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1. Which is the process of removing from the ce

lls and bloodstream substances that are of no f
urther use to our body?
A. Respiration
C. Digestion
B. Circulation
D. Excretion
2. Which is an accessory organ of digestion who
se function is to store and concentrate bile whic
h is secreted by the liver?
A. Spleen
C. Gall bladder
B. Urinary bladder
D. Pancreas
3. Identify the genetic engineering process that
join cells of similar characteristics that are often
closely related.
A. DNA typing
C. Cloned DNA
B. Protoplast fusion
D. Hybridoma
4. What is the most significant cause of dwindlin
g biodiversity?
A. Depletion of ozone layer
B. Large plant consumption
C. Global warming
D. Destruction of habitat
5. Because she has a wide forehead, her grand
ma says she will be a bright student. What coul
d be inferred from his belief?
A. The cerebrum coordinates the action of all pa
B. The frontal lobe of the brain is the cerebrum.
C. The front part is inactive when we think.
D. The thalamus is located in the sides.
6. The phenotypic ratio in the offspring resultin
g from a cross Tt x Tt is
A. 1:3
C. 1:2:1
B. 4:0
D. 3:1

7. Acid rain is brought about by burning tremen

dous amount of fossil fuel. Which are some har
mful gases that are released from burning fossil
A. Hydrogen and oxygen
C. Carbon dioxide and helium
B. Sulfur dioxide and nitrogen
D. Ozone and water vapor
8. Which part of the brain is responsible for thin
king and reasoning?
A. Medulla C. Thalamus
B. Cerebellum D. Cerebrum
9. Name the gaseous hormone which is commo
nly used in inducing ripening of fruits.
A. Enzyme
C. Traces
B. Methylene
D. Ethylene
10. Protein is one of the most essential food nut
rients needed before and after birth, otherwise i
mental retardation may occur. Which are some
good sources of protein?
A. Corn, potato, bread
B. Noodles, orange, apple
C. Beans, eggs, milk
D. Garlic, pepper, eggplant
11. Which is an abiotic component that affects li
fe in an ecosystem?
A. Animals
C. Temperature
B. Plants
D. Humans
12. Which is the following animals exhibits inco
mplete metamorphosis?
A. Butterfly
C. Grasshopper
B. Moth
D. Skipper
13. What processes are responsible for the occu
rrence of the hydrologic cycle?
A. Evaporation and sublimation
B. Transpiration and evaporation

C. Condensation and transpiration

D. Evaporation and condensation
14. Today, researchers have discovered chemic
al indicators in the genetic material which can tr
ace those who are predisposed to heart attack.
What is this technique?
A. Irradiation
C. Genesplicing technology
B. In-breeding technique
D. Linkage
15. Which describes the type of cells that all ani
mals are made of?
A. Endoplasmic
C. Compound
B. Eukaryotic
D. Prokaryotic
16. The fleshy part of the cashew which we eat i
s its_____________.
A. Ovule
C. Penduncle
B. Ovary
D. Receptacle
17. Lipase aids in the digestion of______________
A. Enzymes
C. Salts
B. Proteins
D. Fats
18. Cells of us unicellular organisms, like bacteri
a and bluegreen algae are simple in structure. T
hey are classified as_________________.
A. Eukaryotic
C. Procaryotic
B. Nucleod
D. Caryotic
19. Insulin which enables the liver to store suga
r secreted by the______________.
A. Pituitary gland
C. Islets of langerhans
B. Adrenal medulla
D. Adrenal cortex

20. Which is the procedure of calculating the ag

e of an object that contains radioactive isotopes
A. Rock decay
C. Fossil examination
B. Radiometric dating
D. Fossil indexing
21. As the test of the seed breaks, which structu
res come out first and grow into the first true le
aves and roots?
A. Two seed-leaves
C. Plumule and radicle
B. Micropyle and epicotyl
D. Testa and tegmen
22. What type of muscle occurs in the walls of h
ollow structure like ducts, blood vessels and int
estines whose contraction is involuntary?
A. Straited
C. Smooth
B. Skeletal
D. Cardiac
23. Where does exchange of materials between
the blood and the cells take place?
A. Arteries
C. Platelets
B. Veins
D. Capillaries
24. Butterflies and mosquitoes have mouthpart
s in the form of a long, narrow, coiled tube calle
A. Mandibles
C. Antennae
B. Proboscis
D. Filament
25. Which is the ring of muscle that serves as th
e opening between the stomach and the small i
A. Septum
C. Anal
B. Sphincter
D. Rectal
26. Which are the tiny organs located each seg
ment that are used for locomotion by the earth
A. Flagella
C. Pseudopodia
B. Cilia
D. Setae

27. Which lung disorder is present when the alv

eolar walls breakdown and gas exchange is dist
A. Macrophage destruction
C. Bronchial irritation
B. Emphysema
D. Pulmonary crisis
28. Why is it not advisable to drink sea water?
A. It can result in swelling.
B. The cells will burst instantly.
C. The cells will melt.
D. It can cause dehydration of the cells.
29. It is a process of accelerated biodegradation
of moist kitchen waste into a humus-like produc
t. What is this process?
A. Shredding
C. Composting
B. Recycling
D. Reuse
30. In a carbon-oxygen cycle where does the ox
ygen come from?
A. Animals
C. Plants
B. Water
D. Soil

1. GNASH is related to TEETH as LISTEN is relat
ed to ____________.
a. hear
b. ears
c. resolve
d. dissuade
2. BREAD is related to BUTTER as POTATOES is
related to ____________.
a. gravy
b. steak
c. margarine
d. lamb
3. PORCINE is related to PIG as BOVINE is relat
ed to ____________.
a. boy
b. cow
c. sheep
d. iodine
4. TAILOR is related to NEEDLE as MECHANIC i
s related to ____________.

a. engineer
b. screwdriver
c. tool chest
d. brush
5. DISTANCE is related to MILE as LIQUID is rela
ted to ____________.
a. milk
b. quart
c. water
d. meter
6. AUTOMOBILE is related to HIGHWAY as LOC
OMOTIVE is related to ____________.
a. station
b. train
c. track
d. engine
7. SUGGEST is related to REQUIRED as REQUE
ST is related to ____________.
a. ask
b. demand
c. suspect
d. allow
8. PROBLEM is related to SOLUTION as POISO
N is related to ____________.
a. hemlock
b. nitrate
c. arsenic
d. antidote
9. SAW is related to CUT as YARDSTICK is relat
ed to ____________.
a. foot
b. inch
c. measure
d. tool
10. AMBIGUOUS is related to CLARITY as TEMP
ORARY is related to ____________.
a. transient
b. permanence
c. clear
d. fragile
11. BOOK is related to CHAPTER as SONG is rel
ated to ____________.
a. stanza
b. sing
c. music
d. instrument

12. DELICACY is related to GOURMET as INSEC

T is related to ____________.
a. bee
b. pollen
c. frog
d. hive
13. AGILE is related to NIMBLE as FAST is relate
d to ____________.
a. swift
b. slow
c. perpetual
d. racy
14. CHEMIST is related to LABORATORY as ART
IST is related to ____________.
a. canvas
b. museum
c. easel
d. studio
15. MOVIES is related to PROJECTOR as RECO
RDS is related to ____________.
a. speakers
b. tape recorder
c. phonograph
d. radio
16. STOOPED is related to POSTURE as SLURR
ED is related to ____________.
a. diction
b. stance
c. music
d. action
17. RETRACT is related to STATEMENT as VOID
is related to ____________.
a. escape
b. avoidance
c. contract
d. empty
18. FELONY is related to MISDEMEANOR as KIL
L is related to ____________.
a. maim
b. bury
c. murder
d. guilty
19. BEGGAR is related to POOR as FOX is relate
d to ____________.
a. skunk
b. slow

c. large
d. sly
20. SCALPEL is related to KNIFE as NURSE is re
lated to ____________.
a. doctor
b. assistant
c. hospital
d. operation

1. B The first word is the action of the second w

2. A The second is usually put on the first word.
3. B The first word means pertaining to the sec
ond word.
4. B The second word is a tool of the first word.
5. B The second word is a measure of the first
6. C The first word travels on the second word.
7. B The second word is an imperative (must)
of the first word.
8. D The second word overcomes the first word.
9. C The first word is the tool to do the second
10. B The first word is the opposite of the secon
d word.
11. A The second word is a part of the first word
12. C The first word is eaten by the second wor
13. A The first word is a synonym of the second
14. D The second word is where the first word w
15. C The second word plays the first word.
16. A The first word is a n impairment of the sec
ond word.
17. C The first word nullifies the second word.
18. A The first word is a more serious degree of
the second word.
19. D The second word is a characteristic of the
first word.
20. B The first word is a medical term for the se
cond word.


1. What is the missing term in the series? 2, 5,

11, 23, 47, ____
a. 115
b. 95
c. 105
d. 125
2. A store owner makes a 25% profit by selling
an item for P800.00. How much is his profit?
a. P 1,400.00 b. P 200.00 c. P 250.00 d. P
3. The simplest expressions for 25/100 is
a. 1
b. 4
d. 1/4
4. If the ratio of women to men in a meeting is 4
to 1, what percent of the persons in the meeting are
a. 80% b. 20%
c. 33 1/3 %
d. 25%
5. Joel repacks a 60 kg sack of sugar into small
packs of 750 g. How many small packs can be
a. 90
b. 45
c. 55
d. 80
6. How much bigger is 550 than 375?
a. 175
b. 73
c. 45
d. 431
7. The product of 2 numbers is 36, and their ratio
is 1: 4. Which of these is the smaller number?
a. 9
b. 12
c. 3
d. 2
8. An Arithmetic book is 2 cm thick. How many
copies can be placed in a meter long shelf?
a. 44
b. 40
c. 36
d. 45
9. What is the smallest positive number that is a
multiple of both 12 and 14?
a. 36
b. 42
c. 84
d. 168
10. 40% of 35 is what percent of 140?
a. 28% b. 29%
c. 10%
d. 14%
11. An employee earning P 9,200.00 a month will
receive 15% increase next month. How much will
his/her new salary be?
a. P10,500
b. P10,530 c.
d. 10,560
12. In a certain school, the ratio of boys to girls is
3 to 7. If there are 150 boys and girls in the school,
how many boys are there?
a. 45
b. 90
c. 105
d. 75
13. A park has a triangular shape. It has a base of
12m and a height of 9m. What is the area?
a. 122 sq. m b. 42 sq. m. c. 108 sq. m.
54 sq. m.
14. The length of a new piece of chalk is about

a. 1mm
b. 10mm
c. 10cm
d. 1 cm
15. If 50% of x is 20, what is 30% of x?
a. 30
b. 12
c. 20
d. 16
16. Which of these fractions has the greatest
a. 4/5
b. 9/16
c. 7/10
d. 5/8
17. Which of the following is exactly divisible by 3
and 11?
a. 357404
b. 114345 c. 991111
18. If the variance of distribution is 25, then the
standard deviation is _________.
a. 30
b. 5
c. 625
d. 12.5
19. Which of these numbers is greater than ?
a. 0.04 b.0.09
c. 1/8
d. 1/0.04
20. A senior class of 50 girls and 70 boys
sponsored a dance. If 40% of the girls and 50% of
the boys attended the dance, approximately what
percent attended?
a. 44
b. 46
c. 42
d. 40
21. What is the smallest positive integer that has
6, 8, and 10 as factors?
a. 300
b. 240
c. 80
d. 120
22. Joseph has more money than Mila but less
than Billy. If the amounts held by Joseph, Mila and
Billy are x, y, and z respectively, which of the
following is TRUE?
a. Z<X<Y
b. X<Z<Y
c. Y<X<Z
d. Y<Z<X
23. How many ounces of pure acid must be added
to 20 ounces of a solution that is 5% acid in
a. 2
b. 1
c. 3

d. 5

24. Michael is 15 years older than this brother

Rafael. However, y years ago Michael was twice as
old as Rafael. If Rafael is now x years old and x>y,
find the value of x y.
a. 13
b. 14
c. 15
d. 16
25. What percent is of ?
a. 65%
b. 90%
c. 80%
d. 75%

26. What is the median of the following numbers?

8,5,7,5,9,9,1,8,10,5 and 10.
a. 9
b. 8
c. 5

d. 7

27. A certain pole casts a shadow 24 feet long. At

the same time another pole 3 feet high casts a
shadow 4 feet long. How high is the first pole, given
that the heights and shadows are in proportion?
a. 20 ft.
b. 24 ft.
c. 18 ft.
d. 21 ft.
28. The perimeter of an isosceles triangle is 42 in.
The 2 equal sides are each 3 times as long as the
third side. What are the lengths of the three sides?
a. 18, 21, 3
c. 21, 21, 21
b. 6, 6, 8
d. 18, 18, 6

2. D
3. D
7. C
8. B
9. C
10. C
11. C
12. A
13. D
14. C
15. B
16. A
17. B
18. B
19. D
20. B
21. D
22. C
23. B
24. C
25. D
26. B
27. C

29. If a certain job can be finished by 18 workers

in 26 days, how many workers are needed to finish
the job in 12 days?
a. 45
b. 39
c. 24
d. 30

28. D
29. B
30. A
31. D

30. A box is 12 inches wide, 16 inches long, and 6

inches high. How many square inches of paper
would be needed to cover it on all sides?
a. 192
b. 720
c. 360

d. 900

31. P 8,000.00 is invested at 12% simple interest.

What is the amount at the end of 2 years?
a. P 9,600
b. P 8,960
c. P 8,240

1. The school will hold a science fair. You tried to make a

project but failed. The next thing you do is
a. to ask your father to do it for you
b. not to submit a project anymore
c. to try and try until you produce one
d. to tell your teacher that you cant make one

d. P9,920
2. A medium sized egg has a mass of 67.5 grams. What is
the average mass of one egg in kg?

Answer Key

a. 0.000675 kg

b. 0.00675 kg

1. B

c. 0.0675 kg

d. 0.675 kg

d. Pound
3. Before inventing the incandescent bulb, Thomas Alva
Edison made the experiment repeatedly. What step of
scientific method was shown?

10. Which of the following branches of science deals with

the study of matter, energy and their transformation?

a. Tentativeness

a. Chemistry

b. Drawing the final conclusions

b. Physics

c. Superstitions

c. Biology

d. Curiosity

d. Genetics

4. Which of the following is NOT TRUE in the definition of

a. Body of knowledge and theory

b. Flexibility

b. Discontinuing of explanation of universe

c. Curiosity

c. Collection of facts

d. Resourcefulness

d. Systematic and meaningful patterns

5. Which unit of
measuring volume?


is NOT

11. What scientific attitude must a person posses in seeking

answers to things in which he is greatly interested?
a. Open-mindedness

USED for

12. Which one of the following is the mental attitude that

acts from sound reasoning?
a. Scientific method

a. Liter

b. Scientific attitude

b. cm2

c. Scientific mind

c. cm3

d. Scientific skills

d. Gallon
6. An irregularly-shaped solid was drop in a graduated
cylinder which has a read of 40 cm3. The water rose to 45
cm3. What is the volume of the solid?

13. Joshua respects the ideas and opinions of his

classmates. He is
a. open-minded
b. curious

a. 5cm3

c. flexible

b. 5cm

d. investigative

c. 5cm2
d. 5cm6
7. Jericho wants to know the mass of a piece of metal.
What instrument should he use?
a. Spring balance
b. Equal-arm balance

14. Jenny wants to know the length of the table. What

instrument will she use?
a. Spring balance
b. Graduated cylinder
c. Ruler
d. Thermometer

c. Graduated Cylinder
d. Platform balance
8. Your sister has a fever and you want to know her body
temperature. What apparatus will you use?
a. Graduated cylinder
b. Room thermometer
c. Clinical thermometer
d. Laboratory thermometer
9. What is the standard unit of mass in metric?
a. Meter

15. Joy learned in school that fertilizers affect the growth of

plants. She wanted to know how the amount of fertilizer
used affects its growth. Which of the following should she
a. Ask her science teacher the correct answer.
b. Conduct an experiment to find out.
c. Look for the correct answer.
d. Write the Bureau of soils.
16. Michael saw some big crabs crawling on the sand. He
wandered where they came from so he tried investigating.

b. Kilogram

a. Concern for living things

c. Kilometer

b. Creativity

c. Curiosity

d. Technology can provide all the solutions to the

problems of the society.

d. Responsibility
17. Which of this concept is always considered by the
a. Accurate observations are necessary to recognize
b. Events in nature do not occur in a predictable way.
c. Experiments provide information that will always
support prediction.
d. Predictions do not point the way to possible
solutions to a problem.

23. Which of the following is considered as technology?

a. Production of antibiotics
b. Invention of calculator
c. Invention of computer
d. all of the above
24. Why is the planet earth NOT thrown away by its orbit?
a. It is controlled by its fast revolution.

18. Which of the following is a technological innovation in

the field of communication?
a. Fiber Optics

b. There is a path that holds it firmly.

c. The size is just right to maintain its distance.
d. The suns gravitational pull and inertia put it.

b. Genetic engineering
c. Radioactive Dating

25. The annual journey of the earth around the sun is called

d. Tissue Culture
19. You have identified the problem in your experiment,
what is the next step?
a. Formulate the hypothesis
b. Formulate the conclusion
c. gather relevant data

a. rotation

b. revolution

c. transition

d. precession

26. What is the point in the earths orbit nearest to the sun?
a. Equinox

b. Solstice

c. Aphelion

d. Perihelion

d. test the hypothesis

27. What is the inclination of the Earths axis?
20. How are the terms experiment and scientific method
a. The scientist performs experiment.

a. 33.5





28. Why does the sun rise in the east and set in the west?

b. The scientist solves problem in a logical and

scientific manner.
c. A scientific method of solving a problem may include
doing an experiment.
d. An experiment proves and disproves a hypothesis.
21. If a figure of big magnitude are to be handled
mathematically, it is wise to use

a. The earth rotates west to east

b. The earth revolve counterclockwise
c. The earth revolve east to west
d. The sun rotates from north to south
29. A planets elliptical orbit means that the planet
a. keeps the same distance

a. conversion units

b. is very near the sun

b. extrapolation

c. is very far from the sun

c. scientific notation

d. gets nearer and farther from the sun

d. square root
22. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about science and
a. Science






b. Science taught man the relationship of living things

with their environments.
c. Technology helps improve mans life.

30. When the vertical rays of the sun strike the equator, the
whole earth will have
a. equals day and night
b. longer days and shorter nights
c. longer night an shorter days
d. shorter nights and shorter days

31. In summer, we see the sun rise early and set late. Why?

40. An imaginary line at 23 north latitude is called

a. The tilt is neither away or toward the sun.

a. Tropic of Capricorn (S)

b. The tilt of the axis is away from the sun.

b. Tropic of Cancer (N)

c. Arctic Circle
d. Antarctic Circle

c. The tilt of the axis is toward the sun.

d. The tilt is changing in degrees.
32. The seasons of the year change mainly because of
a. changing wind direction in summer and winter.
b. changing speed of earths revolution.
c. the inclination of the axis and revolution.
d. the elliptical orbit of the earth and revolution.

41. It is the length of time between two consecutive vernal

equinoxes - 365 days, 5 hours, 48 minutes, 46 seconds.
This year is known as
a. Sidereal year
b. Calendar year

c. Solar year
d. Tropical year

42. The sun never sets at summer time in this part of the
a. Northern hemisphere c. North of Arctic Circle

33. Exactly how long does it take for the trip around the
a. 365 days, 5 hours, 48 minutes, 46 sec

b. Southern hemisphere

d. South of Antarctic Circle

43. On two occasions of the year, day and night are of

equal length everywhere in the earth. Such occurrence is

b. 362 days, 5 hours, 46 minutes, 45 sec

c. 365 and days
d. 364 days

a. equinox

c. summer solstice

b. contour Lines

d. contour intervals

34. What dangerous rays kill space travelers?

a. X-rays

c. Gamma rays

b. Radio waves

d. Cosmic rays

35. Which satellites are sent to explore other planets like

Mars and Venus?
a. Weather satellites
b. Navigation satellites

c. Space Probe satellites

d. Communication satellites

36. Which cell produce electricity in spaceship?

a. Fuel cells


Atomic cells

b. Nuclear cells


Solar cells

44. On topographic map, the numerous fine brown lines

which clearly indicate the landforms that shows variations in
elevation are
a. index contours

c. bench marks

b. contour lines

d. contour intervals

45. To earth scientists, the most important features on a

map are the landforms that shape the earths surface and
are shown in
a. Hydrographic maps

c. Radioactivity maps

b. Geologic maps

d. Contour Interval

46. Which of the following IS NOT mechanical weathering?

37. What organisms may be taken along in the space flights
as a source of oxygen?
a. Protozoan b. Fungi

c. Algae

d. Bacteria

38. What fuel rises from rockets?

a. Kerosene

b. Helium

c. Nuclear power

d. Oxygen

39. When the moon is passing the point of its orbit directly
between the earth and the sun and it cannot be seen, this
phase of the moon is
a. Full moon b. Crescent
c. Gibbon

d. New moon

a. Water seeps into cracks in rocks and then freezes

and expands.
b. Thin flakes or curved scales peel off due to
temperature changes.
c. The roots of plants work their way into small cracks
of rock.
d. Minerals are continuously removed from soil and
rock by solution.
47. A less obvious but equally-destructive form of soil
erosion is called sheet wash. This occurs when
a. each gully enlarges with energy rain until a series of
miniature canyons are produced.
b. water washes out small gullies running up and down

c. water strips away exposed topsoil lowly and evenly.

d. topsoil exposed area is blown away as cloud of dust
and drifting sand.

56. A type of barometer used to measure approximate

altitude above the earths surface is the
a. barograph
b. altimeter

48. Which process IS NOT intended primary to decrease

soil erosion?
a. Strip cropping

c. Soil creep

b. Contour plowing

d. Crop rotation

49. Water dripping continuously from the cave will

eventually produce a long ice like deposit of calcites which
hangs from the roof. This is called
a. Stalactite

b. Stalagmite c. Sinks

d. Geode

c. mercurial barometer
d. aneroid barometer
57. Because of the earths rotation on air movement, the
path of things that move over the earth tends to curve
sidewise. This is known as
a. coriolis effect
b. doldrums
c. circumpolar whirl
d. mountain breeze

50. The ground water which accumulates above the aquifer

underground has many sources. Which of the following is a
source of this kind of water?
a. Flood water
b. Meteoric water

c. Connate water
d. Magnetic water

58. At night, the land cools faster than the water, then the
wind blows from the land towards the water. This is known
a. sea breeze
b. land breeze

51. A type of hot spring that, at intervals, throws steam and

water high in the air is known as
a. geyser


b. hillside spring


mud flow

59. All of the following instruments are used to measure

humidity in the air except

c. volcanic action

b. river action

d. diastrophism

53. Basins that became partly or completely filled with fresh

and decayed vegetation, sediments and water called
a. ponds

b. swamps

c. Lakes

c. Carbon dioxide d. ozone

55. Sometimes a layer of warm air exists above a layer of

cool air next to the ground and it traps the polluted air
because the upper warm air acts as a lid to prevent it from
being carried away. This condition is called
a. temperature inversion

a. hydrometer
b. hygrometer
c. wet and dry bulb thermometer
d. psychrometer
60. Thin, feather like clouds with a delicate appearance,
frequently arranged in bends across the sky sometimes
called mares tail is

d. playas

54. Which IS NOT considered a composition of true pure

dry air?

a. Nitrogen b. Oxygen

d. mountain breeze

alkali spring

52. Faulting frequently forms like basins in the depression

between tilted rocks. This type of lake is formed through the
process called
a. glacial action

c. valley breeze

a. cirrostratus

b. cirrocumulus

c. cirrus

d. stratus

61. Some kind of microscopic particles are required upon

which the water may collect and condense known as
condensation nuclei. An example is
a. dust
b. smoke
c. salt particles
d. all of the above

b. temperature immersion
c. fountain layer
d. ozone layer

62. A type of front is formed when moving cold air mass

wedges its way under a warm air mass. It is called
a. cold front

b. warm front
c. stationary front

69. The molten rock material found inside the earth is

d. violent front

a. magma

63. One valuable electronic weather instrument is radar.

What is it used for?

b. lava

c. extrusive

d. sediment

70. What element makes the 70% of the earths crust?

a. Oxygen and Silicon

I. To give the precise location and extent of storms

b. Sodium and Magnetism

II. To tract hurricane

c. Iron and Calcium

III. To measure the speed of high altitude air

d. Iron and Nickel

IV. To predict earthquake

a. I & II

b. I, II, & III

c. II, III, & IV

d. II & IV

71. What natural form changes the rock into a metamorphic

a. Cutting force of sea waves

64. A special property of minerals which gives off light rays

after exposure to ultraviolet light is called
a. fluorescence

b. phosphorescence

c. luminescence

d. irradiation

b. Extremely high temperature

c. Expulsion from volcano
d. Erupting force of running water
72. Which of the following planets has NO atmosphere?
a. Mercury
b. Earth c. Venus
d. Mars

65. How can the changes in temperature break rocks?

a. Minerals expand and contract at uniform rate.
b. Minerals contract and not expand.

73. In a swimming pool, as we go deeper, water pressure

a. increases

c. Minerals expand and do not return to their original


b. decreases
c. stays the same

d. Minerals expand and do not contract in unequal

66. Which part of a fold may form a mountain?
a. Anticline

b. Syncline

c. Trough

d. Crest

d. is balanced
74. What characteristic do air, water and minerals have in
a. They contain atoms
b. Their atoms are close together
c. Their atoms are moving at the same speed

67. Which of the changes in the surface of the earth is a

chemical change?
a. The edges of the earths crust plates bend or rock
when they bump each other.
b. Rocks under great pressure and temperature become
harder, denser and produce new minerals.

d. Their atoms are separate from great distance

75. Insecticide spray cans are provided with caution labels:
keep in a cool place. What will happen if these cans are
stored in a hot environment?
a. The can will burst.

c. Salt crystal form when water containing dissolved

sediments evaporates.

b. The can will collapse.

d. The rising warm air from ocean gets cold and form
the ocean gets cold and forms cloud in the sky.

d. The can will corrode faster

68. Suppose you have samples of rocks which are hard,

layered and contains small particles of shells or remain of
plants and animals. How do you classify these rocks?

c. Nothing will happen to the can.

76. If water pressure decreases when depth decreases, we

can say that
a. water pressure is proportional to depth.

a. Metamorphic rock

b. water pressure is inversely proportional to depth.

b. Igneous rock

c. water pressure is independent of the depth.

c. Sedimentary rocks

d. depth is dependent on the water pressure.

d. A mixture of three types


Due to the sinking of the faulting in the islands, huge

sea waves rose and swept four towns into the sea. These
are called
a. Tsunamis
b. Isostasies
c. sea quakes

d. fissures

78. What instruments detect earthquakes?

a. Barometer
c. Siesmograph

c. These plants produce weak acids which can dissolve

and break down concrete fences.
d. The growth of the plants can cause the rocks to move
85. Which of the following statements is true about water?

b. Clinometer

a. It is denser at 10C.


b. It is denser at 50C.

79. What happens when air is heated?

a. It remains the same.
b. It expands and rises.
c. It remains at sea level.
d. It expands and moves down.
80. The nearest galaxy to the Milky Way is
a. Andromeda

c. It is denser between 60C-70C.

d. It is denser at 85C.
86. Why do fogs disappear the moment the sun comes
a. The water droplets that make up the fog change to
visible vapor as they are warmed by the sun.
b. The water droplets increase in number as the sun
comes out.

b. Sirius

c. The water droplets become water vapor.

c. Large Magellanic Cloud.

d. Fogs become clouds as the sun comes out.

d. Cygnus
81. A mountain cannot be formed by

87. Why is oxygen regarded as the life giving element on


a. volcanic eruption

a. It supports burning of material

b. folding

b. It is needed for many chemical processes in the body

c. faulting

c. It is given off by plants

d. weathering

d. It captures sunlight

82. We usually feel uncomfortable during humid days. A

humid day is a condition in which air is

88. In which setup does water drip last?

a. warm and dry

b. warm and moist
c. cold and moist
d. cold and dry

a. Set up A

b. Set up B

c. Set up C

d. Both B and C

83. Which process involves chemical weathering?

a. Oxidation
b. Hydration

89. Which soil sample allows water to pass through once?

a. Sand

b. Loam

c. Clay

d. none of the above

c. Carbonation
d. all of the above
84. Some homeowners cover their concrete fences with
creeping plants. What would be the effect of those plants on
the concrete fences?
a. These plants will decorate on the fences.
b. The growth of the plants inside crevices can split the
rock apart.

90. Which soil sample has the better drainage?

a. Sand

b. Loam

c. Clay

91. The low-lying flat clouds are

a. stratus clouds
b. cumulus clouds

d. all of the above

c. nimbus clouds

c. cold and moist.

d. nimbostratus clouds

d. cold and dry.

92. What are rocks that form by cooling and hardening of

molten materials?

99. Which of the following would be the effect of a rise on

carbon dioxide in the atmosphere?

a. Igneous rocks

a. Cooling of the atmosphere

b. Sedimentary rocks

b. Increases in the solar radiation

c. Metamorphic rocks

c. Darkening of the air

d. Marble

d. Warming of the atmosphere

93. When the moon is between the earth and the sun, we
experience a

100. As soon as the planets make its regular trip around the
sun, what unit of time is completed?
a. Day

a. Lunar eclipse

b. Night

c. Year

d. Month

b. Solar eclipse
101. What phenomenon on the earth is caused by its

c. Full moon
d. New moon

a. Day and night

94. The seasons of the earth are caused by the

a. elliptical orbit and varying speed of revolution.
b. greater distance of the earth from the sun during
winter than summer.
c. inclination of the axis of rotation to the planet of its
orbit and revolution around the sun.
d. variation in the amount of energy given off by the sun.

b. Seasons
c. Weather disturbance light
d. Light interference
102. Which part of the atmosphere filters the ultraviolet rays
of the sun?
a. Stratosphere
b. Ozone layer

95. Due to lack of rain in Metro Manila, weather scientist

produce artificial rain by dropping dry ice from airplane to
humidify clouds. The process is known as
a. cloud seeding

b. precipitation

c. condensation

d. evaporation

96. Energy from the underground hot springs is utilized in

power plants located in Tiwi, Albay and Mt. Makiling,
Laguna. This energy is called
a. nuclear energy
b. hydroelectric energy

c. Exosphere
d. Troposphere
103. An eclipse occurs when the sun, moon and earth are in
the same line. Which of the following statements explain
a. Light travels in straight line.
b. Light can be refracted.
c. The speed and direction of light can be reflected.
d. Light can be reflected.

c. dendrothermal energy
d. geothermal energy
97. The thinning of the ozone layer is due to the use of

104. Why is the sun the only star which gives much heat
and light to the earth?
a. The sun is bigger than the other stars.

a. weed killers and insecticide.

b. The sun is hotter that other stars.

b. hydrocarbons like gasoline.

c. The sun is closer to the earth than the other stars.

c. supersonic transport and aerosol sprays.

d. The sun is moving faster than the other stars.

d. mercury in gold mines.

105. The greenhouse effect refers to the
98. The humid day is a condition in which you feel
uncomfortable because the atmosphere is
a. warm and moist.
b. warm and dry.

a. absorption of the green color of the sunlight

b. reflection of the green color of the sunlight
c. release of oxygen by green plants in the atmosphere

d. dropping of heat rays by the earths atmosphere

b. convex current
c. concave current

106. Which kind of tide occurs during new moon and full

d. radiation
114. The scientific phenomenon best described by the
disappearance of either the sun or the moon is the
a. eclipse

a. Neap tide
b. Spring tide
c. Seasons tide

b. full moon

d. Cresent tide

c. new moon

107. Molten materials expelled outside the earths surface

are called
a. magma
b. lava
c. steam
d. dunes
108. Clouds help determine the weather conditions. Which
of the following clouds is rain producing?
a. Cumulus

b. Stratus

c. Nimbus

d. Cumulonimbus

109. Which part of the sun is visible during the total solar
a. Photosphere

d. cresent
115. The process of breaking down rocks into pieces is
a. carbonation
b. precipitation
c. volcanism

d. weathering

116.What is formed in collision of oceanic plates or and

continental plates?
a. Ridge
b. Trench
c. Sea clip
d. Sea cave

b. Corona
c. Chromosphere
d. Reversing layer
110. What is the difference between the cloud and water
a. A cloud contains bigger water molecules that the
water vapor.
b. A cloud is found much higher in the atmosphere than
the water vapor.
c. A cloud is liquid while water vapor is gas.
d. There is no significant difference between a cloud
and water vapor.
111. What happens when warm moist air in the atmosphere
is cooled?

117. The removal of soil from one place and its transport to
other place is
a. erosion

b. weathering

c. siltation

d. deposition

118. The planet which is clothed in a thick atmosphere of

mainly carbon dioxide and has a surface temperature of
480 C is
a. Mars

b. Mercury

b. Proto-planet theory
c. Big bang theory

b. It expands

d. Creation theory

d. It becomes lighter
112. Ozone gas is composed of
a. atomic oxygen

120.The charged particles from the sun thrown to the poles

by the Earths magnetic field and the impact of the particles
excites the molecule of the gases in the upper atmosphere
and caused them to gives off red and occasionally blue or
violet light. This display of light is called
a. Aurora borealis

b. oxygen gas

b. Aurora australis

c. three atoms of oxygen

c. solar flare

d. two atoms of oxygen

d. solar prominences

113. The unequal heating of earths surface produces

a. convection current

d. Jupiter

119.The theory that one of the formations of the planets

suggest that dust from nebula gather in various gravitational
centers and then gather together to form the planets is
a. Accretion theory

a. Water drops are formed

c. It become less dense

c. Venus

121.The halo observed during a total solar eclipse is called

a. chromosphere
b. photosphere

c. corona
d. sunspot
122. All planets in the solar system
a. have the same surface temperature.

130. The water table is the table below where the surface
rocks are saturated with water. Which is NOT a source of
ground water?
a. Flood water

b. can maintain human life.

b. Meteoric water

c. revolve around the sun.

c. Connate water

d. are exactly same size.

d. Magmatic water

123.The planet which has a bright red or yellowish region is

a. Jupiter
b. Mercury
c. Hermes
d. Mars
124.A planet that goes through phases as the moon does is
a. Jupiter
b. Neptune
c. Uranus
d. Venus

131. At night the land cools faster than water. The wind
blows from the land towards the water. This is known as
a. sea breeze
b. land breeze
c. valley breeze

125. Comets often have eccentric orbits. This means that

a. their orbits are circular.
b. their time of arrival are unpredictable.
c. the sun is closer to one end of the orbit.
d. they cannot be seen without a telescope.

d. mountain breeze
132.The weather disturbance characterized by severe local
storms accompanied by lightning and thunder associated
with rapidly rising columns of warm, moist air with
corresponding down drafts of cooler air is known as
a. low pressure area

126. The face in which we see the greatest illuminated area

of the moon is
a. new moon b. gibbous
c. full moon

d. last quarter

127. When the earth passes into the dark part of the moon
shadow, there is a

b. tropical cyclone
c. tornado
d. thunder storm
133. Latitude is measured from
a. the prime meridian
b. the north pole

a. Lunar eclipse

c. the equator

b. A crescent

d. Greenwich, England

c. Solar eclipse
d. An annular eclipse
128. Coral reefs are the work of organisms such are coral
and other sea animals and plants. Its form is characterized
a. Close attachment to the shore of an island or
b. Long narrow strips same distance from the shore with
a lagoon between.
c. Roughly circular strips which enclose the lagoon
d. All of the above.
129. What do fossils tell us?
a. From them one can assemble a fairly good picture of
ancient animals
b. Living things tend to record their own history
c. Some reveal what the organism is but a little or
nothing about the creature itself
d. All of the above

134. If you close the international dateline going east on the

Monday, the next day would be
a. Monday

b. Tuesday

c. Wednesday

d. Sunday

135. Which type of soil can hold more water?

a. Sandy soil
c. Pebbles and boulderrs

b. Sand and
d.Sand and

Answer key:
1. c
5. b

30. a
31. c
34. c

94. c