NOT resolved by using techniques other
than Energy Dispersive X-ray
Spectrometry; they are resolved by taking
into account the main line in spectrum.
E. Incorrect because the ambiguities are
NOT resolved by dispersing photons; they
are resolved by taking into account the
main line in spectrum.
7. See Para 23
A. Correct because noise will increase with a
decrease in integration time
B. Incorrect because the smoothing out of
noise results from increasing integration
time.
C. Incorrect because an increase in energy
resolution results from increasing
integration time.
D. Incorrect because a decrease in throughput
results from increasing integration time.
E. Incorrect because a better resolution
results from increasing integration time.
8. See Para 21
A. Correct because a Ge detector can achieve
up to 115eV
B. Incorrect because a Ge detector cannot
achieve 5.89 keV
C. Incorrect because a Ge detector cannot
achieve 130 eV
D. Incorrect because a Ge detector cannot
achieve 150 eV
E. Incorrect because a Ge detector cannot
achieve the range of 10-20 keV
9. See Para 05 and 06
A. Incorrect because a uniform and constant
density is desirable for the analysis
B. Correct because the desirable grain size is
several micrometers, not several
millimeter
C. Incorrect because the ultra-thin specimen
is desirable

D. Incorrect because the grain size of the

specimen is in the right range i.e. several
micrometers in size
E. Incorrect because the thickness of
specimen is right ~ 100 nm or ultrathin
specimen
10. See Para 24
A. Correct; EDS is useful for qualitative
analysis because it very quickly obtain a
complete spectrum
B. Incorrect because production of individual
lines in a spectrum is not the special
feature to choose EDS for qualitative
analysis
C. Incorrect because the grain size relates to
quantitative analysis
D. Incorrect because the grain size relates to
quantitative analysis
E. Incorrect because generation of a
complete spectrum, not individual lines, is
the special cause of choosing EDS for
qualitative analysis
11. See Para 01
A. Correct because all elements from atomic
number 4 (Be) to 92 (U) can be detected
in principle.
B. Incorrect because the range is 4-92
C. Incorrect because the range is 4-92
D. Incorrect because the range is 4-92
E. Incorrect because the range is 4-92
12. See Para 08 and 05
A. Correct; usual coating material is vacuumevaporated carbon, and uniform thickness
is desirable to obtain better resolution
B. Incorrect; non-uniform thickness is not
desirable
C. Incorrect; Gold add unwanted peaks to the
X-ray spectrum
D. Incorrect; Gold add unwanted peaks to the
X-ray spectrum
E. Incorrect; a coating material is needed for
electrically non conducting samples
13. See Para 05

24

A. Correct because both the statement and

reason are correct and related
B. Incorrect because the statement and the
reason are related (inversely related
variables);
C. Incorrect because the reason is also
correct
D. Incorrect because the statement is also
correct
E. Incorrect because the statement and the
reason are correct.
14. See Para 09
A. Correct; Rutherford-Bohr model says that
electrons orbit around the positive
nucleus.
B. Incorrect; no such model is given is the
passage
C. Incorrect because Pauli Principle is about
filling of elections in shells
D. Incorrect because Energy level diagram
represent the energy of the atom with an
electron removed from the shell; it is not a
model of atom.
E. Incorrect because Moseleys law gives
dependence of energy of a particular line
in a spectrum on atomic number; it is not
an atomic model
15. See Para 14
A. Correct; X-ray energies of interest in
electron probe analysis are mostly in the
range 1-10 keV.
B. Incorrect because X-ray energies of
interest in electron probe analysis are
mostly in the range 1-10 keV.
C. Incorrect because X-ray energies of
interest in electron probe analysis are
mostly in the range 1-10 keV.
D. Incorrect because the energies of interest
are 1-10 keV, not 1-10eV
E. Incorrect; 5.89 keV is not the correct
range despite the fact it falls between 110keV

25

Magnetic Hard Disk Drive

(1) The magnetic hard disk drive (HDD) plays an
important and extremely useful role in every
information processing system; in fact, this role is
constantly growing as a result of advances in
capacity, performance and price. Since the first
HDD was introduced in 1956, this device has
been the recipient of significant additional
technology innovations which have extended its
value.
(2) Latest technology is hallmark of todays
HDD, which has several components. The basic
magnetic storage phenomenon occurs when a
read/write sensor or head scans the rotating disk
surface. At specific concentric rings, or tracks,
magnetized regions are created in a write
operation, or read if previously written. Precision
mechanical systems support this scanning
process; a miniature motor buried within the
spindle or hub of the disk and an actuator motor
operating on a voice-coil principle position the
head over the disk. A ramp assembly allows the
head to fly aerodynamically over the disk surface
during periods of disk rotation, promoting the use
of ultra-smooth disks which enable low flying,
resulting in a maximum in data density. While a
high degree of precision is necessary in each
mechanical component, the fundamental design is
simple. Magnetic impulses during the read
operation are converted to analog electrical
signals by a sense amplifier and eventually are
decoded and error-corrected by a data channel.
The electronics content of HDDs is large enough
to perform this data function as well as to control
each operation and drive the mechanical
assemblies. The most common disk in todays
HDD products has a diameter of 95 mm.
(3) An obvious evolutionary direction is to
increase the storage capacity of the HDD by

increasing the packing density of bits on each

disk surface, and reading and writing these data
bits at the maximum rate.
(4) A measurement of the density of written
information on the disks surface is the areal
density, in bits per square inch. This parameter is
computed as the track density multiplied by the
bit density on each track. Todays HDD products
have areal densities greater than 1 gigabit/in2 and
have been increasing at a compound growth rate
of 60%, and that the maximum areal density
appearing in a customer product today is 4
gigabits/in2. Supporting this density progress has
been a series of laboratory investigations of new
head designs and technologies which have
resulted in 1, 3, 5, and most recently 11.6
gigabits/in2. The intent of these investigations is
to develop the head technology to be used in
future products, and in fact a product with an
areal density of 11.6 gigabits/in2 will be very
probable by the year 2001.
(5) The evolution of magnetic heads supports this
growth in areal density. Thin-film inductive
heads, used for both reading and writing, were
replaced starting in 1991 by magnetoresistive
(MR) read sensors combined with inductive write
heads, and in 1997 a giant-magnetoresistive
(GMR) head was introduced to continue this
progress. A laboratory demonstration at 11.6
gigabits/in2 was performed using this GMR head
design. New head design technologies are
emerging to provide further areal-density
increases, involving advanced GMR structures or,
as reported, tunnel junction devices. The
evolution involves a reduction in sensor length,
which increases the track density, and a reduction
in film thickness, which determines the bit
density. Each progressive reduction results in
higher areal density and a correspondingly higher

26

HDD capacity, and this evolution is expected to

continue throughout this decade and into the next.
(6) For MR sensors a constant electrical current is
passed through a film of nickel/iron (NiFe) alloy,
creating a magnetic field in the material. As the
sensor approaches a magnetized region on a disk,
the new magnetic field of the magnetized region
results in a change in the magnetic field direction
in the NiFe film, producing a voltage change. The
voltage change is nonlinear with the disk
magnetic field, and designing an efficient
electronics system to interpret these magnetic
signals would be difficult. However, by placing a
second film, magnetically soft, in proximity with
the NiFe MR film, but separated from it by a
high-resistance spacer, the direction of
magnetization is maintained near 45 in the NiFe
and the change in voltage is linear and a
maximum.
(7) As areal density continues to increase, MR
heads eventually experience a reduction of this
voltage change, resulting in lower signal
amplitudes. This drop off occurs near 5
gigabits/in2. A new sensor design, the GMR head,
exhibits a significant voltage change and signal
amplitude at areal densities in excess of 5
gigabits/in2. In GMR sensors, two films separated
by a very thin conducting spacer provide the
voltage change response to a disks magnetic
field. GMR sensors exploit the fundamental
quantum nature of electrons, and follow the
principle that conduction electrons with their spin
direction parallel to the films magnetic direction
can move freely through the structure, producing
little voltage change. One film in the GMR
structure has a fixed magnetic orientation, pinned
by contact with an antiferromagnetic exchange
film. The second film has a variable magnetic
orientation determined by the disks magnetic

field. When both fixed and pinned films have a

parallel magnetic orientation, conduction
electrons may travel long distances through each
film, crossing the spacer. Magnetic fields
originating from recording data bits on the disk
surface rotate the free films orientation,
preventing electron travel because of frequent
collisions by the electrons.
(8) The magnetic orientation swings within the
free NiFe film are much greater in GMR sensors
than in MR sensors, producing increased signal
amplitude changes, nearly twice as large, which
are ideally suited for high areal densities. GMR
heads are in production today for use in high
capacity HDDs for server, desktop and mobile
computer platforms. New HDD designs
employing GMR heads are likely to continue the
60% growth rate in areal density in the near
future, resulting in progressively higher HDD
capacities.
(9) The data rate, the rate at which bits of data are
written to and read from the rotating disk, is
increasing with time at a significant pace. This
originates from increases in bit density as well as
disk rotation rate. Todays server products have
internal data rates in excess of 20 megabytes/sec
and this is expected to at least double by the year
next year. The performance of the electronic data
channels will exceed 500 MHz to allow these
very high data rates, requiring the very latest
CMOS processing at photolithographic line
widths approaching 0.25 m. This trend in
internal data rate closely determines the interface
rate at which the HDD communicates with a
computer. A new trend in high-data-rate
electronics, from the data channel to the arm
amplifiers and the controller chips, will be
combined with higher levels of electronics
integration to reduce the circuit chip count,

27

thereby minimizing the electronics price and

power dissipation and improving performance.
(10) Data channel design will evolve from the
conventional PRML (partial-response maximumlikelihood) channel technology to new levels of
high-speed data detection, analysis and
encoding/decoding. Many of these designs are
currently in the testing phase in the laboratory.
Additional challenges in the design of inductive
write heads, as well as the write driver circuitry,
will constitute a new field for the magnetic
physicist to address, based on magnetic signals
with very short pulse widths at 500 MHz and
greater.
(11) It is interesting to note the reduction in price
per megabyte for HDDs compared with DRAM
electronic circuits. On the basis of improvements
in areal density at 60% per year, and assuming
only a modest decline in unit price, the price per
megabyte would be expected to improve by
nearly 40% per year for buyers. If areal density
progress were to continue at this 60% rate, HDD
prices would be expected to decline further,
attaining a $0.03 per megabyte level by the next
year.
(12) The addition of new technology has
expanded the capabilities of HDDs over the past
40 years, and this storage device is an integral
part of every information processing system. New
head technologies have been a key element in this
progress, and this is expected to continue with the
transition from MR to GMR heads. New head and
disk structures are under investigation in the
laboratory which will expand areal densities
beyond 10 Gbits/in2 by the next year. A
significant evolution in disk drive form factor has
occurred over the past 10-20 years. HDD sizes
have progressively decreased from 14 inch
diameter disks in the 3380 family of HDDs to the

3.5 inch form factor which constitutes the high

capacity, high-performance HDD of today. The
capacity of this form factor is 18 gigabytes today
and would be expected to approach 100 gigabytes
into the next decade. Beyond this, further
capacity increases are possible, concurrent with
areal density.
(13) The 2.5 inch form factor used today for the
mobile computer platform can also be seen to
increase in capacity beyond 100 gigabytes in the
next decade. Since the internal data rate is
moderated with smaller diameter disks, it is
possible to expect extension of 65 mm disks, used
in 2.5 inch HDDs, into the high rotation- rate and
high-performance market in the future.
(14) The attractive price and expanded capacity
of HDDs would be expected also to extend their
application to consumer, non-informationprocessing markets. One example is possibility of
a 1 inch drive design, containing GMR heads, a
load/unload mechanism and other advanced
features. If this design is possible, it could be very
competitive in mobile applications such as digital
cameras, hand-held communication devices and
other areas where flash memory cards are used
today.
(15) Advances in materials and structures of disk
media will concurrently improve areal density
and performance. Improvements in magnetic
materials and structures will address the
superparamagnetic effect, reported to be
important at areal densities beyond 40
gigabits/in2. The usefulness of this device and the
absence of alternative storage technologies will
ensure that significant investigations will
continue to be directed towards improvements in
capacity and performance.

28

Multiple Choice Questions

1. The magnetic orientation swings within the
free NiFe film are relatively greater in GMR
sensors
Greater magnetic orientation swings are
suitable for high areal densities.
A. Both statements are true
B. Both statements are false
C. The first statement is true, and second is
false
D. The first statement is false, the second is
true
E. Both the statements cannot be inferred
from the passage
2. The growing role of the magnetic hard disk
drive is NOT caused by
A. Advances in storage capacity
B. Performance of HDD
C. Price of HDD
D. Technological Innovations
E. Increasing size of the HDD
3. The rate to write data to and read data from
the rotating disk is increasing because of
increases in bit density.
A. Both the statement and reason are correct
and related;
B. Both the statement and the reason are
correct but NOT related;
C. The statement is correct but the reason is
NOT;
D. The statement is NOT correct, but the
reason is correct;
E. NEITHER the statement NOR the reason
is correct.
4. The aerodynamic motion of head in a
magnetic hard disk drive is out of the pattern
instructed by processor. What can be a direct
cause of it?
A. Head is not scanning the disk surface
B. Head is not creating magnetized regions
in a write operation

C. The motor within the spindle is not

working
D. The actuator motor is not operating
E. The ramp assembly, or the electronic
contents of HDD are not working properly
5. Which of the following is not a dimension for
the direction of evolution of HDD?
A. Increase in storage capacity of the HDD
B. Decrease in the packing density of bits
C. Increase in reading rate of data bits
D. Decrease in size of the HDD
E. Increase in writing rate of data bits
6. A computer programmer needs the value of
the density of written information on the
disks surface in her computer. She knows
that the track density of the drive is 2/in2 and
the bits density is 3 Gigabytes. What should
be the density of written information on the
disks surface in her computer?
A. 3 Gigabytes/in2
B. 2 Gigabytes/in2
C. 1 Gigabytes/in2
D. 6 Gigabytes/in2
E. 5 Gigabytes/in2
7. While designing a Magnetic Disk Drive, a
firm has reduced sensor length. What should
the firm NOT expect?
A. A decrease in HDD capacity
B. An increases in the track density
C. A reduction in film thickness
D. A higher areal density
E. A higher HDD capacity
8. A voltage change is produce because
proximity of sensor change the magnetic field
direction
A. Both the statement and reason are correct
and related;
B. Both the statement and the reason are
correct but NOT related;
C. The statement is correct but the reason is
NOT;
D. The statement is NOT correct, but the
reason is correct;

29

E. NEITHER the statement NOR the reason

is correct.
9. What is the areal density corresponding to a
lower signal amplitude drop-off for an MR
head?
A. 4 Gigabytes/in2
B. 1,3, and 5 Gigabytes/in2
C. 11.6 Gigabytes/in2
D. 6 Gigabytes/in2
E. 5 Gigabytes/in2
10. Which of the following is NOT a dimension
of partial-response maximum-likelihood
technology for future evolution?
A. High-speed data detection
B. High speed data analysis
C. High quality data protection
D. High speed data encoding
E. High speed data decoding.
11. Over the past years HDD sizes have
progressively decreased from 14 inch
diameter disks to 3.5 inch. Which of the
following factors are associated with this
decrease in size?
A. High capacity and Low-performance of
HDD
B. Low capacity and high-performance of
HDD
C. Low capacity and Low-performance of
HDD
D. High capacity and high-performance of
HDD
E. High capacity, but the same level of
performance of HDD
12. Non-information-processing markets where
possibility of a 1 inch drive design can be
used do not include:
A. Digital cameras
B. Hand-held communication devices
C. Mobile phone
D. Areas where flash memory cards are
being used
E. Hand-held processing computers

13. What is happening with the expected price per

megabyte with the expected improvements in
areal density?
A. The price per megabyte is increasing with
the increase in areal density
B. The price per megabyte is increasing at a
slower rate than the rate of increase in
areal density
C. The price per megabyte is decreasing at a
slower rate than the rate of increase in
areal density
D. The price per megabyte is decreasing at a
higher rate than the rate of increase in
areal density
E. The correlation between price per
megabyte and areal density cannot be
inferred from the passage
14. What capacity level for the 2.5 inch form
factor used today for the mobile computer
platform is expected to be achievable?
A. Up to 100 Gigabytes
B. Beyond 100 Gigabytes
C. 6 Gigabytes/in2
D. 5 Gigabytes/in2
E. 4 Gigabytes/in2
15. The driving force(s) behind research and
development in the field of HDD as a storage
medium is (are) absence of alternative
medium and usefulness of HDD
A. The driving force is only absence of an
alternative medium
B. The driving force is only usefulness of
HDD
C. Both the usefulness of HDD and the
absence of an alternative storage medium
are the driving forces
D. Neither the usefulness of HDD nor the
absence of an alternative storage medium
is a drving force
E. The statement cannot be inferred from the
passage
16. To interpret magnetic signals what should be
the angle of the second placed in proximity
with the NiFe MR film?

30

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

45o
Perpendicular to the NiFe MR film
Parallel to the NiFe MR film
Anti-parallel to the NiFe MR film
60o

31

Answer Key
1. See Para 08
The magnetic orientation swings within the
free NiFe film are relatively greater in GMR
sensors
Greater magnetic orientation swings are
suitable for high areal densities.
A. Correct: the magnetic orientation swings
within the free NiFe film are relatively
greater and they are suitable for high areal
densities.
B. Incorrect: both statements are true
C. Incorrect: the second statement is also true
D. Incorrect: the first statement is also true
E. Incorrect: both the statements can be
inferred from the Para 08
2. See Para 01
A. Incorrect: advances in storage capacity is
growing the role of HDD
B. Incorrect: performance of HDD is
growing its role
C. Incorrect: price of HDD is growing the
role of HDD
D. Incorrect: technological innovations is
extending the value of HDD since its
invention in 1956
E. Correct: It is not due to increasing size of
the HDD; in fact, the size of HDD is
decreasing (See Para 12).
3. See Para 09
A. Correct: the data rate or the rate to write
data to and read data from the rotating
disk is increasing because of increases in
bit density.
B. Incorrect: both the statement and the
reason are related being cause and effect
C. Incorrect: the reason is also true
D. Incorrect: the statement is also correct
E. Incorrect: both the statement and the
reason are correct.
4. See Para 02

A. Incorrect: this is itself a part of problem,

not the cause of problem
B. Incorrect: this is itself a part of problem,
not the cause of problem
C. Incorrect: it is not given that the motor
within the spindle controls the
aerodynamic motion of head
D. Incorrect: it is not given that the actuator
motor controls the aerodynamic motion of
head
E. Correct: the ramp assembly allows the
head to fly aerodynamically over the disk
surface. Improper working of ramp
assembly directly causes the problem in
motion of the head
5. See Para 03 and Para 12
A. Incorrect: increase in storage capacity is
an obvious evolutionary direction
B. Correct: Increase, not decrease, in the
packing density is an obvious
evolutionary direction
C. Incorrect: Increase in reading rate of data
bits is an obvious evolutionary direction
D. Incorrect: Decrease in size of the HDD is
desirable evolution (See Para 12)
E. Incorrect: Increase in writing rate of data
bits is an obvious evolutionary direction
6. See Para 4
A. Incorrect: it is areal density = track
density X Bit Density i.e. 2X3 = 6
Gigabytes/in2
B. Incorrect: it is areal density = track
density X Bit Density i.e. 2X3 = 6
Gigabytes/in2
C. Incorrect: it is areal density = track
density X Bit Density i.e. 2X3 = 6
Gigabytes/in2
D. Correct: it is areal density = track density
X Bit Density i.e. 2X3 = 6 Gigabytes/in2
E. Incorrect: it is areal density = track
density X Bit Density i.e. 2X3 = 6
Gigabytes/in2
F. Incorrect: it is areal density = track
density X Bit Density i.e. 2X3 = 6
Gigabytes/in2

32

7. See Para 05
A. Correct: HDD capacity increases if sensor
length is decreased.
B. Incorrect: the track density increases if
sensor length is decreased.
C. Incorrect: film thickness reduces if sensor
length is decreased.
D. Incorrect: Areal density increases if sensor
length is decreased.
E. Incorrect: HDD capacity increases if
sensor length is decreased.
8. See Para 6
A. Correct; Both the statement and reason are
correct and related (cause-effect
relationship)
B. Incorrect: the statement and the reason are
related (cause and effect)
C. Incorrect: the reason is also correct
D. Incorrect: The statement is also correct
E. Incorrect: both the statement and the
reason are correct.
9. See Para 07
A. Incorrect: it is 5 Gigabytes/in2
B. Incorrect: it is 5 Gigabytes/in2
C. Incorrect: it is 5 Gigabytes/in2
D. Incorrect: it is 5 Gigabytes/in2
E. Correct: it is 5 Gigabytes/in2
10. See Para 10
A. Incorrect: high-speed data detection is a
given dimension of PRML technology for
future evolution
B. Incorrect: high speed data analysis is a
given dimension of PRML technology for
future evolution
C. Correct: high quality data protection is
NOT a given dimension of PRML
technology for future evolution
D. Incorrect: high speed data encoding is a
given dimension of PRML technology for
future evolution
E. Incorrect: high speed data decoding is a
given dimension of PRML technology for
future evolution

11. See Para 12

A. Incorrect: The capacity and highperformance have improved with the
reduction is size of HDD.
B. Incorrect: The capacity and highperformance have improved with the
reduction is size of HDD.
C. Incorrect: The capacity and highperformance have improved with the
reduction is size of HDD.
D. Correct: The capacity and highperformance have improved with the
reduction is size of HDD.
E. Incorrect: The capacity and highperformance have improved with the
reduction is size of HDD.
12. See Para 14
A. Incorrect: digital cameras are in an area of
non-information processing market
B. Incorrect: hand-held communication
devices are in an area of non-information
processing market
C. Incorrect: mobile phones are in an area of
non-information processing market
D. Incorrect: areas where flash memory cards
are being used are in an area of noninformation processing market
E. Correct: hand-held processing computers
are in an area of information processing
market
13. See Para 11
A. Incorrect: Areal density is improving 60%
per year, and the price per megabyte is
improving by nearly 40% per year for
buyers (decreasing)
B. Incorrect: Areal density is improving 60%
per year, and the price per megabyte is
improving by nearly 40% per year for
buyers (decreasing)
C. Correct: Price per megabyte is increasing
at a slower rate than the rate of increase in
areal density

33

D. Incorrect: Price per megabyte is

increasing at a slower rate than the rate of
increase in areal density
E. Incorrect: Price per megabyte is
increasing at a slower rate than the rate of
increase in areal density
14. See Para 13
A. Incorrect: The capacity level is achievable
beyond 100 Gigabytes
B. Correct: The capacity level is achievable
beyond 100 Gigabytes
C. Incorrect: The capacity level is achievable
beyond 100 Gigabytes
D. Incorrect: The capacity level is achievable
beyond 100 Gigabytes
E. Incorrect: The capacity level is achievable
beyond 100 Gigabytes
15. See Para 15
A. Incorrect: usefulness of HDD is also one
of the driving forces
B. Incorrect: the absence of alternative
medium is also one of the driving forces
C. Correct: both the usefulness of HDD and
the absence of an alternative storage
medium are the driving forces
D. Incorrect: both the usefulness of HDD and
the absence of an alternative storage
medium are the driving forces
E. Incorrect: the statement can be inferred
from Para 15 of the passage
16. See Para 6
A. Correct: 45o
B. Incorrect: the angle is 45o
C. Incorrect: the angle is 45o
D. Incorrect: the angle is 45o
E. Incorrect: the angle is 45o

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