Immunology Final Practice

Most questions contain just the correct answer.

However, for the questions containing
EXCEPT, I have added all the choices.
1. A discontinuous epitope____
Depends on the fold of the protein it is part of
2. All of the following are true of monoclonal antibodies EXCEPT
A: They can be used to label cells
B: They can be used as therapeutics
C: They have a single antigen binding site
D: They are produced from cancerous cells
E: They are used to define a cluster of differentiation
3. Chimeric antibodies_____
Have mouse genetics in the V domains and human genetics in
the C domains
4. Hypervariable loops____
Are also known as CDR loops
5. The ab in Fab stands for
Antigen binding
6. Which of the following lacks flexible polypeptides between the
Fab and Fc regions?
M
7. An IgG molecule has approximately how many amino acids?
1200
8. All of the following are true of Type I interferons IFN-alpha and
IFN-beta EXCEPT:
A: They can directly interfere with viral replication
B: They can act in both an autocrine and a paracrine fashion
C: They suppress NK cell cytotoxicity
D: They are produced in large quantities by plamacytoid
dendritic cells
E: They are cytokines

9. Acute phase proteins include

C-reactive protein
10.
A major component of netosis is
Chromatin
11.
Sialyl Lewis-X (s-LeX) is
A ligand for selectins
12.
All of the following are true of Toll-like receptors (TLRs)
EXCEPT:
A: TLR pathogen recognition may be extracellular or intracellular
B: TLR genes are recombined in macrophages to increase
TLR diversity
C: TLR4 homodimer can recognize Gram-negative bacteria
D: TLR signaling leads to a kinase cascade
E: TLR signaling leads to gene expression
13.
With regard to a particular normal, healthy human:
One macrophage may express different innate immune receptors
than another
14.
The alternative pathway of complement
Relies on covalent attachment of C3b to pathogens
15.
C3

Opsonization may involve__

16.
A serine protease___
May be a complement protein
17.
A zymogen___
Is inactive
18.
Pathogens that can EXCLUSIVELY be extracellular include
all of the following EXCEPT:
A: Viruses
B: Bacteria
C: Fungi
D: Multicellular parasites Viruses
19.
The commensal bacteria in and on a normal healthy
human
Outnumber human cells by 10 to 1

20.
Sources of commensal microbiota for humans include all of
the following EXCEPT:
A: Family member
B: Pets
C: Vaginal birth
D: Playing in the dirt
E: Vaccination
21.
Formation of the iC3Bb convertase involves all of the
following EXCEPT:
A: Release of C3a
B: Nucleophilic attack
C: Thioester hydrolysis
D: Factor B
E: Factor D
22.
Lack of a spleen significantly increases the risk for
Bacterial blood infections
23.
Lymph returns to the venous circulation through the
Left subclavian vein
24.
Examples of primary lymphoid tissue include
Thymus
25.
The lymphoid progenitor gives rise to
Natural killer cells
26.
All of the following are associated with adaptive immunity
EXCEPT:
A: Response within minutes to an unfamiliar pathogen
B: "Acquired" immunity
C: "Protective" immunity
D: Immunological memory
E: Highly selective receptors involving changes to germline DNA
27.
For a given infection, a person lacking innate immunity
Will likely be overcome quickly by the infection
28.
Clonal expansion can refer to:
Increase in the number of cells in a lymphocyte clone
29.
Which of the following is true with regard to adaptive
immunity?
Is unique to vertebrate animals

30.
Which of the following is a circulating precursor to a
macrophage?
Monocyte
31.
The "leakiness" of activated endothelium can be due to all
of the following EXCEPT:
A: Endothelial response to cytokines
B: Endothelial cell-surface expression of sialyl Lewis X
C: Protease activity by granulocytes
D: Gaps between neighboring endothelial cells
E: Macrophage activation
32.
Another name for the pain associated with inflammation is:
Dolor
33.
A proteoglycan consists of
A core protein with glycosaminoglycan chains
34.
Which of the following types of epithelia allows the least
overall passage of molecules and cells?
Skin
35.
Which of the following is NOT a "successful" pathogen?
Ebola
36.
All of the following are true EXCEPT:
A: Death of commensal bacteria by antibiotics can lead to
opportunistic infections
B: An opportunistic pathogen can be present in the body with no
ill effect
C: If a host is weakened, an opportunistic pathogen can cause
disease
D: If allowed into a part of the host's body where it is normally
not present, an opportunistic pathogen can cause disease
E: Commensal bacteria are not opportunistic pathogens
37.
A healthy adult human gut has approximately how much
bacteria?
10 pounds
38.
Approximately what year was smallpox officially
eradicated?
1980

39.
"Vaccinia" refers to
Cowpox virus
40.
In TCR development, receptor editing
helps to ensure reactivity with self.
41.
All of the following contribute to TCR diversity EXCEPT
A: combinatorial diversity
B: junctional diversity
C: somatic hypermutation
42.
A double positive thymocyte expresses all of the following
EXCEPT
A: TCR
B: CD4
C: CD8
D: MHC II
43.
Which is true of T cell development?
beta and delta gene loci undergo rearrangement simultaneously
44.
Negative selection of alpha:beta T cells
is important for tolerance
45.
Peptide:MHC complexes on thymic epithelial cells
contain self-peptide
46.
Which one is NOT of lymphoid origin?
A: Natural killer cell
B: Dendritic cell
C: Plasma cell
D: Helper T cell
47.
SCID
may result from failure of the thymus to develop.
48.
Lymphocytes enter and leave the thymus
only through the blood stream.
49.
Which is true of the thymus?
It contains thymocytes.
50.
A memory cell is
quiescent

51.
A B-cell in the secondary lymphoid tissue that has yet to
encounter its antigen for the first time is referred to as
naive
52.
In the lymph nodes, follicular dendritic cells
are NOT of hematopoietic origin.
53.
To enter a lymph node, a B cell will transmigrate through a
venule
54.
B cell maturation occurs in
secondary lymphoid tissue.
55.
All of the following are available during peripheral
tolerance of B cells EXCEPT
A: anergy.
B: apoptosis.
C: receptor alteration.
56.
Each member of a pre-B cell clone
undergoes light chain recombination separately.
57.
The first checkpoint in B-cell development requires
productive Ig heavy chain rearrangement.
58.
Ig heavy chain DNA undergoes
V-DJ rearrangement.
59.
Repertoire assembly during B cell development
generates diverse B-cell receptors.
60.
Peptides bound to MHC II are typically
13-25 amino acids long
61.
Self-MHC isoform is
autologous
62.
Different forms of any given gene are called
Alleles
63.
Which is true of TAP transport?
It requires ATP hydrolysis.
64.
Which is true of MHC II?
It has two transmembrane regions.

65.
An epithelial cell infected with virus will present peptide
antigen on
MHC I
66.
All of the following are associated with TCRs EXCEPT:
A: CD3
B: somatic hypermutation
C: adaptive immunity
D: transmembrane regions
67.
TCR
uses CDR loops to recognize antigen.
68.
MHC
stands for Major Histocompatibility Complex.
69.
All of the following is a similarity of a B cell with a T cell
EXCEPT
A: They both derive from the bone marrow.
B: They both are lymphocytes.
C: They both undergo somatic recombination.
D: They both require MHC to recognize their antigen.
E: They both are adaptive immune cells.
70.
IgG

A blood infection will likely lead to switching of Ig class to

71.
The Fab portion of a single IgM molecule has a binding
affinity of 1 kcal/mol. The avidity of this IgM in its pentameric
form is expected to be approximately
10 kcal/mol
72.
Which is an example of neutralization by Ab?
Ab binds to toxin and prevents its action.
73.
A B-cell clone
consists of multiple identical cells.
74.
In a given B cell, which are the first Ig molecules
expressed?
IgM and IgD
75.
Which is a form of genomic variability?
Multiple V segments

76.
Prior to somatic hypermutation but after somatic
recombination, which has the greatest sequence diversity?
CDR3
77.
Somatic recombination requires
RAG proteins.
78.
V, D, and J segments are combined to form
Ig heavy chain.
79.
Germline configuration of Ig heavy and light chain loci
undergoes somatic recombination in developing B cells.
80.
True or false: Effector lymphocytes populate healthy
mucosal tissue in the absence of infection.
True
81.
All of the following are examples of GALT EXCEPT
A: spleen
B: tonsils
C: Peyer's patches
D: appendix
82.
True or false: Dendritic cells can present antigen from the
gut lumen both either locally in the GALT or after travel to
draining lymph nodes.
True
83.
True or false: Dendritic cells located beneath the
enterocyte layer in the gut can directly bind and uptake antigen
from the gut lumen.
True
84.
IgE
mediates both histamine release and direct attack on worms.
85.
True or false: The macrophages in intestine induce strong
inflammation upon phagocytosis of pathogen.
False
86.
Which cell type is NOT of lymphoid origin?
A: TH1
B: enterocyte
C: Plasma
D: cytotoxic T

87.
All of the following are true of M cells EXCEPT
A: they transport antigen by transcytosis.
B: they are in the same layer as intestinal epithelial cells.
C: they are mast cells.
D: their apical surface faces the gut lumen.
88.
The highest concentration of bacteria in the
gastrointestinal tract is in the
colon
89.
Examples of mucosal surfaces include all of the following
EXCEPT:
A: skin
B: gastrointestinal tract
C: respiratory tract
D: urogenital tract
E: certain exocrine glands
90.
The epithelial layer of the small intestine mucosa is
replaced
every few days.
91.
All of the following can typically be found attached to
mucin EXCEPT:
A: antibodies
B: complement
C: antimicrobial peptides
92.
All of the following are true of mucin EXCEPT:
A: is can be very large (> 1 million daltons)
B: it is a glycoprotein
C: it has a carbohydrate core
D: its carbohydrates have net negative charge
93.
The mucosal surfaces of the intestine are
inherently permeable.
94.
Which might be an example of a thymus-independent
antigen?
a highly polyvalent carbohydrate
95.
True or false: The B-cell co-receptor recognizes C3d.
True

96.
Activated B cells undergo proliferation in the germinal
centers of
lymph node cortex.
97.
Which effector lymphocyte is specialized to secrete large
quantities of immunoglobulin?
plasma cell
98.
Which of the following is involved in affinity maturation?
somatic hypermutation
99.
Which Ig isotype is associated with sneezing and coughing
in allergies?
IgE
100.
Which is an example of passive transfer of immunity?
Breast feeding
101.
Before isotype switching takes place, the antibody isotype
produced is
IgM
102.
The goal of affinity maturation is to
increase antibody affinity for antigen.
103.
Cognate pairs of B and T cells
involve an immunological synapse.
104.
Which type of CD4 T-cell initiates B-cell activation and
differentiation in lymph nodes?
FH
105.
To generate a response against antigen, a B-cell must
be presented antigen in its native form.
106.
All of the following are directly associated with B-cell
activation by cross-linking of cell-surface Ig EXCEPT:
A: polyvalent antigen
B: identical copies of cell-surface Ig
C: lateral diffusion of cell-surface Ig
D: rearrangement of germline DNA
107.
The lytic granules of cytotoxic CD8 T cells
can be re-generated after they are used.

108.
The JAK-STAT pathway involves kinases that
phosphorylate.
109.
Which of the following is most likely to be found performing
its function in a lymph node?
TFH CD4 T cell
110.
The threshold for activation for CD8 T-cells
is higher than it is for CD4 T-cells.
111.
A naive mature T-cell that binds to a dendritic cell that
expresses self peptide complexed with MHC and that does not
express costimulatory B7 will become
anergic.
112.
For autocrine activity, activated T cells
secrete IL-2 and express cell-surface IL-2 receptor.
113.
Which is NOT an example of a gradient?
A: The music getting louder as you turn up the volume on
the radio.
B: The smell of baking bread getting stronger as you walk into the
kitchen.
C: The water getting colder as you swim to the bottom of the
pool.
114.
With regard to T-cell circulation
chemokine gradients guide them to lymph nodes and lipid
gradients guide them out.
115.
Which describes cross presentation by a dendritic cell?
phagocytosis and presentation on MHC I
116.
All of the following are true of activated dendritic cells
EXCEPT:
A: they lose the ability to capture, uptake, process Ag.
B: they gain the ability to interact with nave T cells
C: they remain at the infection site to direct the innate
immune response.
117.
Which sequence is correct with regard to lymphocyte
circulation?
venule to lymph node to thoracic duct

118.
Which cell type is specialized to carry antigen to lymph
nodes to activate the adaptive immune response?
dendritic cell
119.
One of the goals of T-cell activation is to
produce effector T-cells ready to fight infection.
120.
Cancer accounts for what percentage of deaths in
industrialized countries?
20%
121.
A sarcoma may arise from
muscle.
122.
True

True or false: A major risk factor for cancer is old age.

123.
All of the following are true of human papillomavirus
EXCEPT
A: it causes genital warts.
B: it can cause cancer.
C: it causes infectious mononucleosis.
D: there exists a vaccine to prevent infection.
124.
True or false: Smoking is a major risk factor for lung
cancer.
True
125.
Autoimmune thrombocytopenia purpura is a Type II
autoimmune disease involving
platelets
126.
Which cell type is NOT a primary contributor to
hypersensitivity reactions?
neutrophil
127.
True or false: Autoimmune diseases tend to have a lower
incidence in females.
False
128.
True

True or false: Infections can trigger autoimmune disease.

129.
When a drug name end in "mab," that drug is likely a:
protein

130.
The destruction of pancreatic beta cells by T cells in Type 1
diabetes is an example of
Type IV autoimmunity.
131.
All of the following are types of hypersensitivity reaction
than can be involved in autoimmunity EXCEPT:
A: Type I
B: Type II
C: Type III
D: Type IV
132.
All of the following are true of hyper acute rejection
EXCEPT:
A: it involves pre-existing recipient antibodies.
B: it can be prevented by HLA matching.
C: it involves complement.
D: it may involve MHC I.
133.
Graft-versus-host disease
can destroy residual leukemia cells.
134.
Which class of immunosuppressive drugs directly targets
nuclear receptors?
corticosteroids
135.
True or false: A cross-match test using donor lymphocytes
can check to see if the recipient antibodies will attack the
transplant because the donor lymphocytes express MHC I, MHC II,
and ABO antigens.
True
136.
A recipient with O+ blood could receive
O- blood
137.
The most important antigenic difference in recipient and
donor for transplant rejection is
MHC
138.
In graft-versus-host disease
the transplanted tissue attacks the recipient.
139.
With regard to blood types, humans can make all of the
following EXCEPT:
A: anti-B antibodies.
B: anti-A antibodies.
C: anti-O antibodies.

140.
A "delayed type hypersensitivity reaction" relies on
memory T cells and is
a Type IV hypersensitivity reaction.
141.
Immune complexes are likely to form
when there are similar amounts of antigen and antigen-specific
antibodies.
142.
Prostaglandins
are synthesized by cyclooxygenase.
143.
Histamine
is about the size of a single amino acid.
144.
A Type I hypersensitivity reaction must involve
mast cell degranulation.
145.
IgE

A Type I hypersensitivity reaction involves

146.
Per the CDC, a diagnosis of AIDS requires:
being HIV positive.
147.
Initial infection with HIV may likely involve
flu-like symptoms.
148.
RNA

The HIV genome consists of

149.
A bacterial super antigen binds to all of the following
EXCEPT:
A: IgG Fc
B: MHC II
C: TCR
150.
All of the following are true of varicella-zoster herpes virus
EXCEPT:
A: it causes lymphoma
B: it causes chickenpox
C: it can go into a dormant state in dorsal root ganglia
D: it causes shingles
151.
Herpes simplex virus initially infects
epithelial cells.

152.
A drastic change in flu virus epitopes is referred to as
antigenic shift.
153.
There exist bacterial vaccines composed of all of the
following EXCEPT:
A: bacterial DNA.
B: whole bacteria.
C: bacterial toxins.
D: bacterial capsular polysaccharides.
154.
True or false: A vaccine composed purely of polysaccharide
invokes a strong T-cell-dependent B-cell response.
False
155.
Cow

"Vaccination" derives from a Latin word for

156.
In the DTP vaccine, the pertussis component also acts as
a(n)
adjuvant
157.
A subunit vaccine consists of
only the antigenic components of a virus.
158.
True or false: A secondary immune response benefits from
affinity maturation and isotype switching that occurred during the
primary immune response.
True
159.
As part of immunological memory, low levels of pathogenspecific Ab's are maintained by
plasma cells.
160.
A

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