H

RAFFLES INSTITUTION
2012 Year 6 Preliminary Examination
Higher 2

BIOLOGY
9648/01
20th September

Paper 1 Multiple Choice

2012

1 hour 15 minutes
Additional materials:

Multiple Choice Answer Sheet

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in a soft pencil
Do not use staples, paper clips, highlighters, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name and shade your Index Number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided unless this
has been done for you.
There are forty questions in this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C, and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.
Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.
Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Calculators may be used
(Erase all mistakes completely. Do not bend or fold the OMR Answer Sheet).

This document consists of 25 printed pages.

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Preliminary Examination 9648/01

Raffles Institution
Internal Examination
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1.

Four students, A, B, C, and D, who observed a root hair cell from a plant using an electron
microscope, were asked to confirm the presence or absence within the cell of described cellular
structures.
Which student made the correct set of observations?
Structure
with a
double
membrane,
inside
which are
stacks of
flattened
membrane
s

Area near the nucleus

containing a pair of
structures that are
composed of microtubules

Structure with a
double membrane
with inner
membrane infolded

Network of tubularshaped membranous

sacs with no ribosomes
visible on outer surface of
membranes

Key
= present
x = absent

2.

Which one of the following sentences regarding the transport of substances across the
membrane is true?
A

In diffusion, there will be no movement of particles across the membrane once dynamic
equilibrium is reached.

Both diffusion and osmosis can occur in the presence of membranes and the absence of
ATP.

In order for a cell to reach the same water potential as its surrounding solution, there must
be no net gain or loss of water.

The sodium-potassium pump is a channel protein that is associated with the facilitated
diffusion of sodium and potassium ions across the plasma membrane.

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3.

The graphs show the activities of different enzymes 1 to 4 under different conditions.
1

4
3

Which of the following statement is correct?

A

The kinetic energy of enzyme 2 and its substrate is fastest at 77C.

At 80C, several hydrogen bonds between the R groups of enzyme 2 are broken.

At pH 8, the substrate is bonded to the active site of enzyme 4 by hydrogen bonds only.

At pH 2, most of the R groups at the active site of enzyme 3 are negatively charged.

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4.

The figure below shows part of the molecular structure of a polysaccharide.

Key: - - - hydrogen bonds

Which of the following statements are true?
I
II
III
IV

5.

The structure contains -glucose molecules.

The structure contains -glucose molecules.
The polysaccharide, which is an important food source for animals, can be digested by
humans.
The polysaccharide may associate in groups to form microfibrils, which are arranged in
larger bundles to form macrofibrils.

I and III

I and IV

II and III

II and IV

Four students, A, B, C, and D were given the same sequence of amino acids removed from a
collagen molecule. Each student was asked to analyse the sequence and to explain how their
analysis could be linked to a feature of collagen.
Which students statement shows a correct feature of collagen linked to a correct analysis of the
amino acid sequence?
A

Collagen has polypeptides arranged parallel to each other and the sequence contains a
large variety of amino acids with different sized R-groups.

Collagen has polypeptides that are arranged very closely together and every third amino
acid within each polypeptide is a glycine.

Collagen consists of three polypeptides that can fold into a globular structure and the
sequence contains cysteine and amino acids with hydrophobic R groups.

Collagen is an insoluble molecule and its polypeptide sequence contains a large proportion

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of amino acids with hydrophilic R-groups.

6.

Downs syndrome can be caused by a trisomy of chromosome 21, but can also
result from translocation of chromosome 21 onto chromosome 13, forming a single
chromosome 13-21.
The diagram shows chromosomes 13 and 21 in the nucleus of a diploid (2n) testis
cell from a phenotypically normal male carrier of a 13-21 translocation. This cell has
a chromosome number of 45.

Which is not a likely outcome of fertilisation of normal oocytes by sperm from this
male?
Chromosomes in sperm

Embryo

13 and 21

2n = 46 normal phenotype

13-21

2n = 45 normal phenotype

13-21 and 21

2n = 46 Downs syndrome

13-21 and 21

2n = 47 Downs syndrome

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7.

Sex determination in some insects such as bees and wasps is not controlled by sex
chromosomes.

Using the diagram, which row in the table shows how sex is determined in these
insects?

A
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mitosis

mitosis

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8.

2n

mitosis

meiosis

2n

meiosis

meiosis

2n

2n

meiosis

mitosis

The diagram below represents a process that occurs in prokaryotes.

Which of the following correctly describes the characteristic of X for its function?
A

It reads the template in the 5 to 3 direction.

It requires the involvement of another enzyme prior to its action.

Only 1 molecule of X can be involved on each template strand at any one time.

It produces various types of nucleic acids in the process.

The following information relates to Questions 9 and 10.

The
diagram

following
outlines the
production of
a cell when
activated.

protein in
DNA is

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9.

With reference to stage I only, which one of the following statements is true for the production of
a functional protein?
A

Stage I is not involved in gene regulation.

Step E represents transcription in Agrobacterium tumefaciens.

Step F is important to ensure stage II proceeds.

Spliceosomes made up of proteins and siRNA are required for step F to proceed.

10. Which of the following statements regarding stage II is correct?

A

Structure K catalyses the formation of bond J.

The three bases of group H base-pair with its specific amino acid.

Structure K is made of tRNA.

The mRNA shown will code for a protein containing 10 amino acids.

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11.

The information below shows a region of the DNA nucleotide and amino acid sequence of a
normal protein and a mutant protein.

Normal
Mutant

DNA nucleotide sequence

on template

Amino acid sequence

--CTT GCA AAA--

glu arg - phe

gly arg - phe

Which of the following could explain for this mutation on the template DNA strand?
A

A purine was substituted with another purine.

A pyrimidine was substituted with a purine.

A purine was substituted by a pyrimidine.

A pyrimidine was substituted with another pyrimidine.

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12. The host range of a virus is determined by
I
II
III
IV

the proteins on its surface.

whether its nucleic acid is DNA or RNA.
the proteins on the surface of the host cell.
the enzymes produced by the virus before it infects the cell.

I and IV only

I and III only

II and III only

I, II and IV only

13. Scientists have discovered how to put together a bacteriophage with the protein coat of phage
T2 and the DNA of phage T4. If this composite phage were allowed to infect a bacterium, the
phage produced in the host cell would have
A

the protein of T4 and the DNA of T2.

the protein and DNA of T4.

the protein of T2 and the DNA of T4.

the protein and DNA of T2.

14. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true of generalized and specialized transduction?

Generalized transduction
I

transfers any bacterial DNA

transfers only certain bacterial genes

II

viral DNA is not replicated in the host cell

before being packed into a capsid

viral DNA is replicated in the host cell

and packed into a capsid

III

viral DNA is not integrated into the

bacterial chromosome

viral DNA is integrated as a provirus into

the bacterial chromosome

IV

homologous recombination occurs in the

recipient cell

homologous recombination does not

occur in the recipient cell

I only

I and III only

II and IV only

All of the above

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15. A single mutation has occurred in an E. coli cell. Given that glucose and lactose are both absent
from the growth medium, and the lac structural genes are expressed efficiently, which of the
following mutations could have taken place in the E. coli cell?
I

16.

The cell has a mutation in the operator of the lac operon.

II

The cell has a mutation in the lacI gene.

III

The cell has a mutation in the promoter of the lac structural genes.

I only

II only

I and II only

II and III only

All the statements below describe the features of prokaryotic gene regulation except
A

By binding to a Shine-Dalgarno sequence of a polycistronic mRNA, a translational

repressor protein blocks translation initiation of the set of structural genes.

Having a relatively shorter mRNA half-life than eukaryotes allows more rapid control of
gene expression at translational level.

Different sigma factors help the same RNA polymerase core enzyme recognize different
promoters.

A constitutively expressed regulatory gene can code for either an active or inactive
repressor.

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17. The figure below shows the relative distributions of four types of mRNA molecules along the
head-to-tail axis in the cytoplasm of a Drosophila fertilized egg.
Key:

High
Concentration

hunchback mRNA
caudal mRNA
bicoid mRNA
nanos mRNA

Low
Head

Tail
Position in fertilized egg

bicoid protein binds to the 3 untranslated region of caudal mRNA to interfere with the
interaction between 3 poly-A tail and 5 cap
bicoid protein is also a specific transcription factor that binds to the enhancer of the
hunchback gene
nanos protein inhibits translation of hunchback mRNA

Using the information given above, determine which one of the following graphs shows the
relative protein distribution along the head-to-tail axis of this fertilized egg.

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A

Key:

High
Concentration

hunchback proteins
caudal proteins
bicoid proteins
nanos proteins

Low
Head

Tail
Position in fertilized egg

B
High
Concentration
Low
Head

Tail
Position in fertilized egg

High
Concentration
Low
Head

Tail
Position in fertilized egg

D
High
Concentration
Low
Head

Tail
Position in fertilized egg

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18. Which one of the statements below does not describe the development of cancer as a multi-step
process?

19.

Mutations in the genes at various checkpoints in the cell cycle must accumulate in a single
cell.

Cancer development involves both gain-in-function mutations in proto-oncogenes and lossof-function mutations in tumour suppressor genes.

Proof-reading mechanisms operate during DNA replication to protect against mutations.

A cell with abnormal proliferation acquires additional mutations and then undergoes mitosis
to produce an increased population of cells bearing such a mutation.

In a species of mammal, chromosome 7 contains genes for two enzymes, P and Q. Enzymes P
catalyses an early step in a metabolic pathway, and enzyme Q catalyses a later step in the
same pathway. Both genes have two alleles, so there are nine possible genotypes.
Which of the following terms appropriately describe this situation?
A

dihybrid inheritance and linkage only

epistasis and multiple alleles only

linkage, dihybrid inheritance and epistasis

multiple alleles, dihybrid inheritance and linkage

20. The table below shows the blood group phenotypes resulting from crosses between different
genotypes.
Genotype of 1st parent

Genotype of 2nd parent

IAIA

IAIO

IAIO

A and O

IBIO

A and AB

A, B, O and AB

Two parents have a son who has blood group O and phenylketonuria. One parent has blood
group O and the other has blood group A. Neither parent has phenylketonuria.
What is the probability that the second child of these parents will be a girl with blood group A
who does not have phenylketonuria?
A

1 in 16

1 in 8

3 in 16

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D

3 in 8

21. One Drosophila with the genotype P m/P m is crossed with another with the genotype p m/p m.
Which of the following shows the expected outcome if the genes are closely linked?

22.

All progeny will express the phenotype coded by Pm.

All progeny will express the phenotype coded by pm.

50% of the progeny will express the phenotype coded by Pm and 50% will express the
phenotype coded by pm.

75% of the progeny will express the phenotype coded by Pm and 25% will express the
phenotype coded by pm.

Unaffected carriers with chromosomal inversions are likely to produce genetically abnormal
progeny.
Which of the following explains this?
A

The inversion chromosome is more likely to be placed in a gamete than the normal
chromosome.

The inversion chromosome is unable to accomplish synapsis with the normal chromosome
during meiosis.

Crossovers cannot occur between inversion and normal chromosomes.

Crossovers between the inversion and normal chromosomes lead to chromosomes with
deletions, deficiencies, or abnormal structure.

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23. The graph below refers to a sample of Elodea (Canadian pond weed) over a period of 24 hours.

20
15
10
5

The most accurate estimate of the total volume of oxygen used by the plant for respiration is
A

5 mL

60 mL

120 mL

160 mL

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24. The figure illustrates the process of chemiosmosis in a recently discovered photosynthetic
bacterium in the Dead Sea.

Which of the following statements are correct about this photosynthetic bacterium?
I
II
III
IV

Bacteriorhodopsin acts as a light harvesting complex to harness the energy from the sun.
ATP formed in the cytoplasm will be used by the bacterium for cellular activities.
Protons diffuse down their concentration gradient from the cytoplasm to the cell wall for the
eventual production of ATP.
H+ diffuses down the concentration gradient back into the cytoplasm via ATP synthase
complex. This results in the phosphorylation of ADP to ATP.

I and II only

III and IV only

I, II and IV only

All of the above

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25. The figure shows the relative irritability of a stimulated nerve fibre.

What would happen if a second stimulus is applied during the period XY?
A

A stimulus below the normal threshold will cause a response.

The fibre will respond repeatedly to a single stimulus.

The reaction to the stimulus will be greater than normal.

The reaction will occur more quickly than normal.

26. Studies on the giant axon of the squid showed that bacteria toxin BITIX results in an increase in
negativity of the postsynaptic membrane.
What is the possible mode of action of BITIX?
A

It causes the release of acetylcholine.

It is an analog of acetylcholine.

It causes the release of potassium ions from postsynaptic membrane.

It mimics acetylcholinesterase.

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27. Four different patients health conditions are reported.

Which of the following students have given the correct evaluation?
Student

Patients condition

Evaluation

destruction of islet cells in pancreas

cells cannot secrete insulin, thus reduced

gluconeogenesis in tissues

glucose tolerance test shows blood reduced glycogenesis in liver because of

glucose level > 90mg/dL two hours possible reduction of receptor tyrosine kinase
after glucose drink consumption; No signalling by insulin
destruction of islet cells in pancreas

obstruction of pancreatic duct

insulin cannot be secreted into the

bloodstream, thus reduced glycogenesis in
liver

liver cirrhosis (i.e. damaged liver

tissue)

reduced glycogenolysis as the membrane

vesicles containing glucose transporters are
not able to translocate to the cell membrane in

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the damaged liver cells

28.

Which of the following statements does not describe the advantages of the signal transduction
stage in G-protein coupled receptor (GPCR) signalling?

29.

The activated adenylyl cyclase converts intracellular ATP into cAMP and this increased
cAMP level serves to amplify glucagon signal to produce stronger response.

The G-protein system and phosphorylation cascade in the liver cells with GPCR serves as
many potential checkpoints for regulation of the GPCR signalling.

One single glucagon ligand molecule can elicit many cellular responses through different
pathways.

Glucagon, a hydrophilic ligand, is not able to diffuse across the plasma membrane but can
bind to intracellular GPCR to result in the activation of genes in the nucleus.

Which taxonomic group is correctly described?

Taxonomic
group

Size of
group

Number of
similarities between
members of the
group

Ancestry of members of group

kingdom

large

few

recently shared a common ancestor

species

small

many

recently shared a common ancestor

species

large

few

distantly shared a common ancestor

kingdom

small

many

distantly shared a common ancestor

30. Darwins view of the process of evolution to form new species (speciation) has been reinforced
by more recent discoveries in genetics and cell biology. This is termed the neo-Darwinian view
of evolution.
In this view, which sequence of events is considered most likely to lead to speciation?
A

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adaptation of
population

adaptation of
population

competition
and predation
leading to
natural
selection

competition
and predation
leading to
natural

behavioural
isolation

behavioural
isolation

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sympatric
speciation

allopatric
speciation

21
selection
C

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competition and
predation
leading to
natural
selection
competition and
predation
leading to
natural
selection

geographical
isolation

geographical
isolation

adaptation of
isolated
populations

adaptation of
isolated
populations

sympatric
speciation

allopatric
speciation

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31. The Malayan Colugo is a forest dwelling creature that relies on closely spaced trees to glide
from one area to another in the primary forest. They do this by a thin membrane that stretches
from the side of the neck to the tips of the fingers and toes, and down to the tip of the tail.

The population of the Malayan Colugo in Singapore (above) are descendants from a small
population of Colugos that were over-hunted and had their habitats destroyed post-1819 when
90% of primary forests in Singapore were cleared leaving only pockets of rainforests fragments
separated from each other by urban developments.
Which of the following best describes the evolution of the Malayan Colugo in Singapore over two
centuries?
Genetic variability

Evolutionary process

Type of Speciation

low variability

population bottle-neck

allopatric

low variability

founder effect

sympatric

high variability

disruptive selection

allopatric

high variability

population bottleneck

sympatric

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32. The diagram below shows part of the insulin synthesis pathway in the pancreas.

Read the following statements.

I
II
III
IV
V

The signal peptide sequence (in the diagram above) that is synthesised in beta cells is
made up of many amino acids with hydrophobic R groups.
The 3D conformation of the functional insulin molecule, which is made up of an A chain
and a B chain, is held together by 2 disulphide bridges.
In the beta cells, pro-insulin will be converted to insulin when the C peptide or C chain is
cleaved from pro-insulin and the A and B chains are joined in the correct conformation.
Two separate ribosomes synthesise the A chain and the B chain in the above beta cell.
Functional insulin is synthesised in E.coli by inserting the cDNA copy of proinsulin mRNA
into the plasmid vector.

Which of the above are correct?

A

II, IV and V only

I, II and III only

I, III and V only

I, II and V only

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33.

Small samples from crime scenes can be genetically profiled (DNA fingerprint).
Which are necessary parts of a successful genetic profiling process?
Crime scene sample

PCR

ethidium bromide and x-rays

red blood cells

saliva

semen

skin cells

Key
= used
= not used

34.

Which of the following primers would allow for the copying of the single-stranded DNA
sequence, 5 ATGCCTAGGTC 3' in the polymerase chain reaction (PCR)?
A

5 TACGG 3

5 TCCAG 3

5 GACCU 3

5 GACCT 3

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35. Genetic profiling can be used to determine the paternity of a child. DNA from the
mother and the child is cut into fragments, separated by electrophoresis and made
visual using a stain. The diagram shows the genetic profiles of a mother and child,
and four possible fathers.
Who is the father?

36.

Which of the following are statements related to the goals for tackling the ethical, legal and
social issues (ELSI) associated with the Human Genome Project?
I
II
III
IV
V

Examine the issues surrounding the completion of the human DNA sequence and the study
of human genetic variation.
Examine issues raised by the integration of genetic technologies and information into health
care and public health activities.
Examine issues raised by the integration of knowledge about genomics and geneenvironment interactions into non-clinical settings.
Explore ways in which new genetic knowledge may interact with a variety of philosophical,
theological, and ethical perspectives.
Explore how socioeconomic factors and concepts of race and ethnicity influence the use,
understanding, and interpretation of genetic information, the utilization of genetic services,
and the development of policy.

I, II, III only

I, II, IV only

I, II, III, V only

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D

All of the above

37. What is the role of stem cells with regard to the function of adult tissues and organs?
A

Stem cells are undifferentiated cells that divide asymmetrically, giving rise to one daughter
cell that remains a stem cell and one daughter that will differentiate to replace damaged
and worn out cells in the adult tissue or organ.

Stem cells are embryonic cells that persist in the adult, and can give rise to all of the cell
types in the body.

Stem cells are differentiated cells that have yet to express the genes and produce proteins
characteristic of their differentiated state, and do so when needed for repair of tissues and
organs.

Stem cells are fully differentiated cells that reside under the surface of epithelial tissue, in
position to take over the function of the tissue when the overlying cells become damaged
or worn out.

38. In a research experiment, healthy mice were transfected with a viral vector containing the rabbit
-globin gene. The rabbit gene is actively expressed in several mice tissues, including the
spleen, brain and kidney. In addition, some of these transfected mice suffer from thalassaemia
(a form of anaemia) caused by an imbalance in the co-ordinated production of - and -globins.
After three weeks, these mice were no longer thalassaemic.
Listed below are some problems commonly associated with gene therapy.
I

difficulty in controlling the localisation of the introduced DNA to the target tissue and target
location in the genome

II

difficulty in controlling the output of the introduced DNA

III gene expression could be transient

IV post-translational modification could be missing
Which of the above problems are illustrated by the findings on mice transfected with rabbit globin gene?
A

II and IV

III and IV

I, II and III

I, III and IV

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39. Which of the following is an advantage of plant cloning?

40
.

disease free plantlets can still be generated from infected plant sample

somaclonal variation provides the chance to generate genetically non-identical plantlets

losses incurred during acclimatisation is negligible

micropropagation reduces cost

The following are some concerns of producing genetically modified organisms.

I
II
III
IV

lack of mandatory food labeling in some countries

pollen grains from genetically modified plants can be carried by the wind to pollinate wild
relatives and weeds
additional stress on animals to increase their produce e.g. meat, milk
crops modified to carry animal genes

Which statement(s) best describe(s) the concerns of genetically modified organisms?

A

I only

III only

I, III and IV only

All of the above

-

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Answers:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.

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D
B
B
D
B
D
B
B
C
A

11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.

D
B
B
A
C
A
A
C
C
C

21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.

A
D
C
C
A
C
B
D
B
D

Preliminary Examination 9648/01

31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.

A
B
D
D
B
D
A
C
A
D