DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLIIT UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

Test Booklet Series

T.B.C. : 8-DMHH-N-FUA

Serial No.

91869
TEST BOOKLET

ELECTRONICS AND TELECOMMUNICATION

ENGINEERING
Paper-I
Time Allowed : Two Hours

Maximum Marks

200

INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD
CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR
MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST
BOOKLET.

2. Please note that it is the candidate's responsibility to encode and fill in the Roll
Number and Test Booklet Series Code A, B, C or D carefully and without any
omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any
omission/ discrepancy will render the Answer Sheet liable for rejection.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test
Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT
write anything else on the Test Booklet.
'--.,--,,-------:---:-------'
4. This Test Booklet contains 120 items (questions). Each item comprises four responses
(answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet.
In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which
you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided.
See directions in the Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the
Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions
sent to you with your Admission Certificate.
8. Mter you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the
examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer
Sheet You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong answers :
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for
which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks
assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as wrong answer even if
one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as
above to that question.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be
no penalty for that question ..

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1. The atomic packing factor for face(FCC)

centred
cubic
crystal
structure is
(a)

063

(b)

074

(c)

74

(d)

4. For a particular material, the Hall

coefficient is found to be zero. The
material is
(a)

intrinsic semiconductor

(b)

extrinsic semiconductor

(c)

metal

(d)

insulator

63

2. Drift velocity in a metal is

(a)

(b)

5. A 12 V automobile light is rated at

inversely proportional to the

force on an electron due to
applied electric field
directly proportional
mass of an electron

to

30 W. The total charge that flows

through the filament in one minute
is

the

(c)

proportional to the mobility of

an electron

(d)

inversely proportional to the

strength of the applied electric
field

3. The three kinds of breakdowns

possible in solid dielectrics are
electrothermal, purely electrical
and

(a)

30

(b)

12

(c)

150

(d)

180

6. At very high temperature, an n-type

semiconductor behaves like

(a)

a p-type semiconductor

(b)

an intrinsic semiconductor

(a)

electromechanical

(b)

purely thermal

(c)

electrochemical

(c)

a superconductor

(d)

spontaneous

(d)

an n-type semiconductor

B-DMHH-N-FUA/ SSA

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7. The Fermi level in

~a p- type
conductor lies close to

semi~

10. Ferromagnetic property may

explained on the basis of

(a}

top of the valence band

(a)

Faraday's theory

(b)

bottom of the valence band

(b)

Curie~Weiss

(c)

top of the conduction band

(c)

domain theory

(d)

bottom of the conduction band

(d)

Einstein's theory

8. Covalent bond energy in germanium

is about
7-4

(b)

31 eV

(c)

3-4 eV

(d)

204 eV

theory

11. Soft iron is characterized by the

saturation
magnetization
M s,
coercivity He and retentivity Be.
It is suitable for an electromagnet
because

eV

(a}

be

(a)

Ms, He and Be are small

(b)

Ms is small, He and Be are

large
(c)

9. The relationship between relative

permeability (llr) and magnetic
susceptibility ( xl of the medium is

M s is large, He and Be are

small
(d)

M s, He and Be are large

(a) llr = I+ X
12. Diamagnetic susceptibility is very

(b) llr =

(c)

+X

(a)

small and negative

(b)

small and positive

(c)

large and negative

(d)

large and positive

llr " 1- X

(d) llr =-

B-DMHH-N-FUA/55A

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13. Magnetostriction

exists
2000 V
of
voltage
16. A
1 em insulating space
across
between two parallel conducting
plates. An electron of charge
16 x 10- 19 coulomb is introduced
into the space. The force on the
electron is

effect
the
of
change
when
produced
magnetization in magnetic material
results in
is

(a)

change of permeability

(b)

change in dimensions

(c)

(d)

182 X 10-26 N

(b)

32 x 10- 14 N

(c)

16 x 10- 19 N

(d)

45 X 10 26 N

change of temperature
change of
strength

magnetic

dielectric
used
14. Commonly
electrolytic capacitors is
(a)

(a)

field

17. A capacitor of 100 J.LF stores 10 mJ

of energy. What is the amount of
charge (in coulomb) stored in it?

in

magnesium oxide

(b) cadmium nitride

(c)

aluminium oxide

(d)

manganese oxide

(a}

1414 x 10-6

(b)

1414x1o-3

(c)

2303 x 10-6

(d)

23t)3 X 10-3

n-type
doped
degenerately
18. In
semiconductor, the Fermi level lies
in conduction band when
(a)

concentration of electrons in
the conduction band exceeds

the density of states in the

valence band

15. Hoo/ many 6 J.LF, 200 V capacitors

are needed to make a capacitor
of 18 J.LF, 600 V?
(a)

18

(b)

(c)

(d)

27

6-DMHH-N-FUA/SSA

(b)

concentration of electrons in
the valence band exceeds the
density of states in the
conduction band

(c)

concentration of electrons in
the conduction band exceeds
the product of the density of
states in the valence band and
conduction band

(d)

None of the above

4
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21. A bridge rectifier uses a 9 V a.c.

input voltage. The diodes are ideal.
What is the d;c. output voltage?

19. The electrical conductivity and

electron mobility for aluminium
are
38 x 10 7 (ohm-m) -I
and
00012 m 2 /V-s, respectively. What
is the Hall voltage for an aluminium
specimen that is 15 rom thick for a
current of 25 A and a magnetic field
of 06 tesla (imposed in a direction
perpendicular to the current) for
the given value of Hall coefficient,
11
RH as -316 x 10V-m/ A-tesla?
(a)

-316 X 10-8 V

(c)

316x 10-8 V

(d)

316x1o-8

(b)

-12726

(c)

9V

(d)

81

22. A half-wave rectifier is used to

supply 50 V d. c. to a resistive load
of 800 Q. The diode has resistance
of 25 Q. What is the required a. c.
voltage?

20. The purpose of connecting a Zener

diode in a UJT circuit, used for

triggering thyristors, is to
(a)

expedite the generation

triggering pulses

of

(b)

delay
the
generation
triggering pulses

of

(d)

12726 V

-316x1o-8 V

(b)

(c)

(a)

50n

(b)

515n

(c)

2571t

(d)

251t

23. If an input signal ranges from

20!1A-40 !lA with an output signal
ranging from 05 mA-15 rnA, what
is the 13 a. c.?

provide a constant voltage to

UJT to prevent erratic firing
provide a variable voltage to
UJT as the source voltage
changes

B-DMHH-N-FUA/SSA

(a)

(a)

005

(b)

20

(c)

50

(d)

500

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27. To get higher cut-off frequency in a

BJT, base sheet resistance should
be

24. The best device for improving the

switching
speeds
of
bipolar
transistors is
(a)

speed-up capacitor

(a)

low

(b)

transistor with higher cut-off

frequency

(b)

high

(c)

clamping diode

(c)

equal to cut-off frequency

(d)

clamping diode
storage time

(d)

zero

with

zero

28. A BJT operates as a switch

25. The early effect in bipolar junction

transistor is caused by
(a)
(b)
(c)

(d)

(a)

in the active region of transfer

characteristics

(b)

with no signal condition

(c)

under small signal conditions

(d)

under large signal conditions

fast turn-off
fast turn-on
large emitter to base forward
bias
large collector to base reverse
bias

29. n-p-n transistors are preferred over

p-n-p transistors because they have
26. The basic material for fabrication of
an LED is

(a)

high mobility of holes

(a)

gallium arsenide

(b)

high mobility of electrons

(b)

gallium arsenide phosphide

(c)

low mobility of holes

(c)

indium antimonide

(d)

(d)

indium antjmonide phosphide

higher mobility of electrons

than the mobility of holes in
p-n-p transistors

B-DMHH-N-FUA/SSA

6
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32. If
Vee = 18 V,
voltage
divider
resistances
R1 = 47 kQ
and
R 2 = 1500 Q, what is the base bias
voltage?

30. What is the biasing condition of

junctions in bipolar junction
transistor to work as an amplifier?

(a)

(b)

Reverse biased base to emitter

junction and reverse biased
base to collector junction

Forward biased base to emitter

junction and reverse biased
base to collector junction

(c)

Forward biased base to emitter

junction and forward biased
base to collector junction

(d)

Reverse biased base to emitter

junction and forward biased
base to collector junction

(a)

870 V

(b)

435

(c)

290 V

(d)

070

33. An SCR has an anode supply of sine

voltage 200 Vr.ms. 50 Hz applied
through a 100 Q resistor and fired
at an angle of 60. Assuming no
voltage drop, the r.m.s. value of the
output voltage is nearly

31. In a JFET, operating above pinch-off

(a)

90 V

(b)

126 v

(c)

166 V

(d)

200

voltage, the

(a)

34. In a GTO, anode current begins to

fall when gate current

drain current increases steeply

(b)

drain
current
practically constant

(c)

drain current starts decreasing

(d)

depletion region reduces

8-DMHH-N-FUA/SSA

remains

(a)

is negative peak at time t = 0

(b)

is negative peak
t =storage period

(c)

just begins to become negative

at t = 0

(d)

just begins to become positive

at t = 0

at

time

[ P.T.O.
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37. A discrete-time system has input x[)

and output y[) satisfying

35. An SCR is turned off when its

tum-off time is

less than
constant

(b)

greater than the circuit time

constant

The system is

(c)

less than the circuit tum-off

time

(a)

linear and unstable

(b)

linear and stable

(c)

non-linear and stable

(d)

non-linear and unstable

(d)

the

circuit

time

'7=- x[JJ

(a)

y[m] =

greater than the circuit tum-off

time

36. A system is characterized by the

' input-output relation

38. The
Fourier transform
of
rectangular pulse for a period

y(t) = x(2t) + x(3t)

T to

t=--

t=-

for all t, where y(t) is the output

and x ( t) is the input. It is
is

(a)

linear and causal

(a)

a sine function

(b)

a sine function

(b)

linear and non-causal

(c)

non-linear and causal

(c)

a cosine function

(d)

non-linear and non-causal

(d)

a sine-squared function

B-DMHH-N-FUA/SSA

8
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satisfies
function
periodic
41. A
Dirichlet's conditions . This implies
that the function

waveform i(t) in a pure

resistor of 20 Q is shown in the
figure

39. The

curre~t

i(t)
9

The power dissipated in the resistor

is

135 W

(b)

270

(b)

is not absolutely integrable

(c)

guarantee s that Fourier series

representa tion of the function
exists

(d)

has infinite number of maxima

and minima within a period

Fourier representa tion

of continuou s and discrete-ti me
systems. The complex exponenti als
(i.e., signals), which arise in such
representa tion, have

(c)

540 W

1458

is non-linear

42. Consider

(a)

(d)

(a)

p-type silicon sample has an

intrinsic carrier concentra tion of
hole
a
and
15 x 1010 /ern 3
15
3
concentra tion of 225 x 10 fern .
Then the electron concentra tion is

40. A

(a)

same properties always

(b)

different properties always

(c)

non-specif ic properties

(d)

mostly same properties

43. If a dipole antenna has a radiation

resistance of 73 Q, the loss

resistance of 7 Q and the power

gain is 16, then the directivity is

(d)

B-DMHH -N-FUA/5 5A

(a)

1753 dB

(b)

247 dB

(c)

40 dB

(d)

146 dB

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44. An LTI system is causal if and only if

(a)

47. If the z-transfo rm of a system is

given by

h (t) = 0 for t < 0

-1

H(z)= a+z
1+az- 1

(b)

h (t) is finite for 0 < t < ~

(c)

h(t) is finite for t < 0

where a is real-valu ed, Ia I< I,

ROC: I z I> Ia b then the system is

(d)

h(t) is non-zero for all t

(a)

a low-pass filter

(b)

a band-pa ss filter

(c)

an all-pass filter

(d)

a high-pas s filter

45. Let u(n] be the unit-step signal and

x[n] =

The

Gr

region

u[nj + (

of

-~r u[n]

converge nce

48. Conside r a discrete random variable

assumin g finitely many values. The
cumulat ive distribut ion function of
such a random variable is

of

z- transform of x [n] is

(a)

lzl> t

(a)

non-incr easing function

(b)

non-dec reasing function with

finitely many discontin uities
and assumin g values less than
one

(b)

!<lzl< t

(c)

lzl> t

(c)

non-dec reasing
function
without discontin uities

{d)

lzl<t

(d)

non-dec reasing
function
assumin g values larger than
one

46. If the z-transfo rm of a sequenc e

x[n] = {1, I, -I, -1} is X(z), then the
value of X !tl is
(a)

(b)

1875

(c)

-1125

(d)

49. A continuo us random variable X has

uncount ably many values in the
interval [a, b]. If C is a value in the
interval [a, b], then P {X= C)

15

B-DMHH -N-FUA /55A

(a)

is zero

(b)

is strictly non-zero

(c)

depends on the limits {a, b)

(d)

is less than one, but non-zero

10
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52. What is an advantage of MOS

transistor structure in integrated
circuits?

50. In the case of a random variable

non-deterministic
with
dealing
signals

(a)

(b)

(c)

it is a function from space of

outcomes to the real/ complex
numbers

it is a function with the

probabilities of outcomes as
random numbers

the values assumed by sign_als

are always deterministic

(a)

Faster switching

(b)

Less capacitance

(c)

Higher component density and

lower cost

(d)

Lower resistance

Id) sometimes

events
the
random
with
associated
variable are deterministic

51. The correlation function of a wide-

sense stationary random process

representing a non-deterministic
signal is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

53. An LTI system has a wide-sense

stationary (WSS) input signal with
zero mean. Its output is

not a deterministic function

but
deterministic,
symmetric function

sometimes
function

non-zero mean and non-WSS

signal

(b)

zero mean and WSS signal

(c)

non-zero mean and WSS signal

(d)

zero mean and non-WSS signal

not

non-deterministic

deterministic
always
symmetric function

B-DMHH-N-FUA/55A

(a)

and

11

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54. Which of the following statemen ts

are correct in associat ion with the
superpos ition theorem ?
1.

56. The reactanc es of a 10 ~F capacito r

at f = 0 Hz (d.c.) and f = 50 Hz
are respectiv ely

It is applicab le to network s

having more than one source.

It is used to determin e the
current in a branch or voltage
across branch.

(a)

=and 31847

(b)

100 Q and 31847 Q

3.

It is applicab le to
current circuits only.

direct

(c)

=and 3184

4.

It is applicab le to network s

(d)

001 Q and 3184 Q

2.

having linear
elements .

and

'Q

bilateral

Select the correct answer using the

code given below.
(a)

1, 2 and 3

(b)

1, 2 and 4

(c)

1, 3 and 4

(d)

2, 3 and 4

57. Conside r the following statemen ts :

Any element
connecte d in

55. A network N consists of resistors ,

depende nt and indepen dent voltage
and current sources. If the current
in one particula r resistanc e is I A,
it will be doubled if the values of
all the
(a)

indepen dent voltage

are doubled

(b)

indepen dent current sources

are doubled

(c)

(d)

redunda nt

if

1.

series with an ideal current

source

2.

parallel with an ideal current

source

3.

series with an ideal voltage

source

4.

parallel with an ideal voltage

source

Which of the above statemen ts are

correct?

sources

depende nt and indepen dent

voltage and current sources
are doubled
indepen dent
voltage
and
current sources are doubled

B-DMHH -N-FUA /55A

is

(a)

1 and 3

(b)

1 and 4

(c)

2 and 3

(d)

2 and 4

12
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61. Consider an LTI system representi ng

a passive electrical network. If the
input is a sinusoidal signal, then
the steady-sta te output of the
network is

58. Inductive reactance X is a function

of inductanc e L and frequency f.
The value of X increases when

increase

(a}

both L and

(b)

L increases and

(c)

both L and

decreases
sinusoidal
amplitude ,
phase

(b)

sinusoidal with the same

possibly
but
frequency,
different amplitude and phase

(c)

non-sinus oidal

(d)

sinusoidal
frequency

decrease

(d) L decreases and

increases

59. An alternatin g voltage is given by the

equation
v

with the same

and
frequency

(a}

~ 282.84 sin( 377t + ~)

What are the values of r.m.s.

voltage, frequency and time period?

with

different

(a}

20 V, 60 Hz and 00167 s

(b)

200 V, 50 Hz and 002 s

(c)

200 V, 60 Hz and 00167 s

62. A series R-L circuit (R ~ 4 Q and

L ~ 0 01 H) is excited by a voltage

(d)

20 V, 50 Hz and 00167 s

(in volt) v(t)~283sin(300t+90").

The current in the circuit will be

60. If a capacitor is energized by a

symmetric al square-wa ve current

source, then the steady-sta te
voltage across the capacitor will be
(a}

a square wave

(b)

a triangular wave

(c)

a step function

(d)

an impulse function

B-DMHH- N-FUA/55 A

13

(a}

40 sin(300t + 531) A

(b)

40 sin 531 A

(c)

40.J2 sin(300t + 531) A

(d)

40.J2 sin 531 A

[ P.T.O.
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63. An inducto r L and 5 Q and 10 Q

resistor s are all connec ted in
series across a voltage source
u(t) = 50 cos rot volt. If the power
consum ed by the 5 Q resistor is
10 W, then the power .factor of the
circuit is

'66. Tellege n's theorem (as applica ble

to any lumped d.c. network ,
regardl ess of the elemen ts being
linear or non-lin ear, time-va rying or
time-in variant) implies that
(a)

sum of the voltage drops

across each networ k elemen t
is equal to the total voltage
applied to the networ k

(b)

sum of the powers taken by

all elemen ts, in the network ,
within the constra ints impose d
by KCL and KVL is zero

(c)

sum of the ~urrents meeting

at any node is not the same
as the current in that mesh

(d)

it is applica ble to a branch

which is not coupled to other
branch es of the network

(a) 03
(b)

04

(c)

06

(d)

08

64. A graph in which at least one

path (disrega rding orientat ion) exists
betwee n any two nodes of the
graph is a
(a}

connec ted graph

(b)

directed graph

(c)

sub-gra ph

(d)

67. For the two-por t networ k shown in

the figure

fundam ental graph

65. If Q, and Q1 be the sub-ma trices of

Qf (fundam ental cut-set matrix)

corresp onding to twigs and links

of a connec ted graph respecti vely,
then
1.

Q, is an identity matrix

2.

Q1 is a rectang ular matrix

3.

01 is of rank (n- 1)

the transm ission parame ter C is

Which of the above are correct ?

(a)

I and 2 only

(b)

I and 3 only

(c)

2 and 3 only

(d)

1, 2 and 3

B-DMH H-N-FU A/55A

14
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70. The network function, H(s) is equal to

68. Two identical two-port networks

having transmission matrix

are cascaded. What will be the

resultant transmission matrix of
the cascade?

~ ~]

(a)

(b)

2A 2B]
[ 2C 2D

(c)

A2+ BC
[AC+CD

(a)

y(s)
x(s)

(b)

x{s)
y(s)

(c)

x(s) y(s)

(d)

1
x(s) y(s)

71. The driving-point impedance of the

network shown in the figure has
a zero at -4 and poles at -2 j 5.

BD]

AB+
BC+D 2

c
L

If Z {0) = 1, the values of R, L and C

69. The unit impulse response of a

system is -4e -t + 6e - 2t. The step
response of the same system for
t 2: 0 is Ae-t + Be- 21 + C, where A, B
and C are respectively
(a)

-4, -3 and +1

(b)

+4, -3 and -1

(c)

-4, -3 and -1

(d)

+4, -3 and + 1

B-DMHH-N-FUA/55A

are respectively

15

(a)

1 and

(b)

1,

i and 2~

(c)

fg-. t

(d)

1, 2 and 2
29

2~

and 1

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72. If Z(s) = (s+ 4 )(s+ 9) is a driving(s+ l)(s+ 16)

75. Which of the following statements

about electric field lines associated

with electric charges is false?

point impedance, it represents an

(a)

R-C impedance

(b)

R-L impedance

(c)

L-C impedance

(d)

R-L-C impedance

73. The numerical value of the ratio

of electric field intensity E and
magnetic field intensity H is
(a)

350

.Q

(b)

377

(c)

377

.Q

(d)

35

.Q

(b)

(c)

(d)

Electric field lines can be either

straight or curved

(b)

Electric field lines form closed

loops

(c)

Electric field lines begin on

positive charges and end on
negative charges

(d)

Electric field
intersect

do

not

76. Which of the following represents

Maxwell's divergence equation for
static electric field?

radial, cylindrical concentric

with line charge

(a)

"VB= 0

cylindrical concentric with line

charge, radial

(b)

"VxH= 0

radial. radial but opposite in

direction

(c)

"VB=!!

concentric with line charge,

parallel to line charge

(d)

V x H = 11

B-DMHH-N-FUA/55A

lines

.Q

74. Consider a long line charge of

'J.. coulomb/metre perpendicular
to the plane of a paper. The
electrical field lines and equipotential surfaces are respectively
(a)

(a)

16
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79. Consider the following statements

regarding Maxwell's equation in
differential form :

77. A current of 5 A passes along the

axis of a cylinder of 5 em radius.
The flux density at the surface of
the cylinder is

1.

For free space

V x H = (cr

(a)

(b)

+ jere) E

~J,T

20

~J,T

~J,T

(c)

200

(d)

2000

2.

For free space, V. D = p

3.

For steady current, V x H = J

4.

For static electric field, V D = p

Which of the above statements are

correct?

~J,T

(a)

1 and 2

(b)

2 and 3

(c)

3 and 4

(d)

4 and 1

78. Maxwell's major contribution to EM

theory was to assert

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

that an electric field varying

with time in free space gives
rise to a current
80. The equation which states the
non-existence of isolated magnetic
pole is

that a magnetic field varying

with time gives rise to an
electric field

that a magnetic field varying

with space gives rise to an
electric field

that energy density due to

an electric field is ~ eE 2

B-DMHH-N-FUA /SSA

17

(a)

V-D=p

(b)

VB= 0

(c)

VJ=--

(d)

Vx H=J

ap
at

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81. The electric field in an electromagnetic wave (in vacuum) is

described by

84. A loss-less transmission line of

length l is open-circuited and has
characteristic impedance Z 0 . The
input impedance is

E = Emax sin(Kx- wt)

where
Emax

= 100 N/C and

457 x 10-7 T

(b)

299 x 10-7 T

(c)

333 x 10-7 T

(d)

299 x 10 7 T

+j Z 0 tanf31

(b)

-j Z 0 tanf31

(c)

- j Z 0 cotf31

(d)

+j Z 0 cotf31

= 1x 10 7 m- 1

Speed of light is 3 x 10 8 mj s.
What is the amplitude of the
corresponding magnetic wave?
(a)

(a)

85. Conditions for a transmission line to

. be of low loss ate

82. For
transverse
electric
waves
between parallel plates, the lowest
value of m, without making all the
field components zero, .is equal to
(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

83. A 20 dB directional coupler is shown

in the figure

(a)

R >> wL,

GwC

(b)

R<<WL,

GwC

(c)

R<< wL,

GwC

(d)

R>>WL,

G we

86. In a waveguide, attenuation near the

cut-off frequency is
I

IOOmW

(a)

low

(b)

high

(c)

very high

(d)

zero

The power output at port 3 will be

(a)

10 mW

{b)

1 mW

(c)

5 mW

(d)

2 mW

B-DMHH-N-FUA/55A

18
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87. The
phase velocity of waves
propagating in a hollow metal
waveguide is
(a)

equal to the group velocity

(b)

equal to the velocity of light

in free space

90. The effective length of an antenna is

a measure of

(a)

length
of
the
antenna
neglecting fringe effects

(b)

effectiveness of the antenna as

a radiator/ collector of electromagnetic energy

(c)

less than the velocity of light

in free space

(d)

greater than the velocity of

. light in free space

(c)

power consumed
antenna

88. Compensation theorem applicable to

antennas is also called as

(d)

range of the antenna

(a)

by

th~

Millman's theorem
91. For a dipole antenna

(b)

superposition theorem

(c)

substitution theorem

(d)

power transfer theorem

(a)

the radiation intensity is

maximum along the normal to
the dipole axis

. (b)

the current distribution along

its
length
is
uniform
irrespective of the length

(c)

the effective length equals its

physical length

(d)

the
input
impedance
is
independent of the location of
the feed-point

89. An isotropic radiator is one which

radiates energy
(a)

in a well-defined direction

(b)

uniformly in all directions

(c)

inside a hollow space

(d)

uniformly in horizontal plane

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19

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92. An ideal voltage source and an ideal

voltmeter have int~mal impedances
respectively

95. The expected value of the voltage

across a resistor is 80 V. However,
the voltmeter reads 79 V. The
absolute error in the measurement
is

(a)

zero, zero

(b)

zero, infinite

(a)

0875 V

(c)

infinite, zero

(b)

0125

(d)

infinite, infinite

(c)

100 V

(d)

1125V

93. The current in a circuit is measured

as 235 !lA and the accuracy of
measurement is 05 %. This
current passes through a resistor
35 till 02 %.
The voltage
is
estimated to be 823 V. The error
in the estimation would be

96. A current of 2 05% A passes

through a resistor of 100 02% Q.
The
limiting
error
in
the
computation of power will be
(a)

(a)

006 V

(b)

004 v

(c)

0016V

(d)

01

07%

(b)

09%

(c)

12%

(d)

15%

97. A voltmeter reads 40 V on its 100 V

range and an ammeter reads 75 rnA
on its 150 rnA range in a circuit.
Both
the
instruments
are
guaranteed 2% accuracy on FSD.
The limiting error on the measured
power is

94. The full-scale deflecting torque of a

20 A moving-iron ammeter is
6 x 10-s N-m. What is the rate of
change of self-inductance with
respect to the deflection of the
pointer of the ammeter at full scale?
(a)

05 IJH/rad

(a)

4%

(b)

02 IJH/rad

(b)

5%

(c)

13 IJH/rad

(c)

9%

(d)

03 !JH/rad

(d)

12%

B-DMHH-N-FUA/55A

20
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98. A voltmeter, having a. guaranteed

accuracy of 1%, reads 9 V on a 0 V
to 150 V range full-scale reading.
The percentage limiting error is

101. A moving-coil meter has a resistance

of 3 Q and gives full-scale deflection
with
30 rnA.
What
external
resistance should be added iri
series so that it can measure
voltages up to 300 V?

(a)

0167%

(b)

167%

(a)

10

(c)

167%

(b)

9997 Q

(d)

00167%

(c)

019

(d)

001 Q

99. A moving-coil instrument has a

resistance of 10 Q and gives a fullscale deflection when carrying a
current of 50 rnA. What external
resistance should be connected so
that the instrument can be used to
measure current up to 50 A?
(a)

20

(b)

100 Q in series

(c)

00 10 Q in parallel

(d)

187

102. Consider the

following system
function of a discrete-time LTI
system :

in parallel

-1
*
H(z) = z -a
1 -az -1

where a* is the complex conjugate

of a. The frequency response of
such a system. is

in series

100. A current of 20 A passes through a

cell of e.m.f. 15 V having internal
resistance of 015 Q. The potential
difference across the terminals of
the cell is
(a}

135 V

(b)

150

(c)

100 V

(d)

120

8-DMHH-N-FUA/SSA

21

(a)

aperiodic;
frequency ro

(b)

aperiodic; does not depend on

frequency ro

(c)

periodic;
frequency ro

(d)

periodic; does not depend on

frequency ro

depends

depends

on

on

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105. An inductive pick-up used to

measure the speed of a shaft lias
120-tooth wheel. If the number of
pulses produced in a second is
3000, the r.p.m. of the shaft is

103. Absolute encoders are normally used

for
(a)

one revolution

(b)

continuous speed in clockwise

direction

(c)

continuous speed in counterclockwise direction

counting least significant bits

(d)

(a)

1200

(b)

1500

(c)

1800

(d)

3600

106. A piezoelectric crystal having a

thickness of 2 mm and a voltage
sensitivity of 002 V-m/N is
pressure of
subjected to a
3
20x 10 Pa. What is the output

104. Consider the following statements

Piezoelectric transducer has

voltage?
0775

1.

a very good HF response

(a)

2.

typical output voltage of the

order of 1 mV to 30 mV per
unit of acceleration

(b)

080

(c)

0002

(d)

02

3.

no requirement of external
power and is self-_generating

4.

response
no
conditions

for

static

1, 2 and 3 only

(b)

v
X

10-6 V

10-6 V

107. A resistance strain gauge with gauge

factor of 3 is cemented to a steel
member subjected to a strain of
2 x 10-6 . If the original resistance
is 100 Q, what is the change in
resistance?

Which of the above statements are

correct?

(a)

(a)

600 !U2

1, 2 and 4 only

(b)

600 mQ

(c)

3 and 4 only

(c)

300 !U2

(d)

1, 2, 3 and 4

(d)

200 !U2

B-DMHH-N- FUA/SSA

22
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'
108.
The dynamic characteristics of
capacitive transducers are similar
to' those of
(a)

low-pass filter

(b)

high-pass filter

(c)

notch filter

Directions :

Each of the following ten ( 10) items

consists of two statements, one labelled
as 'Statement (I)' and the other as
'Statement (II)'. Examine these two
statements carefully and select the
answers to these items using the code
given below.
Code:

(d)

band-stop filter

(a)

Both
Statement
(I)
and
Statement (II) are individually
true and Statement (II) is
the correct explanation of
Statement (I}

(b)

Both
Statement
(I}
and
Statement (II} are individually
true but Statement (II} is not
the correct explanation of
Statement (I}

(c)

Statement (I} is true

Statement (II} is false

but

(d)

Statement (I} is false

Statement (II} is true

but

109. Cold junction in a thermocouple is

(a)

junction
the
reference
maintained
at
a
known
constant temperature

(b)

the junction maintained at a

very low temperature

(c)

(d)

the junction at which

temperature is sensed

the

None of the above

111. Statement (I} :

Hard :nagnetic materials are used
for making permanent magnets.

110. The output voltage of a linear

variable differential transformer is
15 Vat maximum displacement. At
a load of 05 MQ, the deviation from
linearity is maximum and it is
0003 V from a straight line
through origin. What is the linearity
at the given load?

(a)

15%

(b)

02%

(c)

22%

(d)

15%

B-DMHH-N-FUA/SSA

Statement (II} :
Hard magnetic materials have
relatively small and narrow
hysteresis loop.
112. Statement (I} :
With a small additional energy,
usually thermal, the valence
electrons in germanium can
become free electrons.
Statement (II} :
The
valence
electrons
in
germanium are in the fourth orbit
and are at high energy level.

23

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117. Statement (I) :

113. Statement (I) :

An FET is a current -controlled
device.

The standard definition of stability

precludes sin w0 t term in impulse
response.

Statement (II)
Statement (II) :
Operation of an FET depends only
on majority carriers.

sinw0 t is a periodic function.

118. Statement (I) :

Helical antenna has the largest

bandwidth, high directivity and
circular polarization.

114. Statement (I) :

Thermal runaway is not possible

in an FET.

Statement (II) :
Log-periodic antenna has a broad
bandwidth.

Statement (II)
As the temperature of FET
increases, the mobility of carriers
decreases.

119. Statement (I) :

Current-limiting resistor is used in

series with the light-emitting diode
(LED) to limit current and light
output.

115. Statement (I) :

In an enhancement type MOSFET

(with n-type source and drain
regions), only positive voltage can
be applied to the gate with respect
to the substrate (p-type).

Statement (II) :
The light output of a light-emitting
diode (LED) is approximately
proportional
to
the
current
passing through it.

Statement (II) :

120. Statement (I) :

Only with a positive voltage to the

gate, an 'inversion layer' is formed
and conduction can take place.

An analog system has at its

output stage a PMMC indicating
instrument, while a digital meter
output stage has an LCD/LED
display device.

116. Statement (I)

Statement (II) :

Under steady-state condition, a

pure capacitor behaves as ah open
circuit for direct voltage.

Since the analog system is

continuous in time, display device
can respond to it if the signal
frequency is low, while digital
system being a discrete one, it
does not require change and can
be latched at the value of
measurement.

Statement (II) :
The current through a capacitor is
proportional to the rate of change
of voltage.

8-DMHH-N-FUA/SSA

24
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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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25

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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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26
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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

***
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27

BS4-96*
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DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

T.B.C. : B-DMHH-N-FUB
Serial

TEST BOOKLET

ELECTRONICS & TELECOMMUNICATION ENGINEERING

Paper II
Maximum Marks: 200

Time Allowed : Two Hours

INSTRUCTIONS
1.

2.

IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT
THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS,
ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
Please note that it is the candidate's responsibility to encode and fill in the Roll Number and Test
Booklet Series Code A, B, C or D carefully and without any omission or discrepancy at the
appropriate places in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any omission/discrepancy will render the Answer

9.

Sheet liable for rejection.

You have to enter your Roll Number on the
Test Booklet in the Box provided alongside.
DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
.This Test Booklet contains 120 itenis (questions). Each item comprises four responses (answers). You
will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is
more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose
ONLY ONE response for each item.
You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions
in the Answer Sheet.

All items carry equal marks.

Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet,
you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your
Admission Certificate.
After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has
concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to
take away with you the Test Booklet.
Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.

10.

Penalty for wrong answers :

3.

4.

5.
6.
7.

8.

THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE.

There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For eaeh question for which a wrong answer
has been given by the candidate, one-third (033) of the marks assigned to that question will be

(i)

deducted as penalty.

(ii)
(iii)

If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given
answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.
If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that
question.

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

B-DMHH-N~FUB

( 1 -A)

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1.

The current gain of a bipolar transistor drops

at high frequency because of

5.

An amplifier with mid band gain

IA I

= 500

(a)

Transistor capacitances

(b)

High current effects in the base

1
100
cut-off without feedback were at 60 kHz, then
. II
. .
I
with feedback it would become

(c)

Parasitic inductive elements

(a)

10kHz

(d)

The early effect

(b)

360kHz

(c)

12kHz

(d)

300kHz

has negative feedback

2. The maximum depletion layer width in Silicon

Ib I

= - - . If upper

is

3.

4.

(a)

0143 11m

(b)

0857

(c)

1 ).1m

A tuned amplifier has a maximum output at

4 MHz with a quality factor 50. The
bandwidth and half power frequencies are,
respectively

(d)

1-143 J.1m

(a)

80kHz and 404 MHz; 396 MHz

(b)

80kHz and 408 MHz; 392 MHz

(c)

40kHz and 404 MHz; 396 MHz

(d)

40kHz and 408 MHz; 392 MHz

6.

).1m

A bipolar transistor is operating in the active

region with a collector current of 1 mA. The ll
of the transistor is 100 and the thermal
voltage (VT) is 25 mV. The trans-conductance
(gm) and the inpuf resistance (r") of the 7.
transistor
in
the
common
emitter
configuration are, respectively
(a)

25 mAN and 15625 k.Q

(b)

40 mAN and 40 k.Q

(c)

25 mAN and 25 k.Q

(d)

40 mAN and 25 k.Q

For a transformer, the load connected to the

secondary has an impedance of 8 Q. Its
reflected impedance on primary is observed to
be 648 Q. The turns ratio of this transformer
8.
is

A power amplifier with a gain of 100 L o has

an output of 12 V at 15 kHz along with a
. second harmonic content of 25 percent. A
negative feedback is to be provided to reduce
the harmonic content of the output to
25 percent. What should be the gain of the
feedback path and the level of signal input to
the overall system, respectively ?
(a)

09 and 012 V

(b)

09 and 12 V

(c)

009 and 12 V

(d)

9 and 012 V

The right side of a state equation represents

(a)

6: 1

(a)

Next state of flip-flop

(b)

10: 1

(b)

Present state of flip-flop

(c)

9:1

(c)

(d)

8: 1

Present state condition that makes the

next state equal to 1

(d)

None of the above

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9.

10.

A full wave rectifier with a centre-tapped 13.

transformer supplies de current of 100 mA to
a load resistance of 20 Q. The secondary
resistance of transformer is 1 Q. Each diode
has a forward resistance of 05 Q. What are
rms values of signal voltage across each half
of the secondary as well as de power supplied
to the load?
(a)

239 V and 02 Watt

(b)

239 V and 2 Watts

(c)

0239 V and 20 Watts

(d)

239 V and 2 Watts

An Op-Amp has the following open loop

parameters Zm = 300 ldl, Zout = 100 Q,
A = 50,000. The low frequency gystem input
and output impedances, when closed loop gain
is set to 100, are

(a)
(c)

06 Q and 50 ldl
150 MQ and 02 Q
Same as in open loop

(d)

None of the abOve

(b)

11.

15.

(a)

RC phase shift oscillator

(b)

Colpitts oscillator

(c)

Wien bridge oscillator

(d)

None ofthe above

A 1 J.1S pulse can be converted iD.to a 1 rna

pulse by using

(a)

A monostable multivibrator

(b)

An astable multivibrator

(c)

A bistable multivibrator

(d)

A J-K flip-flop

The transistor switch as shown in figure has

fl = 120, VcE(Satl = 02 V, Rc = 12 ldl, and

Vcc=5V.
Vee

The differential gain of Op-Amp is 4000 and

value of CMRR is 150. Its output voltage,
when the two input voltages are 200 J.LV and
160 11V respectively, will be
(a)
16 V
(b)
(c)

(d)

12.

14.

Which oscillator is characterized by a split

capacitor in its tank circuit ?

.__-ov.
is

v1 ~>--,.1\Nv--..::~-1
Rs +

1648 mV
64mV
76mV

An amplifier using an Op-Amp with a

slew-rate SR =1 V/11 sec has a gain of 40 dB. 1f
this amplifier has to faithfully amplifY
sinusoidal signals from 10 to 20 kHz, without
introducing any slew-rate induced distortion,
then the input signal level must not exceed
(a) 795 mV
(b)
395mV
(c)
795 mV
(d) 39-5 mV

B-DMHH-N-FUB

The output voltage when transistor switch is

closed and the minimum base current needed
to close the switch are, respectively
(a)

02 V and 333 J.LA

(b)

2 V and 33311A

(c)

02 V and 333J.LA

(d)

2 V and 333J.LA

( 3-A)

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16.

17.

18.

A plant is controlled by a proportional

controller. If a time delay element is
introduced in the loop, its

19.

A binary-to-BCD

C0, B0 and Ao

~ncoder

has four inputs D0,

and five outputs D, C, B, A and

VALID. The outputs D, C, B and A give the

(a)

Phase margin remains the same

proper BCD value of the input and the VALID

(b)

Phase margin increases

(c)

Phase margin decreases

output is 1 if the input combination is a valid

decimal code. If the input combination is an

(d)

Gain margin increases

invalid decimal code, the VALID output

becomes 0 and all of the D, C, B and A
outputs show 0 values. If only NOT gates and
2-input OR and AND gates are available, the

When damping ratio is equal to zero, the.

damping frequency of a system is
(a)

Equal to natural frequency

minimum number of gates required to

implement the above circuit is

(b)

Zero

(a)

10

(c)

More than natural frequency

(b)

(d)

Less than natural frequency

(c)

(d)

The circuit shown in figure is

20.

In the J-K flip-flop we have J

as shown in the figure.

Ao-o---j

=Q

Q 1-

and K

=1

ICLK

Bo---j

Assuming the flip-flop was initially cleared

and then clocked for 6 pulses, the sequence at
the Q output will be

(a)

ORgate

(a)

010000

(b)

NORgate

(b)

011001

(c)

NAND gate

(c)

010010

(d)

AND gate

(d)

010101

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21.

The Boolean function 'f' implemented as 24.

shown in the figure using two input
multiplexers is

Consider the following statements :

1.
A flip-flop is used to store 1 bit of
information.

2.

Race around condition occurs in a J-K

flip-flop when both of its inputs are 1.

3.

Master slave configuration is used in

flip-flops to store 2 bits of information.

4.

A transparent latch consists of D-type

flip-flops.
Which of the above statements are correct ?
(a)

ABC+ABC

(b)

ABC+ABC

(c)

(d)

ABC+ABC

1, 2 and 3
1, 3 and 4

(c)

1, 2 and 4

(d)

2, 3 and 4

ABC+ABC

25.
22.

(a)
(b)

Consider the circuit shown in the figure. The

expression for the next state Q(t + 1) is

A circuit consists of two synchronously

clocked J-K flip-flops connected as follows :
Jo

= Ko = Q1, J1 = Qo, K1 = Qo.

The circuit

acts as a
(a) Counter of mod 2
(b) Counter of mod 3

rl><>-iS Q(t)'l--~-

(c)

Shift-right register

(d)

Shift-left register

L.._--JR

23.

(a)

x Q(t)

(b)

X$

(c)

x Q(t)

(d)

26.

Q(t)

0 Q(t)

The outputs Q and Q of master slave S - R

27.
flip-flop are connected to its R and S inputs
respectively. The output Q when clock pulses
are applied will be
(a)

Permanently 0

(b)

Permanently 1

(c)

Fixed 0 or 1

(d)

Complementing with every clock pulse

B-DMHHN-FUB

A semiconductor RAM has a 12-bit address

register and an 8-bit data register. The total
number of bits in the memory is

(a)

256 bits

(b)

4,096 bits

(c)

32,768 bits

(d)

10,48,576 bits

When electromagnetic waves are propagated

in a waveguide
(a) They travel along the walls of the
waveguide
(b)
They travel through the dielectric
without touching the walls
(c)
They are reflected from the walls but do
not travel along the walls
(d) None of the above

( 5-A}

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28.

29.

A dual slope analog to digital converter uses 33.

N-bit counter. When the input signal Va is
being integrated, the counter is allowed to
count up to the value

s(s + 10)

. If the

damping ratio is 05, then what is the value of

K?

(b)

Equal to~ - 1

(a)

150

(c)

Proportional to Va

(b)

100

(d)

Inversely proportional to Va

(c)

50

(d)

10

For a 5-bit ladder D/A converter which has

digital input of 10101, the analog output
value is (Assume 0 = 0 V and 1 = + 10 V,

3 4.

for inducing sustained oscillations. What is

the value of K for this objective ?
(a) 15

A 5-bit D/A converter has a current output. If

an output current lout = 10 mA is produced for
a digital input of 10100, the value of lout for a
digital input of 11101 will be

(a)

The loop transfer function of a system is

K
. The loop gain K is adjusted
s(s + 1) (s + 5)

-332V
(b)
-432V
(c)
-656 V
(d) -7-48V

(b)

25

(c)

30

(d)

45

125 mA

(b) . 135 mA

32.

Equal to 2N- 2

(a)

31.

transfer function G(s)

(a)

Rr= 3R)

30.

A unity feedback system has an open-loop

(c)

155mA

(d)

14-5mA

35.

What is the total memory range and memory

map, if for a 16-bit address bus; A 15 = 1,
A 14 = 0 and A 13 - A 11 are connected to a 3 - 8
decoder input lines ? A16 and A14 are
connected to enable the decoder.
(a) 16 K, 8000H - 8FFFH
(b)
2 K, 8000H- BFFFH
(c)
16 K, 8000H- BFFFH
(d) 2 K, 8000H- 8FFFH
A
unity
feedback
system
has 36.
12
G(s) = . K(s )+ ) )" What is the value ofK
.
(s + 14 (s + 18
to yield 10% error in steady state ?
(a)
672
(b) . 189
(c)
100
(d)
21

B-DMHH-N-FUB

The phenomenon known as 'Early effect' in a

bipolar transistor refers to a reduction of the
effective base-width caused by
(a)

Electron-hole recombination at the base

(b)

The reverse-biasin g of the base-collector

junction

(c)

The forward-biasi ng of the emitter-base

junction

(d)

The early removal of stored base charge

during saturation to cut off switching

The number of roots of the equation

2s4 + s3 + 3s2 + 5s + 7 = 0 which lie in the
right half of s plane is
(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

( 6-A)

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37.

Thermal runaway in a transistor biased in the 41.

active region is due to
heating of the transistor.
1.
change in 13 due to increase in
temperature.
change in reverse collector saturation
3.
current due to rise in temperature.
base emitter voltage VBE which
4.
decreases with rise in temperature.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2
42.
(b) 2 and 3
3 only
(c)
4 only
(d)

2.

38.

39.

The majority carriers in an n-type

semiconductor have an average drift velocity
Vd in a direction perpendicular to a uniform
magnetic field B. The electric field E induced
due to Hall Effect acts in the direction
(a)

VdxB

(b)

B xVd

(c)

AlongVd

(d)

Opposite to Vd

(a)

(b)

(c)

0
Equal to number of zeros

(b)

Phase margin is always negative for

stable feedback system.

(c)

Phase margin can be negative or

positive for stable feedback system.

(d)

None of the above

A Tachometer has a sensitivity of

5 V/1000 rpm. The Gain constant of the
Tachometer is

(a)

048 V/rad/sec

(b)

0048 Vlrad/sec

(c)

4~8 V!rad/sec

(d)

48 V/rad/sec

For a 3rd order system given below, what is

the phase crossover frequency ?
G(s)H(s) =

When the number of poles is equal to the

number of zeros, how many branches of root
locus tend towards infinity ?

(d)
40.

43.

Which one of the following statements is

correct?
(a) Phase margin is always positive for
stable feedback system.

44.

The open-loop transfer function of a unity

1
. The
feedback control system is (s) ~
2
(s + 2)
closed-loop transfer function will have poles at
-2,-2
(a)

(a)

,/6.

(b)
(c)

Jll
Jll

(d)

,/6

K
s 3 +6s 2 +lls+6

Two compensators have transfer functions

G (s) = 5(s + 10) and G (s)
2
1
(s +50)
(a)

Both are lag

(b)

Both are lead

-2,-1

(c)

-2, j
-2, 2

G1 is lead and G2 is lag

(c)

(d)

G1 is lag and G2 is lead

B-DMHH-N-FUB

(s +50)
5(s + 10)

respectively.

(b)

(d)

( 7 -A)

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46.

A proportional plus derivative controller

1.

has high sensitivity.

2.

increases the stability of the system.

3.

improves the steady-s tate accuracy.

48.

Which of the above stateme nts are correct ?

46.

(a)

1, 2 and 3

(b)

1 and 2 only

(c)

1 and 3 only

(d)

2 and 3 only

(b)

(c)

(d)

47.

receiver

(d)
49.

In industri al control system, which one of the

following methods is most commonly used in
designing a system for meeting performance
specifications ?

(a)

The transfer function is first determi ned 60.

and then either a lead compensation or
lag compensation is implemented
The transfer function is first determi ned
and PID controllers are implem ented by
mathem atically
determi ning
PID
constan ts
PID controllers are implemented
without the knowledge of the system
parame ters using Ziegler - Nichols
method
61.
PID controllers are implemented using
Ziegler - Nichols
method
after
determi ning the system transfer
function

Which one of the following is the transfer

function of the PI-contr oller?
(a)

G(s) =

(k 1s + k )
2

ka

62.

(b)

(c)

(d)

8-DMHH-N-FUB

One of the main functions of the RF

amplifiers in a super-heterodyne receiver is to
(a) Provide improved tracking
(b)
Permit better adjacen t channel rejection
(c)
Increase the tuning range of the
Improve the rejection of the image
frequency

An FM signal has a carrier swing of 100 kHz

when modula ting signal has a frequency of
8 kHz. The modulation index is
(a} 125
(b)

7-5

(c)

625

(d)

15

In a digital communication system employing

Frequency Shift Keying (FSK), the 0 and 1 bit
are represen ted by sine waves of 10 kHz and
25 kHz respectively. These waveforms will be
orthogonal for a bit interval of
(a) 250 11 sec
(b) 200 11 sec
(~)
50 11 sec
(d) 45 11 sec
If a 400-watt carrier is amplitude modulated
to a depth of 75 percent, what is the total
power in the modulated wave ?
(a)

517-5 W

(b)

4633 w

(c)

4485 W

(d)

512-5 w

The signal
modulated
maximu m
modulated
1MHz?

m(t) = sine (2 x 104 t) is frequency

with K = 103 Hz/V. What is the
instanta neous frequency of the
signal when carrier frequency is

(a)

0999M Hz

(b)

0998M Hz

(c)

1002MHz

(d)

1001 MHz

( 8-A)

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53.

Amplitude
modulation
broadcasting because

55.

used

for

57.

1.

Pulse-position modul;ltion.

2.

Pulse-code modulation.

3.

Pulse-width modulation.

(b)

Compared with other syatems

requires less transmitting power

Which of the above communications are not

digital?

(c)

Its use avoids receiver complexity

(a)

1 and 2 only

(d)

No other modulation system can provide

the necessary BW for high fidelity

(b)

2 and 3 only

(c)

1 and 3 only

(d)

1, 2 and 3

it

In flat-top sampling a hold circuit is

sometimes required. This hold circuit can be
58.
designed as a sampler followed by

In

a superheterodyne receiver, if the

intermediate frequency is 450 kHz and the
signal frequency is 1000 kHz, then the local
oscillator frequency and image frequency
respectively are

(a)

A shunt capacitor

(b)

An envelope detector

(c)

Parallel RC circuit

(a)

1450kHz and 100kHz

(d)

A series resistance along with parallel

RC circuit in shunt

(b)

550kHz and 1900kHz

(c)

1450 kHz and 1900 kHz

(d)

550 kHz and 1450kHz

As compared to A-law compander, the wlaw

compander produces

59.

56.

Consider the following:

It is more noise immune than other

modulation systems

(a)

54.

is

(a)

More companding at low amplitudes

(b)

More companding at high amplituaes

(c)

(d)

The cladding which surrounds the fibre core

(a)

is used to protect the fibre

(b)

is used to reduce optical interference

Less companding for low amplitudes

(c)

helps to guide the light in the core

Less companding for high amplitudes

(d)

ensures that refractive index remains

unaltered

A carrier is modulated by a digital bit stream

having one of the possible phases of o, 90, 60.
1so and 270. Then the modulation is termed
as

repeater is usually an amplifier for the

amplification of

(a)

BPSK

(a)

Carrier signal

(b)

QPSK

(b)

Baseband signal

(c)

QAM

(c)

Amplitude modulated IF signal

'(d)

MSK

(d)

Frequency modulated IF signal

B-DMHH-N-FUB

In microwave relay communication, the

( 9-A)

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61.

62.

63.

In a geostationary satelJite communication 65.

system, a message signal is transmitted from
an earth station via an uplink to a satelJite,
amplified in a transponder on board the
satelJite and then transmitted via a downlink
to another earth station. The most popular
frequency band for sateliite communication is

(a)

Mt, = 15

(b)

Mt = 093 .

(c)

Mt, = 122

(d)

Mt =1

(a)

16 MHz for the uplink and 14 MHz for

the downlink

(b)

4 GHz for the uplink and 6 GHz for the

downlink

(c)

6 GHz for the uplink and 4 GHz for the 66.

downlink

Boosting of higher frequ:ency

transmitter is done by using

(d)

10 GHz for the downlink and 8 GHz for

the uplink

(a)

De-emphasis

(b)

AGC circuit

(c)

Pre-emphasis

(d)

Armstrong method

As per WARC-1979 allocation, commercial

communication satelJites use bandwidth of
(a)

4MHz

(b)

40MHz

(c)

200MHz

(d)

500MHz

67.

Range resolution in RADAR is determined by

(a)

The radiated power

(b)

The bandwidth of transmitted pulse

(c)

The antenna size

(d)

The centre frequency of RADAR

(a}

m2 Pc

(b)

2m2Pc

(d)

In satellite communication, Faraday rotation

is caused by

at

the

The power contained in single sideband in

amplitude modulation is

(c)

68.
. 64.

What will be the total modulation index if a

wave is amplitude modulated by three sine
waves with modulation indices of 25%, 50%
and 75%?

4m2Pc

TWT is characterized by
(a)

Low noise figure, narrow bandwidth

and average gain

(b)

Gain exceeding 40 dB, wide bandwidth

and low noise figure

(a)

Plasma frequency

(b)

Earth's magnetic field

(c)

Non-Gaussian nature of uplink noise

when received in the downlink channel

(c)

More noise and wide bandwidth

(d)

Ionospheric reflections
multiple times

(d)

More noise, narrow bandwidth and high

gain

B-DMHH-N-FUB

that

occur

( 10- A)
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69.

In Gunn diodes, electrons are transferred

from
(a)

High to low mobility energy bands

(b)

Low to high mobility energy bands

(c)

Valley to domain formation

(d)

Domain to valley formation

73.

8=

8 14

823

824

8 a1

832

8 41

842

Magic Tee

that gives the direction of

(c)

Hybrid ring

(a)

Electrical component of a wave with

respect to ground

(d)

Three port network

(b)

Magnetic component of EM wave with

74.
respect to ground

(c)

Both
electrical
magnetic
and
components with respect to ground

(d)

None of the above

A rectangular waveguide has the dimensions

of 51 em x 24 em. For the dominant mode
TE10 the cut-off frequency is

Phase velocity Vp and group velocity Vg in a

waveguide are related to the velocity of
Iightc as
(a)

Vp Vg= clJ

(b)

Vp+ Vg= c
Vp
.
-=Constant
Vg

(d)

Vp + Vg = Constant

(a)

294GHz

(b)

588GHz

Which one of the following is not a mode of

operation of a Gunn diode ?

(c)

625 GHz

(a)

LSA oscillation mode

(d)

6899 GHz

(b)

Stable amplification mode

(c)

Bias circuit oscillation mode

(d)

Non-linear mode

75.

72.

813

(b) Circulator .

Polarization is characteristic of EM wave

(c)

71.

is the scattering matrix of

(a)

70.

The semiconductor random access memory of

a computer has 65,536 words, each of 8-bits.
It can perform two basic operations Read and
Write. How many bits are there in the 76.
Address Register of this memory ?

The only modes in microstrip lines are

(a)

TEmodes

(a)

(b)

TMmodes

(b)

12

(c)

TE and TEM modes

(c)

16

(d)

(d)

24

Quasi-transverse electric and magnetic

modes

B-DMHH-N-FUB

(11-A)

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77.

78.

If the receiving antenna is polarized at 90 81.

with respect to transmitting antenna, it will
receive
(a)

No signal

(a)

333%

(b)

Minimum signal

(b)

50%

(c)

Maximum signal

(c)

666%

(d)

Same signal

(d)

75%

Which of the following methods provides

82.
largest bandwidth ?
'

79.

80.

The efficiency of an antenna having a

resistance of 30 n and radiation resistance of
60 Ois

(a)

Proximity coupling

(b)

Aperture coupling

(c)

Coaxial probe feed

(d)

Microstrip line feed

An antenna behaves as a Resonant Circuit if

(a)

Its length is integral multiple of nA.

2

(b)

Its height is integral multiple of nA.

2

(c)

Its length is even multiple of nA.

2

(d)

Its length is odd multiple of nA.

.
2

Which of the following antennas gives circular

polarization ?
1.

Yagi-Uda

2.

Parabolic

3.

Helical

4.

Dipole

(a)

1, 2, 3 and4

(b)

1, 2 and 3 only

(c)

3only

(d)

4only

If the diameter of a

83.

84.

Bandwidth increases

(b)

Bandwidth decreases

(c)

Gain increases

(d)

Gain decreases

B-DMHH-N-FUB

(a)

E-H plane Tee

(b)

Hybrid Tee

(c)

Mixer circuit

(d)

All of the above

A transmission line has characteristic

impedance of 500 n. It has been terminated in
a 200 Q load. If the load is dissipating a
continuous power of 100 W, its reflection
coefficient is

dipole antenna is

increased from ....?:__ to ~ , then its

. 100
50
(a)

Magic Tee is called as

(a)

6
7

(b)

4
7

(c)

3
7

(d)

2
7

( 12- A)

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85.

86.

87.

88.

89.

Detection of microwaves is carried out by 90.

employing
(a) Vacuum tube diode
(b) Semiconductor diode
(c)
Schottky Barrier diode
(d) Field-Effect Transistor
The frequency range of very high frequency
(VHF) is
91.
(a) 300 MHz - 3000 MHz
(b) 30 MHz - 300 MHz
(c) 3 MHz- 3o MHz
(d) 30 THz - 3000 Hz
On a microstrip line the wavelength
measured is 12 mm for a 10 GHz signal. The
dielectric constant of the equivalent 92.
homogeneous line is
(a)

35

(b)

625

(c)

(d)

Baretters and Bolometers are used for

measurement of
(a)

VSWR

(b)

Transmission losses

(c)

Microwave power

(d)

None of the above

The discone antenna is

(a)

A useful direction finding antenna

(b)

Used as a radar receiving antenna

(c)

Circularly polarized like other circular

antennas

(d)

Useful as VHF receiving antenna

A satellite link uses different frequencies for

receiving and transmitting in order to
(a)

Avoid interference
microwave link

55

(b)

Minimize free space losses

70

(c)

Maximize antenna gain

(d)

Avoid interference between its powerful

transmitted signal and weak incoming
signal

Microwave link repeaters are typically 50 km

apart in TV transmission, because
(a) of atmospheric attenuation
(b) of output power tube limitation
93
(c)

microwave transmission is through

surface wave which attenuates faster
(d) of Earth's curvature
The ratio ...!!.... is called

terrestrial

The number of one's present in the binary

representation of
15 x 256 + 5 x 16 + 3 are
(a)

(b)

1.

Intrinsic ratio.

(c)

9
10

2.
3.

Loss tangent.

(d)

11

4.

Dissipation factor.

CO

from

Conduction ratio.

Which of the above statements is/are correct ?

The creation of file variable will automatically

create a special variable associated with it,
called as

(a)

lonly

(a)

Buffer variable

(b)

2only

(b)

Text variable

(c)

2and4

(c)

Allocated variable

(d)

2and3

(d)

Floating variable

BDMHH-N-FUB

94.

( 13- A)

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91).

96.

97.

98.

99.

Wrapping of data functions together in a class

is known as
(a) Overloading
(b) Data Abstraction
(c)
Polymorphism
(d) Encapsulation
Given (135)base x + (144~ 0 x
What is the value of base x ?
(a)
5
(b)

(c)

12

(d)

101. Which of the following sorting methods will be

the best, if the number of swappings done, is
the only measure of efficiency ?

= (323~0 x

(a)

Bubble sort

(b)

Quick sort

(c)

Insertion sort

(d)

Selection sort

102. In a circularly linked list organization,

insertion of a record involves the modification
. of

Expression C = i++ causes

(a)

No pointer

(a)

(b)

1 pointer

(c)

2 pointers .

(d)

3 pointers

value of ito be assigned to C, and then i

to be incremented by 1

(b)

ito be incremented by 1, and then value

of i to be assigned to C

(c)

value ofi to be assigned to C

(d)

i to be incremented by 1

The addressing mode that permits relocation,

without any change whatsoever in the code, is
(a) Indirect addressing
(b) Base register addressing
(c)
Indexed addressing
(d) PC relative addressing
Which of the following algorithm design
techniques is used in the quick sort
algorithm?
(a) Dynamic programming
(b) Backtracking
(c)
Divide a:D.d conquer
(d) Greedy method

103. The average successful search time for

sequential search on 'n' items is
(a)

(n+l)
2

(b)

(c)

(n-1)
2

(d)

log(n) + 1

n
2

104. The speed mismatch between Processor and

Memory in a computer is alleviated by using a

100. An algorithm is made up of2 modules M1 and

M2 . If order of M1 is f (n) and that of M2 is
g (n), tP,en the order of the algorithm is
(a) f(n) x g (n)
(b)
f(n) + g (n)
(c)
min (f (n), g (n))
(d)
max (f (n), g (n))

small fast memory as an intermediate buffer

between Memory and Processor. This buffer
memory is known as
(a)

Volatile ROM

(b)

Non-Volatile ROM

(c)

Cache Memory

(d)

EPROM

(14'-A)

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105 What is maximum number of nodes in a

binary tree that has N levels, if the root level
is zero?

110. Consider the following statements regarding

RESET instruction of 8085 microprocessor :
1.

PC contents become OOOOH.

(a)

22N

2.

All interrupts are enabled.

(b)

2N+1_1

3.

RESET OUT pin is at logic 0.

(c)

2N -1

Which of the above statements iS/are correct ?

(d)

2N -2N

(a)

1 only

(b)

2 only
1 and 2
2 and 3

(c)
(d)

106. To arrange a binary tree in ascending order,

we need
(a)

Post order traversal only

(b)

In order traversal only

(c)

Pre order traversal only

(d)

Post order traversal and Pre order

traversal

111. In a microprocessor, the register which holds

address of the next instruction to be fetched is
(a)

107. The method used for resolving data

dependency conflict by the compiler itself is
(a)

Delayed load

(b)

Operand forwarding

(c)

Prefetch target instruction

(d)

Loop buffer

Software

(b)

Netware

(c)

Firmware

(d)

Hardware

Stack pointer

(d)

Instruction register

LXI

1003

CALL 1006

1006

POP

113. The semiconductor RAM of a digital computer

has a word length of 16-bits and a capacity of
65,536 words. It has a cycle time of 80 ns. If
the CPU is much faster than the memory, the
time required to fill 1,024 bytes of this
memory with all O's will be
(a)

4096 J.1S

(b)

Many unconditional jumps

(b)

8192 J.1S

Many operands

(c)

524 ms

None of the above

(d)

1048 ms

B-DMHH-N-FUB

SP = 27 FD, HL = 1006

Many conditional jumps

(d)

27FF

The contents of the stack pointer (SP) and the

HL register pair on completion of execution of
these instructions are
(a) SP = 27 FF, HL = 1003
(b)
SP =27 FD, HL =1003
(c)
SP =27 FF, HL = 1006

(a)
(c)

SP,

1000

(d)

109. Locality of reference concept will fall in which

of the following cases ?
Where there are

(c)

112. The following sequence of instructions is

executed by an 8085 microprocessor :

108. The micro programs provided by a

manufacturer to be used on his micro
programmed computer are generally called
(a)

(b)

Accumulator
Program counter

( 15- A)
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Directions : Each of the next seven (07) items 117. Statement (1) :
consists of two stateme'nts, one labelled as the
Space wave is used for propagation of FM
'Statement (!)' and the other as 'Statement ai)'.
broadcast system.
Examine these two statements carefully and select
the answers to these items using the codes given
Statement (II) :
below:

Several
independent
interference-free
transmitters can be operated on the same
frequency
because
of
line-of-sight
propagation.

Codes:
(a)

Both Statement (I) and Statement (II)

are individually true and Statement (II)
is
the
correct
explanation
of
Statement (I).

(b)

Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) 118 Statement (1):

are individually true but Statement (II)
In TEmn modes Z component of magnetic field
is not the correct explanation of
Statement (I).
is non-zero.

(c)

Statement (I) is true but Statement (II)

is false.

Statement (ll) :

Statement (I) is false but Statement (II)

is true.

non-zero.

(d)

In ~ modes Z component of electric field is

114. Statement (I) :

.
al
.
A NAND gate represents a umvers
1og~c
family.

Statement (ll) :
Only two NAND gates are sufficient to
accomplish any of the basic gates.

119. Statement (1) :

.
On-chip Cache memory is used for temporary
storage of commonly used code/data copied
from the main memory.

Statement (II) :
Provision of Cache memory eliminates the
need for the processor to go off the chip to
access the main memory thus improving the
processor performance.

115. Statement (I) :

Digital ramp converter is the slowest ADC.

Statement (ll) :
It requires N2 clock pulses for conversion.

116. Statement (I) :

The f3 of a bipolar transistor is reduced, if the
base width is increased.

120. Statement (!) :

Statement (ll) :
The f3 of a bipolar transistor increases, if the
doping concentration in the base is increased.
B-DMHH-N-FUB

In the main memory of a computer, RAM is

used as a short-term memory.
Statement (ll) :
RAM is a volatile memory.

( 16 -A)

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( 17- A)

I
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(19-A)
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.

),." ..
.

B-DMHH-N-FUB

( 20- A)
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