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PD Group:

Name:

ANDERSON JUNIOR COLLEGE

JC2 PRELIMINARY EXAMINATIONS

9747/ 01

BIOLOGY
Higher 2
Paper 1 Multiple Choice

18 SEPTEMBER 2009
1 hours 15 minutes

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.
Do not use staples, paper clips, highlighters, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, class, NRIC and date on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided.
Shade your NRIC/ FIN number on the Answer Sheet (omit the alphabets).
Answer all the questions.
For each question, there are four possible answers, A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the Answer Sheet.

At the end of the examination, hand in the Answer Sheet and the answer booklet separately.
The number of marks is given in brackets [ ] at the end of each question or part question.

This document consists of 20 printed pages.

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There are forty questions in this section. Answer all questions.
For each question, there are four possible answers, A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice.
1

Most wild plants contain toxins that deter animals from eating them. A scientist discovered that a
toxin produced by a certain plant was also toxic to the same plant if it as applied to the roots of the
plant. As the first step on finding out why the plant was not normally killed by its own toxin, he
fractionated some plant cells and found that the toxin was in the fraction that contained the largest
cell organelle. He also found that the toxin was no longer toxic after it was heated. Which of the
following statements are consistent with the scientists observations?
I.
II.
III.
IV.
V.

The toxin was stored in the central vacuole.

The toxin cannot cross the membrane of the organelle in which it is stored.
The toxin was stored in chloroplast.
The toxin is likely to be lipid-soluble.
The toxin may be an enzyme.

I, II and V

I, IV and V

II, III and IV

III, IV and V

How do mitochondria differ from chloroplasts?

ATP is synthesiaed only in mitochondria.

DNA is found only in chloroplasts.

Membrane-bound enzymes are found only in mitochondria.

NADP is found only in chloroplasts.

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With reference to the figure above, which one of the following amino acids, with only the side
chains indicated, is likely to be found at any of the positions protruding from the peptide backbone
of the protein?

Arginine

Glutamate

Phenylalalnine

Serine

Rate of reaction

The following graphs show the activities of different enzymes (1-5) under different conditions:

(a)

20

40

60

80

100

Temperature

Rate of reaction

(b)

pH

Which statement is a correct explanation for the rate of reaction of different enzymes?
A

Kinetic energy of enzyme 3 and its substrate is fastest at 75C.

At pH 2, most of the R groups at the active site of enzyme 4 are all negatively charged.

At pH 8.1, substrate is bonded to the active site of enzyme 5 by hydrogen bonds only.

At 60C, several hydrogen bonds between R groups of enzyme 2 are broken.

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5

The diagram above shows a bivalent pair of chromosomes. Which of the following correctly
represents the final products of the second meiotic division?

The diagram shows anaphase I of meiosis.

Which diagram shows metaphase II as meiosis continues in this cell?

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7

Which of the following statements about the newly synthesized strand of a human chromatid is
correct?
A

It was synthesized from multiple origins solely on continuous DNA synthesis.

It was synthesized from multiple origins solely on discontinuous DNA synthesis.

It was synthesized from multiple origins by a mixture of continuous and discontinuous DNA
synthesis.

It was synthesized from multiple origins by either continuous or discontinuous DNA

synthesis, depending on which specific sister chromatid is being examined.

The base sequence within any short stretch of DNA can be determined in vitro using DNA
synthesis and gel electrophoresis. The key to sequence determination is the inclusion in the DNA
synthesis reaction, together with normal deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates (dNTPs), of
dideoxyribonucleoside triphosphates (ddNTPs) that terminate synthesis when incorporated.
Sequence analysis involves four different synthesis reactions, each of which contains the four
normal dNTPs and one of the ddNTPs this generates a family of fragments that extend varying
lengths but always end with the ddNTP that was included in the reaction.
Suppose a DNA fragment has been sequenced as shown below.

The correct base sequence corresponding to the pattern is

A

5 TTCCGGAAA 3

5 AGACTCAGT 3

5 TGACTCAGA 3

5 TCTGAGTCA 3

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9

For a double-stranded DNA, which of the following base ratios always equals 1?
(A + T) / (G + C)
(A + G) / (C + T)
C/G
(G + T) / (A + C)
A/G

I.
II.
III.
IV.
V.

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I and III

I, II and III

II, III and IV

III, IV and V

The following coding sequence is taken randomly from a bacterial genome.

3 TTACGCTTCGAAATAGGAATATCATAGGCT-5
Arg
Asp
Ile
Start
Stop

CGU, CGC, CGA, CGG, AGA, AGG

GAU, GAC
AUU, AUC, AUA
AUG
UAG, UGA, UAA

Leu
Lys
Phe
Ser
Tyr

UUA, UUG, CUU, CUC, CUA, CUG

AAA, AAG
UUU, UUC
UCU, UCC, UCA, UCG, AGU, AGC
UAU, UAC

This sequence is cloned into a plasmid and transformed into a suitable host. What would be the
first four amino acids of a peptide generated from this sequence as expressed by the host?

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Met-Arg-Ser-Phe

Met-Arg-Ser-Lys

Met-Ile-Phe-Leu

Met-Tyr-Lys-Asp

The figure below shows a sequence of reactions taking place in a bacterium in which amino acids
are produced from one another by the action of specific enzymes. Numbers 1-6 refer to different
amino acids; letters V to Z refer to different enzymes.

V
1

2
X

A mutant strain of this bacterium could only survive when provided with amino acids 1, 2 and 5 in
its culture medium. The original strain required only amino acid 1.

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Which enzymes did the mutant genes code for?

12

13

14

V and Z only

X and Y only

V, W and Z

X, W and Z

Which one of the following statement is correct?

During transcription, the template is read in a 3 5 direction.

During transcription, the template is read in a 5 3 direction.

During transcription, RNA is synthesized in the 3 5 direction.

During transcription, DNA is synthesized in the 5 3 direction.

During gametogenesis, non-disjunction occurs in one daughter cell during meiosis II. What would
be the result at the completion of meiosis?
A

All gemetes would be haploid.

Two gametes would be haploid and two will be diploid.

Two gametes would have (n+1) chromosomes and two would have (n-1) chromosomes.

One gamete would have (n+1) chromosomes, one would have (n-1) chromosomes and the
other two will have n chromosomes.

A mutation that makes the regulatory gene of an inducible operon non-functional would result in

continuous transcription of the operons genes.

reduced transcription of the operons gene.

accumulation of large quantities of a substrate for the catabolic pathway controlled by the
operon.
irreversible binding of the repressor to the promoter.

D
15

In E. coli, the production of enzymes for tryptophan synthesis is carefully controlled according to
the organisms metabolic needs. A mutation in the gene encoding the tryptophan repressor has
occured, such that the repressor can bind DNA without the co-repressor. What effect on enzyme
production can be expected under this condition?
A

Constitutive, high-level enzyme production

No enzyme production in the absence of tryptophan, high-level activity in the presence of

tryptophan

High-level enzyme production in the absence of tryptophan, no activity in the presence of

tryptophan

No enzyme production under any conditions

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16

IPTG is an analogue of lactose that binds to the lac repressor in the same fashion as allolactose.
However, it cannot be matabolised by -galactosidase. E. coli cells, which were grown in the absence
of lactose and glucose, were initially supplemented with IPTG. After 10 minutes, glucose was added
to the cells. 10 minutes later, cAMP was added to the cells. Which of the following graphs represents
the amount of lac operon mRNA during the time course of the experiment?

10

17

10

The tobacco mosaic virus has RNA rather than DNA as its genetic material. In a hypothetical
situation, RNA from a tobacco mosaic virus is mixed with proteins from a related DNA virus Z,
resulting in a hybrid virus. If this hybrid virus were to infect a cell and reproduce, what would the
resulting "offspring" viruses be like?
A

Tobacco mosaic virus

Virus Z

A hybrid virus with tobacco mosaic virus RNA and virus Z protein

A hybrid virus with virus Z DNA and tobacco mosaic virus protein

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18

The diagram below shows the reproductive cycle of the herpes virus which causes cold sores on
the mouth. With reference to the diagram below, which of the following statements best describes
the herpes virus?

viral
DNA

viral RNA
viral
proteins

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It is not a retrovirus as it does not contain RNA as its genetic material.

Its mode of replication is similar to that of HIV.

Its replication cycle does not include a lysogenic phase.

Death of the host cell is necessary for the release of the viral progeny.

When a researcher heated the segment of the DNA helix containing the five histones genes, only
the DNA sequences between these genes were denatured, revealing the location of the histonecoding regions. Which of the following best accounts for this observation?
A

Histones protect the DNA helix from denaturation.

Packaging of the DNA with histones strengthens base pair bonding.

The genes coding for histones are rich in adenine and thymine, while the DNA sequences
between them are rich in guanine and cytosine.

The genes coding for histones are rich in guanine and cytosine, while the DNA sequences
between them are rich in adenine and thymine.

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20

Nuclei from both the liver and brain cells of a rat are isolated and incubated with highly radioactive
ribonucleotides. The primary RNA transcripts synthesized in these nuclei become radioactively
labeled. These radioactive transcripts are incubated with single-stranded DNA (cDNA) molecules
complementary to an mRNA molecule found in liver cells but not brain cells. The RNA and DNA are
allowed to form RNA/DNA hybrids. An RNA-digesting enzyme is added to destroy RNA that is not in
hybrid form. Radioactivity in the remaining hybrids is measured as counts per minute.
The results are presented in the table below.
Incubation component
Liver cDNA probe + primary RNA transcripts
from liver cell nuclei
Liver cDNA probe + primary RNA transcripts
from brain cell nuclei

Counts per minute

15 000
150

Which of the following statements concerning the DNA sequence corresponding to the liver-specific
mRNA molecule is best supported by the data?

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It is transcribed in brain-cell nuclei only.

It is transcribed in both brain-cell and liver-cell nuclei at approximately the same rate.

It is transcribed in liver-cell nuclei but not transcribed in brain-cell nuclei.

It may be transcribed in both brain-cell and liver-cell nuclei but cannot be detected by this
experimental procedure.

The figure below shows 4 pedigrees. A shaded circle represents an affected female while a shaded
square represents an affected male.

Which pedigree(s) show(s) a sex-linked dominant trait in humans?

22

I only

I and III

II and III

III and IV

The coat colour of Norwegian cattle is mainly determined by the distribution of two pigments: red
and black. Both pigments are the action of the enzyme tyrosinase in cells called melanocytes. A
normal level of activity of the enzyme leads to the production of red pigment, whilst a high activity
allows only black pigment production. The activity of the enzyme is increased by melanocyte
stimulating hormone (MSH), which binds to an MSH receptor.
The receptor is coded for by the E locus, which has the three alleles, ED, EA and e.
ED is insensitive to protein A which blocks MSH receptor. EA is sensitive to protein A which blocks
MSH receptor. No receptor is produced by the recessive allele, e.

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The dominant allele of a second gene, the A locus, codes for a protein which binds to and blocks
the MSH receptor coded for by EA, thus preventing stimulation of tyrosinase activity in a
melanocyte.
What would be the coat colours of cattle with the following genotypes?

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eeAa

EAeaa

EDeAa

EAEAAa

Red

Black

Black

Red

Red

Black

Red

Red

Black

Red

Red

Black

Red

Red

Black

Black

The table shows the blood group phenotypes resulting from crosses between different genotypes.
Genotype of 2nd parent

Genotype of 1st parent

I I

IAIO

IAIO
IBIO

A
A and AB

A and O
A, B, O and AB

A A

Two parents have a son who has blood group A and phenylketonuria. One parent has blood group
O and the other has blood group AB. Neither parent has phenylketonuria. What is the probability
that the second child of these parents will be a girl with blood group B who does not have
phenylketonuria?

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1 in 16

1 in 8

3 in 16

3 in 8

The colouration of wild mice is controlled by two genes i.e. A/a and B/b. The allele A codes for the
ability to produce hair pigment and is completely dominant over the mutant allele a, which do not
code for any pigment. The allele B codes for the ability to produce hair with graduated colouration
(banded hairs) and is completely dominant over the allele b, which codes for hair that is all one
colour. The natural colouration of wild mice is called agouti these mice have banded hair with a
graduated colouration of black to brown. Black mice have totally black hair while albino mice have
uncoloured hairs.
Which of the following statements about the two genes and their effects in the colouraton of wild
mice is true?

The allele A is completely epistatic to the allele a and the allele B is completely epistatic to
allele b.
An agouti mouse may have the genotype aaBB.

An albino mouse must have the genotype aabb.

A black mouse must either have the genotype AAbb or Aabb.

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25

Which respiratory intermediate can be formed from the oxidation of fatty acids released by the
breakdown of lipids?
A

Acetyl coenzyme A

Hexose phosphate

Triose phosphate

-ketoglutarate

26

Which of the following indicates the correct locations at which stages P, Q and R occur in a cell?
Cristae

Cytosol

Matrix

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27

Calvin investigated the pathway by which carbon dioxide is converted to organic compounds
during photosynthesis. He used the apparatus shown in the figure below.

14

While the apparatus was in the dark room, Calvin supplied the algal cells with CO . The contents
2

of the apparatus were thoroughly mixed and the light was switched on subsequently. At fivesecond intervals, he released a few of the cells into hot alcohol, which killed the cells very quickly.
The intermediates of the Calvin cycle were subsequently analysed and the results were shown in
the following chromatograph.

Which of the following most likely identifies intermediates X, Y and Z?

X
Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate

Y
1-3-Bisphosphoglycerate

Z
3-Phosphoglycerate

3-Phosphoglycerate

1-3-Bisphosphoglycerate

Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate

Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate

3-Phosphoglycerate

1-3-Bisphosphoglycerate

1-3-Bisphosphoglycerate

3-Phosphoglycerate

Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate

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28

29

Some photosynthetic organisms contain chloroplasts that lack photosystem II, yet are able to
survive. The best way to detect the lack of photosystem II in these organisms would be
A

to determine if they have thylakoids in the chloroplasts.

to test for liberation of O2 in the light.

to test for CO2 fixation in the dark.

to test for production of either sucrose or starch.

Which of the following gives an accurate comparison between intracellular receptors and cell
surface receptors?
Intracellular receptors
A

B
C
D

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Cell surface receptors

Their ligands can be either water-soluble or Their ligands must be lipid-soluble because
lipid-soluble because they do not need to they need to bind with the cell membrane.
bind with the cell membrane.
All are single-pass transmembrane proteins
All are multipass transmembrane proteins.
They may bind to DNA and act as gene They may catalyze the phosphorylation of
regulators.
intracellular proteins.
None of them act as enzymes.
Some of them act as enzymes.

The diagram shows the membrane potential at an axon.

Which of the following statement is correct?

A

Between 0 to 10 msec, 3 smaller action potentials are generated.

B
C

At around 10 msec, a graded potential must have lead to the opening of all the sodium
channels in that part of axon.
At -70mV, there is no movement of ions across the membrane of the axon.

During the refractory period, the axon will not respond to any stimulus.

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31

The figure below shows the effect of impulses from neurons P and Q on the production of an
action potential in neurone A.

P
Q

P
Q

Which of the following best describes X and Y?

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IPSP

EPSP

EPSP

IPSP

Spatial summation

Temporal summation

Temporal summation

Spatial summation

The diagram below shows results from protein gel electrophoresis of five enzyme systems, adh,
mdh, idh, pgi and pgm from two different populations of Drosophila.

Which of these enzyme systems could be used as a genetic marker to study if there will be gene
flow between these populations?
A

mdh

adh

pgi

idh

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33

The diagram illustrates variation in the pericarp (fruit wall) for a variety of methods of seed
dispersal.

What do these examples illustrate?

A

The adaptive radiation of analogous structures showing convergent evolution.

The adaptive radiation of analogous structures showing divergent evolution.

The adaptive radiation of homologous structures showing convergent evolution.

The adaptive radiation of homologous structures showing divergent evolution.

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34

In some Australian insects, new species have arisen through changes that occurred to chromosomes
in an ancestral species. Such changes may involve the joining together of chromosomes, the loss of
whole or parts of chromosomes, and rearrangement of the genetic material within chromosomes. One
ancestral species has the following haploid set of chromosomes.

As the changes in chromosomes accumulate, a number of different species can result from a single
ancestral species. Three species that have evolved from the ancestral species shown above have the
haploid sets of chromosomes shown below.

The most likely order of evolution of these species is

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ancestral species, species G, species M, species Z.

ancestral species, species G, species Z, species M.

ancestral species, species M, species G, species Z.

ancestral species, species Z, species G, species M.

Digestion of a 4-kb DNA molecule with EcoRI yields two fragments of 1-kb and 3-kb each. Digestion
of the same molecule with HindIII yields fragments of 1.5-kb and 2.5kb. Finally, digestion with EcoRI
and HindIII in combination yields fragments of 0.5-kb, 1-kb and 2.5-kb. How would a restriction map
indicating the positions of the EcoRI and HindIII cleavage sites look like?

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36

As part of the procedure to produce recombinant proteins in E. coli, you are asked to insert the
gene encoding for the D-ONG protein into the pSEK-T vector. The restriction sites and selectable
markers on the vector are shown below.

Ampr

lacZ
Multiple
cloning site

pSEK-T
Vector

Nah I
Ptz II
Wyn II
AdrL II
Oli II
Eva II
Chk II
AriC II
AcmI III

If the gene for D-ONG protein were to be inserted into the multiple cloning site, what should be
added to the agar plate in order to screen for recombinant clones and how would the recombinant
clones appear?

A
B

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Chemicals to be added
Ampiciliin
X-gal
-galactosidase
X-gal

Colour of colonies
Blue
Blue

Ampiciliin

X-gal

White

-galactosidase

lactose

White

The genetically engineered super salmon was created from Atlantic salmon stocks and are
capable of growing to a large size in 14 months. Which of the following is not a benefit intended
from the crop?
A

Higher yield for farmers

Minimising pollution

Decreasing the food consumption of the crops in their lifetime

Increase in supply to meet worlds demand

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38

Nine skeletons were found in an unidentified grave. To establish the relationship between these nine
individuals, small amount of DNA were isolated from these skeletons and polymerase chain reaction
(PCR) was carried out. Genetic fingerprinting was then carried out on these DNA.
The chart shows some of the results obtained from the genetic fingerprinting of seven of the
skeletons, three children and four adults.

All the children on the chart had the same parents. Which of the following show the childrens
parents?

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Adult 1 and Adult 2

Adult 1 and Adult 3

Adult 2 and Adult 4

Adult 2 and Adult 3

Non-viral ex vivo transfer of a gene encoding coagulation factor VIII was performed using
fibroblast cells isolated from patients suffering from severe hemophilia A. What is the sequence of
events for the ex vivo transfer of the gene encoding coagulation factor VIII?
I.
II.
III.
IV.

Transfection with plasmids containing the gene encoding coagulation factor VIII
Implantation of cells into patients
Isolation of fibroblasts
Selection and cloning of cells expressing coagulation factor VIII

II, III, I, IV

III, I, IV, II

III, II, IV, I

III, IV, II, I

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40

The figure below illustrates how biotechnologists can make corn become resistant to infection by
European corn borer

Which statements correctly describe X and Y?

X

Bt Gene is isolated from Bacillus thuringiensis

with the help of restriction endonucleases.

Bt Gene is inserted into crop via

electrophoresis.

Bt Gene is isolated from Bacillus thuringiensis

with the help of restriction endonucleases.

Bt Gene is inserted into crop via

electroporation.

Bt Gene is isolated from Bacillus thuringiensis

with the help of restriction exonucleases.

Bt Gene is inserted into crop as a result of

infection by Agrobacterium tumefaciens.

Bt Gene is isolated from Bacillus thuringiensis

with the help of restriction exonucleases.

Bt Gene is inserted into crop as a result of

infection by Bacillus thuringiensis.