Student ID:

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TEST 1
JULY SEMESTER 2007
Course:
Time:
Date:

CAB 2012 HEALTH, SAFETY AND ENVIRONMENT

1 hour
7th September

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES:
Answer ALL questions in the OMR sheet.
1.

What is the primary function of a fault tree?

A.
To identify possible consequences of a given event
B.
To identify the most effective method to prevent a given event
C.
To identify the events that may lead to a given event
D.
To identify the most likely outcome of a given event

2.

What is the primary purpose of a company safety policy?

A.
To establish a safety and health committee
B.
To outline the companys health and safety strategies
C.
To state the companys commitment to health and safety
D.
To guarantee the health and safety of employees

3.

Engineering control involve

I.
Substitution or elimination of hazardous materials
II.
Installation of monitoring and warning system
III.
Training and educating workers
IV.
Modification of work procedures
A.
B.
C.
D.

I and II
I and III
I, II and III
II, III and IV

4.

Which of the following is the CORRECT hierarchy for risk control measures?
A.
Engineering controls, administrative controls, personal protective
equipment.
B.
Administrative controls, personal protective equipment, engineering controls.
C.
Personal protective equipment, elimination of risks and administrative controls.
D.
Elimination of risks, administrative controls and engineering controls.

5.

The person directly responsible for the health and safety of an assigned employee is:
A. the agencys safety officer.
B. the officers from the Department of Occupational Safety and Health.
C. the employee's immediate supervisor.
D. the employee him/herself.

CAB 2012

6.

Which of the following statements describe the nature of the ISO 14000?
I. The ISO 14000 family of standards has been developed to promote effective
environmental management.
II.
It is a quality system based on the participation of selected employees.
III.
It is a compulsory international standard for use by any company, any size and
anywhere in the world.
IV.
It advocates sustainable development for every nation and every person.
A.
B.
C.
D.

7.

8.

I and III
II and IV
I and IV
II and III

According to OSHA 1994, which of the following is a responsibility of an employee?

A.
Establish a safety and health committee and hire a health and safety officer
B.
Avoid unsafe acts that may endanger yourself or those around you
C.
Provide training and information for the safe use of complex machineries
D.
Ensure the workplace is safe with sufficient entry and exit points
Emissions from a power plant, which uses high-nitrogen fuel, contain unacceptable levels
of nitrogen dioxide, which negatively affects those living in the surrounding area. Of the possible
solutions to the above problem as listed below, which is the most ideal?
A.
Pay full compensation to those negatively affected.
B.
Modify existing laws to hold the power company accountable.
C.
Replace the high-nitrogen fuel with low-nitrogen fuel.
D.
Install devices to remove the nitrogen dioxide in the emissions.

9.

What is the primary purpose of a hazard analysis?

A.
To comply with environmental legislation
B.
To identify and control risk and liability
C.
To plan and prepare for emergencies
D.
To state the companys commitment to safety

10.

What are the primary causes of acid deposition?

A.
Sulphur dioxide and nitrous oxide
B.
Chloroform compounds
C.
Chlorinated hydrocarbons
D.
Heavy metals

11.

Risk is a possibility of loss in terms of ___________.

A.
consequence and hazard
B.
incident and likelihood
C.
hazard and accident
D.
severity and probability

12.

Generally, hazards may be controlled most effectively in the workplace through

A. personal protective equipment
B. engineering controls
C. administrative controls
D. education

CAB 2012

13.

Personal protective equipment is most often used ______________ engineering and

management controls.
A.
as a replacement for
B.
in conjunction with
C.
prior to the use of
D.
to reduce the need for

14.

What is hazard?
A.
Unexpected or unintended event sequence and may result in immediate or
delayed undesirable effects
B.
Potential for an activity, condition, or circumstance to produce harmful
effects
C.
Subjective evaluation of relative failure potential
D.
Human activity that is an unwanted event that might have had a negative impact
on the people, property or process involved

15.

Why do OSHA standards require the employer to first consider engineering controls to
correct workplace hazards?
A. Because safety is all about condition, not behaviour
B. They may completely eliminate the hazard
C.
They may completely eliminate exposure
D.
They may cost more in the long run than enforcing safe work procedures

16.

One risk factor that determines if repetition contributed to a Musculoskeletal Disorder is

A.
speed of movement
B.
variation of types of activities
C.
gender of person who is carrying
out the activity
D.
workplace environment

17.

The following are common Musculoskeletal Disorders that can result from bad
ergonomics EXCEPT:
A.
Trigger Finger
B.
Psychological stress
C.
Back injuries
D.
Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

18.

Risk management plans response to adverse events before the event occurs. Therefore,
risk management is ________________.
A.
reactive
B.
proactive
C.
didactic
D.
paranoid

19.

When developing safety rules and regulations,

A.
minimise the number of rules to the extent possible
B.
reduce cost as much as possible
C.
the more rules, the better the safety policy
D.
make rules complex enough that the employees will not understand

20.

The benefits of a good ergonomic program include:

A.
Improved worker health and safety.
B.
Improved morale and job performance.
C.
Reduced workers compensation costs.
D.
All of the above.

CAB 2012

21.

Which of the following statements is the CORRECT sequence of pollution prevention

priorities?
A.
Residual disposal, treatment, reuse and recovery, recycle, reduce generation and
eliminate generation.
B.
Reuse and recovery, recycle, eliminate generation, reduce generation, residual
disposal.
C.
Reduce generation, treatment, residual disposal, reuse and recovery, recycle,
eliminate generation.
D.
Eliminate generation, reduce generation, Recycle, reuse and recovery,
treatment and residual disposal

22.

Which of the following statement is FALSE?

A.
An "AND" gate is linked to an output event that occurs only if all related input
events occur.
B.
An Event Tree Analysis is to provide information on how a failure can occur and
the probability of occurrence.
C.
The first step in Fault Tree Analysis, a deductive reasoning process, is to clearly
identify the top event.
D.
An Event Tree Analysis is to identify ways in which hazards can lead to
accidents.

23.

Environmental Management Systems is the component of an organisation with primary

responsibility for leading, planning, controlling and organising as they relate specifically to the
impact of an organisation ______________.
A.
processes
B.
products
C.
services
D.
all of the above

24.

An environmental policy:
A.
Must be supported by top management
B.
Establishes a framework for environmental leadership
C.
Acts as a contract between personnel of the organization and company
stakeholders
D.
All of the above

25.

Which of the following should IDEALLY be the first priority in air pollution abatement for
non-mobile sources?
A.
The reduction of air emission at the source through process redesign and
equipment modification
B.
The elimination of air pollution at the source through relocation plant to nonpopulated areas
C.
The reduction of air pollution at the source through implementation of
downstream pollution control devices
D.
The elimination of air pollution at the source by phasing out polluting industries
and closing down plants that does not comply with regulations

26.

Which of the following is a similarity between Hazard and Operability Review (HAZOP)
and Failure Mode and Effects Analysis (FMEA)?
A. Both are graphical methods
B. Both are qualitative methods
C. Both are used to calculate risk
D. Both are based on guidewords

CAB 2012

27.

28.

Management controls should be used ____________ engineering controls.

A.
before
B.
in conjunction with
C.
instead of
D.
in the absence of
These are the circumstances that led to the development of organized safety program
and movement:
I.
tragedies and accidents
II.
role of organised labour/union
III.
specific health problems
IV.
role of professional certification
A.
B.
C.
D.

29.

I and II
II and III
I, II and III
I, II, III and IV

The Preliminary Hazard Analysis can serve TWO (2) purposes:

I.
It can expedite bringing new system/equipment on line with a substantial reduced
risk of injuring worker
II.
It can replace the time consuming detailed analysis
III.
It can serve as a guide for a future detailed analysis
IV.
It can provide complete and comprehensive information on potential hazard
A.
B.
C.
D.

I and II
I and III
II and III
I, II and IV

30.

Whereas ______________________ may involve just observation or pilot testing of new

equipment and systems, the ____________________________ involves application of analytical,
inductive and deductive method.
A.
preliminary hazard analysis, detailed hazard analysis
B.
job safety analysis, cost-benefit analysis
C.
failure mode and effects of analysis, hazard and operability study
D.
job safety analysis, detailed hazard analysis

31.

When an Occupational Safety & Health Management System is effectively implemented

with executivelevel support, it can produce the following benefits:
I.
Improve the attitudes of personnel about their working environment
II.
Increase the amount of participation in safety and health activities
III.
Increase production cost
IV.
Reduce the lost time injuries and accidents and the cost associated with lost
time/accidents
A.
B.
C.
D.

I, II and III
I, II and IV
I, III and IV
II, III and IV

CAB 2012

32.

Which of the following statement is TRUE?

A.
The unit used to express the intensity of sound is dosimeter.
B.
Decibel is the instrument that measures sound levels over a specified
interval, stores the measures, and calculates the sound as a function of sound
level and sound duration.
C.
The weakest sound that can be heard by a healthy human ear in a quiet
setting is known as the threshold of hearing.
D.
Wide band noise is noise that is confined to a narrow range of frequencies.

33.

A number of different factors affect the risk of hearing loss associated with exposure to
excessive noise which includes:
I.
Intensity of the noise
II.
Duration of daily exposure
III.
Age of individual
IV.
Distance of individual from the source of the noise
A.
B.
C.
D.

I and II
I, II and III
I, III and IV
I, II, III and IV

34.

Which of the following is NOT an example of non-point source pollution?

A.
Urban stormwater runoffs
B.
Acid rain
C.
Industrial wastewater discharges
D.
Fugitive emissions

35.

Which of the following is a direct consequence of soil pollution?

A.
Acid rain formation
B.
Groundwater contamination
C.
River bank erosion
D.
River and lake eutrophication

36.

Which of the following is an example of reducing noise at the source?

A.
Wearing earmuffs or earplugs
B.
Moving the source away from the receiver
C.
Replacing loose or unbalanced machine parts
D.
Changing job schedules to reduce exposure time

37.

According to OSHA law, final responsibility for the health and safety at work rests with
A.
The Employee
B.
The Employer
C.
Government agencies (like DOSH)
D.
The union

38.

Which of the following are employees rights according OSHA standards?

A.
Not showing up for work on days of OSHA inspections
B.
Refuse to wear PPE
C.
Anonymously call OSHA to complain about safety problems
D.
Receive safety training

39.

Work activities that can cause Cumulative Trauma Disorders (CTD) involve
A.
Working with bent or flexed wrists.
B.
Arm or elbow extended away from the body.
C.
Repetitive and/or forceful hand, arm, and shoulder motions.

CAB 2012

40.

D.
All of the above.
List the THREE (3) locations at which you can control noise hazard.
I.
At the source
II.
Along the path of transmission
III.
At the receiver
IV.
Surrounding area
A.
B.
C.
D.

I, II and IV
I, III and IV
I, II and III
I, II, III and IV

41.

What level of dBA is considered the maximum limit of continuous exposure over an 8hour period without protection?
A.
190 dBA
B.
140 dBA
C.
90 dBA
D.
30 dBA

42.

Ergonomics is
A.
science combining research and application of human data
B.
a multidisciplinary science that seeks to conform the workplace and all of
its physiological aspects to the worker
C.
science
and
art
devoted
to
anticipation,
recognition/Identification,
measurement/evaluation and control of environmental factors arising from the
workplace that may cause sickness or significant discomfort among workers
D.
a composite of subsystems whose functions are integrated to achieve a
mission/function (includes materials, tools, personnel, facilities, software,
equipment)

43.

Which of the following statements does NOT describe the nature of the ISO 14000
standard?
A.
It is a series of standards developed to promote effective environmental
management.
B.
It is a quality system based on the participation of all employees.
C.
It is a voluntary international standard for use by any company of any size
and anywhere in the world.
D.
It advocates sustainable development for every nation and every person.

44.

In devising ergonomic problem-solving strategies, work might be divided into the

following categories:
I.
Seated repetitive work with light parts
II.
Seated work with small parts
III.
Work with hands below chest height
IV.
Seated work with heavy lifting
A.
B.
C.
D.

45.

I only
I and II
I, II and III
I, II, III and IV

The following methodologies can be used by the employers when conducting hazard
analysis, EXCEPT:
A.
What-if analysis
B.
Why-do analysis
C.
Failure mode and effects analysis

CAB 2012

46.

D.
Fault tree analysis.
Which of the following is TRUE?
I.
Trigger finger is an example of musculo-skeletal disorders.
II.
Effective workplace ergonomics leads to increase in productivity.
III.
The Human Factors Theory is an ergonomic design theory.
IV.
Adjustable workplaces reduce the risk of cumulative trauma disorders.
A.
B.
C.
D.

I and II
II and IV
III and IV
I, II and IV

47.

Select the best method of hazard analysis that uses a graphic model to visually display
the analysis process.
A.
Failure mode and effects analysis (FMEA)
B.
Hazard operability review (HAZOP)
C.
Risk analysis
D.
Fault tree analysis (FTA)

48.

When should human error analysis be used?

A.
After-the-facts
B.
Before hazards cause accidents
C.
Only as a last resort
D.
None of the above

49.

Common indicators of the existence of ergonomic problems include the following:

I. Incidence of cumulative trauma disorders (CTDs)
II. Trends in accidents and injuries
III. Employee complaints
IV. Low turnover rates and absenteeism
A.
B.
C.
D.

50.

I and II
I, II and III
II and III
II, III and IV

No amount of training is likely to reduce workplace risk unless you make it

A.
B.
C.
D.

higher priority than production.

interesting to learners.
the responsibility of the safety committee.
part of a sound safety management system.