Master-at-Arms NAVEDTRA 14137B

NONRESIDENT
TRAINING
COURSE
Date: November 2014
Master-at-Arms
NAVEDTRA 14137B
S/N 0504LP1138873
Notice: NETPDTC is no longer responsible for the content accuracy of the NRTCs.
For content issues, contact the servicing Center of Excellence: Center for Security Forces (CENSECFOR);
(757) 462-2189 or DSN: 253-2189.
DISTRIBUTION STATEMENT A: Approved for public release; distribution is unlimited.
Although the words he, him, and his

are used sparingly in this course to enhance
communication, they are not intended to be
gender driven or to affront or discriminate
against anyone.
THE LINKS:
Links contained throughout this
manual are made to assist you in finding the specific
material quicker. Due to network speeds,
connectivity, file sizes and server settings, the
embedded links may not always open on your
computer. Chapter 10 contains the DoD and Service
web sites where the detailed references are
maintained.
Some links direct you to Navy Knowledge Online
(NKO). Hovering your mouse over the link will tell
you if the file is located on NKO or not. It is strongly
recommended that you log into NKO prior to clicking
on any links to facilitate in file downloads.
ii
PREFACE
By enrolling in this self-study course, you have demonstrated a desire to improve your
professional development and the Navy. Studying this course is only a small part of what
you need to enhance your professional development. Practical experience, selected
reading, and your desire to succeed are also necessary to successfully fully prepare
for the challenges that lay ahead.
THE MANUAL: This manual is organized into subject matter areas, each containing
learning objectives to help you determine what you should learn along with text and
illustrations to help you understand the information. The subject matter reflects dayto-day requirements and experiences of personnel in the rating or skill area. It also
reflects guidance provided by Center for Security Forces Learning Center and other
senior personnel, technical references, instructions, etc., and either the occupational or
naval standards, which are listed in the Manual of Navy Enlisted Manpower Personnel
Classifications and Occupational Standards, NAVPERS 18068.
THE QUESTIONS: The questions that appear in this course are designed to help you
understand the material in the text.
VALUE: In completing this course, you will improve your military and professional
knowledge. More importantly, it can also help you study for the Navy-wide
advancement in rate examination. If you are studying and discover a reference in the
text to another publication for further information, please look it up.
ACKNOWLEDGEMENTS: This course was prepared by the Center for Security
Forces (CSF) with the input and assistance of numerous Master-at-Arms, Security
Officers (6490/7490), and retired MA/SECO Subject Matter Experts. Input, review,
and endorsement was also provided by TYCOM security representatives. Without
their help, the production of this manual would have not been possible.
iii
Sailors Creed
I am a United States Sailor
I will support and defend the Constitution of the
United States of America and I will obey the orders
of those appointed over me
I represent the fighting spirit of the Navy and those who

have gone before me to defend freedom and democracy
around the world
I proudly serve my countrys Navy combat team with

honor, courage and commitment
I am committed to excellence and the fair treatment of all
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Table of Contents
CHAPTER
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
Page
Installation Security
Expeditionary Security ..
Shipboard Security .
Corrections ..
Strategic Weapons Facility
Strategic Aircraft .
Protective Service Detail ...
Staff Duty .
Weapons and Use of Force ..
Organization, Legal Issues, and Professional Training
1-1
2-1
3-1
4-1
5-1
6-1
7-1
8-1
9-1
10-1
SCOPE OF RATING:
Master-at-Arms (MA) provide waterborne and land security, aircraft and flight line
security, strategic weapons and cargo security, maritime security and platform
protection; conduct customs operations, corrections operations, detainee operations,
and protective service operations; perform antiterrorism, force protection, physical
security and law enforcement; organize and train personnel in antiterrorism, force
protection, physical security, law enforcement, and weapons proficiency; develop plans
for physical security and force protection enhancement of Navy bases, installations,
property, and personnel; and assist commands in conducting terrorist threat analysis
and implementing defensive measures.
The Master-at-Arms rating was established in 1973 for duties which were primarily
related to good order, discipline and safety. The MA rate saw its largest growth as
a result of the attack against the USS COLE and the September 11th terrorist
attacks on multiple targets, going from approximately 1,800 billets to over 10,000
billets. Today, the MA rate provides the Navy with trained professional security
forces in a variety of mission areas.
SPECIAL PHYSICAL REQUIREMENTS

Must have passed last two PRT cycles; have normal color perception, vision correction to
20/20 and normal hearing; no history of mental impairment or disorder, emotional
instability, alcoholism, drug abuse, or other physical condition that impairs the
performance of law enforcement and security duties.
CITIZENSHIP/SECURITY REQUIREMENTS
Must be eligible for access to classified information; must be a U.S. Citizen or Naturalized
Citizen; must be eligible for and obtain a secret clearance; must be worldwide assignable
IAW MILPERSMAN 1440-010
OTHER REQUIREMENTS
Must have valid U.S. Driver license; must not have any domestic violence
convictions (non-waiverable).
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vii
Chapter 1:
1.
a. Administration: Administration represents the machinery

by which an organization plans and accomplishes its assigned
responsibilities. In practice, administration is comprised of
certain fundamental elements including planning, organization,
command and control, and communications.
OPNAVINST 3120.32C Standard Organization and Regulations of the
U.S. Navy Chapter 1, Paragraph 110-160
(1) Organization Chart
NTTP 3-07.2.3, Chapter 2, Law Enforcement and Physical Security
for Navy Installations
b.
Positions and Responsibilities

(1) Security Officer (SECO). Responsible for the
overall management of a Security Detachment or Department.
Supervises the patrol and security function of an installation
1-1
AT/FP program including law enforcement, physical security,

antiterrorism, and force protection.
Manages Navy Security Force (NSF)
Directs commands security forces
Assists Antiterrorism Officer in developing AT plans, SOPs,
instructions and training plans
Assists commanding officer in maintaining good order and
discipline
Coordinates security requirements
Plans for changes to threat or FPCON
Develops Physical Security and Law Enforcement Plans
OPNAVINST 5530.14E, Navy Physical Security and Law Enforcement
Program
SECNAVINST 5530.4D, Navy Security Force Employment and
Operations
NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 3, Paragraph 3.5, Antiterrorism
NTTP 3-07.2.3, Chapter 2.4 & 3.3.2, Law Enforcement and Physical
Security for Navy Installations
(2) Assistant Security Officer (ASECO)/Precinct
Commander:
For security departments having a total combined
strength (military and civilian including contract security
personnel) of 100 or more personnel, an assistant security
officer/operations officer should be considered for assignment
to run the departments day to day operation. This allows the
security officer to be available for command duties, program
review, and coordination with other base elements; same duties
and responsibilities, tasks and functional areas as the Security
Officer apply.
(3) Antiterrorism Officer (ATO). The ATO develops and
manages the AT program, is the lead member on the Antiterrorism
Training Team, and manages AT/FP resources.
Develops and manages the AT Plan
Prepares, updates and implements AT/FP plans
Manages resources that may include watch stander gear,
security boats, nonlethal weapons, and inspection equipment
Oversees/manages AT/FP training as the head of the
commands Force Protection Training Team (FPTT)
/Antiterrorism Training Team (ATTT)
Review, plan, and analyze security and crises management
capabilities
OPNAVINST 3300.53B Navy Antiterrorism (AT) Program
1-2
SECNAVINST 3300.2B Department of the Navy (DON) Antiterrorism

(AT) Program
NWP 3-07.2 (Rev. A), Chapter 6, Navy Doctrine for
Antiterrorism/Force Protection
(4) Investigations/Protective Service. Investigators
conduct interviews/interrogations; conduct crime scene
management; collect, seize, preserve, document and store
evidence; conduct surveillance and counter-surveillance
operations, and conduct investigations on criminal matters.
Protective Service Personnel protect assigned personnel, inspect
buildings and travel routes, and plan protective service
missions.
Complete investigative reports
Conduct command authorized searches
Conduct crimes against persons/property investigations
Conduct suspect interviews and interrogations
Conduct victim and witness interviews
Respond to serious incidents
Conduct protective services for Very Important Personnel
(VIP) and High Risk Personnel (HRP)
Conduct protective service mission exercises, analysis and
planning
Identify and establish security measures along primary and
secondary travel routes
OPNAVINST 5530.14E Chapter 3 & 7, Navy Physical Security and Law
Enforcement Program
Manual for Courts-Martial United States 2012
NTTP 3-07.2.3, Appendix J, Law Enforcement and Physical Security
(5) Operations.
The jobs below will normally be found
within a shore Security Department.
OPNAVINST 5530.14E Chapter 5, Paragraph 0501, Navy Physical
Security and Law Enforcement Program
(a) Security Operations Officer. Responsible to the
Security Officer for the day to day operations and job execution
of units Security Forces providing law enforcement, physical
security, and force protection services.
OPNAVINST 5530.14E, Chapter 5, Paragraph 0501, Navy Physical
(b) Watch Commander. Responsible for supervising
all watch section responsibilities to include: Patrol, sentries,
1-3
emergency dispatcher and electronic security systems monitor,

harbor security, and the armory. This position is usually
assigned to senior member of watch team.
Conducts incident management
Coordinates assigned units in threat response
Manages and trains assigned security forces
Inspects posts to ensure proper security operations and
standards are maintained
NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 5, Paragraph 5.3.3, Antiterrorism
NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 6, Antiterrorism
NTTP 3-07.2.3, Chapter 3.3.4, Law Enforcement and Physical
(c) Patrol Supervisor. Responsible for mobile
supervision of patrols and sentries, and acts as back up relief
for the watch commander. Duties include:
Assisting Watch Commander in assigned duties
Conducts Post Inspections
Supervises mobile and fixed posts
(d) Patrol Officer. Patrol Officers are assigned to
positions with primary duties involving law enforcement. Law
enforcement operations can include detention, apprehension,
rights advisement, interview and interrogations, and preliminary
investigations. These duties may be in addition to Sentry
duties.
Administer breathalyzer and field sobriety tests
Advise military and civilian suspects of their rights
Apprehend military suspects
Conduct suspect interviews
Conduct suspect vehicle pursuits
Conduct victim and witness interviews and obtain written
statements
Establish crime scene
Obtain permissive search authorization
1-4

NTTP 3-07.2.3, Chapter 3.3.8 & Appendix B, C, E, K, L, M, N, R,
S, T & Y, Law Enforcement and Physical Security for Navy
Installations
(e) Sentry. A sentry is a person whose duties include
the requirement to maintain constant alertness, be vigilant,
and remain awake in order to observe for the possible approach
of the enemy, or to guard persons, property, or a place, and
to sound the alert, if necessary.
Control Access
Detect Surveillance
Detect, Track, and Assess Potential Threats
Report to the Chain of Command
Take Immediate Action to protect personnel/assets
NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 5, Paragraph 5.3.6 thru 5.3.8,
Antiterrorism
NTTP 3-07.2.3, Chapter 3.3.9 & Appendix B, D, H, K, L, O, Q, R,
S, T & Z, Law Enforcement and Physical Security for Navy
Installations
(f) Vehicle/Boat Inspector. Assigned to inspect
different types of vehicles including passenger vehicles,
commercial vehicles, and vessels. These duties may be performed
at a fixed location (i.e. inspection station) or as a mobile
team.
Verify credentials for access
Verify vehicle/vessel documents for authenticity
Operate screening and detection equipment
Operate Commercial Vehicle Inspection Station
NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 5, Paragraph 5.3.6 and 5.3.10,
Antiterrorism
NTTP 3-20.6.29 Chapter 6, Tactical Boat Operations
Installations
1-5
(g) Harbor Security Boat Coxswain. Normally in

charge of the security boat and its mission. Responsible for
the overall operation of security boat in situations where a
boat officer is not assigned.
Operate harbor security boat
Conduct suspect vessel pursuits
Maintain threat, warning and assessment security zones
NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 7, Paragraph 7.6 7.8, Antiterrorism
NTTP 3-20.6.29 Chapter 4-6, Tactical Boat Operations
Installations
(h) Harbor Security Boat Crew Member/Gunner. A
harbor security boat crewmember/gunner may be assigned to
positions whose duties include working as a member of a security
boat team, or manning a crew-served weapon to provide protective
fire during security boat operations.
Operate small arms and crew-served weapons
Use authorized warning shot tactics
Verify vessel credentials
Identify and track potential waterborne and subsurface
threats
Maintain threat, warning and assessment security zones
NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 7, Paragraph 7.6 7.7.10, Antiterrorism
Installations
(i) Emergency Dispatcher and Electronic Security
Systems Monitor. Provide link between the community and
emergency services, provide information to and dispatch
responding services, and monitor electronic security systems
used.
Monitor communication systems
Monitor electronic security systems
1-6
Analyze available information, prioritize available

resources and dispatch appropriate response forces
OPNAVINST 5530.14E Chapter 10 & 11, Navy Physical Security and
Law Enforcement Program
NTTP 3-07.2.3, Chapter 3.3.5, 5, Appendix C.4, M, N, Q, R, S, &
Y, Law Enforcement and Physical Security for Navy Installations
(j) Armory/AA&E Supervisor. Responsible for
security, safety, accountability, classification, maintenance,
requisitions, issuance, demilitarization and proper disposal of
arms and ammunition.
Conducts inventory of assigned weapons
Manages maintenance on assigned weapons
Tracks ammunition expenditure and initiates ammunition
requests when required
OPNAVINST 5530.13C Chapter 2 thru 4, Physical Security For Arms,
Ammunition and Explosives
OPNAVINST 3591.1F, Small Arms Training and Qualification
NTRP 3-07.2.2 Force Protection Weapons Handling Standard
Procedures and Guidelines
NTTP 3-07.2.3, Appendix B & K, Law Enforcement and Physical
(k) AA&E Custodian/Armorer. Maintains the security
unit armory or ready for issue room; conducts inspection of unit
assigned weapons, ammunition and storage spaces; performs
maintenance on unit issued and authorized weapons, armory and
range equipment; maintains records for arms and ammunition
accountability, requests necessary forms/logs pertaining to
mechanical functioning, maintenance, trouble shooting and field
repair; and maintains a master listing of all security unit
weapons and the assignment of those weapons.
(l) Military Working Dog (MWD) Handler (NEC: 2005).
The MWD Handler is trained to utilize an MWD for patrol,
explosive or drug detection in numerous types of security
operations and operations in support of real world events.
Maintains and documents all training proficiency for assigned
1-7
MWD assets. The MWD handler is responsible for the daily care
and grooming of his MWD and Kennel Facilities.
OPNAVINST 5585.2C Military Working Dog Manual
DoD Directive 5200.31E DoD Military Working Dog Program
NTTP 3-07.2.3, Chapter 2.5.3, Appendix B, C, D, G, H, K, L, N, Q,
R & S, Law Enforcement and Physical Security for Navy
Installations
(m) Kennel Supervisor/Kennel Master (NEC: 2005 or
2006). The Kennel Supervisor/Kennel Master exercises direct
leadership over the MWD units at their command and is
responsible to the security officer for managing and operating
the MWD kennels. The Kennel Supervisor/Kennel Master must know
the threats and vulnerabilities of resources being protected
by MWD teams and prepare local operating procedures and
instructions for team assignments. They must ensure assigned
MWD teams are skilled in their duties by implementing
realistic training and frequent proficiency trials. They must
ensure adequate provisions are made for the health, safety and
well-being of assigned MWDs.
Regional Kennel Master NEC: 2006. The regional kennel master
exercises managerial supervision over the MWD units in their
respective region and is responsible to the regional security
officer and fleet kennel master for managing the MWD units.
They must know the mission and develop short/long range
mission readiness requirements for each of the commands and
advise the regional commanders of the best use of MWD teams.
Installations
(n) Reaction Force Leader. Leads reaction forces.
May be a primary duty or a collateral duty while on
patrol/sentry posts. Tactically leads Reaction Force to
objectives.
Execute small unit tactics
1-8
Operate and manage multiple response teams

Plan and execute reaction force training
Installations
(o) Reaction Force Member. May be primary or
collateral duty. Primarily responds to heightened security
states including security alerts and incidents. Augments fixed
posts, covers withdrawal of forces, and conducts tactical
entries and clearing of ships, piers, and buildings.
Respond appropriately to a security alert/incident
Augment fixed posts
Cover Entry Control Point withdrawal
Conduct tactical movement to critical spaces/areas under No
Light, Low Light, and Bright Light conditions
Take immediate action while en route to an incident
Shoot while moving
Assess the tactical situation and make reports
Control entry and enforce perimeters
NTTP 3-07.2.3, Chapter 3.3.8, 5, Appendix B, K, L, Q, R, & T,
Law Enforcement and Physical Security for Navy Installations
(p) Chief of the Guard/Waterfront Security
Supervisor.
Responsible to the Watch Commander/Antiterrorism
Tactical Watch Officer for the proper operation of assigned
posts. Serves in supervisory/management position over assigned
posts.
Supervise Pier access and control
Operation of vehicle check points
Clearing barrel supervisor
Verify watch stander qualifications
Conducts security briefs
1-9
Inspects assigned posts and equipment

Antiterrorism
NTTP 3-07.2.3, Chapter 3.3.7, Appendix B, D, J, H, K, L, Q, R, S,
T, Law Enforcement and Physical Security for Navy Installations
(q) On-Scene Commander. Senior security operations
member at the scene of an incident, unless otherwise designated
by the Security Officer, who possesses the required tactical
skills.
NTTP 3-07.2.3, Chapter 3.3.10, Appendix B, F, G, K, L, N, Q, R,
T & Y, Law Enforcement and Physical Security for Navy
Installations
(r) Field Training Officer. The watch section field
training officer (FTO) is directly responsible to the patrol
watch commander for training purposes. Unless a patrol unit is
adequately manned to provide a person to act solely as the FTO,
the most qualified patrolman in the section will act in that
capacity.
Training focuses on patrol/law enforcement duties,
unless member is also qualified as an Antiterrorism Training
Supervisor or Non-Lethal Weapon Instructor. (Although not
required, it is recommended that FTO attends Security First
Responder Course (CIN S-830-0026)).
Train newly arriving personnel for patrol duties
Conduct required training for Patrol Section personnel
Manage and track Patrol Section PQS qualifications
OPNAVINST 5530.14E, Chapter 6, Navy Physical Security and Law
Enforcement Program
Manual for Courts-Martial, United States
(6) Training.
Manage the commands security and AT
training, the Field Training Officer (FTO), and Personnel
Qualification System (PQS) programs. Typically a graduate of
Antiterrorism Training Supervisor Course.
Plan, conduct, and assess security force drills
Coordinate training and security planning
Train security forces
Enforcement Program
OPNAVINST 3500.34F Personnel Qualification Standards Program
NTTP 3-07.2.1, Antiterrorism
1-10

NWP 3-07.2 (Rev. A), Navy Doctrine for Antiterrorism/Force
Protection
(7) Planner. Manages the commands Antiterrorism/Force
Protection program along with (or as) the Antiterrorism Officer.
Additionally, responsible for the day to day AT plan, and
vulnerability assessments for command.
Reviews, plans and analyzes command security and crises
management capabilities
Conducts vulnerability assessments
Helps determine operating budgets
Develops security requirements for new construction
Develops standard operating procedures, post orders and
memorandums of agreement
OPNAVINST 5530.14E Chapter 2, 4, 6, Appendix A, Navy Physical
(AT) program
Protection
NTTP 3-07.2.3, Chapter 4 & 5, Appendix N, O, P, R, U & W, Law
Enforcement and Physical Security for Navy Installations
(8) Evidence Custodian. Maintains, stores, processes,
inventories and transfers custody of evidence.
Maintains custody of evidence in secure environment
Reviews Chain of Custody document to ensure legal
admissibility of evidence is maintained
NTTP 3-07.2.3, Appendix G, H, I, J & V, Law Enforcement and
Physical Security for Navy Installations
(9) Special Events: Provide Security for Concerts, Air
shows and Military functions
(10) Train Shore Patrol parties.
c.
Orders / Procedures
(1) Status of Force Agreements (SOFAs):
1-11
Establish the rights and obligations of the U.S. and

Host Nations where our forces are stationed: Applicability of
Foreign Law to U.S. Ops, Authority for Forces to Enter/Depart
Host Nation (HN), Jurisdiction over offenses by U.S. Forces
(including civilians), Claims and taxation of U.S. Goods and
Materials.
U.S. is Party to almost 100 bi- and multilateral
SOFAs.
DoD Directive 5525.1 Paragraph 1, Status of Forces Policies and
Information
DoD Instruction 5525.03 Criminal Jurisdiction of Service Courts
of Friendly Foreign Forces and Sending States in the United
States
SECNAVINST 5820.4G Status of Forces Policies, Procedures, and
Information
(2) Post Orders. Post orders will specify the limits of
the post, the hours the post is manned, and the special orders,
duties, uniform, arms and equipment prescribed for members of
the security force and detail information for changes of all
FPCONs.
NTTP 3-07.2.3, Chapter 5, Appendix C, D, K, L, N, Q, R & S, Law
d. Forms and Reports. Forms for use can be found at
https://navalforms.documentservices.dla.mil/web/public/home,
http://www.dtic.mil/whs/directives/infomgt/forms/formsprogram.htm, and
in the FORMS section.
2. Ashore Installation/AT/FP Overview: Antiterrorism is the
defensive measures used to reduce the vulnerability of
individuals and property to terrorists acts to include limited
response and containment by local military forces. The
antiterrorism program is one of several security-related
programs that fall under the overreaching Force Protection and
Combating Terrorism programs. An antiterrorism program is a
collective effort that seeks to reduce the likelihood that
Department of Defense personnel, their families, facilities and
material will be subject to a terrorist attack, and to prepare a
response to the consequences of such attacks if they occur.
Deter Visible security measures to create a hard target
to disrupt terrorist cycle of operations through the use of
Random Antiterrorism Measures (RAM)
Detect Alert, well-trained, and well-equipped watch
standers armed with current intelligence to recognize and
report incidents of preoperational surveillance and track
potential threats.
1-12
Defend Measure and procedures commensurate with the

threat level; and based on a recent vulnerability
assessment; protect critical assets, capabilities,
infrastructure and personnel; and identify, classify, and
neutralize threats through well-rehearsed preplanned
responses.
Mitigate Measures and procedures that minimize
consequences of a terrorist attack.
Recover Measures that restore mission effectiveness.
NWP 3-07.2 (Rev. A), Navy Doctrine for Antiterrorism Force
Protection
NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 2.1, Antiterrorism
DoD Directive 2000.12 DoD Antiterrorism (AT) Program
DoD Instruction 2000.16 DoD Antiterrorism (AT) Standards
DoD Instruction 5200.08 Security of DoD Installations and
Resources
DoD O-2000.12-H, DoD Antiterrorism Handbook
OPNAVINST 3300.56 Navy Antiterrorism (AT) Strategic Plan
(SIPRNET ONLY)
(AT) Program
a.
Force Protection Conditions (FPCON) and Measures:

(1) FPCONs
(a) FPCON Normal Applies when a general threat of
possible terrorist activity exists and warrants a routine
security posture.
(b) FPCON Alpha Applies when there is an increased
general threat of possible terrorist activity against personnel
or facilities, the nature and extent of which are unpredictable.
FPCON Alpha must be capable of being maintained indefinitely.
(c) FPCON Bravo Applies when an increased or more
predictable threat of terrorist activity exists. Sustaining
FPCON Bravo measures for a prolonged period may affect
operational capabilities and relations with local authorities.
(d) FPCON Charlie Applies when an incident occurs or
intelligence is received indicating some form of terrorist action
or targeting against personnel or facilities is likely. Prolonged
implementation of FPCON Charlie measures may create hardship
and affect the activities of the unit and its personnel.
(e) FPCON Delta Applies in the immediate area
where a terrorist attack has occurred or when intelligence is
received that terrorist action against a specific location or
person is imminent. This FPCON is normally declared as a
1-13
localized condition. FPCON Delta measures are not intended to

be sustained for substantial periods.
(2) FPCON Measures. Specific measures shall be
developed by Commanders as part of their AT/FP plan which
details the required actions at each FPCON.
NWP 3-07.2 (Rev. A), Chapter 2.7, Navy Doctrine for
DoD O-2000.12-H, DoD Antiterrorism Handbook
Antiterrorism Force Protection for Naval Operations Commanders
Guide Rev A
DoDI 2000.16, Enclosure 4, DoD Antiterrorism Standards
b. Duties and Responsibilities of Auxiliary Security Force
(ASF). The ASF augments the installations permanent security
force during increased FPCONs or when directed by the host
installation commander.
CNICINST 5530.4, Auxiliary Security Force Instruction
c. Antiterrorism Protection Plan. Specific measures and
procedures to deter, detect, mitigate, and recover from
terrorist attacks will be developed based on careful analysis of
threat courses of action (see Figure 1-1 for a historical
summary of terrorist attack methods and events.) AT/FP should
be considered a Navy core competency and therefore a critical
part of every mission area. Planning for all operations should
include considerations for AT/FP in order to maintain the
readiness and effectiveness of Naval Forces.
NWP 3-07.2 (Rev. A) Chapter 5 & 6, Navy Doctrine for
1-14
d. Antiterrorism Training Team (ATTT)/Force Protection

Training Team (FPTT).
(1) ATTT/FPTT, headed by the ATO, has three functions:
(a) Conducts individual and team training for the
commands security forces and unit personnel
(b) Plans and conducts command antiterrorism
exercises to include the following functions:
Initiate scenarios and respond to watchstander
actions
Role play commands such as higher authorities
or adjacent units
Record and critique watchstander and team
performances
Ensure exercises are conducted safely
(c) Continuously assesses the commands AT program,
plans, and exercises.
NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 3, Paragraph 3.4.1 & 3.4.2, Antiterrorism
NAVEDTRA 43387-2E, 306 Antiterrorism Training Team Member, AT
Common Core
e. Inspections. Chief of Naval Operations Integrated
Vulnerability Assessment (CNOIVA), Joint Staff Integrated
Vulnerability Assessment (JSIVA). Discrepancies and corrections
logged into Core Vulnerabilities Assessment and Management
Program (CVAMP). Accessed through Antiterrorism Enterprise
Portal on SIPRNET.
1-15
NWP 3-07.2 (Rev. A) Chapter 5, Paragraph 5.2, Navy Doctrine for

NTTP 3-07.2.1 Appendix C, Antiterrorism
3. Ashore Installation/Physical Security. Navy wide Physical
Security programs address the protection of personnel and
property (as such it is inseparably intertwined, but not
exclusively limited to, AT/FP). Such protection is accomplished
by identifying the property requiring protection, determining
jurisdiction and boundaries, assessing the threat, and
committing resources. The physical security program is defined
as the part of security concerned with active and passive
security measures designed to prevent unauthorized access to
personnel, equipment, installations, material and documents, and
to safeguard them against espionage, sabotage, damage, and theft.
Program
NTTP 3-07.2.3, Chapter 5, Appendix C, D, K, L, N, Q, R & S, Law
a. Installation/Asset Critical Infrastructure
Responsibilities:
(1) Physical Security Division personnel are the primary
installation asset who identify any and all possible
discrepancies and maintain all outer and interior perimeters,
fencing, water security barriers, traffic control portable
barriers, fixed barriers, hydraulic barriers, lighting systems,
Security vehicles, Harbor Patrol Vessels, Entry Control Points,
surveillance equipment, Security weapons storage alarm systems,
duress alarms, and all Sentry structures.
(2) The Physical Security Department may be tasked with
the repair and or the funding of all vital installation security
infrastructure assets and equipment.
b. Physical Security Surveys. Local survey conducted
annually which updates the command on what needs protecting,
what security measures are in effect, what needs improvement,
and provides a basis for determining security priorities.
OPNAVINST 5530.14E Chapter 2, Navy Physical Security and Law
Enforcement Program
NWP 3-07.2 (Rev. A) Chapter 5, Paragraph 5.2, Navy Doctrine for
NTTP 3-07.2.3, Chapter 5, Appendix O & U, Law Enforcement and
1-16
c.
Additional Surveys
(1) AA&E Survey

(2) Residential Survey
(3) Barracks Survey
(4) MWR Facilities upon request
(5) Flight line
(6) Harbor
(7) Crime Prevention Survey
(8) Lighting Survey
Program
Protection
NTTP 3-07.2.3, Law Enforcement and Physical Security for Navy
Installations
d. Access Control/Pass and ID. Regional and Installation
commanders shall develop a system of personnel and vehicle
movement control in accordance with the sensitivity,
classification, value and operational importance of the area and
the requirements of OPNAVINST 5530.14 (series). These
regulations include a process for removal of, or denying access
to, persons who are not authorized or represent a criminal
threat. Clearly define the access control measures required to
safeguard facilities and ensure accomplishment of the mission.
These measures will be identified in installation AT plans, and
will be included in applicable departmental Rules, Regulations
and Procedures (RRP).
OPNAVINST 5530.14E Appendix A, Paragraph 7, Navy Physical
OPNAVINST 5560.10B, Standard Procedures For Registration And
Marking Of Non-Government Owned Motor Vehicles
Installations
The following are some of the access control procedures which
may be used.
Installations
(1) During Heightened Force Protection Conditions,
access control is tightened and limited access measures are in
place. Installation-specific guidance will be contained in the
Anti-Terrorism Plan.
1-17
(2) Automated Entry Control Systems (AECS) operated

gates to be activated by security personnel at the ECP, or from
an emergency dispatch center, or by a card/badge reader using
either contact or preferably contactless technology.
(3) Closed Circuit Television (CCTV) with the capability
to display full-facial features of a driver (pedestrian) and
vehicle characteristics on the monitor at the security emergency
dispatch center.
(4) An intercom system located in a convenient location
for a driver/pedestrian to communicate with the ECP sentry or
security emergency dispatch center.
(5) Bollards or other elements to protect the security
booth and gates against car crash.
(6) Sensors to activate the gate, detect vehicles
approaching and departing the gate, activate a CCTV monitor
displaying the gate, and sound an audio alert in the emergency
dispatch center.
(7) Signs to instruct visitors and employees.
(8) Water Boundaries: Water boundaries present special
security problems. Such areas should be protected by barriers
and marked with appropriate signage. In addition to barriers,
patrol craft shall be used at activities whose waterfronts
contain critical assets. In inclement weather, such patrols
cannot provide an adequate degree of protection, which may be
supplemented by increased waterfront patrols, watchtowers, MWD
teams, and other appropriate waterside security systems.
e. Key and Lock Control Program. Navy activities have
established key and lock control program for all keys, locks,
padlocks and locking devices used to meet security and loss
prevention objectives.
NTTP 3-07.2.3, Appendix P.7, Law Enforcement and Physical
4.
Ashore Installation Training:

Training consists of various personnel who have obtained the
Navy Enlisted Classification Codes (NECs) of 9501 (Training
Supervisor), 9502 (Journeyman Instructor), 0812 (Small Arms
Instructor), and 0814 (Crew Served Weapons Instructor). This
1-18
division is responsible for the overall training and

qualification system at each location. They manage various
programs throughout the command and ensure update guidance and
orders are available for those performing in the field. The
following lists the duties and responsibilities of the training
division.
OPNAVINST 1500.75A Safety Policy And Procedures for Conducting
High-Risk Training
Enforcement Program
NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 3, Paragraph 3.4, Chapter 6, Antiterrorism
NAVEDTRA 43387-2E, Antiterrorism Common Core PQS
a.
Training/Planner Supervisor:
(1) Long Range Training Plan

Coordinate and implement Long Range Training Plan.
This is designed to document the quarterly and annual training
to be conducted.
(2) Recording Security and Law Enforcement Training
Enforcement Program
(3) Annual Training
Required to conduct annual training and refresher
training to individuals in various areas to meet the commands
mission. Examples of: CPR, BLS, breathalyzer usage, AT Level I,
Annual sustainment training, etc.
Enforcement
5. Schools. The following schools may be required based on
your command mission. For quotas, prerequisites, and other
school information, log into CANTRAC Volume II.
a. U.S. Navy Master-at-Arms A School (CIN A-830-0011).
The student will receive training and be tested on AntiTerrorism, Force Protection and Basic Law Enforcement to include,
but not limited to: Pier Sentry, Harbor Security, Force
Protection Conditions, Physical Security Safeguards, Tactical
Team Communications and Movements, Apprehension, Search and
Seizure, Use/Application of Force as they pertain to the duties
of a U.S. Navy Security Force Member. The student must obtain an
academic score of 80% or better to successfully pass the course
1-19
and must attain firearms proficiency with the M9 Service pistol,

M500 shotgun, M16 rifle, and M60 medium machine gun as per
OPNAVINST 3591.1 (Series). This course is designated as highrisk IAW OPNAV 1500.75 Series.
b. Military Police Investigator (NEC 2002) (CIN A-832-0001).
Academic instruction is provided in the subjects of
investigative skills, military law, crime lab support, physical
evidence, testimonial evidence, investigating drug offenses,
reporting, special operations and supplementary examinations.
c. Military Working Dog Handler (NEC 2005) (CIN A-830-0019).
Trains selected Master-at-Arms and DoD personnel in the
knowledge and skills needed for patrol and detector dogs.
Training includes search techniques in buildings, aircraft,
vehicles, warehouses, and open areas. Also includes maintenance
of dogs' proficiency, legal aspects of searches, security and
procurement of drug training aids, maintenance of kennels and
equipment, explosives safety, and procurement and security of
explosive training aids.
d. Military Working Dog Kennel Master (NEC 2006) (CIN A830-0009).
Provides training in manpower, disease prevention,
first aid, care of dog kennel and equipment, training and
utilization, procurement, reports, forms and records, principals
of conditioning, veterinarian support services, and inspection
procedures.
e. Small Arms Marksmanship Instructor (NEC 0812) (CIN A041-0148).
Provides Naval personnel the training required to
perform the duties of a Small Arms Instructor for rifles,
pistols, and shotguns. This course supports unit level small
arms qualification and skills sustainment. Topics addressed
during this course include safety, the use of deadly force,
weapons characteristics and operation, fundamentals of
marksmanship, range management and teaching techniques.
f. Crew Served Weapons Operations and Maintenance Course
(CIN A-041-0013). To provide Naval personnel (E5-E9) in all
ratings with the technical knowledge and skills at the mastery
level necessary to operate, maintain, and train the fleet on the
Browning .50 Caliber M2 Machine Gun, the MK 19 Mod 3 Machine Gun,
the M240 Series Machine Gun, the M60 Machine Gun as well as
selected Night Vision Electro-Optics at all ashore facilities
and aboard all ships afloat under all conditions of readiness.
This course is a pre-requisite for the Crew Served Weapons
Instructor course.
1-20
g. Crew Served Weapons Instructor (NEC 0814) (CIN A-8302215). The Crew Served Weapons (CSW) Instructor course is
designed to give personnel the training necessary to qualify
command anti-terrorism (AT) watch standers as a crew-served
weapons operator and the ability to assist the AT Training
Supervisor in developing and conducting AT exercises, CSW
Casualty control drills, and tactical employment CSW training.
h. Navy Security Force Sentry (CIN A-830-2216) Taught by
qualified Antiterrorism Training Supervisors (NEC 9501).
Teaches basic sentry skills, to include weapons handling and
non-lethal weapons. When taken with Security Reaction Force
Team Member Basic (below), constitutes the Armed Sentry
Course/Security Reaction Force Basic course of instruction.
i. Security Reaction Force Team Member Basic
(CIN A-8302217) Taught by qualified Antiterrorism Training Supervisors
(NEC 9501). Teaches basic tactical individual and team
movements.
When taken with Navy Security Force Sentry (above),
constitutes the Armed Sentry Course/Security Reaction Force
Basic course of instruction.
j. Armed Sentry/Security Reaction Force - Basic (ASC/SRF:B)
(CIN A-830-0018) Teaches basic sentry skills and individual and
team tactical movements.
k. Security Reaction Force Advanced (CIN A-830-0396).
Educates and trains crew members assigned to Security Reaction
Force related duties to protect their unit, its mission, and its
crew members whether pier side, at sea, or at an air facility
from acts of terrorism or sabotage. Team members will learn how
to deal with potential threats whether from the pier, small boat,
or any other means from penetrating a unit under emergency
conditions by utilizing proper reaction force measures and
tactical team movements.
l. Non-Lethal Weapons (NLW) Basic Instructor (CIN A-8300035). Provides the NLW Basic Instructor the necessary
knowledge and skills to instruct individuals in non-lethal
weaponry principles, procedures, and techniques that fall within
acceptable guidelines of the "Use of Force" continuum; to
include unarmed self-defense skills, Close Range Subject Control
(CRSC) techniques, and safe employment and use of both the
intermediate weapon (baton) and Oleoresin Capsicum (i.e., OC and
Pepper Spray).
1-21
m. Antiterrorism Training Supervisor (AT TRASUP) (NEC 9501)

(CIN A-830-0034). Provides the designated AT Training
Supervisor for afloat and ashore units with the knowledge and
skills required for delivery of entry and sustainment level
security force training to Navy personnel, and to assist with
FPTT/ATTT duties, to include armed sentry watch standing
procedures, Non-Lethal Weapons (NLW) employment, and Security
Reaction Force (SRF) response procedures. This course is
designed to instill the level of knowledge, skills, and
abilities required to effectively oversee and assess daily AT
security force training and unit readiness to defend against
potential terrorist operations in an asymmetrical environment.
Graduates of this course will serve as advisor to the AntiTerrorism Officer (ATO) and will assist the ATO in matters
concerning the units FPTT/ATTT. This is a supervisory course
enhancing unit level training.
n. Antiterrorism Officer (CIN J-830-0015). This course is
required for those Navy commissioned officers and enlisted E-7
and above and DoD equivalent civilians/contractors assigned as
Anti-Terrorism Officers (ATO). This course provides instruction
in the U.S. Navy and DoD Antiterrorism programs as described in
OPNAVINST 3300.55, and DODINST 2000.16. Course includes the
process for and development of comprehensive antiterrorism plans,
AT program management, assessments and execution.
o. Naval Security Force Officer (Ashore/Afloat NSFO) (CIN
A-7H-0007).
This course will provide the designated
Installation Security Officer/Law Enforcement Officer and Ships
Security Officer for afloat and ashore units with the necessary
knowledge and skills to manage Naval Security Force (NSF) assets,
determine AT/FP readiness status, implement, organize and
oversee all NSF/AT/FP and Law Enforcement policy changes.
Provides unit level initial and sustainment training for
assigned NSF/AT/FP personnel and functions as the NSF Officer in
Charge. The Security Officer will be able to organize, train
and equip the NSF to conduct AT/FP/Law Enforcement operations.
The Security Officer assists the Antiterrorism Officer (ATO) in
developing and executing the AT/FP plans.
p. Security First Responder Course (CIN S-830-0026). The
Security First Responder Course is designed to provide the
patrol officer responding to various law enforcement/crisis
situations on Naval installations with effective techniques for
dealing with such situations. Some major topics include: Use of
Force, Building Searches, Domestic Violence, Apprehension,
Serious Incident Response, and Crimes in Progress.
1-22
q. Navy Physical Security Course (CIN A-830-0001). Course

addresses naval physical security and law enforcement subjects
that include equipment, training, personnel/vehicle movement
control, loss prevention, M-L-S-R, physical security surveys,
use of force, antiterrorism and protection of DoD personnel,
search and seizure, bomb search, evidence, ICR/UCR, emergency
vehicle policy, investigations, military working dog policy and
crime prevention.
r. Level II Coxswain Operations and Tactics (CIN A-0620050). The Level II Coxswain Operations and Tactics course is
designed to train qualified coxswains in the advanced skills
necessary to operate high-speed security boats while serving as
a member of the Maritime Expeditionary Security Force (MESF).
Tactical boat operations include interdiction, screening,
herding, two-, three-, and four-boat patrols, anti-swimmer
techniques, vessel escorts, and security zone defense around
shipping and other objects designated as vital to national
security. Day and night underway evolutions are conducted on
various security craft and the course culminates in a final
battle problem involving multiple high-speed opposing force
craft.
s. Ammunition Supply Administration (CIN A-041-0040). The
student will learn the knowledge, skills and proper procedures
necessary to record and manage ammunition assets. Training
includes the generation and management of records relating to
requisitions, receipts, issues, expenditures, inventory
management and control, Notice of Ammunition Reclassifications
(NARS), ammunition reporting, and other pertinent technical
safety information.
t. Surveillance Detection (CIN S-830-0046). This course is
designed to provide training to Installation Naval Security
Forces and personnel assigned to Antiterrorism/Force Protection
duties. In Surveillance Detection; allowing commands to develop
and implement a comprehensive Surveillance Detection Program. To
train Surveillance Detection personnel how to conduct detailed
target analysis and to provide the necessary skill sets to setup
and conduct overt surveillance detection operations, comply with
DoD standardized reporting procedures, and deter, detect, and
disrupt future attacks. Topics addressed in this course include
Surveillance Detection Program overview, Terrorist Surveillance
Methods, Surveillance Detection Techniques, Developing a
Surveillance Assessment Matrix, conducting a Target Analysis,
1-23
Operational Planning and Surveillance Detection Reporting. There

are three practical exercises and two case studies as well.
u. Emergency Vehicle Operators Course (EVOC)
(Local/Regional). This course is designed to train licensed
personnel to operate an emergency vehicle (EV) in varying
circumstances and conditions. Covers legal topics relating to
EV operation, physical factors that affect EV operation, and
vehicle specific requirements. Qualification requires
successful navigation through tight turns and maneuvers while
operating an EV under simulated emergency conditions.
v. Emergency Vehicle Operators Course (EVOC) Instructor
(CIN A-493-0203). The course is a set of activities/topics in
the classroom and on the driving range which cover: Emergency
Vehicle Operation, Due Regard while Operating an Emergency
Vehicle, Concepts of Managing Visibility and Time, Classroom and
Range Procedures, Adult Learning Techniques, Driving Range set
up, Testing techniques, Certification/Re-certification Process
and Risk related to the driving task.
w. Basic Instructor (NEC 9502) (CIN A-012-0043). The
course provides training on communicative skills, learning
process, questioning techniques, human relations, instructional
system development process, preparation and use of training
documents, instructional aids and materials, and student
measurement, administration, and counseling. Students plan,
develop, and present lessons using the lecture and demonstration
or performance methods of instruction.
6.
Qualifications
The qualifications listed below do not include core Sailor
PQS (i.e. Damage Control, Deck Watches, and 3M) appropriate with
rank.
a.
b.
c.
Antiterrorism Tactical Watch Officer (NAVEDTRA 43385-9)

301 Antiterrorism Watch Officer
Antiterrorism Common Core (NAVEDTRA 43387-2E)
301 Sentry
302 Reaction Force Member
303 Reaction Force Team Leader
304 Antiterrorism Training Supervisor
305 Chief of the Guard
306 Antiterrorism Training Team Member
307 Antiterrorism Officer
Security Force Weapons (NAVEDTRA 43466-D)
(Varies depending on specific duties)
1-24
d.
Small
301 302 303 -
Boat Operations (NAVEDTRA 43152-F)

Bow Hook and Stern Hook
Small Boat Engineer
Small Boat Coxswain/Rigid Hull Inflatable Boat
(RHIB) Coxswain
304 - Rigid Hull Inflatable Boat (11m RHIB) Coxswain
305 - Small Boat Officer
7. Critical Task List. These skills were designated as critical

tasks required by CNIC, BUMED and NETWARCOM.
This list is
not all inclusive, and individual commands may have additional/less
tasks.
8. Master-at-Arms Occupational Standards (OCCSTDS) Functional
Areas. The following areas in the MA OCCSTDS apply to the
Installation Security mission area:
Law Enforcement Operations
Security Operations
1-25
Chapter 2:
1.
Expeditionary Security
Expeditionary Security
NECC Forces
Current capabilities
Key: (Total)
USFFC
(AC/RC/CIV)
Future capabilities
[IA / ILO/ADHOC]
NECC
Riverine
1NCD
EOD
(712)
(15339)
(2482)
(6557)
(6394/8945)
(2198/293)
(2506/4051)
COMCAM
NAVELSG
NEGB
(591)
NEIC
(357)
(85)
(3607)
(246/59/4)
(49/36)
(359/3248)
MCAG
ETC
ECRC
(431)
(75)
(110)
(191/240)
(50/25)
(66/44)
[~5000-7500]
MESF
EXP Medical
Navy Expeditionary Logistics Support Group

(NAVELSG)
First Naval Construction Division (1NCD)

Explosive Ordnance Disposal (EOD)
Navy Expeditionary Guard Battalion (NEGB)
Maritime Expeditionary Security Force (MESF)
Maritime Civil Affairs Group (MCAG)
Navy Expeditionary Intelligence Command (NEIC)
Expeditionary Training Command (ETC)
Combat Camera (COMCAMLANT)
Expeditionary Combat Readiness Center (ECRC)
Adaptive, Responsive, Expeditionary
NECC
Back
a.
Naval Expeditionary Combat Command

(1) First Naval Construction Division:
(a) Provides contingency construction support to

include:
2-1
Forward operations base construction and operation

Bridge and airfield construction/repair
Fleet hospital set up and operations
Security, Stabilization, Transition, and Reconstruction
Operations (SSTRO)
Humanitarian Assistance & Disaster Relief
(2) Navy Expeditionary Logistics Support
Worldwide expeditionary logistics

Provides support for:
o Port and air cargo handling missions
o Customs inspections
o Contingency contracting
o Fuels distribution
o Freight terminal and warehouse operations
o Postal services
o Ordnance reporting and handling
(3) Explosive Ordnance Disposal Group
Special Operations
Fleet operations with CSG, ESG, and shore stations
Force Protection
Mine Countermeasures
2-2
(4) Naval Coastal Warfare Group/Maritime Expeditionary

Security Force
Scalable and sustainable security teams capable of

defending mission-critical assets in worldwide near-coast,
in-shore, and embarked environments
Provide maritime and in-shore surveillance, security,
antiterrorism, ground and afloat defense, Visit, Board,
Search & Seizure (VBSS) Level III and C4I support in
harbors and ports
Wide range of secondary tasks from detention operations to
law enforcement
(5) Riverine Group:
Combat arms force provides maritime operations in rivers

and waterways
Denies terrorists use of the maritime environment as venue
for attack or for illegal purposes
Ensures continuance of legitimate trade
Keeps lines of communications open
2-3
(6) Maritime Civil Affairs Group
Assess, plan and coordinate civil/military operations in

the maritime environment
o Major combatant and non-combatant evacuations
o Maritime operations
o Humanitarian assistance and disaster relief
o Refugee operations
Regionally aligned and focused
Host nation interagency coordination
U.S. Country Team coordination
(7) Expeditionary Training Command
Provides timely, focused, and customized maritime

capabilities training at host nation request
Increases global maritime security capabilities
Increases host nations capacity to govern and protect
themselves
Supports Global Maritime Partnership concept
2-4
(8) Expeditionary Combat Readiness Center
Train, equip, certify, deploy, and redeploy IA In-Lieu-Of,

and Ad Hoc forces
Provide administrative oversight and reach-back functions
Conduit of information for family members
Provide support network
Ensure critical and appropriate training
Warrior Transition
(9) Combat Camera
Operations support
o Counterterrorism
o Psychological operations
o Information operations
2-5
o Battle damage assessment

o Force protection
o Public affairs
Medical support
Investigative support
Historical documentation
Intelligence gathering support
(10) Expeditionary Intelligence
Provide flexible, capable, and ready maritime expeditionary

intelligence forces
Maritime Interdiction Operations Intelligence Exploitation
Team (MIO-IET)
Navy HUMINT Teams (NHT)
Expeditionary Intelligence Support Element (EISE)
2-6
b.
Battle Space Interoperability
NECC Battlespace
Adaptive, Responsive, Expeditionary
AdaptiveAdaptive,, Respon
sponssiveve,,
NECC
ECC
Expeditio
Expedition
nary
c.
Maritime Expeditionary Security Force

(1) Mission Areas
(a) Small Craft Operations:

Mission Description - Units conduct force protection of
strategic shipping and naval vessels operating in the
inshore and coastal areas, anchorages and harbors, and from
bare beach to sophisticated port facilities. Missions
could include Visit, Board, Search and Seizure (VBSS), High
Value Asset (HVA) escorts, point defense, harbor approach
and harbor defense, coastal surveillance, and Search and
Rescue Support.
NTTP 3-20.6.29M Small Craft Operations Page 1-5
NTTP 3-20.6.29M, Chapter 4, Small Craft Operations
NTTP 3-10.1, Naval Coastal Warfare Para 1.5.1
(b) Embarked (Vessel) Security Teams:

Mission Description - 12-man Embarked Security Teams
provide protection for Military Sealift Command (MSC) ships
and their civilian crews as they ferry food, equipment, and
other supplies to troops throughout the world.
2-7
NTTP 3-10.1, Chapter 9, Naval Coastal Warfare

(c) Sea Raven:
Mission Description - The Sea Raven program ensures an
acceptable level of close-in security for aircraft
transiting airfields where security is unknown, or
additional security is needed to counter local threats.
NTTP 3-10.1 Chapter 6, Naval Coastal Warfare
AFI 31-104, Chapter 1, USAF Raven Program
(d) Forward Operating Bases (FOB):
Mission Description - A Forward Operating Base (FOB) is any
secured forward position used to support tactical
operations.
A FOB may/may not contain an airfield,
hospital, or other facilities. The base may be used for an
extended period of time. FOBs are traditionally supported
by main operating bases that are required to provide backup
support to them. A FOB also reduces reaction time and
increases time on task to forces operating from it.
Joint Forward Operations Base Force Protection Handbook
Joint Contingency Operations Force Protection Handbook
(e) Convoy Security Elements
1. Mission Description: To provide security
for a convoy in transit through potentially hostile zones
against unknown enemy forces.
2.
Team Composition
a. Convoy Commander
b. Lead Vehicle Commander
c. Vehicle Commander
d. Driver/"A" driver
e. CSW Operator
f. Designated Marksman
g. Combat Life Saver
h. Litter Carriers
i. Landing Zone Team
j. Assault Team
k. Recovery Team
l. Gun Trucks
m. Security Personnel
NTTP 4-01.3, Chapter 1, Tactical Convoy Operations
(f) Helo Vessel Boarding Search and Seizure (HVBSS)
2-8
1. Mission Description: Maritime boarding

actions and tactics designed to capture enemy vessels; to combat
terrorism, piracy and smuggling; and to conduct customs, safety,
and other inspections as employed by modern navies, marine and
maritime services, military and police forces.
2.
Team composition
a. Officer-in-Charge/Boarding Officer
b. Assistant Boarding Officer
c. Designated Marksman (DM)
d. Boarding Squad Leaders
e. Coxswain
f. Boat Engineer
g. Breachers
h. Boarding Team Members
i. Hospital Corpsman
j. Intelligence Officer
k. Supply (Logistics)
l. Communications Specialist
m. Operations Specialist
NTTP 3-07.11 Maritime Interception Operations
COMNAVSPECWARCOMINST 3000.3B, Air Operations Manual
(g) Detainee Operations:
Mission Description - Provide for the treatment, care,
accountability, legal status, and administrative procedures
for Enemy Prisoners of War, Civilian Internees, Retained
Persons, and Other Detainees.
OPNAVINST 3461.6 - Enemy Prisoners of War, Retained Personnel,
Civilian Internees, and Other Detainees
(h) Special Events:

Mission Description - Provide point defense security for
all designated events requiring the specialized training,
equipment, and defensive tactics contained within MESF.
Events including Fleet Weeks, Ship and Submarine
commissioning and decommissioning ceremonies, air shows,
VIP visits, and high profile facility closures.
(2) Equipment
(a) Boats
1. 25 ft Oswald Class Secured Around Flotation
Equipment (SAFE) Boat
(S9008-ES-BIB-010)
2-9
2.
34 ft Dauntless SeaArk
S9008-DZ-BIB-010
3.
11 Meter Zodiac RHIB Boat

S9008-FP-BIB-010
4.
27 Ft IBU Gen I Security Boat
2-10
5. 32 Ft IBU Gen II Security Boat

(Kingston Class)
6.
39 Ft Small Unit Riverine Craft
NTTP 3-20.6.29M, Small Craft Operations
2-11
(b) Communications. Mobility is one of the keys to

success on the modern battlefield. All communications must be
geared to support a combat force that must repeatedly move to
survive and fight the enemy. The single-channel radio is the
primary means of communication for command, fire control,
exchange of information, administration, and liaison between and
within units. The versatility of radio communications makes it
readily adaptable to rapidly changing tactical situations. Radio
is essential for communications over large bodies of water,
territory controlled by enemy forces, and terrain where the
construction of wire lines is impossible or impractical. It is
also required for air assault operations.
FIELD MANUAL FM 24-18 Tactical Single-Channel Radio
Communication Techniques / Para 1-1
The following radios are commonly utilized by Naval
Expeditionary Forces.
1. Hand Held Radios.
PRC-148
XTS-5000
2.
PRC-152
PRC - 117 Radios
2-12
3.
PRC - 150 Radios
Army Radio Telephone Operator Handbook

NTTP 6-02.2 Joint Service Communications
Allied Communications Publication 125F
(c) Expeditionary forces utilize a variety of
equipment to accomplish their mission specific tasks. Unit
equipment or Tables of Allowance (TOA) may be viewed utilizing
the below link.
UNIT TOAs
Once you have navigated to the link, select ABFCVIEW only, then
select the ABFC/TOA link on the left hand side of the web page.
You will then be able to select a unit from the menu and view
their equipment by title, NSN, quantity, and price. As you
select facility, assembly, and NSN tabs you will receive more
detailed data.
(3)
Operational Positions
(a) Tactical Supervisor (TACSUP): The watch section

is overseen by the TACSUP in the Operations Center. The
TACSUPs primary responsibility is big picture management of
the tactical situation. The TACSUP reports directly to the
Mission Commander.
NTTP 3-07.2.1, Chapter 5, Antiterrorism/Force Protection
(b) Chief of the Guard (COG): Chief of the
Guard/Waterfront Security Supervisor. Responsible to the Watch
Commander/Antiterrorism Tactical Watch Officer for the proper
operation of assigned posts. Serves in supervisory/management
position over assigned posts.
Verify watchstander qualifications.
Conduct security briefs
Inspect assigned posts and equipment
2-13

Antiterrorism
Procedures and Guidelines, Paragraph 1.4, 2.3, 3.3, 4.3, 5.3,
and 6.3
(c) Reactionary (React) Team: The Reactionary Team
responds to security threats, augments and reinforces sentries
on post to deter and defend against threats. They provide riot
control, weapons support, counter-surveillance, and command and
control support. A Reactionary Team member may be a primary or
collateral duty. Primarily responds to heightened security
states including security alerts and incidents. Augments fixed
posts, covers withdrawal of forces, and conducts tactical
entries and clearing of ships, piers, and buildings.
Augment fixed posts
Shoot while moving
(d) Patrol Leader: The Patrol Leader exercises
local control of assigned small boats and associated personnel
and reports directly to the TACSUP.
(e) Coxswain: The boat coxswain has ultimate
responsibility for his craft and crew, including the employment
of crew-served and personal weapons aboard the craft. Normally
in charge of the security boat and its mission. Responsible for
the overall operation of security boat in situations where a
boat officer is not assigned.
2-14
Maintain threat, warning, and assessment security zones

NTTP 3-20.6.29M Chapter 4-6, Tactical Boat Operations
NTTP 3-07.2.3, Appendix B, C, D, J, H, L, O, R, S & Z, Law
(f) Engineer: The Engineer is responsible for the
operations, care, and maintenance of all propulsion, auxiliary
machinery, damage control, communication systems, electrical,
and electronic devices.
(g) Crewman/gunner: All crewmen have look-out
responsibilities as well as being assigned as a gunner. Gunners
are responsible for the operation and maintenance of craft
weapons and weapons employment against threats.
NTTP 3-20.6.29M Chapter 4-6, Tactical Boat Operations
NTTP 3-07.2.3, Appendix B, C, D, J, H, L, O, R, S & Z, Law
2-15
d.
Riverine Force
(1) Force Structure:
Pre-Decisional Draft Working Papers
Command Relationships
CFFC
COCOM
NECC
NCC/JFMCC
Riverine Group One *

(Riverine Task Group)
Riverine Group One
River Squadron 1
River Squadron 2
ADCON
OPCON
River Squadron 3 Deployed River Squadron(s)
Three (AC) squadrons meet current theater requirement of one

squadron deployed within OPNAV PERSTEMPO, and supports a
full FRTP and short duration engagement (TSC) missions.
TACON as determined by mission.
*RIVGRU deployed based on size and complexity of mission.
4
United States Fleet Forces
Operational Readiness, Effectiveness, Primacy
(2) Mission Areas: Serve as a ready force for the Joint

Forces Maritime Component Commander. Each Riverine Squadron
(Active Component) consists of specially designed craft
configured to operate in a hostile riparian environment. Water
crafts will have multiple crews for near continuous operations
and lift capacity for a small tactical unit. Manning, training,
and equipment will support operations against a Level II threat
and include organic Command, Control, Communications, Computers
and Intelligence, Force Protection, and Logistics.
2-16
(3) Equipment
(a) Riverine Patrol Craft (RPC) SURC
(b) Riverine Assault Craft (RAC) SOC-R
(c) Riverine Command Boat (RCB)
2-17
e.
Expeditionary Training Group (ETG)
(1)Mission Areas:
Primarily a staff command which
develops, manages, and provides adaptive force packaged staff
training. Coordinate delivery of common team training;
integrate NECC Force Participation in Joint/Fleet Exercises.
Provide centralized support to, and coordination of, training
services from outside the enterprise.
(2) Manning: Master-at-Arms will primarily serve in the
Training Branch and is responsible for developing standardized
exercise and certification procedures for common tasks.
Develops and conducts training for AT/FP Staffs.
f.
Expeditionary Training Command (ETC)

(1) Force Structure:
(2) Mission Areas: ETC will deliver to a worldwide

audience maritime expeditionary core capability training and
instruction in the areas of naval construction, maritime civil
affairs, maritime expeditionary security, riverine,
expeditionary logistics, explosive ordnance disposal, mobile
diving and salvage, naval coastal warfare, and skill sets
external to NECC. The goal will be to complement efforts of
U.S. forces across the full spectrum of military operations.
2-18
This mission will be carried out by teams of ETC personnel with

the subject matter expertise to train foreign audiences at a
basic to intermediate level. ETCs mission is to provide
training in foreign locations and give local nationals the
expertise to govern and protect themselves and their areas of
responsibility (AOR) from enemies. The training will target
foreign country military, civil, and security personnel.
(3) Equipment:
ETC equipment inventory mirrors MESF.
(4) Training: Language Training, Cultural Competency,

Instructor Training, Advisory Skills Training and other advanced
Subject Matter Expertise (SME) related training.
(5) Manning: ETC is comprised of subject matter related
training teams to support Weapons, Patrol Craft Operations,
VBSS/MIO, ATFP, Maritime Security, Construction/Maintenance and
Leadership/Professional Development.
g. Mission Planning
MCWP 3-11.2, Appendix C, Marine Rifle Squad
(1) BAMCIS
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
(f)
Begin planning
Arrange for the reconnaissance
Make the reconnaissance
Complete the plan
Issue the order (implementing the training)
Supervise (supervising and evaluating the
performance)
(2) Employ the troop leading steps BAMCIS:
(a) Begin planning
1.
Plan use of available time
2. Begin analyzing the operational mission,

including factors such as:
a.
The mission
b.
Information concerning the enemy
c.
The terrain and weather
2-19
d.
Information about troops
e.
Available fire support
3. Formulate a preliminary plan of action for

accomplishing the mission.
(b) Arrange for reconnaissance and coordination.
1.
Arrange for where, when, and how unit will
be moved.
2. Prepare a schedule for reconnaissance, as
time and situation permit.
3. After the platoon commanders briefing, make
arrangements to coordinate with adjacent unit leaders, leaders
of supporting units, and other unit leaders as necessary.
(c) Make a reconnaissance.
1.
Continue the estimate of the situation.
2.
Complete terrain analysis to include:

a.
Key terrain
b.
Observation and fields of fire
c.
Cover and concealment
d.
Obstacles
e.
Avenues of approach
3.
preliminary plan.
Note the effects of the terrain on the
4.
Reject, adopt, and alter the plans, as
necessary.
(d) Complete the plan.
1.
Review the preliminary plan.
2.
Prepare notes to use when issuing the order.
3.
Use the following to make final decisions:
2-20
a.
Routes of approach
b.
Location and strength of available squad
c.
Where the enemy will be located
d.
Method of attack
security
(e) Issue the order

1.
Brief the subordinate leaders on the
2.
Issue the order, to include:
terrain.
a.
Description of the situation

(1) Enemy forces
(2) Location and mission of friendly
forces
(3) Unit attachments and detachments
b.
Brief statement of the mission
c.
Execution of the mission
d. Instructions and information pertaining

to administration and logistics
e.
f.
execution of the order
Commands and signals

Coordinate the supervision of the
(f) Coordinate and issue guiding instructions to

ensure the mission is accomplished correctly and on time.
MCWP 3-11.2, Appendix C, Marine Rifle Squad
h.
Execution
(1) Mobility
(a) Load Planning
2-21
(b) Inventory
(c) Theater and Diplomatic Clearances
(2) Security Plans
(a) Status of Forces Agreement
(b) Rules of Engagement
(c) Structural Assets
(d) Manpower/Defensive Fighting Positions
(e) Support (Medical, Water, Sanitation)
(3) Convoy Operations
(a) Gun Trucks/Armament
(b) Route
1. Waypoints
2. Safe havens
3. Threats
(4) Mission Operations
(a) Security
1.
Site Establishment
a. Perimeters
b. Defensive Positions
c. Entry Control Point(s)
2.
Random Antiterrorism Measures
(5) Retrograde/Return to Base

i. Schools. The following schools may be required based on
your platform type. For quotas, prerequisites, and other school
information, log into CANTRAC Volume II.
(1) Navy Security Force Sentry (CIN A-830-2216). Taught
by qualified Antiterrorism Training Supervisors (NEC 9501).
2-22

(2) Security Reaction Force Team Member Basic (CIN A830-2217).
Taught by qualified Antiterrorism Training
Supervisors (NEC 9501). Teaches basic tactical individual and
team movements. When taken with Navy Security Force Sentry
(above), constitutes the Armed Sentry Course/Security Reaction
Force Basic course of instruction.
(3) Armed Sentry/Security Reaction Force - Basic
(ASC/SRF:B) (CIN A-830-0018). Teaches basic sentry skills and
individual and team tactical movements.
(4) Security Reaction Force Advanced (CIN A-830-0396).
crew members; whether pierside, at sea, or at an air facility;
to deal with potential threats; whether from the pier, small
boat, or any other means of penetrating a unit; under emergency
(5) Non-Lethal Weapons (NLW) Basic Instructor (CIN A830-0035).
Provides the NLW Basic Instructor the necessary
acceptable guidelines of the "Use of Force" continuum, to
(CRSC) techniques and safe employment, and use of both the
Pepper Spray).
(6) Antiterrorism Training Supervisor (AT TRASUP) (NEC
9501) (Course Identification Number A-830-0034). Provides the
designated AT Training Supervisor for afloat and ashore units
with the knowledge and skills required for delivery of entry and
sustainment level security force training to Navy personnel, and
to assist with Force Protection Training Team (FPTT) duties, to
include armed sentry watchstanding procedures, Non-Lethal
Weapons (NLW) employment, and Security Reaction Force (SRF)
response procedures. This course is designed to instill the
level of knowledge, skills, and abilities required to
effectively oversee and assess daily AT security force training
and unit readiness to defend against potential terrorist
operations in an asymmetrical environment. Graduates of this
2-23
course will serve as advisor to the Anti-Terrorism Officer (ATO)

and will assist the ATO in matters concerning the units FPTT.
This is a supervisory course enhancing unit level training.
(7) Small Arms Marksmanship Instructor (NEC 0812) (CIN
A-041-0148). Provides Naval personnel the training required to
marksmanship, range management, and teaching techniques.
(8) Crew Served Weapons Operations and Maintenance
Course (CIN A-041-0013). To provide Naval personnel (E5-E9) in
all ratings with the technical knowledge and skills at the
mastery level necessary to operate, maintain, and train the
fleet on the Browning .50 Caliber M2 Machine Gun, the MK 19 Mod
3 Machine Gun, and the M240 Series Machine Gun, as well as
selected Night Vision Electro-Optics, at all ashore facilities
This course is a prerequisite for the Crew Served Weapons
Instructor course.
(9) Crew Served Weapons Instructor (NEC 0814) (CIN A830-2215).
The Crew Served Weapons (CSW) Instructor course is
command anti-terrorism (AT) watchstanders as a crew served
weapons operators, and provide them with the ability to assist
the AT Training Supervisor in developing and conducting AT
exercises, CSW Casualty control drills, and tactical employment
CSW training.
(10) Antiterrorism Officer (CIN J-830-0015). This
course is required for those Navy commissioned officers and
enlisted E-7 and above and DoD equivalent civilians/contractors
assigned as Anti-Terrorism Officers (ATO). This course provides
instruction in the U.S. Navy and DoD Antiterrorism programs.
Course includes the process for and development of comprehensive
antiterrorism plans, AT program management, assessments and
execution.
(11) Naval Security Force Officer (Ashore/Afloat NSFO)
(CIN A-7H-0007). This course will provide the designated
knowledge and skills to manage Naval Security Force (NSF)
2-24
assets, determine ATFP readiness status, and implement,

organize, and oversee all NSF/ATFP and Law Enforcement policy
changes. Provides unit level initial and sustainment training
for assigned NSF/ATFP personnel and functions as the NSF Officer
in Charge.The Security Officer will be able to organize, train
and equip the NSF to conduct ATFP/Law Enforcement operations.
developing and executing the ATFP plans.
(12) Correctional Specialist Navy Ashore (NEC 9575) (CIN
A-831-0001). To provide selected Petty Officers with a working
knowledge of the principles, theories, and practices which are
required for the administration, operation, and supervision of
Navy Brigs/Correctional Custody Units.
(13) Non-Compliant Boarding, Visit Board Search Seizure
(VBSS) Team Member (CIN A-830-0395). This course trains VBSS
Team Members to safely board and search a non-compliant vessel
while maintaining control over crew members. This course is
designed to train an entire team together in the operation of
specialty VBSS equipment, operations, tactics and techniques.
(14) Visit, Board, Search and Seizure (VBSS) Boarding
Officer (CIN A-2E-0085). Prepare the VBSS Boarding Officer
(BO), Assistant Boarding Officer (ABO), Security Team Leaders
(STL), Liaison Officer and Intelligence Specialist (IS) to plan,
execute, and teach the biometrics collection/equipment and
debrief VBSS Procedures (Compliant and Non-Compliant Low
Freeboard) in support of Maritime Interception Operations (MIO).
(15) Visit, Board, Search and Seizure (VBSS) Breacher
(CIN A-830-0022). Prepares selected surface ship VBSS team
personnel to perform mission planning and target analysis duties
as a mechanical breacher, utilizing appropriate breaching tools
and techniques against various target sets in support of
Maritime Interdiction Operations (MIO) Visit, Board, Search and
Seizure (VBSS) procedures for Non-Compliant Low Freeboard.
(16) Customs Border Clearance Agent Afloat (CIN J-5510050). Defines procedures, responsibilities, and outlines
customs and certain agricultural inspection and entry
requirements to eliminate the introduction of narcotics, drugs,
and other contraband into the United States through DoD
channels. This course follows guidelines set forth in DoD
5030.49R.
2-25
(17) Expeditionary Combat Skills (CIN: A-830-0030). The

Expeditionary Combat Skills (ECS) course is designed to provide
eligible personnel with basic expeditionary combat skills
training necessary to professionally and safely perform high
risk security operations when assigned to Navy Expeditionary
Combat Command (NECC) organizations. This course will provide
NECC personnel with the necessary individual knowledge, skills
and abilities to perform Basic Expeditionary First Aid, don and
wear Individual Combat Equipment (ICE) and CBR gear, function
safely in a field and CBRNE environment, learn basic Land
Navigation, understand basic radio communications procedures and
reports, understand Counter-Improvised Explosive Devices (C-IED)
operations, and conduct range live fire, missions, and
ammunition handling safely with minimum risk. The ECS course
will allow personnel to demonstrate, qualify and become
comfortable with both primary and secondary weapons. Students
will perform basic movement while engaging targets,
transitioning from primary to secondary weapon, executing
vehicle emergency egress procedures, and conducting live-fire
exercises in a controlled environment. Additionally, students
will become familiar with the psycho/physiological effects
induced during deadly force or life threatening confrontations
and measures to effectively minimize their impact on engagement
decision making during Judgment-Based Engagement Training (JET).
(18) Riverine Crewman (CIN: A-062-0052). To provide
Riverine Crewmembers instruction on safety, navigation,
communications, operator maintenance, high speed maneuvering and
handling, weapons and weapons employment, tactical boat
operations and other individual and collective skills unique to
riverine crafts operating in a riverine environment.
(19) Level II Coxswain-Operations and Tactics (CIN: A062-0050). To train qualified coxswains in the advanced skills
a member of the Maritime Expeditionary Security Force actively
providing security zones around shipping and other objects
designated as vital to national security.
j. Qualifications
rank.
(1) Antiterrorism Tactical Watch Officer (NAVEDTRA
43385-9)
2-26
(2) Antiterrorism Common Core (NAVEDTRA 43387-2E)

301 Sentry
(3) Security Force Weapons (NAVEDTRA 43466-D)
(4) Small Boat Operations (NAVEDTRA 43152-F)
301 - Bow Hook and Stern Hook
302 - Small Boat Engineer
303 - Small Boat Coxswain/Rigid Hull Inflatable Boat
(RHIB) Coxswain
(5) Tactical
301 - Craft
302 - Craft
303 - Craft
304 - Craft
305 - Craft
Craft Operations (NAVEDTRA 43911)

Crewman
Engineer
Navigator / Telecommunications Officer
Coxswain
Patrol Leader
k. Critical Task List. These skills were designated as

critical tasks required by NECC. This list is not all
inclusive, and individual commands may have additional/less
tasks.
l. Master-at-Arms Occupational Standards (OCCSTDS)
Functional Areas. The following areas in the MA OCCSTDS apply
to the Installation Security mission area:
Security Operations
Corrections and Detainee Operations
2-27
Chapter 3:
Shipboard Security
1.
Shipboard Security
Responsible for law enforcement, physical security, and AT
for the activity to which assigned. Navy Security Force primary
mission and purpose is to conduct operations and maintain
readiness to deter, defeat, and defend against criminal and
terrorist activities in order to defeat and mitigate the effects
of such activities on designated assets, installations, and
facilities.
Also, they shall maintain and support a lawful,
orderly, and safe operating environment. NSF shall protect
life, property, and information; enforce laws, rules,
regulations, and statutes; deter, detect, delay, deny, disrupt,
and defeat criminal and enemy activity; and prevent theft and
other losses caused by fire damage, accident, trespass,
sabotage, espionage, etc.
a. Administration (Shipboard). Organizational positions and
relationships vary depending on platform type. COMNAVSURFOR
ships follow the NTTP 3-07.2.1 organizational charts (below).
3-1
Commanding Officer
ATO/
Security
Officer
(649x/749x)
ATTWO
OOD
Shipboard
POOW
Fixed/Roving
Post
Reaction
Force
Leader
Chief of
the
Guard
SRF
Picket
Boat
Contact
Sentry
BRF
RF
Cover
Sentry
Landward
Fixed/
Roving
Post
COMNAVAIRFOR commands (carriers) follow the CNAFINST 3300.53A

command structure (below) based on the position of the Security
Officer (either as a Department Head or as a Division Officer).
SECURITY OFFICER AS DEPARTMENT HEAD
3-2
SECURITY OFFICER AS DIVISION OFFICER
CNAFINST 3300.53A, Antiterrorism Program

b. Positions and Responsibilities
(1) Sentry. A sentry is a person whose duties include
the requirement to maintain constant alertness, be vigilant, and
remain awake in order to observe the possible approach of the
enemy; or to guard persons, property, or a place; and to sound
the alert, if necessary.
Control Access
Detect Surveillance
Detect, Track, and Assess Potential Threats
Report to the Chain of Command
Take Immediate Action to protect personnel/assets
Antiterrorism
3-3

Enforcement Manual
Installations
(2) Patrol Officer (May only be applicable on larger
platforms).
Patrol Officers are assigned to positions whose
primary duties involve law enforcement. Law enforcement
operations can include detention, apprehension, rights
advisement, interview and interrogations, and preliminary
investigations. These duties are normally assigned in addition
to Sentry duties.
Administer field sobriety tests
Advise military and civilian suspects of their rights
Apprehend military suspects
Conduct suspect interviews
Conduct victim and witness interviews and obtain written
statements
Establish crime scene
Secure the scene of an incident and protect/collect
evidence
Obtain permissive search authorization
Enforcement Program
NTTP 3-07.2.3, Chapter 3.3.8 & Appendix B, C, E, K, L, M, N, R,
S, T & Y, Law Enforcement and Physical Security for Navy
Installations
(3) Vehicle/Boat Inspector. Assigned to inspect
different types of vehicles including cars, commercial vehicles,
and vessels. These duties may be performed at a fixed location
(i.e. inspection station) or as a mobile team.
Verify credentials for access
Verify vehicle/vessel documents for authenticity
Operate screening and detection equipment
Operate Commercial Vehicle Inspection Station
Antiterrorism
Enforcement Program
3-4

Installations
(4) Harbor Security Boat Coxswain. Normally in charge
of the security boat and its mission. Responsible for the
overall operation of security boat in situations where a boat
officer is not assigned.
Installations
(5) Harbor Security Boat Crew Member/Gunner. A harbor
security boat crewmember/gunner may be assigned to positions
whose duties include working as a member of a security boat team
or manning a crew-served weapon to provide protective fire
during security boat operations.
Operate small arms and crew-served weapons
Use authorized warning shot tactics
Verify vessel credentials
Identify and track potential waterborne and subsurface
threats
NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 7, Paragraph 7.6 7.7.10, Antiterrorism
Installations
(6) Emergency Dispatcher and Electronic Security Systems
Monitor (May only be applicable on larger platforms). Provide
link between the community and emergency services, provide
information to and dispatch responding services, and monitor
electronic security systems used.
Monitor communication systems
3-5
Monitor electronic security systems

Analyze available information, prioritize available
resources, and dispatch appropriate response forces
OPNAVINST 5530.14E Chapter 5, 10 & 11, Navy Physical Security
and Law Enforcement Program
(7) Armory/AA&E Supervisor. Responsible for security,
safety, accountability, classification, maintenance,
requisitions, issuance, demilitarization and proper disposal of
arms and ammunition.
Conducts inventory of assigned weapons
Manages maintenance on assigned weapons
Tracks ammunition expenditure and initiates ammunition
requests when required
(8) AA&E Custodian/Armorer. Maintains the security unit
armory or ready for issue room; conducts inspection of unit
assigned weapons, ammunition, and storage spaces; performs
maintenance on unit issued and authorized weapons, armory, and
range equipment; maintains records for arms and ammunition
accountability; requests necessary forms/logs pertaining to
mechanical functioning, maintenance, trouble shooting, and field
repair; and maintains a master listing of all security unit
weapons and the assignment of those weapons.
(9) Reaction Force Leader. Leads reaction forces. May
be a primary duty or as a collateral duty while on patrol/sentry
posts. Tactically leads Reaction Force to objectives.
Execute small unit tactics
3-6
Operate and manage multiple response teams

Plan and execute reaction force training
Installations
(10) Reaction Force Member. May be primary or collateral
duty. Primarily responds to heightened security states
including security alerts and incidents. Augments fixed posts,
covers withdrawal of forces, and conducts tactical entries and
clearing of ships, piers, and buildings.
Augment fixed posts
Shoot while moving
(11) Watch Commander (May only be applicable on larger
platforms).
Responsible for supervising all watch section
responsibilities to include: Patrol, sentries, emergency
dispatcher and electronic security systems monitor, harbor
security, and the armory. This position is usually assigned to
senior member of watch team.
Conducts incident management
Coordinates assigned units in threat response
Manages and trains assigned security forces
3-7
Inspects posts to ensure proper security operations and

standards are maintained
(12) Chief of the Guard. Responsible to the Watch
Commander/Antiterrorism Tactical Watch Officer for the proper
operation of assigned posts. Serves in supervisory/management
position over assigned posts.
Verify watch stander qualifications
Conduct security briefs
Inspect assigned posts and equipment
Antiterrorism
(13) On-Scene Commander. Senior security operations
member at the scene of an incident who possesses the required
tactical skills, unless otherwise designated by the Security
Officer.
NTTP 3-07.2.3, Chapter 3.3.10, Appendix B, F, G, K, L, N, Q, R,
T & Y, Law Enforcement and Physical Security for Navy
Installations
(14) Security Operations Officer (May only be applicable
on larger platforms). Responsible to the Security Officer for
the day to day operations and job execution of units Security
Forces providing law enforcement, physical security,
antiterrorism, and force protection services.
(15) Patrol Supervisor (May only be applicable on larger
platforms).
Responsible for mobile supervision of patrols and
sentries and acts as back up relief for the watch commander.
Duties include assisting Watch Commander in assigned duties.
3-8
Conducts Post Inspections

Supervises mobile and fixed posts
(16) Antiterrorism Training Supervisor (AT TRASUP NEC
9501)/Field Training Officer. Manage the command security and
AT training, the Field Training Officer (FTO), and Personnel
Qualification System (PQS) programs. Typically a graduate of
Antiterrorism Training Supervisor Course. The watch section
field training officer (FTO) is directly responsible to the
patrol watch commander for training purposes. Unless a patrol
unit is adequately manned to provide a person to act solely as
the FTO, the most qualified patrolman in the section will act in
that capacity.
Plan, conduct, assess security force drills
Coordinate training and security planning
Train security forces
Train newly arriving personnel for patrol duties
Conduct required training for Patrol Section personnel
Manage and track Patrol Section PQS qualifications
Enforcement Program
ATG Tactical Scenario Exercise Guide
COMNAVSURFORINST 3502.1D, Chapter 3, Section 1, Tab C, Surface
Forces Training Manual
OPNAVINST 3500.34F Personnel Qualification Standards Program
Protection
(17) Command Investigator. Investigators conduct
interviews/interrogations; conduct crime scene management;
collect, seize, preserve documents and store evidence; conduct
surveillance and counter-surveillance operations; and conduct
investigations on criminal matters.
Complete investigative reports
Conduct command authorized searches
Conduct crimes against persons/property investigations
3-9
Conduct suspect interviews and interrogations

Conduct victim and witness interviews
Respond to serious incidents
Enforcement Program
NTTP 3-07.2.3, Appendix J, Law Enforcement and Physical Security
Manual For Courts-Martial United States
(18) Antiterrorism Officer (ATO). The ATO develops and
manages the AT/FP program, is the lead member on the Force
Protection Training Team, and manages AT/FP resources.
Develops and manages AT Plan
Prepares, updates, and implements AT/FP plans
Manages resources that may include watchstander gear,
security boats, nonlethal weapons, and inspection equipment
Oversees/manages AT/FP training as the head of the
commands Antiterrorism Training Team (ATTT)/Force
Protection Training Team Member (FPTT)
Review, plan, and analyze security and crises management
capabilities
OPNAVINST 3300.53B Navy Antiterrorism Program (SIPRNET ONLY)
SECNAVINST 3300.2B Department of the Navy Antiterrorism Program
CNSFINST 3300.1B, Antiterrorism/Force Protection Program
NWP 3-07.2 (Rev. A), Navy Doctrine for
Antiterrorism/ForceProtection
(19) Antiterrorism Tactical Watch Officer (ATTWO). The
ATTWO tactically employs command assets to defend the unit
against terrorist attack when in port, similar in function to
the tactical action officer when underway. When in port at a U.S.
Navy installation, the ATTWO coordinates integration of waterborne
and shoreside AT/FP assets into installation security forces.
The COG and other potential watchstanders, such as security
boats, report to the ATTWO.
Analyzes threats
Directs security forces
Manages security posture of ship
3-10
(20) Independent Duty Master-at-Arms. Manages the

command AT and Force Protection program, trains security forces,
plans and conducts security force drills, assesses security
force capabilities, conducts vulnerability assessments,
tactically deploys security assets to neutralize threats,
conducts investigations, processes crime scenes, manages the
command physical security and law enforcement program, and
conducts customs inspections. (See AT Training Supervisor NEC
9501)
Develop and conduct Reaction Force and Ships Self Defense
Force training
Develop and conduct non-lethal weapon training
Develop Pre-Planned Responses
Monitor and train armed watchstanders
Act as security Subject Matter Expert
Liaison with other law enforcement agencies
Manage and conduct law enforcement functions
Develop Law Enforcement and Physical Security plans
Program
NTTP 3-07.2.1, Antiterrorism
NTRP 3-07.2.2, Force Protection Weapons Handling Standard
DoDD 2000.12 Dated August 18, 2003, DoD Antiterrorism Program
DoDI 2000.16 Dated October 2, 2006, DoD Antiterrorism Standards
DoD O-2000.12H, DoD Antiterrorism Handbook
NTTP 3-07.2.3, Chapter 4 & 5, Appendix N, O, P, R, U & W, Law
(21) Security Officer (SECO). Responsible for the
overall management of a Security Detachment or Department.
Supervises the patrol and security function of a commands AT/FP
program including law enforcement, physical security,
antiterrorism, and force protection.
Manages Navy Security Force (NSF)
Directs commands security forces
Assists Antiterrorism Officer in developing AT/FP plans,
SOPs, instructions, and training plans
Assists commander in maintaining good order and discipline
Coordinate security requirements
Plan for changes to threat or FPCON
Program
3-11
SECNAVINST 5530.4D, Navy Security Force

Operations
NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 3, Paragraph 3.5,
NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 5, Paragraph 5.3,
NTTP 3-07.2.3, Chapter 2.4 & 3.3.2, Law
Employment and
Antiterrorism
Antiterrorism
Enforcement and Physical
(22) Antiterrorism Training Team (ATTT)/Force Protection

Training Team Member (FPTT). The ATTT/FPTT will be comprised of
the most knowledgeable and experienced personnel on the ship and
will conduct antiterrorism and force protection training as
directed by the ATO. The team shall consist of, but is not
limited to: ATO, Security Officer, Antiterrorism Training
Supervisors (ATTS), Small Arms Marksmanship Instructor (SAMI),
and select members of the ships Security Force (NSF).
Conducts individual and team training for the commands
security forces and unit personnel
Plans and conducts command antiterrorism exercises
Continuously assesses the commands AT program, plans, and
exercises
NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 3, Paragraph 3.4.1 & 3.4.2, Antiterrorism
NAVEDTRA 43387-2E, 306 Antiterrorism Training Team Memeber, AT
Common Core
2.
Antiterrorism
a. Antiterrorism Plan. Commanders will transform general
measures and procedures contained in each FPCON into specific
measures and procedures to protect their critical assets,
capabilities, infrastructure, and personnel. The classification
of an AT/FP plan is dependent upon its content, current policy,
and the specifics of a units situation.
NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 2 & Appendix A, Antiterrorism
DoDD 2000.12 DoD Antiterrorism Program
DoDI 2000.16 DoD Antiterrorism Standards
b. Entry Control Point (ECP). The ECP, as the point of first
contact with security forces for those seeking access, is the
most critical part in the installations defense in depth. ECPs
include access points to installations, piers, flightlines, and
other restricted areas. It is here that potential terrorists are
detected and neutralized. An ECP can include the following
watchstanders:
Contact sentry
Cover sentry
Inspection team
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Weapons team
The senior member at the ECP serves as the supervisor and
reports to the COG/WSS or patrol supervisor.
c. Inport Security Plan (ISP). Ships and aviation squadrons
typically develop ISPs/force protection plans (FPPs) whenever
entering a port/airfield not located within a U.S. Navy
installation.
These plans supplement the standing AT/FP plans
by providing event-specific CONOPS and procedures. The format
is similar to the five-paragraph SMEAC format common to all U.S.
military services.
NTTP 3-07.2.1 Appendix B, Antiterrorism
d. Antiterrorism Standards. DoD & CNO Standards directing
Commanders to take certain steps in the safeguarding of
resources.
OPNAVINST 3300.53B, Encl 1, Navy Antiterrorism Standards
DoDD 2000.12 DoD Antiterrorism Program
e. Force Protection Condition (FPCON) Measures. Measures
designed to detect, defend, deter, and mitigate against
terrorist attacks. Commanders are required to tailor DoD FPCON
Measures to local conditions. Both shore installation and
shipboard FPCON Measures are covered.
3. Physical Security. Physical security is the overall
security posture at an activity including policy and resources
committed to safeguard personnel, protect property, and prevent
losses. Physical security is concerned with means and measures
designed to achieve force protection and AT readiness.
OPNAVINST 5530.14E, CHAP 2 & 4, Navy Physical Security and Law
Enforcement Program
NTTP 3-07.2.3, Chapter 4 & 5, Appendix D, P, Q, R, U & W, Law
a. Physical Security Plan.
Plan laying out all measures and resources to be used in its
over all security program.
OPNAVINST 5530.14E, CHAP 2 & 4, Navy Physical Security and Law
Enforcement Program
NTTP 3-07.2.3, Chapter 4 & 5, Appendix D, P, Q, R, U & W, Law
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b. Crime Prevention. Program designed to reduce the crimes

against persons and property by prevention through deterrence,
training, and surveys.
Enforcement Program
NTTP 3-07.2.3, Appendix O & P, Law Enforcement and Physical
4. Training
Enforcement Program
a. Non-Lethal Weapons (NLW). NLW add more options in the
Use of Force continuum allowing for a less than lethal response
to threats which do not warrant the use of deadly force. NLW
categories include: strikes, holds, takedowns, baton/striking
devices, and Oleoresin Capsicum spray. Use of some NLW may be
limited or restricted overseas in accordance with local Status
of Forces Agreements. The Antiterrorism Training Supervisor
(NEC 9501) (AT TRASUP) is responsible for ensuring all personnel
assigned to Security duties are properly qualified in the use of
NLW by completing the required curriculum.
Enforcement Program
NTTP 3-07.3.2, Tactical Employment of Non-Lethal Weapons
NTRP 3-07.2.2 Chapter 14, Force Protection Weapons Handling
Standard Procedures and Guidelines
NTTP 3-07.2.3, Appendix B, K, L & T, Law Enforcement and
b. Weapons. Security Forces who regularly perform law
enforcement and security duties shall be armed. No person will
be armed unless currently qualified in the use of assigned
weapons. The Small Arms Marksmanship Instructor (NEC 0812) and
the Crew Served Weapons Instructor (NEC 0814) are responsible
for qualifying personnel on assigned weapons. More information
can be found in Chapter 10, Weapon and Non-Lethal Weapon
Training.
Enforcement Program
NTRP 3-07.2.2, Force Protection Weapons Handling Standard
NTTP 3-07.2.3, Chapter 5, Appendix B, L & S, Law Enforcement and
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c. Antiterrorism Level 1 Annual Training (AT Level 1), AOR

SPECIFIC.
The Antiterrorism Officer course graduates (CIN J830-0015) are qualified to teach the AT Level 1 (annual
requirement) or area specific brief (required when traveling on
leave or official duties overseas). Personnel may also complete
the online course of instruction for AT Level 1 on NKO or at
https://atlevel1.dtic.mil/at/.
OPNAVINST 3300.53B, Encl 1, CNO Standard 21, Navy Antiterrorism
Standards
d. NSF Apprentice and Sustainment Training Standards.
Taught by qualified FTOs to security patrol personnel on larger
ships who have law enforcement responsibilities. No formal
qualification exists. Preapproved training presentations can be
found on Center for Security Forces Curriculum page within NKO.
(https://wwwa.nko.navy.mil/portal/securityforces/censecforcurric
ulum/home?paf_default_view=true)
Enforcement Program
e. School Requirements. AT/FP School requirements can be
found on the Navy Training Managements and Planning System
(NTMPS)(http://www.ntmps.navy.mil). Unit Training Officers
should have log on to pull AT/FP specific school requirements.
COMNAVSURFORINST 3502.1D, Tab C, Surface Force Training Manual
5.
Additional Duties
a. Physical Security Review Board/Committee

b. Customs
Defense Travel Regulations 4500.9-R, DoD Customs Program
c. Non-judicial punishment (NJP) and Courts Martial
Procedures
MANUAL FOR COURTS MARTIAL, Section V
JAGINST 5800.7E, Manual of the Judge Advocate General (JAGMAN)
d. Personnel Escorts
6.
Duty Assignments
1. FFG/DDG/CG/LPD MA1-MACS
2. LHA/LHD/CVN MASR-MACM

your command or platform type. For quotas, prerequisites, and
other school information, log on to CANTRAC Volume II.
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The student will receive training and be tested on Antiterrorism,
Force Protection, and Basic Law Enforcement to include but not
limited to: Pier Sentry, Harbor Security, Force Protection
Conditions, Physical Security Safeguards, Tactical Team
Communications and Movements, Apprehension, Search and Seizure,
Use/Application of Force as they pertain to the duties of a U.S.
Navy Security Force Member. The student must obtain an academic
score of 80% or better to successfully pass the course and must
attain firearms proficiency with the M9 Service pistol, M500
shotgun, M16 rifle, and M60 medium machine gun as per OPNAVINST
3591.1(Series). This course is designated as high-risk IAW
NPDCINST 5100.1 Series.
reporting, special operations, and supplementary examinations.
c. Small Arms Marksmanship Instructor (NEC 0812) (CIN A-0410148). Provides navy personnel the training required to perform
the duties of a Small Arms Instructor for rifles, pistols, and
shotguns. This course supports unit level small arms
qualification and skills sustainment. Topics addressed during
this course include safety, the use of deadly force, weapons
characteristics and operation, fundamentals of marksmanship,
range management, and teaching techniques.
d. Crew Served Weapons Operations and Maintenance Course
Instructor course.
e. Crew Served Weapons Instructor (NEC 0814) (CIN A-8302215). The Crew Served Weapons (CSW) Instructor course is
command antiterrorism (AT) watchstanders as a crew served
weapons operators, the ability to assist the AT Training
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f. Navy Security Force Sentry (CIN A-830-2216) Taught by

Teaches basic sentry skills to include weapons handling and nonlethal weapons. When taken with Security Reaction Force Team
Member Basic (below), constitutes the Armed Sentry
g. Security Reaction Force Team Member Basic (CIN A-8302217) Taught by qualified Antiterrorism Training Supervisors
movements.
h. Armed Sentry/Security Reaction Force - Basic (ASC/SRF:B)
i. Security Reaction Force Advanced (CIN A-830-0396).
crew members; whether pierside, at sea, or at an air facility;
to deal with potential threats; whether from the pier, small
boat, or any other means; from penetrating a unit under
emergency conditions by utilizing proper reaction force measures
and tactical team movements.
j. Non-Lethal Weapons (NLW) Basic Instructor (CIN A-8300035). Provides the NLW Basic Instructor the necessary knowledge
and skills to instruct individuals in non-lethal weaponry
principles, procedures, and techniques that fall within
Pepper Spray).
k. Antiterrorism Training Supervisor (AT TRASUP) (NEC 9501)
security force training to Navy personnel, and assists with
Force Protection Training Team (FPTT) duties to include armed
sentry watchstanding procedures, Non-Lethal Weapons (NLW)
employment, and Security Reaction Force (SRF) response
3-17
procedures.
This course is designed to instill the level of
knowledge, skills, and abilities required to effectively oversee
and assess daily AT security force training and unit readiness
to defend against potential terrorist operations in an
asymmetrical environment. Graduates of this course will serve
as advisor to the Antiterrorism Officer (ATO) and will assist
the ATO in matters concerning the units FPTT. This is a
supervisory course enhancing unit level training.
l. Antiterrorism Officer (CIN J-830-0015). This course is
Antiterrorism Officers (ATO). This course provides instruction
in the U.S. Navy and DoD Antiterrorism programs. Course includes
the process for and development of comprehensive antiterrorism
plans, AT program management, assessments, and execution.
m. Naval Security Force Officer (Ashore/Afloat NSFO) (CIN A7H-0007). This course will provide the designated Installation
Security Officer/Law Enforcement Officer and Ships Security
Officer for afloat and ashore units with the necessary knowledge
and skills to manage Naval Security Force (NSF) assets;
determine AT/FP readiness status; implement, organize, and
Charge. The Security Officer will be able to organize, train, and
equip the NSF to conduct AT/FP/Law Enforcement operations. The
Security Officer assists the Antiterrorism Officer (ATO) in
n. Security First Responder Course (CIN S-830-0026). The
o. Navy Physical Security Course (CIN A-830-0001). Course
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vehicle policy, investigations, military working dog policy, and

crime prevention.
p. Level II Coxswain Operations and Tactics (CIN A-0620050). The Level II Coxswain Operations and Tactics course is
a member of Naval Coastal Warfare (NCW) or waterborne security
patrol units. Tactical boat operations include interdiction,
screening, herding, two-, three-, and four-boat patrols, antiswimmer techniques, vessel escorts, and security zone defense
around shipping and other objects designated as vital to
national security. Day and night underway evolutions are
conducted on various security craft and the course culminates in
a final battle problem involving multiple high-speed opposing
force craft.
q. Naval Coastal Warfare Tactical Supervisor (CIN A-0620051). Topics addressed in this course include knowledge of
battle space management from a tactical/operational perspective
- developing skills for battlespace situational awareness;
operational coordination and control via orders development and
dissemination; C3, EOD, and host nation integration; and rules
of engagement/self defense for AT/FP and NCW. Practical
exercises include development of an in-port security plan and
simulated watchstanding exercises emphasizing Tactical
Supervisor decision making, boat driving, and protection of the
HVA.
r. Non-Compliant Boarding, Visit Board Search Seizure (VBSS)
Team Member (CIN A-830-0395). This course is designed to train
VBSS Team Members to safely board and search a non-compliant
vessel while maintaining control over crew members. This course
is designed to train an entire team together in the operation of
specialty VBSS equipment, operations, tactics, and techniques.
s. Visit, Board, Search and Seizure (VBSS) Boarding Officer
(CIN A-2E-0085). This course is designed to prepare the VBSS
Boarding Officer (BO), Assistant Boarding Officer (ABO),
Security Team Leaders (STL), Liaison Officer, and Intelligence
Specialist (IS) to plan, execute, and teach the biometrics
collection/equipment and debrief VBSS Procedures (Compliant and
Non-Compliant Low Freeboard) in support of Maritime Interception
Operations (MIO).
t. Visit, Board, Search and Seizure (VBSS) Breacher (CIN A830-0022). Prepares selected surface ship VBSS team personnel to
3-19
perform mission planning and target analysis duties as a

mechanical breacher utilizing appropriate breaching tools and
techniques against various target sets in support of Maritime
Interdiction Operations (MIO) Visit, Board, Search and Seizure
(VBSS) procedures for Non-Compliant Low Freeboard.
u. Ammunition Supply Administration (CIN A-041-0040). The
student will learn the knowledge, skills, and proper procedures
safety information.
v. Surveillance Detection (CIN S-830-0046). This course is
Forces and personnel assigned to Antiterrorism/Protection duties
in Surveillance Detection allowing commands to develop and
implement a comprehensive Surveillance Detection Program to
and conduct overt surveillance detection operations; comply with
DoD standardized reporting procedures; and deter, detect, and
Operational Planning, and Surveillance Detection Reporting.
There are three practical exercises and two case studies as well.
w. Customs Border Clearance Agent Afloat (CIN J-551-0050).
Defines procedures, responsibilities, and outlines customs and
certain agricultural inspection and entry requirements to
eliminate the introduction of narcotics, drugs, and other
contraband into the United States through DoD channels. This
course follows guidelines set forth in DoD 5030.49R.
x. Basic Instructor (NEC 9502) (CIN A-012-0043). Provides
training on communicative skills, learning process, questioning
techniques, human relations, instructional system development
process, preparation and use of training documents,
instructional aids and materials, and student measurement,
administration, and counseling. Students plan, develop, and
present lessons using the lecture and demonstration or
performance methods of instruction.
3-20
8.
Qualifications
PQS (i.e. Damage Control, Deck Watches, 3M) appropriate with
rank.
a. Antiterrorism Tactical Watch Officer (NAVEDTRA 43385-9)
b. Antiterrorism Common Core (NAVEDTRA 43387-2E)
301 Sentry
c. Deck Watches in Port (NAVEDTRA 43397-D)
302 Pier Security
307 Duty Master-at-Arms
d. Security Force Weapons (NAVEDTRA 43466-D)
(Varies depending on platform)
9. Critical Task List. These skills were designated as
critical tasks required by COMNAVSURFOR and COMNAVAIRFOR.
These lists are not all inclusive, and individual commands
may have additional/less tasks.
Security Operations
Assignment 13-1
Chapter 4:
1.
Navy Corrections Program
Correctional Philosophy
a. The philosophy of naval corrections is based on

recognition of the fact that, whether it be confinement or in
some other form, punishment alone is seldom corrective.
Confinement is punishment because it denies members their
liberty and separates them from their families, friends, and
most normal activities. It means loss of status and disapproval
of the individual offender by the military society. Confinement
sharply limits the prisoners' privileges, freedom of action, and
opportunities for personal satisfaction. More significantly, it
also lowers their self-respect.
b. Confinement facilities provide a climate conducive to
positive change, with programs tailored to the needs of
prisoners and the service, and a system which recognizes and
rewards acceptable behavior while disciplining unacceptable
behavior. Confinement facility program recognizes the critical
role of the staff members as role models of successful behavior.
c. Where facilities permit, newly admitted prisoners shall
be housed separately from the general population until
indoctrination in prisoner regulations and other administrative
details of reception are completed. During this period of
orientation, prisoners shall be objectively evaluated and a
custody classification assigned prior to transfer to the general
population.
d. Correction Specialist. Performs specialized correctional
duties including the responsibility for security, control,
supervision, support, health and care of prisoners.
Knowledgeable on correctional programs and administration.
e. Members are sentenced to confinement as punishment; they
are not confined for punishment by any member of the staff of a
confinement facility except as provided for by law and
regulation.
Hazing, harassment, unauthorized exercises,
unnecessary restrictions or deprivations, and demeaning
treatment serve no useful purpose and are prohibited. The
friction they cause creates tension between staff and prisoners
and leads to acts of aggression, retaliation, and serious
individual or mass disturbances. Prisoners forced to comply
with unreasonable, unnecessary, and unmilitary routines lose
respect for the authority which imposes them.
4-1
f. As a Correction Specialist you will control and supervise

prisoner movement, work details, mess decks, special quarters,
and disciplinary segregated prisoners. Conduct tours and
inspect perimeter grounds, dormitories, special quarters, and
surrounding buildings. The responsibility for receiving and
releasing of prisoners falls under three categories:
SECNAVINST 1640.9C, Chapter 7, Section 7102, Department of the
Navy Corrections Manual
(1) Detained.
A prisoner who has been charged with an
article of the UCMJ, but not convicted.
(2) Adjudged.
A prisoner who has been awarded a
sentence from Courts-Martial.
(3) Sentence. An authorized legal punishment awarded to
an adjudged prisoner.
g. The Corrections Specialist may also deal with the
confinement of Enemy Prisoners of War (EPW).
OPNAVINST 3461.6, Enemy Prisoners of War, Retained Personnel,
Civilian Internees, and Other Detainees
h. As First responders you may be required to provide first
aid and/or CPR or execute crowd control procedures and forced
cell movements to major incidents of noncompliant prisoners.
Corrections specialists (ashore facilities only) can also be
tasked with processing and supervising members awarded
correctional custody via UCMJ Article 15, as well as carrying
out any other special orders given by the Commanding Officer.
OPNAVINST 1640.10, Chapter 3 Manual for Operation of a Navy
Correctional Custody Unit (CCU)
2.
Corrections Operations Ashore
a. Shore Confinement Facility. A shore confinement facility

is a place of confinement established as an activity, or at a
local command of the shore establishment, and designated by the
Secretary of the Navy (SECNAV) as a naval place of confinement.
Shore brigs are further classified as follows:
(1) Consolidated Brig/Level II Confinement Facility.
Provide confinement and rehabilitation opportunities for
prisoners who will be discharged or transferred to the United
States Disciplinary Barracks (USDB) or to Federal prisons if
4-2
their offenses and sentences, after the appellate process, allow

such a transfer. Department of Defense (DoD) guidance
reference(s), directs the maximum sentence length for a Level II
Facility. Consolidated Brigs/Level II Confinement Facilities
may provide local pretrial confinement, if economically
warranted.
Where economies and efficiencies are present, and
through coordination with the DoD Corrections Council,
COMNAVPERSCOM (PERS-00D1) or CMC (PSL Corrections) may designate
facility classifications as appropriate.
(2) Waterfront Brig/Level I Confinement Facility.
Located on operating Navy or Marine Corps installations to
service local needs and normally contain a correctional custody
unit (CCU) and a short-term confinement facility that houses
pretrial detainees; prisoners who will return to duty; or
prisoners who are being discharged after serving short
sentences, usually less than a year. Programs emphasize
military discipline, training, work, and skills needed to
succeed in the military environment.
(3) Detention Facilities. Personnel may be detained in
a detention space or a holding cell. COMNAVPERSCOM (PERS-00D1)
or Commandant of the Marine Corps (CMC) (PSL Corrections) shall
be notified in writing, via the chain of command, when a
detention space or a holding cell has been established or
disestablished.
OPNAVINST 1640.9A, Chapter 2 Guide for Operation and
Administration of Detention Facilities
(4) Pretrial Confinement Facility. Pretrial Confinement
Facilities may be established in areas where: a confinement
facility is not readily accessible, there is a need for pretrial
and very short-term post-trial confinement, average number of
detainees/prisoners does not justify more than 20 confinement
spaces, and the full range of correctional programs provided by
confinement facilities is not required. Commander Navy Personnel
Command (PERS-00D1) or Commandant of the Marine Corps (CMC) (PSL
Corrections) shall establish programs and staffing guidance
separately.
These facilities, when designated by SECNAV as a
naval place of confinement, may be used for extended pretrial
confinement and, as a matter of necessity in some cases, posttrial confinement up to 30 days.
b. Operations Department.
operations of the brig.
Responsible for the daily
4-3
(1) Billet Titles and Functions. Following billet

titles shall be used in preparing manpower authorizations and
tables of organizations established for Marine Corps confinement
facilities and Navy waterfront brigs/CCUs. Some titles vary at
consolidated brigs due to unique specialization of billets.
Those billet titles are separately approved by COMNAVPERSCOM
(PERS-00D1).
(a) Brig Duty Officer (Navy)/Duty Brig Supervisor
(Marines).
Brig duty officer/duty brig supervisor is
responsible for supervising the security force, maintaining good
order and discipline, carrying out the Plan of the Day, and
ensuring the health, welfare, and safety of staff members and
prisoners.
When the Brig Officer is absent, the next senior
staff member available is in charge of the general operation of
the confinement facility watch during normal business hours;
after normal business hours, the brig duty officer/duty brig
supervisor is in charge.
SECNAVINST 1640.9C, Chapter 3, Section 3201 (5b), Department of
the Navy Corrections Manual
(b) Control Center Supervisor. Control center
supervisor is responsible to the brig duty officer/duty brig
supervisor for maintaining the prisoner accountability and
security system. This position is the hub of the communications
system and coordinates information and activities concerning
prisoners and prisoner movements. They are responsible for
storage, issue, and inventory of security equipment such as
keys, instruments of restraint, etc. Personnel selected for
this post shall be carefully screened by the Brig Officer due to
responsibilities and high demands associated with these duties.
Additionally, the CCS is responsible for the execution of all
emergency bills for the facility to include: Hostage, Escape,
Riot, Fire, and Natural Disaster.
SECNAVINST 1640.9C, Chapter 3, Section 3201 (5d), Department of
(c) Quarters Supervisor. Quarters supervisor is
responsible to the brig duty officer/duty brig supervisor for
maintenance of good order and discipline, sanitation, and
accountability and welfare of prisoners in an assigned berthing
area or special quarters. All berthing watchstanders report to
the Quarters Supervisor, for example, block and dormitory
supervisors.
SECNAVINST 1640.9C, Chapter 3, Section 3201 (5d), Department of
4-4
(d) Receiving and Release Supervisor. Receiving and

release supervisor is responsible for processing prisoner intake
and release; relevant records and supplies, including health and
comfort (H&C) items; prisoner personal property; clothing issue;
and storage. The R&R supervisor is the first point of contact
for prisoners during intake to the facility; he/she is
responsible for ensuring that all confinement and release
paperwork is accurate and complete.
(e) Correctional Custody Unit (CCU) Supervisor. When
authorized and established, CCUs will be co-located at
waterfront/Level 1 correctional facilities. Correctional custody
is the most serious deprivation of liberty established as a
punishment under UCMJ, article 15. UCMJ, article 15 is designed
to be a means of disposing of minor infractions of discipline
without having to stigmatize a service member with a courtmartial conviction. Correctional custody in the Navy will
attempt to correct negative attitudes and motivations of junior
enlisted personnel through a regimen of hard work, offenserelated programming, intensive counseling, and physical training.
The correctional custody program, ideally, will emulate a wellrun shipboard environment with staff personnel fulfilling
leadership roles and acting as positive influences. It is
designed to have the greatest positive impact on the first-term
Sailor who has not yet fully developed self-discipline, a sense
of responsibility, and an understanding of Navy's fundamental
standards of acceptable behavior. Correctional custody is
specifically designed for Sailors returning to duty and will not
be used for personnel who are pending administrative processing.
SECNAVINST 1640.9C, Chapter 13, Department of the Navy
Corrections Manual
OPNAVINST 1640.10, Chapter 1 Manual for the Operation of a
Correctional Custody Unit (CCU)
c. Programs
(1) Correctional Counselors (NEC 9516). Correctional
counselors provide direct and indirect, individual and group
counseling to no more than 40 prisoners and assist in their
program development, performance, and evaluations. Where this
person is a para-professional, problems requiring professional
attention shall be referred, through the chain of command, to a
professional with the required competency. Counselors have a
variety of responsibilities, some of which include the
following: computations, good conduct, earned time and
4-5
special/work abatement, as well as being a liaison with the

prisoners command and lawyer.
MA OCCSTDS Functional Area:
None. This NEC is specifically prohibited to Master-at-Arms
(2) Training.
Training supervisor is responsible for
scheduling and providing staff and escort training and
maintenance of staff training records. In smaller confinement
facilities, this person may conduct prisoner reception and
maintain prisoner training records. In smaller facilities, the
training department will coordinate and supervise the
Restoration program which is organized and equipped to provide
selected offenders training with a view toward their honorable
restoration to duty or possible reenlistment. COMNAVPERSCOM
(PERS-00D1) and CMC (PSL Corrections) shall publish implementing
policy by separate instruction. They also maintain a prerelease program for offenders being discharged from service
which educates them how to become a productive member of
society. An academic education program will be made available
to all prisoners in confinement facilities that routinely hold
prisoners in excess of 3 months.
SECNAVINST 1640.9C, Chapter 6, Section 6102.3, Department of the
(3) Work Details. Work supervisor is responsible for
planning and coordinating of work projects and working parties
employing prisoners. Major functions include maintaining
liaison with area coordinators, installation commanders, and
immediate superiors in command in identification and assignment
of productive work projects suitable for prisoners; ensuring
work parties are supervised by trained and qualified escorts;
monitoring work parties on or away from the confinement
facility; providing maintenance and general sanitation of
confinement facilities and grounds; and coordinating employment
of installation custody and minimum custody prisoners on
individual assignments to other commands.
d. Admin
(1) Classification and Assignment. A C&A board shall be
established at each confinement facility and shall be
responsible for establishing the individual prisoner's program
upon completion of orientation. C&A board is concerned with
custody, work assignment, special training, and other phases of
corrections such as the Incentive program, which is a system of
4-6
incentives provided to encourage positive behavior. Incentives

shall recognize both group and individual attainment. Awarding of
incentives for prisoners shall be accomplished on a stringent
and selective basis. Ultimate goals are to build selfdiscipline in the individual, reward positive behavior, and
improve functioning of the confinement facility. This board
shall be composed, at a minimum, of the next senior staff member
to the CO/OIC, BRIG OFFICER, CPOIC or designated representative,
one senior staff member from security, one from programs, and
any other members appointed by the CO/OIC. At consolidated
brigs, a mental health specialist and chaplain shall be
assigned.
In larger confinement facilities, C&A board may be
established at the unit level where the prisoner is berthed.
(2) Disciplinary and Adjustment Board. A D&A Board will
be convened for the purpose of evaluating all facts and
circumstances surrounding alleged prisoner misconduct,
infractions, violations of confinement facility rules, and make
recommendations of punishment to the Commanding Officer.
(3) Funds and Valuables. Funds and valuables
custodian/assistant shall collect, receipt for, and ensure
safekeeping of prisoner personal funds and valuables.
SECNAVINST 1640.9C, Chapter 3, Section 3201 (4f), Department of
3.
Corrections Operations Afloat
a. Afloat. A ships brig is authorized for confinement of

personnel attached to, or embarked in, a ship and may be used
for periods of confinement of up to 30 days. Persons with a
sentence by court-martial of 31 days or more confinement, or who
are awarded a punitive discharge and confinement time as part of
a court-martial sentence, shall be delivered to a shore
confinement facility for confinement. Pretrial confinement
onboard a vessel at sea may continue only until the individual
can be transferred to a confinement facility ashore. Such
transfer shall be accomplished at the earliest opportunity
permitted by the operational requirements and mission of the
vessel.
Corrections Manual
4-7
OPNAVINST 1640.8A Manual for the Operation and Administration of

Afloat Brigs
b. Afloat Correction Facility Classification. Afloat brigs
are operated in CVN, LHA, and LHD class ships. However, when
authorized by Fleet Commanders, afloat confinement facilities
may be operated in other smaller ships.
OPNAVINST 1640.8A Chapter 2 Manual for the Operation and
Administration of Afloat Brigs
(1) Operations.
Responsible for the daily operations of
the ships brig. The shipboard Corrections Specialist will
process and handle the confinement of adjudged, detained, and
sentenced prisoners, as defined earlier, and may also deal with
the confinement of Enemy Prisoners of War (EPW), see reference
OPNAVINST 3461.6 or Army Regulation 190-8.
Corrections Manual
(a) Brig Officer. Brig Officer shall be a naval
officer, but no other restrictions to this assignment apply.
Brig Officer shall be appointed in writing by the Commanding
Officer.
OPNAVINST 1640.8A Chapter 3 Manual for the Operation and
Administration of Afloat Brigs
(b) Brig Supervisor. Brig supervisor is responsible
for supervising brig staff, maintaining good order and
discipline, carrying out plan-of-the-day, and ensuring the
health, welfare, and safety of staff members and prisoners.
Corrections Manual
(c) Control Center Supervisor. (Same as CCS ashore)
Control center supervisor is responsible to the brig supervisor
for maintaining the prisoner accountability and security system.
This position is the hub of the communications system and
coordinates information and activities concerning prisoners and
prisoner movements. They are responsible for storage, issue,
and inventory of security equipment such as keys, instruments of
restraint, etc. Personnel selected for this post shall be
carefully screened by the brig supervisor due to
responsibilities and high demands associated with these duties.
(d) Quarters Supervisor. Quarters supervisor is
responsible to the brig supervisor for maintenance of good order
4-8
and discipline, sanitation, and accountability and welfare of

prisoners assigned to ships brig.
Corrections Manual
(e) Escorts. Escorts will be ships personnel assigned
at an approximate ratio of one escort to three confined
personnel, based on the average usage of the brig, and shall be
trained at a local shore brig if a local shore facility is
available. Escorts are responsible for movement and
accountability of prisoners while outside the brig facility for
activities such as prisoner going to chow, work outside the brig
facility, and conduct physical training.
OPNAVINST 1640.8A Manual for the Operation and Administration of
Afloat Brigs
4. Detainee Operations. The Department of the Army has been
designated as the Executive Agent in charge of all Detainee
Operations.
Specialized training identified by DOA provides
guidance for Navy Detainee Operations.
AIR FORCE INSTRUCTION 31-205 The Air Force Corrections System
CJCSI 3290.01B Program for Detainee Operations
DOD DIRECTIVE 2310.01 The Department of Defense Detainee Program
DoD Directive 3115.09 DoD Intelligence Interrogations, Detainee
Debriefings, and Tactical Questioning
DOD INSTRUCTION 2310.4 Repatriation of Prisoners of War (POW),
Hostages, Peacetime Government Detainees and Other Missing or
Isolated Personnel
DoD INSTRUCTION 2310.08E Medical Program Support for Detainee
Operations
your platform type. For quotas, prerequisites, and other school
information, log into CANTRAC Volume II.
a. Non-Lethal Weapons (NLW) Basic Instructor (CIN A-8300035). Provides the NLW Basic Instructor the necessary knowledge
and skills to instruct individuals in non-lethal weaponry
principles, procedures, and techniques that fall within
Pepper Spray).
b. Antiterrorism Officer (CIN J-830-0015). This course is
4-9

in the U.S. Navy and DoD Antiterrorism programs as described in
OPNAVINST 3300.55, and DODINST 2000.16. Course includes the
process for and development of comprehensive antiterrorism
plans, AT program management, assessments, and execution.
c. Naval Security Force Officer (Ashore/Afloat NSFO) (CIN
A- 7H-0007). This course will provide the designated
Installation Security Officer/Law Enforcement Officer and
Ships Security Officer for afloat and ashore units with the
necessary knowledge and skills to manage Naval Security Force
(NSF) assets, determine AT/FP readiness status, implement,
organize, and oversee all NSF/AT/FP and Law Enforcement policy
changes. Provides unit level initial and sustainment training
for assigned NSF/AT/FP personnel and functions as the NSF
Officer in Charge. The Security Officer will be able to
organize, train, and equip the NSF to conduct AT/FP/Law
Enforcement operations. The Security Officer assists the
Antiterrorism Officer (ATO) in developing and executing the
AT/FP plans.
d. Correctional Specialist Navy (NEC 9575 / 2008) (CIN
A- 831-0001) To provide selected Petty Officers (NEC 9575)
and Master at Arms (NEC 2008) with a working knowledge of
the principles, theories, and practices which are required
for the administration, operation, and supervision of Navy
Brigs/Correctional Custody Units.
e. Brig Staff Afloat (CIN A-831-0003). To provide
selected petty officers with a working knowledge of the
principles, theories, and practices which are required for the
administrating, operating, and supervising of Navy Brigs
Afloat.
critical tasks required by COMNAVSURFOR and COMNAVAIRFOR for
the operation of Afloat Brigs.
These lists are not all
tasks.
7. Master-at-Arms Occupational Standards (OCCSTDS)
Functional Areas. The following areas in the MA OCCSTDS
apply to the Installation Security mission area:
Corrections and Detainee Operations
Assignment 1310
Chapter 5: Strategic Weapons Facilities

1. Strategic Weapons Facilities (SWF) Mission. Provide
security for national strategic assets at Strategic Weapons
Facilities (SWF) as approved by the Chief of Naval Operations in
coordination with the Commandant of the Marine Corps, and, when
directed, conduct other short term military and emergency
operations.
SWF locations include:
a.
Strategic Weapons Facility Pacific, Bangor, WA.
b.
Strategic Weapons Facility Atlantic, Kings Bay, GA.
2. Special Qualifications. Personnel assigned to SWF duty must

be able to successfully pass a Personnel Reliability Program
(PRP) screening and hold a Secret clearance.
The purpose of the PRP is to prevent the possibility of an
action that could lead to nuclear weapon damage or cause the
unauthorized launch of a nuclear missile or the unauthorized
detonation of a nuclear weapon.
Qualifying standards for the Personnel Reliability Program (PRP)
are as follows: physical competence, mental alertness, and
financial responsibility, positive attitude toward nuclear
weapons and nuclear components and good dependability.
Disqualifying standards include but not limited to: drug abuse,
alcohol abuse, financial irresponsibility, poor attitude/lack of
motivation toward nuclear weapons and duty, negligence or
delinquency in the performance of duty, conviction of or
involvement in a serious incident, mental, emotional, or other
significant medical condition, suicide attempt or threats and
loss of confidence.
Individuals assigned to PRP duties are responsible for
monitoring the reliability of others performing PRP duties as
well as their own at all times.
SECNAVINST 5510.35, Nuclear Weapon Personnel Reliability Program
3. Organization.
MAs assigned to a Marine Corps Security Force
Battalion (MCSFBn) operate in conjunction with Marine Corps
Security Forces under the operational control of the MCSFBn
Commanding Officer (CO). The MCSFBn CO is responsible to the
SWF CO for providing security personnel to secure the national
strategic assets under his control in a Main Limited Area (MLA),
a Waterfront Restricted Area (WRA), and an Explosive Handling
5-1
Wharf (EHW). The SWF CO is responsible to Director of Strategic

Systems Programs (SSP) for overall policy, maintenance and
security of his command.
Application of security policies and procedures are accomplished
by qualified individuals to assist the CO in positions as noted
below:
a.
Administrative positions.
(1) Company Commander: Responsible for the overall

operation of guard force personnel (Navy and Marine) and the
execution of MCSFBn missions in all Areas of Responsibility
(AOR).
(2) Company Executive Officer: Assists the Guard
Officer in coordination and control of guard force personnel and
all matters pertaining to the administrative/logistical support,
training, and employment of the guard force personnel.
(3) Company Clerk: Assist the Guard Chief with
administrative/logistical support and database entry of all
required training and employment of the guard force personnel.
Marine Corps Security Force Battalion

Organization
MCSF BN
NORFOLK
SWFPAC
CO
SGTMAJ
MACM
Special Staff
XO
PRP
USMC
ADMIN
SUPPLY
MED
OPERATIONS
LOGISTICS
COMM
MOTOR
TRANSPORT
WRA
SECTION
A
ARMORY
NBC
WRA
SECTION
B
LA
BAE
CONTRACT
SUPPORT
LA
SECTION
A
SAFETY
SENIOR
NAVAL
OFFICER
NAVY
ADMIN
WRA
ORIENTATION
LA
SECTION
B
RECAPTURE
TACTICS
TEAM
HARBOR
SECURITY
BOATS
MILITARY
WORKING
DOGS
Legend
UNCLASSIFIED
5-2
OPCON
ADCON
Direct Support
b.
Operational positions.
(1) Sentries
(a) Tower Sentry. Provides and maintains continuous

security and surveillance of the Main Limited Areas (MLA) and
the surrounding vicinity, clear zones, and immediate airspace;
and uses surveillance equipment such as night vision goggles,
spotlights, and infrared cameras to visually assess perimeter
Electronic Security Surveillance (ESS) alarms. Provides
situational reports of all suspected or actual unauthorized
activity/personnel to guard force supervisory personnel.
COMPANY ORDERS P8126.1H BATTALION GUARD ORDERS
(b) Vehicle Inspection Sentry (VIS). Conducts a
thorough inspection of all exterior/interior vehicles, contents,
and compartments entering and exiting the MLA, WRA and EHW.
Equipment to assist sentries in their mission will include, but
is not limited to, itemizer/vapor tracers, mirrors, and overhead
and undercarriage video cameras.
(c) Roof Sentry. Provides lookout for hostile
aircraft and cover for operating forces at ground level by
scanning surrounding areas.
(d) Security Response Teams (SRT). A continuous
mobile vehicle patrol which provides physical security of
alarmed structures and is responsible for initial response to
security alerts in their assigned areas.
(e) Entry Control Point (ECP) Sentry. Controls
entry and exit of all personnel, material, equipment, and
vehicles; and provides deterrence, detection, and denial in
order to prevent sabotage or destruction of strategic assets.
The ECP sentry may operate electronic handheld personnel
identification devices, metal detectors, itemizers/vapor tracer,
fixed lighting, and various delay/denial and entry/exit
mechanical systems.
(f) Temporary Entry Control Point (TECP)/Escort
Sentry. Sets up temporary ECPs and controls all entry/exit of
personnel, material and vehicles at restricted areas/structures,
5-3
or when additional measures are required to support

equipment/structural maintenance. During an accident/incident,
escort sentries may be used to escort outer agency emergency
response personnel into restricted areas and may be manned
during increased threat conditions.
(g) Alarm Monitor/Control Center- Responsible for
monitoring and operating the ESS equipment, cameras, and secure
communication systems. Dispatches and assists the AOR
Supervisors in the deployment of guard force personnel to all
potential/actual threats to national strategic assets and
structures.
(2) Supervisors
(a) Company Officer of the Day (COD). Directly
responsible for coordination and execution of guard force
personnel and resources between all MCSFBn AORs. Contacts and
coordinates with COs subordinate units, tenant commands and
outside supporting agencies. Serves as the direct
representative of the MCSFBn CO regarding all personnel and
security matters.
(b) Officer of the Day (OOD). Responsible to the
MCSFBn CO via the Company Officer of the Day (COD) for the
efficient functioning and employment of guard force personnel
within their applicable AOR.
(c) Assistant Officer of the Day (AOOD). Assists
the OOD with the efficient functioning and employment of guard
force personnel within their applicable AOR.
(d) Division Commanders. Responsible to the MCSFBn
CO for the training, discipline, and administration of their
divisions.
(e) Static Post Supervisor (SPS).
Supervises/directs static posts and SRTs within their applicable
AOR. Assists the OOD and the Sergeant of the Guard (SOG) during
security alerts/incidents.
5-4
(f) Assistant Static Post Supervisor (ASPS).

Assists the SPS for the efficient functioning of static posts
and SRTs within their AOR.
(g) TECP Petty Officer in Charge (POIC).
Responsible to the SPS for the training, guard mount, deployment,
and supervision of all TECP sentries.
c.
Operational support positions:
(1) Armorer. Responsible for the issue and

accountability, and minor maintenance of all mission associated
weapons.
(2) Supply/Logistics. Responsible for receipt/issue and
accountability of all organizational clothing, NuclearBiological-Chemical (NBC) gear and tactical gear.
3. Asset Protection. The primary mission of MAs assigned to
SWFs is the protection of national strategic assets. The
following additional defense in-depth postures are utilized to
provide for the protection:
a. Harbor Security Boats (HSB). Assigned to MCSFBN,
coxswains and gunners are responsible for ensuring the integrity
and security of restricted waterways, beaches, and the facilities
within the WRA and will respond to all potential or actual threats.
Installations
5-5
b. Military Working Dogs (MWD). Assigned to MCSFBN,

handlers and their MWD are responsible for explosives and
intruder detection and act as a deterrent in all AORs.
Installations
3. Weapons. A variety of weapons are utilized to ensure
appropriate amount of deterrence and firepower is readily
available to engage a specific, identified threat.
a.
Typical weapons utilized by security force personnel:

(1) M16 service rifle
5-6
(2) M500 shotgun

(3) M9 9MM service pistol
(4) M240 medium machine gun
(5) M249 Squad Automatic Weapon (SAW)
(6) M2HB .50 caliber heavy machine gun
(7) M203 grenade launcher
(8) MK19 40MM automatic grenade launcher
(9) M67 fragmentation hand grenade
(10) M7A2 CS riot control hand grenade
4. Training. The training requirements of an MA assigned to a
SWF are extensive. A SWF MA can be expected to receive
continuous training in addition to Naval Security Force
Sustainment Training:
a. General Training:
Enforcement Program
(1) Use of Force/Deadly Force
(2) Weapons handling, weapons safety, general weapons
data, weapons exchange procedures.
(3) Entry Control Point (ECP)
(a) Personnel Identification
(b) Package Inspections
(c) Vehicle Inspections
(4) Personnel internal movement control
(5) Overview and characteristics of ESS
operations/duress systems
(6) Communications
5-7
(7) Adversary motivations and objectives

(8) Security awareness/vigilance
(9) Recognition of Sabotage
b.
Security Skills:
(1) Qualification with primary weapons
(2) Rules of engagement
(3) Operation of surveillance equipment (Night vision/

range finders/Forward Looking Infrared/spotlights
(4) Tactical Antiterrorism response
(5) Field tactics
(6) Small unit combat tactics
(7) Surveillance/detection
(8) Site defense plan
(9) Airborne threat engagement
(10) Escort vehicle procedures
(11) Emergency preparedness and response
(a) Bomb threat response
(b) Hostage situation
(c) Civil disturbances
c.
Transportation Security:
(1) Convoy techniques
(2) General action to threats
(3) Isolation of shipments
(4) Emergency action procedures
5-8
(5) Emergency transfer of shipments

d.
Specialized training:
(1) Recapture/recovery tactics
(2) Combat first aid/CPR
(3) Armored vehicle operator
(a) High Mobility Multipurpose Wheeled Vehicle (HMMV)
(b) Bearcat
(4) Marine Corps Martial Arts Program (MCMAP)/Empty hand

combat
(5) Force on Force/Practical Applications to engage an
enemy force
(6) Marine Corps Basic Security Guard Course
(7) Second Class Swimmer
(8) Level 1 Combat Coxswain (CIN R-062-0028)
(9) Boat Operator ATFP Training (CIN A-062-0050)
(9) Federal Law Enforcement Training Center (FLETC)
Security Coxswain
e.
Supervisor training (in addition to above):

(1) Motivation of security personnel
(2) Evaluation of intelligence
(3) Emergency reporting
5-9
(4) USMC Leadership Course

f. SWF has a requirement for several Naval Enlisted
Classifications (NEC) to accomplish the above training
requirements:
(1) Small Arms Marksmanship Instructor (NEC 0812)
(2) Crew Served Weapons Instructor (NEC 0814)
(3) Military Working Dog Handler (NEC 2005)
5.
Collateral Duties
a. The following collateral duties will be performed by SWF

security force personnel:
(1) Training Petty Officer/Supervisor
(2) Range Safety Officer (RSO)
OPNAVINST 3591.1 (Series). This course is designated as highrisk IAW OPNAV 1500.75 Series.
c. Military Working Dog Handler (NEC 2005) (CIN A-830-0019).
Trains selected Master-at-Arms and DoD personnel in the
5-10

d. Small Arms Marksmanship Instructor (NEC 0812) (CIN A041-0148).
e. Crew Served Weapons Operations and Maintenance Course
Instructor course.
f. Crew Served Weapons Instructor (NEC 0814) (CIN A-8302215). The Crew Served Weapons (CSW) Instructor course is
command anti-terrorism (AT) watchstanders as a crew-served
g. Navy Security Force Sentry (CIN A-830-2216) Taught by
h. Security Reaction Force Team Member Basic
movements.
5-11

i. Armed Sentry/Security Reaction Force - Basic (ASC/SRF:B)
j. Security Reaction Force Advanced (CIN A-830-0396).
crew members whether pierside, at sea, or at an air facility
k. Non-Lethal Weapons (NLW) Basic Instructor (CIN A-8300035). Provides the NLW Basic Instructor the necessary
Pepper Spray).
l. Antiterrorism Training Supervisor (AT TRASUP) (NEC 9501)
FPTT/ATTT duties, to include armed sentry watchstanding
m. Antiterrorism Officer (CIN J-830-0015). This course is
5-12

in the U.S. Navy and DoD Antiterrorism programs. Course
includes the process for and development of comprehensive
execution.
n. Naval Security Force Officer (Ashore/Afloat NSFO) (CIN
A-7H-0007).
crime prevention.
p. Level II Coxswain Operations and Tactics (CIN A-0620050). The Level II Coxswain Operations and Tactics course is
craft.
q. Ammunition Supply Administration (CIN A-041-0040). The
student will learn the knowledge, skills and proper procedures
5-13

safety information.
r. Surveillance Detection (CIN S-830-0046). This course is
duties. In Surveillance Detection; allowing commands to develop
and implement a comprehensive Surveillance Detection Program. To
and conduct overt surveillance detection operations, comply with
DoD standardized reporting procedures, and deter, detect, and
Operational Planning and Surveillance Detection Reporting. There
are three practical exercises and two case studies as well.
s. Emergency Vehicle Operators Course (EVOC)
t. Emergency Vehicle Operators Course (EVOC) Instructor
u. Basic Instructor (NEC 9502) (CIN A-012-0043). The
5-14

7.
Qualifications
rank.
a.
b.
c.
d.

301 Sentry
Small Boat Operations (NAVEDTRA 43152-F)
301 - Bow Hook and Stern Hook
302 - Small Boat Engineer
303 - Small Boat Coxswain/Rigid Hull Inflatable Boat
(RHIB) Coxswain

critical tasks required by SSP. These lists are not all
tasks.
Security Operations
Note: Guard Orders listed can be found on station at SWF
Commands.
5-15
Chapter 6:
1.
Strategic Aircraft Security
TACAMO History
a. TACAMO is a U.S. military term meaning "Take Charge and

Move Out. TACAMO refers to a system of survivable communication
links designed to be used in nuclear war to maintain
communications between decision makers, National Command
Authority (NCA), and the triad of strategic nuclear weapon
delivery systems.
CJCS OPORD 2-CY Annex K, Paragraph 2 (CLASSIFIED)
2.
Components
a. The U.S. Navy Strategic Communications Wing One based at

Tinker Air Force Base (AFB), OK, contains two operational and
one training Fleet Air Reconnaissance Squadrons (FAIRECONRON)
VQ-3, VQ-4 and VQ-7, respectively. Commander Strategic
Communications Wing 1 (CSCW-1) is under the operational control
of Commander, United States Strategic Command (CDRUSSTRATACOM).
The Wings Alert TACAMO Relay missions are conducted at Travis
AFB, CA, on the West Coast and at NAS Patuxent River, MD, on the
East Coast. The Wing also performs the USSTRATCOM Airborne
Command Post (ABNCP) alert mission at Offutt AFB, NE.
6-1
3. Mission. TACAMO E-6 Mercury aircraft and personnel provide

sustained survivable command, control, and communications
support in the execution of war plans from the President,
Secretary of Defense, and the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of
Staff to the nations nuclear forces.
CJCS OPORD 2-CY Annex K, Paragraph 2 (CLASSIFIED)
4.
E-6B Aircraft Specifications
E-6B Mercury Introduced in 1997 to VQ-3

Wing span: 145 feet, 9 inches
Length: 153 feet
Height: 42 feet, 5 inches
Weight at gross takeoff: 342,000 pounds
Ceiling: 42,000 feet, patrol altitude:
25,000-30,000 feet
Speed: 512 knots
Range unrefueled: 6,700 nautical miles with 16 hours on-station
endurance
Power plant: CFM International F-108-CF-100 (CFM 56-24-2)
turbofan engines
Crew: Four flight crew, five mission crew
Contractor:
Boeing
Ref: Aircraft characteristics obtained from Naval Aviation

History Office website.
5. TACAMO Security Force Mission. The Navy Security Force
provides continual physical security for all Fleet Air
Reconnaissance Squadron (TACAMO) aircraft under its protection,
and assists in facilitating the security required to safeguard
the command and control of the nations nuclear forces.
AFI 31-101 (FOUO) Chapter 14 Paragraph 14.1, 14.3, & 14.5
6-2
6. Organization.
The TACAMO community works closely with the
Air Force under Navy Chain of Command. A brief synopsis of
TACAMO security can be compared with sentry functions guarding
one particular asset.
a. Strategic Communications Wing One/Task Force 124
(1) Commodore
(2) Deputy Commodore
(3) Wing Department Heads
(a) Administration
(b) Operations (Security and Antiterrorism fall
under the Operations Officer)
(c) Logistics and Supply
(d) Communications
b.
FAIRECONRON Three, Four, and Seven Squadrons
(1) Commanding Officer

(2) Executive Officer
(3) Administration
(4) Maintenance
(5) Operations
(6) Security
CSCW-1 Instruction 5400.1C Enclosure 1, Section 3, Paragraph
2328, 2333, & 2334
c. FAIRECONRON Detachments Three and Four SCW-1 Detachment
Offutt. (Reports to the squadron chain of command of applicable
squadron)
(1) Officer in Charge
(2) Assistant Officer in Charge
(3) Security Officer (SECO). In addition to normal
duties, the SECO approves Compound Entry Access Lists (EAL).
Program
SECNAVINST 5530.4D, Navy Security Force Employment and
Operations
NTTP 3-07.2.3, Chapter 2.4 & 3.3.2, Law Enforcement and Physical
6-3
(4) Antiterrorism Officer (ATO). Responsible for

managing the AT program and coordination of all AT planning.
(AT) Program
NWP 3-07.2 (Rev. A), Chapter 6, Navy Doctrine for
d.
Security Department Divisions
(1) Operations.
Conducts day to day watchstanding and
patrol functions.
Enforcement Program
(a) Operations Chief
(b) Watch Commanders. Responsible to the Operations
Chief for oversight of all watch operations
1. Brief daily Alert Launch Numbers and Duress
Word
2. Brief Aircraft Status
3. Conduct communications inventory and
operational functions check
4. Validate and distribute EAL
AFI 31-101 (FOUO) Chapter 9 Paragraph 9.10
(c) Patrol Supervisors. Responsible to the Watch
Commander to complete forms and reports and conduct daily guard
mount.
AFI 31-101 (FOUO) Chapter 9 Paragraph 9.10
6-4
(d) Dispatchers.
1.
2.
3.
Duties include:
Completes Desk Journal entries

Makes command notifications
Liaises with base security and local law
enforcement
4. Liaises with Air Traffic Control Tower
5. Completes forms and reports
6. Monitors communication equipment
7. Dispatches Response Forces
8. Monitors Intrusion Detection System
OPNAVINST 5530.14E Chapter 10 & 11, Navy Physical Security and
Law Enforcement Program
(e) Duty Armorers. Duties require qualification as
Small Arms Marksmanship Instructor, NEC 0812. Additionally,
they:
1. Qualify personnel on weapons
2. Complete Weapons paperwork
3. Perform as Range Safety officers
4. Manage Ready for Issue equipment
5. Inventory, issue, and receive Arms and
Ammunition
6. Supervise clearing barrel procedures
(f) Field Training Officers (FTO).
Conduct section
training on:
1.
2.
3.
Daily guard mount

Information Gathering and Incident Reporting
Rules of Engagement (ROE) and Use of Force
4.
Vehicle Inspection and Entry Control
5.
6.
Interpersonal Communications
Situational Awareness
Continuum (UoF)
Procedures
6-5

Enforcement Program
(g) Sentries.
1.
2.
3.
Sentry duties include:
Verify credentials against EAL

Use sign/countersign for aircrew access
Use 10 codes and other means of
communication
4. Respond to Security Alerts
5. Conduct Searches
6. Conduct Administrative Vehicle Inspections
7. Conduct Random Antiterrorism Measures
Antiterrorism
Installations
(h) Reaction Force.
Reaction Force duties include:
1. Respond to Security Alerts

2. Establish cover and concealment
3. Perform tactical movements
4. Establish incident perimeter
5. Secure egress/ingress routes
6. Evacuate non-essential personnel
7. Conduct search
8. Request back-up
9. Challenge and engage
10. Apprehend and detain
11. Conduct escorts
12. Secure weapons and evidence
6-6

(i) Alert Area Entry Controllers
1. Control entry to alert compound
2. Conduct credential check of personnel
entering alert area
3. Verify credentials of personnel listed on
the EAL and those requiring escort
4. Conduct vehicle and package searches, as
required, of personnel and vehicles entering the area
AFI 31-101 (FOUO), Chapters 9 & 14
DoD S5210.41M, Chapter 16 (Classified)
(j) Aircraft Close-In-Sentry/Entry Controller
1.
Control entry to the close in security area
of the aircraft
2. Ensure all aircrew/battlestaff personnel
entering close in area are on EAL
3. Enforce 2-person policy within the area for
ABNCP configured aircraft
4. Maintain constant surveillance over all
approaches of the close in area
5. Notify dispatch and request armed response
in the event of an emergency (suspicious activity, invalid badge,
etc.)
DoD S5210-41M, Chapter 16 (Classified)
(k) Close Boundary Sentry
1. Maintain constant surveillance over all
approaches to the close in area
2. Notify dispatch and request armed response
in the event of an emergency (suspicious activity, invalid badge,
etc.)
3. Attempt to apprehend/detain personnel
attempting unauthorized entry to enter the area by way of the
boundary and not ECP
4. Enforce 2-person policy within the area for
ABNCP configured aircraft
DoD S5210-41M, Chapter 16 (Classified)
6-7
(l) Watch sections

1.
2.
Review post orders

Stand post per post orders
(2) Training/Planning. Manage the command security and

AT training, the Field Training Officer (FTO) and Personnel
Qualification System (PQS) programs; plans, conducts, and
assesses security force drills; coordinates training and
security planning with other services and agencies; trains
security forces; reviews, plans, and analyzes command security
and crises management capabilities; conducts vulnerability
assessments; prepares operating budgets; develops security
requirements for new construction; develops standard operating
procedures, post orders and memorandums of agreement. In
addition to standard training topics, the following areas are
included:
(a) National Defense Areas
(b) Emergency Vehicle Operators Course
(c) Chemical, Biological, Radiological Defense
(d) Airfield Licensing
Enforcement Program
NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 3, Paragraph 3.4.1 3.5, Antiterrorism
NTRP 3-07.2.2 Chapter 2 & Chapter 6, Force Protection Weapons
Handling Procedure and Guidelines
(3) Administration.
Division duties
Conducts routine Administrative
(4) Physical Security

(a) Physical Security Plans
(b) Physical Security Surveys
(c) Vulnerability Assessments
(d) Key Control
Enforcement Program
NTTP 3-07.2.3, Appendix P, Law Enforcement and Physical Security
(5) Supply.
Conducts routine Supply Division duties
6-8
7.
Security Force Member Requirements:

a.
Rated Master-at-Arms (MA)
b. Complete Security Reactionary Force (SRF) Basic course

(Required only if MA A School completed prior to September
2006)
c.
Successfully screen for the Personal Reliability Program
d. Obtain/Maintain a Secret clearance

SECNAVINST 5510.35A Enclosure 23
SECNAVMAN 5510.30 Chapter 6, Paragraph 6-8n (2)
8.
Deployment Operations
a.
Team Composition:
(1) Team Leader
(2) Team Members
b.
Pre-deployment requirements:
(1) Team roster and muster report

(2) Number of aircraft deploying
(3) Multiple Threat Alert Center (MTAC) notice and area
specific AT brief
(4) Establish ROE and UoF
(5) Establish points of contact
(6) Serial number inventory of weapons
(7) Lot number inventory of ammunition
(8) Inventory communications equipment
c.
In Transit:
(1) Pre-stage weapons and ammunition
(2) Individual gear check
(3) Team gear check
(4) Security gear check
(5) Communications check (if approved in flight)
(6) Secure EAL Mission Commander
(7) Guard mount brief
(8) Area threat assessment
(9) MTAC alerts
(10) State department warnings
6-9
(11) ROE and UoF brief

(12) Watch bill dissemination
(13) Liberty limits and/or boundaries
d.
Upon Arrival:
(1) Disembark
(2) Establish aircraft security perimeter
(3) Post sentries
AFI 31-101 (FOUO), PARTS 1, 2, & 3
DoD S5210.41M (Classified) Chapter 16, Paragraph C16.7.1
C16.7.1.3
Program
OPNAVINST 3591.1 (Series). This course is designated as highrisk IAW NPDCINST 5100.1 Series.
c. Small Arms Marksmanship Instructor (NEC 0812) (CIN A041-0148).
perform the duties of a Small Arms Instructor, for rifles,
6-10

d. Crew Served Weapons Operations and Maintenance Course
and the M240 Series Machine Gun, as well as selected Night
Vision Electro-Optics, at all ashore facilities and aboard all
ships afloat under all conditions of readiness. This course is
a pre-requisite for the Crew Served Weapons Instructor course.
e. Crew Served Weapons Instructor (NEC 0814) (CIN A-8302215). The Crew Served Weapons (CSW) Instructor course is
command anti-terrorism (AT) watch standers as a crew served
Supervisor in the development and conduct AT exercises, CSW
f. Navy Security Force Sentry (CIN A-830-2216) Taught by
g. Security Reaction Force Team Member Basic
movements.
h. Armed Sentry/Security Reaction Force - Basic (ASC/SRF:B)
i. Security Reaction Force Advanced (CIN A-830-0396).
Force related duties to protect their unit, it's mission, and
it's crew members whether pierside, at sea, or at a air facility
6-11

j. Non-Lethal Weapons (NLW) Basic Instructor (CIN A-8300035). Provides the NLW Basic Instructor the necessary
Pepper Spray).
k. Antiterrorism Training Supervisor (AT TRASUP) (NEC 9501)
security force training to Navy personnel, and assist with Force
Protection Training Team (FPTT) duties; to include armed sentry
watch-standing procedures, Non-Lethal Weapons (NLW) employment,
and Security Reaction Force (SRF) response procedures. This
course is designed to instill the level of knowledge, skills,
and abilities required to effectively oversee and assess daily
AT security force training and unit readiness, to defend against
concerning the units FPTT. This is a supervisory course
l. Antiterrorism Officer (CIN J-830-0015). This course is
and above and DOD equivalent civilians/contractors assigned as
in the U.S. Navy and DOD Antiterrorism programs. Course
execution.
m. Naval Security Force Officer (Ashore/Afloat NSFO) (CIN
A-7H-0007).
6-12

n. Security First Responder Course (CIN S-830-0026). The
Serious Incident Response and Crimes in Progress.
crime prevention.
p. Surveillance Detection (CIN S-830-0046). This course is
Forces and personnel assigned to Antiterrorism / Force
Protection duties. In Surveillance Detection allowing commands
to develop and implement a comprehensive Surveillance Detection
Program. To train Surveillance Detection personnel how to conduct
detailed target analysis and to provide the necessary skill
sets to setup and conduct overt surveillance detection
operations, comply with DoD standardized reporting procedure s,
and deter, detect, and disrupt future attacks. Topics addressed
in this course include Surveillance Detection Program overview,
Terrorist Surveillance Methods, Surveillance Detection
Techniques, Developing a Surveillance Assessment Matrix,
conducting a Target Analysis, Operational Planning and
Surveillance Detection Reporting. There are three practical
exercises and two case studies as well.
q. Emergency Vehicle Operators Course (EVOC)
6-13

r. Emergency Vehicle Operators Course (EVOC) Instructor
up, Testing techniques, Certification / Re-certification Process
s. Basic Instructor (NEC 9502) (CIN A-012-0043). Provides
training on communicative skills, learning process, questioning
techniques, human relations, instructional system development
process, preparation and use of training documents,
instructional aids and materials, and student measurement,
administration, and counseling. Students plan, develop and
present lessons using the lecture and demonstration or
performance methods of instruction.
10.
Qualifications
rank.
a.

b.

301 Sentry
c.


critical tasks required by STRATCOMWING. This list is not all
tasks.
6-14

Security Operations
6-15
Chapter 7: Protective Service Operations

1.
Introduction.
a. Protective operations are an integral part of the NCIS

mission and provide a vital service to the Department of the
Navy (DON), the Department of Defense (DoD), and the United
States Government. The term protective operations is
generally defined to be all security and law enforcement
measures taken to identify threats or vulnerabilities to
specific principals and to provide security for those
principals.
This ranges from personal security training to the
assignment of a Personal Security Detail (PSD).
NCIS 3-35, Paragraph 35-1b, Protective Operations
2.
Authority.
a. NCIS is the executive agent for all Protective Service

matters within the DON. As such, NCIS executes exclusive
jurisdiction and authority to conduct and coordinate Protective
Service Operations for designated DON High Risk Billets (HRB)
and other designated individuals except as otherwise authorized
by a Combatant Commander. In addition, NCIS performs the
following related functions:
SECNAVINST 5430.107, Paragraph 7.b.(11), Mission and Function of
the Naval Criminal Investigative Service
(1) Participates in the review and validation of DON
HRBs as Subject Matter Experts.
(2) Conducts Personal Security Vulnerability Assessments
for designated DON HRBs to determine the level of risk and
vulnerability from terrorist or criminal activities and to
determine the appropriate level of protection.
(3) Executes primary jurisdiction within the DON for
support to the United States Secret Service and to DoD and nonDoD agencies conducting Protective Service Operations for U.S.
government and foreign Officials.
3.
Protection Detail Establishment.
a. NCIS protective operations program involves a wide range

of support to DON, DoD, and non-DoD agencies. Protective
operations may be undertaken for the following reasons:
7-1
(1) When recommended by a Personal Security

Vulnerability Assessment. A PSVA is an assessment to determine
the vulnerability of a particular individual to attack. It
identifies specific areas of improvement to withstand, mitigate,
or deter acts of violence or terrorism against the individual.
PSVAs are initiated within 90 days of an officials assignment
to a permanent High Risk Billet (HRB) and will be reviewed
annually and updated by threat, vulnerabilities, or terrorism
threat level changes.
(2) Due to an increase in the general threat within an
area or region.
(3) In response to a specific threat to an individual.
(4) Following a request for support from DoD, DON, or
another U.S. Government agency.
(5) In response to special circumstances or events (when
approved by NCISHQ).
NCIS 3-35, Paragraph 35-1, Protective Operations
DoD O-2000.22, Appendix E2.7, Designation and Physical
Protection of DoD High Risk Personnel
4.
Designation of High Risk Billets (HRB).
a. HRB - Authorized personnel billets based on grade,

assignment, travel itinerary, or symbolic value may make a
person filling it an attractive or accessible target to
terrorists.
HRBs are normally reserved for the rank of General,
Admiral, or Senior Executive Service equivalent assigned in a
country with a Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA) terrorist
threat level of Significant or higher.
DoD O-2000.22, Appendix E2, Designation and Physical Protection
of DoD High Risk Personnel
(1) Note: High Risk Personnel (HRP) in combat zones and
areas outside of the United States where contingency or
expeditionary operations are underway which are not limited HRP
protection and do not require prior authorization for protective
support. Commands located in a combat environment may use
military personnel serving at their command to provide
protection for HRPs. Sailors serving in these Combat Security
Elements (CSE) do not require the 2009 NEC.
7-2
5.
High Risk Personnel.
a. There are three levels of HRPs. Each level is assigned

varying degrees of protection based upon the threat associated
with the HRP to include PSD support. (PSDs are trained and
armed protective security officials capable of providing
continuous protection for a designated individual.) Description
of the HRP protection levels are provided below:
(1) HRP Level One Protection - PSD support provided to
an official who requires continuous protection as recommended by
the Personal Security Vulnerability Assessment (PSVA).
(2) HRP Level Two Protection - PSD support provided to
an official who requires protection during periods of official
duty or travel as recommended by the PSVA.
(3) HRP Level Three Protection - Support provided to an
official who requires advanced individual antiterrorism
awareness and personal protection training.
6. Permanent HRBs.
a. The following positions are designed as permanent level
1 protection HRBs:
(1) Secretary of Defense
(2) Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
(3) Deputy Secretary of Defense
b. The following Permanent positions may be Level 1 or 2
designated based on approval of the Deputy Secretary of Defense:
(1) Vice Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
(2) Secretaries of the Military Departments
(3) Service Chiefs
(4) Combatant Commanders
7-3
(5) Director, National Security Agency

7.
Protection Providing Organization. (PPO)
a. The term PPO refers collectively to the various DoD

entities authorized to carry out protective operation missions
and includes the U.S. Army Criminal Investigation Command (CID),
the Naval Criminal Investigative Service (NCIS), the U.S. Air
Force Office of Special Investigations (AFOSI), the Defense
Criminal Investigative Service (DCIS), the Pentagon Force
Protection Agency (PFPA), and the National Security Agency
(NSA).
b. NCIS is the PPO for the DON and is responsible to ensure
Master-at-Arms performing protection have successfully completed
the military occupational specialty or classification training
required for PSSs. This training is provided by NCIS and
includes the Protective Service Operations Training Program at
the Federal Law Enforcement Training Center in Glynco, Georgia
and the United States Army PSD School at Fort Leonard Wood,
Missouri. Credentials are also issued by NCIS at the local
field office in which a person performs assigned duties via
NCISHQ.
8. Protective Service Details (PSD).
a. A PSD is the highest level of protection afforded in a
graduated response to increasing threat and vulnerability and is
activated when there is a credible threat that the principal is
a specific target.
b. PSD is a full-time operation, requiring 24-hour-a-day,
7-day-a-week coverage. The PSD will accompany the principal at
all times, whether on official or personal business. Whenever
possible PSDs use armored vehicle support, command posts,
vehicle trackers, personal body armor (for the PSD and the
principal), and a full range of NCIS weapons and technical
support.
NCIS 3-35, Paragraph 35-12 A-C, Protective Operations
DoD O-2000.22, NEED CHAPTER/PARAGRAPH, Designation and Physical
Protection of DoD High Risk Personnel
7-4
9.
PSD Structure.
a. Protective operations encompass a varying range of

personnel and techniques including walking formations and
motorcade movements. When resources allow, the suggested
minimum protective support package for a motorcade is comprised
of the following five positions:
(1) Personal Security Advisor (PSA) - The PSA is a
critical element of the NCIS Protective Operations Program.
After the completion of a PSVA that recommends PSA support,
NCISHQ will select an NCIS Special Agent PSA. PSA
responsibilities vary with the nature of each protective billet.
The primary role of the PSA, as the name implies, is that of an
advisor. The PSA is the NCIS conduit and focal point for the
flow of NCIS information and support relative to the personal
security of the principal. The operational functions of the PSA
are as provided:
NCIS 3-35, Paragraph 35-11 A(1-6), Protective Operations
(a) Provide security advice to the principal, family
and staff
(b) Provide close-in personal security for the
principal as required
(c) Provide liaison between the principal, NCIS and
U.S. and foreign law enforcement and intelligence agencies
(d) Provide security support (using sound law
enforcement principals) by resolving minor incidents and
supporting the cover and evacuation of the principal in major
incidents
(e) Designate responsibilities for personnel who are
supporting the PSAs Protective Operations, whether full-time or
temporarily
(f) Serve as the Detail Leader for assigned
protective service support personnel
(2) Limo Driver - Sets the pace for the motorcade and is
under the tactical control of the Shift Leader. The Limo Driver
follows the commands of the Shift Leader and changes lanes only
when directed. It is essential that the Limo Driver maintain
complete control of the vehicle at all times and ensure the ride
7-5
is as smooth as possible. The Limo Driver must be intimately

familiar with the motorcades routes (primary and alternate),
locations of hospitals, safe havens, and any other information
pertinent to the movement.
(3) Follow Driver Responsible for driving the vehicle
directly behind the limo and primarily uses his/her vehicle to
screen and block traffic. The follow vehicle can also be used
as an evacuation platform in the event the limo is disabled.
Because the Follow Driver could assume the role of Limo Driver
at any time he/she must be equally as knowledgeable of all
motorcade routes and information.
(4) Shift Leader - While the PSA has overall supervision
and responsibility for the protective detail, the Shift Leader
has tactical control of the detail. The Shift Leader will
determine speed of vehicles (based on input from the Limo
Driver/PSA), the use of emergency equipment, the need for
blocking, and will direct the motorcade to take evasive actions
when necessary.
(5) Advance - The Advance is the eyes and ears of the
detail prior to the principals arrival. He/she is responsible
for coordinating all security activities, plans and arrangements
prior to and in connection with the visit of a principal to a
given area. The Advance is also responsible for conducting a
site survey of destinations prior to the principals arrival.
10. Protective Walking Formations.
a. Once the motorcade arrives at its destination some
members of the PSD may be required to dismount the vehicles and
escort the principal by foot. Walking formations are dependent on
the threat, the availability of personnel, the venue type
(secure vice unsecured), and the desires of the PSA/principal.
The proximity of protective personnel to the principal will vary
depending on the situation. If the principal is moving through
a crowd, protective personnel will be closer to the principal.
On the other hand, if the principal is in an open area with
little pedestrian traffic, protective personnel may need to
spread out.Generally, the PSA will always be within an arms
reach of the principal when traveling outside of a secured
location. The following are the basic types of walking
formations:
7-6
(1) Single Escort (PSA) Protective team member at the

right and rear of the principal.
(2) Wedge One protective team member is at the point
(lead), one protective team member is at the rear and left of
the principal, and the PSA is at the rear and right of the
principal.
(3) Diamond The four protective team members are
placed in a diamond placement (front, rear, left, right) around
the PSA and principal.
(4) Defensive Circle Protective team members are
facing outward, arms interlocked (usually for severe crowd
situations).
(5) Cave In - Protective team members are facing inward
and providing cover from airborne objects.
(6) Fenceline (modified diamond) a one-dimensional
formation when the principal works a rope-line or fence-line. As
the formation approaches the fence line, the point and left
flank will be to the left of the principal, with the right flank
and rear coming to the right of the principal. The PSA will
remain behind the principal, watching the crowds interaction.
If working a fence line is scheduled or anticipated, it is a
good idea to place one or two protective personnel in the crowd,
coming through the crowd parallel with the protective detail.
b.
Walking Formation Guidelines.
(1) The detail needs to provide 360-degree security

regardless of detail size.
(2) The site Advance Agent (when available) will lead
the detail during walking movements.
(3) The Shift Leader is the tactical control of the
formation.
The Shift Leader makes sure the gaps are filled,
personnel are repositioned as needed, and sets the dispersion of
the formation.
(4) PSS should continually be thinking about what
actions they will take should an attack occur. In the event of
an attack upon the principal, PSDs will respond with the
following action chain consisting of four main actions. The
7-7
names for those actions are Arms Reach, Sound Off, Cover, and
Evacuate.
(a) Arms Reach - If the attacker is within an Arms
Reach (0-7 feet) of the agent, the PSS should move to
disable/neutralize the threat. The remainder of the team will
cover and evacuate the principal.
(b) Sound-Off - Identify the threat by sounding off
with the type of threat and direction it is coming from. When
identifying the threat yell what it is (i.e., gun, knife, etc.).
Use the standard 12-hour clock positions to identify the
direction of the threat (12:00 o'clock is always the direction
of movement of the Principle) to identify where the threat is
coming from.
(c) Cover - Protect the principal with any and all
resources available.
(d) Evacuate - Expeditiously remove the principal
from the area of the threat.
1 Note: The PSDs primary duty is to ensure the
safety of the principal, not to arrest or apprehend the
attackers.
c. Teamwork is essential. Protective personnel should
train together whenever possible. If time permits, team members
should walk through a few situations prior to starting a detail.
d. While working protective operations in general PSS must
constantly be alert to any danger signs and, therefore, must be
looking outward and not at the principal. This requires
concentration and practice. Personnel working a protective
operation must not only become familiar with the habits and
idiosyncrasies of the principal. But also be familiar with the
behavior and reactions of their fellow support personnel. When
accompanying a principal, protective operations personnel must
remember the following points:
(1) Protect yourself in order to protect the principal.
(2) Your stance should be focused toward the crowd.
(3) Know your initial reaction to a physical assault.
7-8
(4) Learn the behavior and impulsive mannerisms of the

principal.
11. Master-at-Arms.
a. Navy Master-at-Arms (MA) who have been trained in
Protective Service Training and Antiterrorism Driving (CIN A840-0001) are assigned the Navy Enlisted (NEC) 2009 Protective
Service Specialists (PSS) and are operationally assigned to NCIS
offices that have a protective operations mission.
b. In instances where MAs are assigned to NCIS, they report
directly to the NCIS Personal Security Advisor (PSA). PSS
duties include PSD member, security driving (lead, limo, and
follow vehicles), site advances, protective surveillance,
command post functions, and other security related duties as
assigned. Trained and experienced PSSs may also be used as
Shift Leaders, at the PSAs discretion.
c. When MAs are assigned to a NCIS Protective operations
billet, it is the responsibility of NCIS to provide their
workspace, annual training, and other administrative functions.
PSSs will follow existing NCIS policies regarding weapons and
qualifications, use of force, government vehicle policy, etc.
12.
Required Training:

The student will receive training and be tested on AntiTerrorism, Force Protection and Basic Law Enforcement to
include, but not limited to: Pier Sentry, Harbor Security,
Force Protection Conditions, Physical Security Safeguards,
Tactical Team Communications and Movements, Apprehension,
Search and Seizure, Use/Application of Force as they pertain to
the duties of a U.S. Navy Security Force Member. The student
must obtain an academic score of 80% or better to successfully
pass the course and must attain firearms proficiency with the
M9 Service pistol, M500 shotgun, M16 rifle, and M60 medium
machine gun as per OPNAVINST 3591.1 (Series). This course is
designated as high-risk IAW NPDCINST 5100.1 Series.
b. Navy Security Force Sentry (CIN A-830-2216) Taught by
7-9

c. Security Reaction Force Team Member Basic
movements.
d. Armed Sentry/Security Reaction Force - Basic (ASC/SRF:B)
e. Protective Service Training and Antiterrorism Driving
(NEC 2009) (CIN A-840-0001). Provide training in protective
services to personnel who conduct Protective Service missions
for executive level DoD leaders who are potential targets of
terrorism.
critical tasks required by NCIS. This list is not all
tasks.
Security Operations
7-10
Chapter 8:
Staff Duty
1. Overview.
Principle advisors to the Commander for all Antiterrorism/Force Protection matters and public safety concerns.
2. Screening.
Personnel desiring assignment to staff duty must
complete the Flag Officer (Staff) Duty Screening in accordance
with MILPERSMAN 1306-945.
3. Location.
Staff tour locations vary by assignment.
locations are listed below:
a. Commander,
b. Commander,
c. Commander,
Creek, VA
d. Commander,
e. Commander,
f. Commander,
g. Commander,
h. Commander,
i. Commander,
j. Commander,
k. Commander,
DC
l. Commander,
m. Commander,
n. Commander,
FL
o. Commander,
p. Commander,
q. Commander,
r. Commander,
s. Commander,
t. Commander,
Norfolk, VA
u. Commander,
Diego, CA
v. Commander,
FL
w. Commander,
4.
Several
Naval Operations, Arlington, VA

U.S. Fleet Forces Command, Norfolk, VA
Navy Expeditionary Combat Command, Little
Navy Installations Command, Washington, DC
Second Fleet, Norfolk, VA
Third Fleet, San Diego, CA
Fifth Fleet, Manama, Bahrain
Sixth Fleet, Naples, Italy
Seventh Fleet, Yokosuka, Japan
Navy Region Europe (CNRE) Naples, Italy
Naval District Washington (NDW), Washington,
Navy Region Mid-Atlantic (CNRMA), Norfolk, VA
Navy Region Northwest (CNRNW), Bremerton, WA
Navy Region Southeast (CNRSE), Jacksonville,
Navy Region Southwest (CNRSW), San Diego, CA
Navy Region Hawaii (CNRH), Pearl Harbor, HA
Navy Region Japan (CNRJ), Yokosuka, Japan
Naval Air Force Atlantic (CNAL), Norfolk, VA
Naval Air Force Pacific (CNAP), San Diego, CA
Strike Force Training Atlantic (CSFTL),
Strike Force Training Pacific (CSFTP), San
U. S. Naval Forces Southern Command, Mayport,
U.S. Pacific Fleet
Assignments.
a. Master-at-Arms assigned to staff duty may work in the

following core areas:
8-1
(1) Antiterrorism (N3AT). Serve as Antiterrorism

Officer (ATO).
DoD Directive 2000.12, DoD Antiterrorism (AT) Program
DoD Instruction 2000.16, DoD Antiterrorism (AT) Standards
SECNAVINST 5500.29 (Series), Use of Deadly Force and the
Carrying of Firearms by Personnel of the DON in Conjunction with
Law Enforcement, Security Duties and Personal Protection
(a) Provide oversight on N3AT antiterrorism program:
1. Ensure Commanders and Installation Commanding
Officers (ICO) have situational awareness concerning their AT
programs and their effectiveness.
2. Assist installation ATO in preparing their AT
Plan, identifying vulnerabilities, mitigation efforts, and
proper documentation.
3. Work with Legal and Contracting Officer to
provide guidance to combatant commander in developing AOR and/or
country specific contracts to ensure AT security considerations
are incorporated into the contracting process.
(b) Provide oversight on Antiterrorism (AT) training
program:
1. Establish and maintain training standards and
ensure requisite skill sets are available at the
fleet/installation level.
2. Establish and maintain liaison with Center
for Security Forces (CENSECFOR).
3. In cooperation with Training Directorates,
identify training and material requirements and program out-year
resource funding. The following are documents that will assist
commanders and staffs in developing collective and individual
training objectives:
a. Mission training plans.
b. Navy Tactical Reference Publication
(NTRP) and Navy Tactics, Techniques, and Procedures (NTTP)
manuals.
c. Deployment or mobilization plans.
d. Strategic defense plans.
e. Higher headquarters, CENSECFOR, major
Navy command, and local regulations.
8-2
f.
Local Standing Operating Procedures
(SOPs).
4. Coordinate the development of long and short
range training plans, ensuring compliance to higher headquarter
standards.
(c) Provide oversight on fleet/installation AT
Exercise program:
1. Develop drills and exercises to assist
units/installations in identifying physical security
vulnerabilities, pre-planned response shortfalls and training
deficiencies.
2. Collect lessons learned and assist
installations in compiling self assessments and identified
vulnerabilities for Core Vulnerabilities Assessment Management
Program (CVAMP) entry.
(d) Implement Core Vulnerabilities Assessment
Management Program:
1. Provide oversight on installation CVAMP.
2. Ensure training is provided to installations
to ensure CVAMP is being utilized correctly and efficiently.
Highlights of the CVAMP are:
a. Accessed via the Antiterrorism
Enterprise Portal (ATEP) on the Secret Internet Protocol Router
Network (SIPRNET).
b. Tracks and manages AT vulnerabilities
per DoDI 2000.16.(DoD Antiterrorism (AT) Standards)
c. Generates justification for requirements
to resolve vulnerabilities.
d. Standardizes and automates AT resource
request process; Combating Terrorism Readiness Initiative Funds
(CbTRIF) and Unfunded Requirements (UFR) submissions IAW Deputy
Secretary of Defense approved funding prioritization.
e. Identifies AT readiness shortfalls due
to unmitigated vulnerabilities.
8-3
(e) At a minimum, be thoroughly familiar with the

references listed at the end of this chapter.
(f) This position is normally filled by an MAC-MACM
(E7-E9) or Security Officer Designator 649X/749X.
(2) Physical Security.
Specialist.
Serve as Physical Security
(a) Provide oversight on physical security programs:

1. Ensure Commanders and ICO have situational
awareness of their programs and their effectiveness.
2. Provide guidance to ensure that appropriate
physical security considerations are included in the design of
facilities.
Specific technical expertise in exterior site
physical security, building physical security, ballistic attack
hardening, standoff weapon hardening, and bomb blast hardening.
Specific areas include but, are not limited to:
a.
Standoff
(1) The standoff zone, also referred to
as the setback area, is the second tier of defense and includes
that space between the outer perimeter of the site and the
exterior of what you are protecting. Standoff zones provide time
delays and more importantly, abatement of blast effects.
(2) To mitigate the effectiveness of a
vehicle bomb attack, commanders shall be continually vigilant
against allowing vehicle parking near high density buildings and
on piers. Every attempt should be made to establish minimum
standoff distances, which vary depending on the type of
construction, level of protection desired, and proximity of
perimeter barriers. It is important to understand that explosive
effects decay with increased distance.
b.
Equipment
(1) New technology
(2) Training
(3) Research and Development (R&D)
c.
Facilities
(1) New construction projects/
rehabilitation
(2) Critical Infrastructure Protection
(3) Ballistic hardening
8-4
(4) Perimeters
(a) Clearly defined
(b) Defense in Depth
(c) Adequate clear zones (20/30)
(d) Mitigation and Waivers/Exception
(5) Unified Facilities Criteria (UFC)
codes. Used during the engineering design of Department of
Defense (DoD) facilities to assure appropriate physical security
is included. The guidelines are based upon the best currently
available research and test data, and will be revised or
expanded as additional research results become available.
3.
Projects
a. Project Requirements. Project inception

and preliminary planning require thoughtful definition of goals
and needs (Project Scope), master planning to accommodate
anticipated future needs, evaluation of project alternatives,
identification of site requirements, funding requirements,
budget authorization cycles and/or financial impacts, and
project phasing.
b. Delivery Methods. There are many
approaches to achieve successful project design and construction.
These Delivery Methods; which are driven by the project's scope,
budget, and schedule; include Traditional (Design/Bid/Build), CM
(also called CMc, or Construction Manager as Constructor),
Design-Build, Bridging, and Lease/Build. The selection of a
delivery method will in turn influence the Delivery Team
composition, schedule, budget, and management plan.
c. Project Management Plans. A Project
Management Plan (PMP) is commonly used to document key
management parameters in a central location and is updated
throughout the project focusing on recognition of changes in
program planning and management of those changes. It includes
definition of an owner's program goals, technical requirements,
schedules, resources, budgets, and management programs.
d. Design Stage Management. Once a design
team has been assembled (procured), a high level of owner
coordination is needed to manage the entire delivery team
through the project's design phases. Design management requires
oversight of schedules and budgets, review of key submissions
and deliverables for compliance with program goals and design
objectives, verification of incorporation of stakeholder review
input, verification of incorporation of construction phase
8-5
functional testing requirements, and appropriate application of

the owner's design standards and criteria.
e.
Construction Stage Management

(1) Project coordination/communication
(a) Request for Information (RFI)
(b) Change order management
(c) Conflict resolution
(2) Inspections
(a) Submittal reviews
(b) Schedules
(c) Payments
f.
Mitigations
(1) Ballistic hardening
(2) Barricades
(3) Enclaves
(b) At a minimum, be thoroughly familiar with the

references listed the end of this chapter.
(c) This position is normally filled by an MAC-MACM
(E7-E9) or Security Officer Designator 649X/749X.
Program
Installations
(3) Military Working Dog (MWD) Program.
(a) Provides oversight on MWD program and maintains
strict accountability of all assigned assets and kennel
facilities.
(b) Conduct assessments on MWD handlers and their
assigned MWD to ensure personnel, MWDs, and records are complete
and are in full compliance with applicable instructions and
ready to be employed.
OPNAVINST 5585.2C DEPARTMENT OF THE NAVY MILITARY WORKING DOG
(MWD) PROGRAM
(c) This position is normally filled by an MAC-MACM
(E7-E9) with Navy Education Code (NEC) 2006.
(4) Policy.
8-6
(a) Acts as a conduit between higher headquarters,

the regional commander, and ICO in matters relating to policy or
doctrine.
(b) Review policy to ensure current mission
objectives are met.
(c) Assist with Mission Essential Task List (METL)
Development.
1. METL Development Process. Battle-focused
training programs are based on wartime requirements. Military
organizations cannot achieve and sustain proficiency on every
possible training task. Therefore, commanders must selectively
identify the tasks that are essential to accomplishing the
organization's wartime mission.
2.
Inputs to METL Development

a. There are three primary inputs to METL
development:
(1) War Plans. The most critical inputs
to METL development are the organization's wartime operations
and contingency plans. The missions and related information
provided in these plans are key to determining essential
training tasks.
(2) External Directives. External
directives are additional sources of training tasks that relate
to an organization's wartime mission. In some cases, these
directives identify component tasks which make up the wartime
mission. In others, they specify additional tasks that relate to
the wartime mission (for example, mobilization plans). Some
examples are:
(a) Mission training plans (MTP)
(b) Mobilization plans
(c) Installation wartime transition
(d) Force integration plans
(3) Commanders Analysis. Commanders
analyze the applicable tasks contained in external directives
and select for training only those tasks essential to accomplish
their organization's wartime mission. This selection process
reduces the number of tasks the organization must train. The
compilation of tasks critical for wartime mission accomplishment
is the organization's METL. To provide battle focus on the most
important wartime requirements, the Commander identifies
specified and implied mission essential tasks from the larger
number of possible training tasks contained in appropriate
external directives. This process will concentrate the
8-7
organization's peacetime training efforts on the most important

collective training tasks required to accomplish the wartime
mission.
3. At a minimum, be thoroughly familiar with
the references list at the end of this chapter.
4. This position is normally filled by an MACMACM (E7-E9) or Security Officer Designator 649X/749X
(5) Manning
(a) Provides regional oversight on security force
manning requirements.
(b) Act as a conduit between Commander, ICO, and
higher headquarters.
(c) Initiate procedures for correcting manning
shortfalls, manning distribution, and post validation accuracy.
(d) Have a clear understanding of the Total Force
Manpower Management System (TFMMS). TFMMS provides capabilities
for storage and retrieval of historical, current, budget, and
out-year manpower data. It also provides access to current
manpower data for resource sponsors, claimant, etc. TFFMS is
the single, authoritative repository for:
1.
2.
3.
4.
Total force manpower requirements

Active duty Manpower Personnel
Navy/Reserve Personnel
Navy manpower authorizations and end
strength
(e) Be thoroughly familiar with Manpower, Personnel,
Training, Research & Development (MPT R&D) Project Officers
Guide.
(f) Be thoroughly familiar with OPNAVINST 5530.14D,
Appendix XX, Security Manning Ashore.
5. Schools:
8-8

OPNAVINST 3591.1 (Series). This course is designated as highrisk IAW NPDCINST 5100.1 Series.
b. Antiterrorism Training Supervisor (AT TRASUP) (NEC 9501)
c. Antiterrorism Officer (CIN J-830-0015). This course is
antiterrorism plans, AT program management, assessments, and
execution.
d. Naval Security Force Officer (Ashore/Afloat NSFO) (CIN
A-7H-0007).
determine AT/FP readiness status, implement, organize, and
Charge. The Security Officer will be able to organize, train,
8-9

e. Navy Physical Security Course (CIN A-830-0001). Course
crime prevention.
6. References: (Note: Not all documents are available in
electronic format.)
a. MILPERSMAN
b. Manpower, Personnel, Training Research & Development
(MPT R&D) Project Officers Guide
c. Department of the Navy Implementation Plan for DoD
Installations Strategic Plan
d. DoD Directive 2000.12, DoD Antiterrorism (AT) Program
e. DoD Instruction 2000.16, DoD Antiterrorism (AT)
Standards
f. OPNAVINST 5530.14E, Navy Physical Security and Law
Enforcement Program
g. SECNAVINST 5820.7 (Series), Cooperation with Civilian
Law Enforcement Officials
h. SECNAVINST 5450.4 (Series), Establishment and
Disestablishment of Shore Activities of the DON
j. OPNAV NOTICE 5400, Standard Navy Distribution List
OPNAV NOTICE 5400_0 Forward
OPNAV NOTICE 5400_1 ADMIN FLEET CHAIN OF COMMAND
OPNAV NOTICE 5400_2 SHORE CHAIN OF COMMAND
k. NAVSO P-1000, Navy Comptroller Manual
l. DoD C-5210.41-M, Nuclear Weapon Security Manual
m. SECNAVINST 5500.29 (Series), Use of Deadly Force and the
Carrying of Firearms by Personnel of the DON in Conjunction with
Law Enforcement, Security Duties and Personal Protection
q. SECNAVINST 5530.4 (series) NAVAL SECURITY FORCE
EMPLOYMENT AND OPERATIONS
r. MCO 5500.6G, Arming of Security and Law Enforcement (LE)
Personnel and the Use of Force (NOTAL)
s. DoD 5200.8-R, Physical Security Program
t. Unified Facilities Guide
u. NTTP 3-07.2.1, Antiterrorism
v. NTTP 3-07.2.3, Law Enforcement and Physical Security for
Navy Installations
8-10
w. NWP 3-07.2 (Rev. A), Navy Doctrine for Antiterrorism /

Force Protection
7. Critical Task Lists. These skills were designated as
critical tasks by the appropriate TYCOM. This list is not all
tasks.
AIRFOR
BUMED
CNIC
NCIS
NECC
NETC
NETWAR
SPECWAR
SSP
SURFOR
STRATCOM
Security Operations
8-11
Chapter 9:
1.
Weapons & Use of Force
Weapons Overview
a. Firearm Safety - The single largest factor in accidents

involving firearms is the assumption that the weapon is not
loaded. The four cardinal rules in weapon safety are:
Treat every weapon as if it were loaded

Never point a weapon at anything you do not intend to
shoot
Keep finger straight and off the trigger until you are
ready to fire
Keep weapon on safe until you intend to fire
b. Firearms - NSF who regularly perform law enforcement and

security duties shall be armed. No person will be armed unless
currently qualified in the use of assigned weapons. Weapons
expected to be utilized by qualified personnel are, but not
limited to:
(1) M9 9mm Pistol
(a) Max Effective Range: 50m
(b) Max Range: 1800m
(2) M11 Service Pistol

Chapter 9: Weapons & Use of Force

9-1
(3) .38 Caliber Revolver

(b) Max Range: 992m
(4) AN/M8 Pyrotechnic Pistol

(a) Max Effective Range: Varies by ammunition
(b) Max Range: Varies by ammunition
(5) M500 Shotgun

(b) Max Range: 604m
(6) MP5 Sub machinegun Operator


9-2
(7) M14 Service Rifle

(a) Max Effective Range: 460m-700m
(8) M-16 (Series) Service Rifle

(9) M203 Grenade Launcher

(a) Max Effective Range: 150m (Point Target)
(b) Max Range: 400m
(10) M79 Grenade Launcher

(b) Max Range: 400m
(11) Grenades (MK 3A2)

(a) Max Effective Range: Thrown 40m
(b) Max Range: 2m casualty Radius (On Land)

9-3
(12) MK46 Mod 0 Light Machinegun/M249 Squad Automatic

Weapon (SAW)
(13) M240 (B/N) Medium Machinegun

(14) M60 (Series) Machinegun

(15) M-2 .50 Caliber Heavy Machinegun

(16) MK19 MOD 3 40MM Grenade Machinegun


9-4
(17) MK38 MOD 1 25MM Machinegun

(18) MK44 MOD 0/1 Gun Weapon System

(19) M107 Long Range Sniper Rifle

(a) Max Effective Range: 2000 yards
(b) Max Range: 7450 yards

Enforcement Program
c. Nonlethal Weapons (NLW). Todays world events mandate a
need to project non-lethal force across all levels of war to
enable our warfighters and leaders to effectively deal with a
host of traditional as well as nontraditional threats. Now more
than ever, the minimal level of tolerance for collateral damage
and loss of human life, coupled with the tendency for the
typical adversary to exploit the rules of engagement (ROE) to
his benefit, necessitates an effective and flexible application
of force through non-lethal weapons. Much like a rheostat switch
9-5
in which power can be dialed up or down as desired, NLW provide

tools to allow a commander to employ sufficient force to
accomplish an objective without requiring the destruction of an
enemy or the habitat. The intent of employing NLW is not to add
another step in the progression of escalation with an adversary,
but to add another tool to use anywhere along that continuum.
The Training Supervisor is responsible for ensuring all
personnel assigned to Security duties are properly qualified in
the use of NLW by completing the required curriculum.
Enforcement Program
NTTP 3-07.3.2, Tactical Employment of Non-Lethal Weapons
NTRP 3-07.2.2 Chapter 14, Force Protection Weapons Handling
Standard Procedures and Guidelines
(1) Examples of nonlethal means include: a show of force,
physical obstacles, riot control agents (RCA), noise to create
or enhance psychological effects, smoke and obscurants to mask
operations or defeat homing and guidance mechanisms, batons,
handcuffs/restraints, and use of light to disorient combatants.
NTTP 3-07.3.2 Chapter 1, Tactical Employment of Non-Lethal
Weapons
d. Use of Force.
CJCSI 3121.01B, Enclosure L, Standing Rules Of
Engagement/Standing Rules for the Use of Force for US Forces
(1) Serious Bodily Harm. Does not include minor
injuries, such as a black eye or a bloody nose, but does include
fractured or dislocated bones, deep cuts, torn members of the
body, serious damage to the internal organs, and other lifethreatening injuries.
(2) Deadly Force. Force that a person uses causing, or
that a person knows or should know would create a substantial
risk of causing, death or serious bodily harm.
(a) Deadly force is justified only under conditions
of extreme necessity and when all three of the following
circumstances are present:
1. Lesser means have been exhausted, are
unavailable, or cannot be reasonably employed,
2. The risk of death or serious bodily harm to
innocent persons is not significantly increased by use, and
3. The purpose of its use is one or more of the
following:
a. Inherent Right of Self-Defense. Deadly
Force is authorized when DoD Unit Commanders reasonably believe
that a person poses an imminent threat of death or serious
bodily harm to DoD Forces. Unit self-defense includes the
9-6
defense of other DoD Forces in the vicinity. (Unit Commanders

always retain the inherent right and obligation to exercise unit
self-defense in response to a hostile act or demonstrated
hostile intent. Unless otherwise directed by a unit commander
as detailed below, service members may exercise individual selfdefense in response to a hostile act or demonstrated hostile
intent. When individuals are assigned and acting as part of a
unit, individual self-defense should be considered a subset of
unit self-defense. As such, Unit Commanders may limit
individual self-defense by members of their unit.)
b. Defense of Others. Deadly Force is
authorized in defense of non-DoD persons in the vicinity when
directly related to the assigned mission.
c. Assets Vital to National Security.
Deadly Force is authorized when deadly force reasonably appears
to be necessary to prevent the actual theft or sabotage of
assets vital to national security. (For the purposes of DoD
operations, defined as President-designated non-DoD and/or DoD
property, the actual theft or sabotage of which the President
determines would seriously jeopardize the fulfillment of a
national defense mission and would create an imminent threat of
death or serious bodily harm. Examples may include, but are not
limited to, nuclear weapons; nuclear command and control
facilities; and designated restricted areas containing strategic
operations assets, sensitive codes or special access programs.)
d. Inherently Dangerous Property. Deadly
Force is authorized when deadly force reasonably appears to be
necessary to prevent the actual theft or sabotage of inherently
dangerous property. (Property is considered inherently
dangerous if, in the hands of an unauthorized individual, it
would create an imminent threat of death or serious bodily harm.
Examples may include, but are not limited to: portable missiles,
rockets, arms, ammunition, explosives, chemical agents and
special nuclear materials. On-scene DoD commanders are
authorized to classify property as inherently dangerous.)
e. National Critical Infrastructure. Deadly
Force is authorized when deadly force reasonably appears to
be necessary to prevent the sabotage of national critical
infrastructure. (For the purposes of DoD operations, defined as
President-designated public utilities, or similar critical
infrastructure, vital to public health or safety, the damage to
which the President determines would create an imminent threat
of death or serious bodily harm.)
f. Serious Offenses Against Persons.
Deadly Force is authorized when deadly force reasonably appears
to be necessary to prevent the commission of a serious offense
that involves imminent threat of death or serious bodily harm
9-7
(for example, setting fire to an inhabited dwelling or sniping),

including the defense of other persons, where deadly force is
directed against the person threatening to commit the offense.
Examples include murder, armed robbery and aggravated assault.
g. Escape. Deadly Force is authorized when
deadly force reasonably appears to be necessary to prevent the
escape of a prisoner, provided there is probable cause to
believe that such person(s) have committed or attempted to
commit a serious offense, that is, one that involves imminent
threat of death or serious bodily harm, and would pose an
imminent threat of death or serious bodily harm to DoD Forces or
others in the vicinity.
h. Arrest or Apprehension. Deadly Force is
authorized when deadly force reasonably appears necessary to
arrest or apprehend a person who there is probable cause to
believe has committed a serious offense.
(3) Continuum of Force. The minimum force necessary
shall be used by armed sentries to compel compliance and prevent
further actions by an aggressor. If escalation of force is
necessary, there are two distinct Use of Force Continuums listed
in the following references:
(a) NTTP 3-07.2.1, Chapter 7.2 states:
1. Professional Presence
2. Verbalizations
3. Restraining/Detaining Techniques
4. Compliance Techniques
5. Intermediate Force
6. Lethal Force
(b) NTRP 3-07.3.2, Chapter III-28 states:
1. Presence
2. Communication
3. Physical Control
a. Soft Techniques
b. Hard Techniques
4. Nonlethal Force
5. Deadly Force
e.
Warning Shots
(1) Naval Message 150158Z SEP 07 SUBJ/USE OF WARNING

SHOTS AGAINST SURFACE WATERBORNE THREATS outlines the use of
warning shots.

9-8
(2) This guidance applies to naval vessels, naval

service vessels (including military sealift command, governmentowned and United States flag time-chartered vessels), harbor
security boats (HSB), picket boats and piers, and units under
USN control only. Units under USCG control will follow the use
of force policy for warning shots as issued by the commandant
USCG, per 14 USC 637.
(3) Warning shots are authorized from crew-served
weapons and rifles in the territorial seas and internal waters
of the United States, its territories, and possessions.
(4)
Commanders Intent.
(a) Determining the intent of an approaching or in

close vessel is critical. When time and circumstances permit,
in order to facilitate the determination of hostile intent,
watchstanders must take quick and decisive action to warn
vessels away, but have a limited toolset (ship's whistle, flares,
bullhorns, bridge-to-bridge radios, etc.) with which to
accomplish this.
(b) Warning shots are an additional tool in the
watch stander's toolbox. A warning shot used against a
waterborne vessel does not constitute deadly force when
correctly employed, and a failure to heed a warning shot is
usually a clear indication of hostile intent. Therefore, a
warning shot is an effective way to both communicate a warning
and determine intent. The use of warning shots, however, should
be limited to circumstances when there exists no other
reasonable means available to determine the intent of the
approaching craft without increasing the threat to U.S. Navy,
naval service vessels and personnel. Furthermore, the use of
deadly force to protect a ship and its crew against a small boat
attack is not contingent on firing a warning shot. A warning
shot represents the last option in the continuum of actions
prior to the use of deadly force and should be employed as such.
(5) Weapons authorized for warning shots:
M-14/M-16 Rifles
M-60/M-43 Medium Machine Gun
M-240 Medium Machine Gun
M2 50 Caliber Heavy Machine Gun
M-46 Light Machine Gun

9-9
150158Z SEP 07 SUBJ/USE OF WARNING SHOTS AGAINST SURFACE

WATERBORNE THREATS
3-07.2.1_(NTTP) Antiterrorism-Force Protection
CJCSI 3121.01B Standing Rules Of Engagement/Standing Rules for
the Use of Force for US Forces
MCWP 3-15 Machine Guns and Machine Gun Gunnery
NTTP 3-07.2.2 Force Protection Maritime Interception Operations
COMNAVSPECWARCOMINST 3000.3B, Air Operations Manual
f.
Standing Rules Of Engagement (SROE) for US Forces:
(1) Purpose and Scope:

(a) The purpose of the SROE is to provide
implementation guidance on the application of force for mission
accomplishment and the exercise of self-defense. The SROE
establish fundamental policies and procedures governing the
actions to be taken by US commanders during all military
operations and contingencies and routine Military Department
functions. This last category includes Antiterrorism/Force
Protection (AT/FP) duties, but excludes law enforcement and
security duties on DoD installations, and off-installation while
conducting official DoD security functions, outside US territory
and territorial seas. SROE also apply to air and maritime
homeland defense missions conducted within US territory or
territorial seas, unless otherwise directed by the Secretary of
Defense (SecDef).
(b) Unit commanders at all levels shall ensure that
individuals within their respective units understand and are
trained on when and how to use force in self-defense. To provide
uniform training and planning capabilities, this document is
authorized for distribution to commanders at all levels and is
to be used as fundamental guidance for training and directing of
forces.
(c) The policies and procedures in CJCSI 3121.01B
are in effect until rescinded. Supplemental measures may be used
to augment these SROE.
(d) US forces will comply with the Law of Armed
Conflict during military operations involving armed conflict, no
matter how the conflict may be characterized under international
law, and will comply with the principles and spirit of the Law
of Armed Conflict during all other operations.
(e) US forces performing missions under direct
control of heads of other USG departments or agencies (e.g.,
9-10
Marine Corps Embassy Security Guards and other special security

forces), operate under use of force policies or ROE promulgated
by those departments or agencies, when authorized by the SecDef.
US forces always retain the right of self-defense.
(f) US Forces Operating With Multinational Forces:
1. US forces assigned to the operational control
(OPCON) or tactical control (TACON) of a multinational force
will follow the ROE of the multinational force for mission
accomplishment, if authorized by SecDef order. US forces retain
the right of self-defense. Apparent inconsistencies between the
right of self-defense contained in US ROE and the ROE of the
multinational force will be submitted through the US chain of
command for resolution. While a final resolution is pending, US
forces will continue to operate under US ROE.
2. When US forces, under US OPCON or TACON,
operate in conjunction with a multinational force, reasonable
efforts will be made to develop common ROE. If common ROE cannot
be developed, US forces will operate under US ROE. The
multinational forces will be informed prior to US participation
in the operation that US forces intend to operate under US ROE.
3. US forces remain bound by international
agreements to which the US is a party even though other
coalition members may not be bound by them.
(g) International agreements (e.g., status-of-forces
agreements) may never be interpreted to limit US forces' right
of self-defense.
(2) Policy:
(a) Unit commanders always retain the inherent right
and obligation to exercise unit self-defense in response to a
hostile act or demonstrated hostile intent.
(b) Once a force is declared hostile by appropriate
authority, US forces need not observe a hostile act or
demonstrated hostile intent before engaging the declared hostile
force.
(c) The goal of US national security policy is to
ensure the survival, safety, and vitality of our nation and to
maintain a stable international environment consistent with US
national interests. US national security interests guide global
objectives of deterring and, if necessary, defeating armed
9-11
attack or terrorist actions against the US, including US forces,

and, in certain circumstances, US persons and their property, US
commercial assets, persons in US custody, designated non-US
military forces, and designated foreign persons and their
property.
(d) Combatant Commander Theater-Specific ROE:
1. Combatant commanders may augment these SROE
as necessary by implementing supplemental measures or by
submitting supplemental measures requiring SecDef approval to
the CJCS.
2. US commanders shall notify the SecDef,
through the CJCS, as soon as practicable, of restrictions (at
all levels) placed on Secretary of Defense-approved ROE/RUF. In
time critical situations, make SecDef notification concurrently
to the CJCS. When concurrent notification is not possible,
notify the CJCS as soon as practicable after SecDef notification.
CJCSI 3121.01B Standing Rules Of Engagement/Standing Rules for
the Use of Force for US Forces
g.
Lautenburg Amendment.
(1) The Lautenberg Amendment was an amendment to the Gun

Control Act of 1968. It expanded the group of firearm prohibited
persons to those who have ever been convicted of a misdemeanor
crime of domestic violence. The effect is to make it a felony
for anyone with any DV conviction to own or even handle any
firearm or ammunition. It does not matter if the DV conviction
occurred before the 1996 enactment of the Lautenberg Amendment.
(2) The impact on those in the military is particularly
significant. There is no exception for those in the military
during the scope of their official duties.
(3) Lautenberg also made those under a domestic
restraining order into prohibited persons.
2.
Qualification Criteria for Pistols.
a. Qualification Criteria. All Navy personnel armed with a

pistol are required to qualify on the Navy Handgun Qualification
Course. Category II and above personnel are additionally
required to qualify on the Handgun Practical Weapons Course and
Handgun Lowlight Course annually. Due to safety concerns, there
are no requirements to fire the Handgun Lowlight Course or the
Handgun Practical Weapons Course while at sea. For IA's and
deployed afloat commands, qualification/sustainment may be
9-12
extended until 2 months after return to unit when a range or

simulator is not available. Before each qualification shoot, all
personnel shall receive Marksmanship/Safety/Weapon
Familiarization Training. If available, the Handgun Practical
Weapons Course and Handgun Lowlight Course of Fire (COF) shall
be accomplished on a simulator programmed with these COFs.
Personnel performing annual qualification in this manner shall
perform the complete live-fire qualification requirement at
their next semi-annual sustainment point. Training records shall
record and highlight that limited live fire training and
simulator training was used to fulfill the qualification
requirement as specified in this paragraph.
b. Sustainment Criteria. All personnel must requalify with
live fire annually. All personnel are also required to undergo
semiannual sustainment training between qualification shoots,
not to exceed 8 months after the last live fire qualification.
The requirements for semiannual sustainment training are
outlined in OPNAVINST 3591.1.
c. Marksmanship Awards. The Navy Pistol Marksmanship Ribbon,
Navy Sharpshooter Award, and Navy Expert Pistol Medal may be
earned on the Navy Handgun Qualification Course.
d.
Service Pistol Condition Codes:
CONDITION 1: Magazine Inserted,

Slide Forward,
Round in Chamber, Safety ON (M9)
CONDITION 2: Not Applicable to M9 or M11 pistol
CONDITION 3: Magazine Inserted,
Slide Forward,
Chamber Empty, Safety ON (M9)
CONDITION 4: Magazine Removed, Slide Forward,
Chamber Empty, Safety ON (M9)

enclosure 3
3.
Qualification Criteria for Rifles.
a. Qualification Criteria. All Navy personnel armed with a

rifle are required to qualify on the Rifle Qualification and
rifle low light Courses. This enclosure specifically addresses
the MI4 and MI6 (series) rifles, to include the M4A1, M727, and
Mk-18 Carbines. Due to safety concerns, there is no requirement
to fire the Rifle Lowlight Course while at sea. For IA's and
deployed afloat commands, qualification/sustainment may be
extended until 2 months after return to their unit when a range
9-13
or simulator is not available. If available, the Rifle Lowlight

Course of Fire (COF) shall be accomplished on a simulator
programmed with this COF. Before each qualification shoot, all
personnel shall receive Marksmanship/Safety/Weapon
Familiarization Training. Personnel performing annual
qualification in this manner shall perform the complete livefire qualification requirement at their next semi-annual
sustainment point. Training records shall record and highlight
that limited live fire training and simulator training was used
to fulfill the qualification requirement as specified in this
paragraph.
b. Sustainment Criteria. All Navy personnel armed with a
rifle must requalify annually on the Rifle Qualification Course
and the Rifle Lowlight Course. All Navy personnel armed with a
rifle must also undergo semiannual sustainment training between
qualification shoots, not to exceed 8 months after the last live
fire qualification. The requirements for semiannual sustainment
training are outlined in OPNAVINST 3591.1F enclosure 4 paragraph
7.
c. Marksmanship Awards. The Navy Rifle Marksmanship Ribbon,
Navy Sharpshooter Award and Navy Expert Rifle Medal may be
earned on the Rifle Qualification Course. The Navy Rifle
Marksmanship Ribbon, Navy Sharpshooter Award, and Navy Expert
Rifle Medal must be earned using a rifle equipped with iron
sights or non-telescopic dot type sights. The use of scoped
rifles is prohibited.
d.
Service Rifle Condition Codes:
CONDITION 1: Magazine Inserted, Bolt Forward, Round

in Chamber, Safety ON
CONDITION 2: Not Applicable
CONDITION 3: Magazine Inserted, Bolt Forward, Chamber
Empty, Ejection Port Cover Closed, Safety ON
CONDITION 4: Magazine Removed, Bolt Forward, Chamber
Empty, Ejection Port Cover Closed, Safety ON

enclosure 4
4. Qualification Criteria for Shotguns.
a. Qualification Criteria. All Navy personnel armed with
the shotgun are required to qualify on the Shotgun Practical
Weapons Course. Before each qualification shoot, all personnel
9-14
shall receive training per OPNAVINST 3591.1F enclosure 5

paragraph 4. Due to safety concerns, there are no requirements
to fire a qualification or sustainment course with the shotgun
while at sea. However, at every opportunity, trainers shall
ensure that personnel are qualified at a shore-based range. For
IA's and deployed afloat commands, qualification/sustainment may
be extended until 2 months after return to their unit when a
range or simulator is not available.
b. Sustainment Criteria. All Navy personnel armed with a
shotgun must requalify annually on the Shotgun practical Weapons
Course. All personnel armed with a shotgun must also undergo
semiannual sustainment training between qualification shoots,
not to exceed 8 months. The requirements for semiannual
sustainment training are outlined in OPNAVINST 3591.1F enclosure
5 paragraph 6.
c.
Service Shotgun Condition Codes:
CONDITION 1: Magazine Tube Filled, Round in Chamber,

Breech Bolt Forward, Action Closed, Weapons on Safe
CONDITION 2: Not Applicable
CONDITION 3: Magazine Tube Filled, Chamber Empty,
Breech Bolt Forward, Action Closed, Weapon on Safe
CONDITION 4: Magazine Tube Empty, Chamber Empty,
Breech Bolt Forward, Action Closed, Weapon on Safe

enclosure 5
5. Qualification Criteria for Light, Medium and Heavy Machine
Gun Performance Evaluation.
a. Weapons. M60 and MK43 (variants) 7.62MM medium machine
guns, M240 (variants) 7.62MM medium machine guns, and MK46 Mod 0
(M249 Squad Automatic Weapon (SAW)) 5.56MM light machine guns.
b. Performance Evaluation Criteria. All Category II Navy
personnel armed with light and medium machine guns must
successfully pass the Performance Evaluation Standard annually
per OPNAVINST 3591.1E enclosure 6. For IAs and deployed afloat
commands, qualification/sustainment may be extended until 2
months after return to their unit when a range or simulator is
not available. All Navy personnel who employ machine guns with
the bipod or in a mounted "free gun" mode shall shoot the "Light
and Medium Machine Gun Performance Evaluation Course" as well as
attend prescribed training. All Navy personnel that employ
9-15
machine guns with a tripod/T&E mechanism may also shoot the

"Machine Gun Performance Evaluation Course - Tripod/T&E"
Mechanism.
c. Pre-requisites. Classroom training must be conducted
before any sustainment, simulator, blank fire, or live fire
training evolution.
d. Required Sustainment Training. All Navy personnel armed
with light and medium machine guns are required to undergo
semiannual sustainment training, not to exceed 8 months.
Sustainment training shall include, but is not limited to,
classroom instruction, dry fire training, weapons manipulation
drills utilizing dummy rounds, simulator training, blank fire
training, and/or additional live fire training when feasible.
e.
Medium Machine Gun Condition Codes:
CONDITION 1: Ammunition on Feed Tray, Bolt Locked to

Rear, Weapon on Safe, Cover Closed.
CONDITION 2: Not Applicable.
CONDITION 3: Ammunition on Feed Tray, Bolt Forward on
Empty Chamber, Weapon on Fire, Cover Closed
CONDITION 4: Feed Tray Clear, Bolt Forward on Empty
Chamber, Weapon on Fire, Cover Closed
OPNAVINST 3591.1F enclosure 6
9-16
Chapter 10:
Organization, Legal Issues, and Professional

Training
1.
Legal
a. United States Navy Regulations. U.S. Navy Regulations
cover those regulations applicable to Commands, Commanding
Officers, Officers, and Enlisted personnel. The chapters
describe specific responsibilities.
Chapter 1 - Statutory Authority for U.S. Navy Regulations
Chapter 2 - Department of the Navy (Description)
Chapter 3 - Secretary of the Navy (Duties and Authority)
Chapter 4 - Chief of Naval Operations (Duties and Authority)
Chapter 5 - Commandant of the Marine Corps (Duties and
Authority)
Chapter 6 - U.S. Coast Guard (Positional Relationship when
operating under U.S. Navy)
Chapter 7 - Commanders In Chief and Other Commanders
(Duties)
Chapter 8 - Commanding Officers (Duties and Authority)
Chapter 9 - Senior Officer Present (Duties and Authority)
Chapter 10 - Precedence, Authority and Command (Authority of
Officers, Executive Officers, Department Heads, Non-Commissioned
Officers, Petty Officers, Sentries, and junior personnel in
relation to other Sailors and other military services)
Chapter 11 - General Regulations (Administration of
Discipline, Standards of Conduct, Official Records, Duties of
Individuals, and Rights and Restrictions)
Chapter 12 - Flags, Pennants, Honors, Ceremonies and Customs
(Honors to National Anthems and National Ensigns, Hand Salutes
and Other Marks of Respect, Gun Salutes, Passing Honors,
Official Visits and Calls, Formal Occasions Other Than Official
Visits, Display of Flags and Pennants, Special Ceremonies
Anniversaries and Solemnities, Deaths and Funerals)
b. Standard Organization and Regulation Manual of the U.S.
Navy. The Standard Organization and Regulations of the U.S.
Navy (SORM), OPNAVINST 3120.32, is applicable to all members of
the U.S. Navy. Its purpose is to issue regulations and guidance
governing the conduct of all members of the U.S. Navy.
c. Jurisdiction.
All personnel performing law enforcement
work for the Navy in the continental United States or overseas
need a basic understanding of the legal concepts of jurisdiction
and authority to apprehend. Both of these areas are complex
legal subjects, susceptible to change by legislation or court
decision.
Personnel with specific legal and policy questions
should be referred to the local staff judge advocate for
10-1
guidance and resolution. Jurisdiction is defined in the

judicial sense as the power of a court, military or civilian, to
consider a controversy and render a valid judgment. To have
such power, a court must have jurisdiction over several areas.
The sources of jurisdiction are:
(1) The Constitution. The power of a court-martial to
try service persons is contained in Article I, Section 8 of the
Constitution, which gives Congress authority to make rules and
regulations for the Armed Forces. Article II of the
Constitution makes the President of the United States the
Commander in Chief of the Armed Forces. The Congress has
exercised its rule-making power by enacting the UCMJ: Title 10,
U.S. Code, Sections 801-940. The President has exercised his
constitutional power by issuing the Manual for Courts-Martial
(MCM). Both the UCMJ and the MCM discuss and define courtsmartial jurisdiction.
(2) Federal Statutes. The federal statutes of the
United States, as well as the Constitution, are sources of
jurisdiction.
Article III of the Constitution established the
United States Supreme Court and also authorized the Congress, by
federal statutes, to establish the lower courts. Magistrate and
district courts are established under federal statutes. Military
law-enforcement officials will often come into contact with
civilian violators of federal law.
(3) Jurisdiction Over the Person. To try a person, a
court must have authority over his person. Courts-martial
normally have no authority or power over civilians. Thus a
court martial could not try a civilian, even though his or her
conduct might have been criminal and directly detrimental to the
military.
(4) Jurisdiction Over the Offense. To try a person for
an offense, a court must have jurisdiction over the offense.
All courts are limited in the classes of offenses that they may
hear and decide. For example, a federal or state civilian court
has no authority to try a military person for unauthorized
absence from his or her unit. That offense, punishable under
Article 86 of the UCMJ, can only be adjudicated by the military.
(5) Jurisdiction Over the Location or Place. The
jurisdiction of the courts is also limited by the location or
place of the offense. For example, the courts of New York State
have no jurisdiction to consider cases involving criminal
conduct in the state of Florida. Similarly, the United States
10-2
federal civilian courts have no jurisdiction, generally, to try

American citizens for offenses committed in another country.
Nevertheless, under Article 5 of the UCMJ, a court-martial has
jurisdiction to try military personnel for service-connected
offenses occurring in all places.
(6) Types of Jurisdiction.
(a) Military Jurisdiction. Courts-martial have
jurisdiction to try only certain specific classes of personnel
as delineated in Article 2 of the UCMJ. The following describes
these classes:
1. Service members on active duty. Article 2(1)
of the UCMJ identifies certain active-duty personnel as subject
to its jurisdiction.
2. Reserve members attending drill. Reservists
on inactive duty training, usually weekend drills, are subject
to UCMJ jurisdiction during drill periods if the orders
assigning them to duty so state. The orders of reservists in
some branches of the service do not state that the drilling
reservist is subject to UCMJ jurisdiction. Specific situations
should be referred to a local JAG officer.
3. Retired persons. Retired members of a
Regular component of the armed forces who are entitled to pay,
retired members of the Reserves who are hospitalized by the
service, and members of the Fleet Reserve or the Marine Corps
Reserve are all subject to UCMJ. This rule continues military
jurisdiction over specified categories of retired service
members who retain financial or other ties to the armed forces.
(b) Civilian Jurisdiction. The Supreme Court has
ruled that civilians are not under court-martial jurisdiction in
peacetime despite UCMJ, Article 2(11). That article provides
for jurisdiction over persons serving with, employed by, or
accompanying the armed forces outside the United States. Our
Government has allowed the trial of civilians under military
jurisdiction in time of war. However, the United States Court
of Military Appeals has interpreted the term war to include only
a war declared by Congress.
(c) Service Connection Issue. Law-enforcement
personnel may encounter some offenses that are not purely
military crimes. When that happens, they must evaluate the
offense to show a connection between the crime and the military
10-3
service. If they find no service-connection, the military has

no jurisdiction, even if the offender is on active duty in the
military. Offenses that are not service connected are legal
issues that must be referred to the staff judge advocate on a
case-by-case basis. The more closely related the crime is to
the base, military authority, or military duties, the more apt
the courts are to find it a service-connection issue and thus
under military jurisdiction. This service-connection
jurisdiction problem does not exist when the crime is committed
aboard ship or overseas. In addition, even if no court-martial
jurisdiction exists because of a lack of service connection, the
crime may still be under the jurisdiction of nonjudicial
punishment or of local, federal, or state civilian courts.
(d) Jurisdiction Over Federal Offenses. Title 18 of
the United States Code delineates the majority of federal
crimes. These crimes are generally major felonies. They apply
to both civilians and military personnel and are prosecuted in
the federal district courts. Offenses prohibited involve a wide
range of serious activities, such as mail fraud, kidnapping, and
theft of U.S. property.
(e) Investigative Jurisdiction. Base commanding
officers, in addition to having the duty of maintaining good
order and discipline, have the responsibility of ensuring that
neither military nor civilian personnel on base violate federal
civilian laws. The Secretary of Defense and the U.S. Attorney
General recognize that certain offenses against federal civilian
law are also violations against military law. They recognize
that the military offender should be prosecuted by a military
tribunal after the military investigation. They also recognize
that other offenses committed by military personnel or civilians
should be investigated by other federal agencies and prosecuted
in federal criminal courts. The Manual for Courts-Martial,
appendix 3, details investigative jurisdiction.
1. Major Crimes. The Federal Bureau of
Investigation is the chief investigative agency tasked with the
enforcement of federal criminal laws. Other agencies, such as
the Drug Enforcement Administration and the Treasury Department,
have investigative jurisdiction over specific crimes. Incidents
of actual, suspected or alleged major criminal offenses should
be referred to the Naval Criminal Investigative Service (NCIS),
which will decide whether the case should be referred to outside
federal agencies.
If the federal agency does not assume
investigative jurisdiction, NCIS will, in most instances,
conduct the investigation.
10-4
2. Minor Crimes and Traffic Offenses. The

majority of naval commands have investigative personnel within
their security departments. Such persons are normally limited
to investigating minor offenses. Any major criminal offense
should be referred immediately to the NCIS. This requirement
of referral does not in any way restrict command law enforcement
personnel from executing appropriate procedures. Appropriate
procedures include preventing the escape or loss of identity of
offenders, preserving crime scenes and the integrity of physical
evidence, or conducting on-scene inquiries as appropriate. Minor
offenses include most misdemeanors and traffic offenses. Both
the commanding officer (if the subject is military) and the U.S.
magistrates may dispose of these offenses. If criminal
prosecution before a U.S. magistrate is appropriate, it is
affected by the issuance of a U.S. magistrates court violation
notice, as set forth in SECNAVINST 5822.1.
(f) Assimilative Crimes Act. To avoid the task of
maintaining a complete code of civilian criminal laws for
military bases and other federal property, Congress passed the
Assimilative Crimes Act. This statute provides that all acts or
omissions occurring in an area under federal jurisdiction that
would constitute crimes if the area were under state
jurisdiction will constitute the same crimes, similarly
punishable, under federal law. For example, Congress has not
enacted a traffic code for military bases. However, speeding on
a naval base could be a federal traffic violation because
military bases adopt for federal use the traffic laws of the
state in which they are located.
(g)Territorial Jurisdiction.
Military reservations
generally are categorized as having either exclusive federal
jurisdiction or concurrent federal jurisdiction. The federal
government may also hold territory in a status of proprietary
interest. Jurisdiction in this context refers to the authority
to enact and enforce general criminal laws within a given area.
Two or three types of jurisdiction may exist within the same
installation.
Because parts of a base might have been acquired
at different times in different ways, one portion might be under
exclusive jurisdiction and the next under concurrent. Law
enforcement personnel should consult with their local staff
judge advocate concerning the jurisdictional status of all
portions of their base.
1. Exclusive Federal Jurisdiction. Only the
federal government has the power to make and enforce federal
10-5
laws. Federal laws are enforced through various agencies,

including the military. Thus, exclusive federal jurisdiction
applies only to areas governed by the specific federal criminal
statutes and the statutes of the federal Assimilative Crimes
Act. Generally, state laws have neither force nor effect in
areas of federal jurisdiction; and local, state, or municipal
law enforcement authorities have no authority in such areas.
2. Concurrent Federal Jurisdiction. Both the
federal government and state government (including its county
and municipal subdivisions) have authority to make and enforce
general municipal laws on the land in question. Thus, a single
act could constitute a crime against both the federal and local
state law. Both naval authorities and state authorities could,
in theory, enforce and prosecute under their respective law.
However, they must first seek permission as specified in section
0116 of the Manual of the Judge Advocate General (JAGMAN).
3. Proprietary Jurisdiction. When the federal
government has acquired a degree of ownership of a piece of
property but has not obtained legislative authority over the
area, generally only the state has the power to enforce its laws
on the property. The United States has the right, however, as
does any landowner or tenant, to protect its property. In
addition, state authorities cannot interfere with any valid
military activity on such property. A court-martial has
jurisdiction over a military member on active duty no matter
where the offense is committed; however, coordination between
naval and state/local authorities is always recommended first.
(h) Posse Comitatus Act. The Posse Comitatus Act
provides that the Army and Air Force cannot be used to execute
the laws. DoD Directive 5525.5 of 15 Jan 86 and SECNAVINST
5820.7 have applied the same restrictions to the Navy as a
matter of DoD and DON policy. Posse comitatus means the power
or force of the county. It authorizes the sheriff to call a
posse of citizens to help enforce the law. In the context of
this statute and DoD policy, posse comitatus generally means
that military personnel cannot be used to enforce civilian laws.
This law does not prohibit such individuals from making a
citizens arrest for a felony or breach of the peace committed
in their presence or from issuing citations for appearance
before a U.S. magistrate. It also doesnt prevent them from
performing other duties that support the role of the military;
for example, protecting government personnel and property.
10-6
d. Apprehension and Restraint. Because Masters-at-Arms

make a large percentage of all apprehensions in the Navy, you
should clearly understand the legal meanings of the word
apprehension and other terms such as arrest, custody,
confinement, and restraint. The authority of Navy law
enforcement personnel to enforce military law, orders, and
regulations is derived from Title 10, U.S. Code 807, and Manual
for Courts-Martial (MCM), Rule 302.
(1) UCMJ Article 7 Apprehension. Apprehension is the
taking of a person into custody. Any person authorized under
regulations governing the armed forces to apprehend persons
subject to this chapter or to trial there under may do so upon
reasonable belief that an offense has been committed and that
the person apprehended committed it. Commissioned officers,
warrant officers, petty officers, and noncommissioned officers
shall have authority to quell quarrels, frays, and disorders
among persons subject to this chapter, and to apprehend persons
subject to this chapter who take part therein.
(a) Apprehension is defined as taking a person into
custody. As you will see later, a person is placed under arrest
only on the order of an officer. As a practical matter, the
fact that you say, Im placing you under arrest instead of
Im apprehending you makes no legal difference. The important
point is that the offender must be informed clearly that he or
she is being taken into custody. The offender wont know unless
told. The MCM defines custody in part as restraint of free
locomotion, which is imposed by lawful apprehension. To make
the custody clear, you should normally use some indication of
physical restraint, such as taking the offender by the arm.
This procedure is not always wise, of course, especially if the
offender is argumentative or drunk. Use good judgment when using
physical restraint.
Remember that the purpose of taking a
person into custody is only to restrain the violator until
proper authority can be notified. Article 7 includes taking
custody of any U.S. service member, Navy or otherwise.
(b) Apprehension is the military equivalent of the
civilian term arrest. Any officer, warrant officer,
noncommissioned officer, or other person designated by proper
authority to perform guard, police, or criminal investigation
duties may apprehend a violator. Custody means restraint of
free movement. When an individual is taken into custody, the
individuals movements are controlled by the person or persons
who made the apprehension. Physical restraint is the loss of
free movement that results from being taken into custody. It
10-7
may involve force or may be accomplished by obedience to orders.

Even if force is not used, a Master-at-Arms must be able to
apply force if needed to effect an apprehension; that is, the MA
must be able to restrain forcibly an offender who resists
apprehension.
The use of force depends on whether or not the
offender submits to the apprehension. The procedure for
apprehending depends upon its necessity, the manner in which an
offender is approached, an evaluation of the facts and
circumstances, and the manner in which custody is imposed.
(c) When to Apprehend. Apprehension is made only
for probable cause. If facts and circumstances indicate that a
person has committed an offense, then an apprehension may be
justified.
All offenses, however, do not require apprehension.
A minor offense or traffic violation may require only an on-thespot correction, an incident report, or a traffic citation.
When to apprehend depends on the facts and circumstances of the
offense and your judgment and experience. No two offenders are
identical. Officers should not be apprehended except on the
orders of another officer or because of the seriousness of the
offense. An apprehension is affected when the suspect is told
that he or she is being taken into custody. A simple statement
such as Youre under apprehension or Im taking you into
custody is sufficient. The suspect should not have any doubts
about his or her status. As the apprehending officer, you may
search for weapons to ensure your own safety or search for tools
that might enable the suspect to escape. You need not search
every area in a room in which a suspect is apprehended; instead,
search only that area of the room under the suspects immediate
control. Thus, the scope of the search depends on the
circumstances involved in the apprehension. If circumstances
allow, warn a suspect of his or her right against selfincrimination in accordance with Article 31, UCMJ. Although
formal interrogations are rarely made at the scene of an
apprehension, any confession or admission obtained from the
suspect at the scene is inadmissible in court unless the suspect
is first warned of his or her rights under Article 31, UCMJ.
(2) Article 9 Imposition of Restraint. Arrest is the
restraint of a person by an order, not imposed as a punishment
for an offense, directing him to remain within certain specified
limits. Confinement is the physical restraint of a person. An
enlisted member may be ordered into arrest or confinement by any
commissioned officer by an order, oral or written, delivered in
person or through other persons subject to this chapter. A
commanding officer may authorize warrant officers, petty
officers, or noncommissioned officers to order enlisted members
10-8
of his command or subject to his authority into arrest or

confinement.
A commissioned officer, a warrant officer, or a
civilian subject to this chapter or to trial thereunder may be
ordered into arrest or confinement only by a commanding officer
to whose authority he is subject, by an order, oral or written,
delivered in person or by another commissioned officer. The
authority to order such persons into arrest or confinement may
not be delegated. No person may be ordered into arrest or
confinement except for probable cause.
(a)Congress has given the terms apprehension,
arrest, and confinement distinct meanings. Apprehension, as you
learned from Article 7, is the initial act of taking a person
into custody. Once a person is taken into custody, that person
may be held under restraint for safekeeping while the charges
are disposed of. There are three forms of such restraint.
The
most severe is confinement the physical restraint of a person.
Next comes the arrest, which is the restraint of a person by an
order directing him or her to remain within certain specified
limits. The least severe form of restraint for safekeeping is
restriction in lieu of arrest, which is also imposed by an order
directing the person to remain within certain specified limits.
The difference between arrest and restriction in lieu of arrest
is that a restricted person performs all regular duties, whereas
a person under arrest does not perform full military duties.
For this reason, personnel who commit relatively minor offenses
are normally put under restriction in lieu of arrest.
Confinement, arrest, and restriction in lieu of arrest, when
imposed under Article 9, are not forms of punishment. Arrest
and restriction in lieu of arrest are similar in one respect:
the party is required to stay within specified limits. It is a
persons conscience and the force of law, rather than a strong
arm or a barred door, that induce an individual to remain within
those limits. A person obeys because of a moral and legal
obligation to do so. Confinement before trial is usually not
imposed. However, it is imposed if needed to ensure the
presence of the accused at the trial, if the offense charged is
extremely serious, or if the safety of the public or the accused
is in jeopardy.
d. Search and Seizure.
Manual for Courts Martial 2008, Military Rules for Evidence
(MRE) 313-316
(1) Definitions
(a) Search - A quest for incriminating evidence
10-9
(b) Seizure - Taking possession of a person or some

item of evidence in conjunction with the investigation of
criminal activity.
(c) Inspection - Examination conducted as an
incident of command, the primary purpose of which is to
determine and to ensure the security, military fitness, good
order and discipline of the unit, organization, installation,
vessel, aircraft, or vehicle.
(d) Probable Cause - Reasonable belief that a crime
has been committed, is being committed, or will be committed,
and that certain persons, property, or evidence related to that
crime will be found in the place or on the persons to be
searched.
(2) Types of Searches
(a) Probable Cause Not Required Searches
1. Border Searches
2. Searches upon entry to or exit from United
States installations, aircraft, and vessels abroad.
3. Searches of Government Property (where no
reasonable expectation of privacy exists).
4. Consent Searches
5. Searches incident to a Lawful Stop
6. Searches incident to a Lawful Apprehension
7. Searches within jails, confinement
facilities, or similar facilities.
8. Emergency searches to save life or for
related purposes
9. Searches of open fields or woodlands
10. Other searches
(b) Probable Cause Required Searches
1. Command Authorization
2. Search Warrant
3. Exigent Circumstance Search
a. Insufficient Time
b. Lack of Communications
c. Search of Operable Vehicle
(3) Seizures. Probable cause to seize property or
evidence exists when there is a reasonable belief that the
property or evidence is an unlawful weapon, contraband, evidence
of a crime, or might be used to resist apprehension or to
escape.
10-10
(a) Abandoned property. Abandoned property may be

seized without probable cause and without a search warrant or
search authorization.
(b) Consent. Property or evidence may be seized
with consent consistent with the requirements applicable to
consensual searches under MRE 314.
(c) Government Property. Government property may be
seized without probable cause and without a search warrant or
search authorization by any authorized person, unless the person
to whom the property is issued or assigned has a reasonable
expectation of privacy therein, as provided in MRE 314(d), at
the time of the seizure.
(d) Other Property. Property or evidence not
included in paragraph (a)-(c) may be seized for use in evidence
by any authorized person if:
1. Authorization. The person is authorized to
seize the property or evidence by a search warrant or a search
authorization under MRE. 315
2. Exigent Circumstances. The person has
probable cause to seize the property or evidence and under MRE
315(g), a search warrant or search authorization is not required
3. Plain View. The person while in the course
of otherwise lawful activity observes in a reasonable fashion
property or evidence that the person has probable cause to
seize.
4. Temporary Detention. Nothing in this rule
shall prohibit temporary detention of property on less than
probable cause when authorized under the Constitution of the
United States.
(e) Power to Seize. Any commissioned officer,
warrant officer, petty officer, noncommissioned officer, and,
when in the execution of guard or police duties, any criminal
investigator, member of the Air Force security police, military
police, or shore patrol, or individual designated by proper
authority to perform guard or police duties, or any agent of any
such person, may seize property pursuant to this rule.
(f) Other Seizures. A seizure of a type not
otherwise included in this rule may be made when permissible
10-11
under the Constitution of the United States as applied to

members of the armed forces.
2.
Military Law of Evidence

a. Military Law of Evidence Article.
3. COs Mast Procedure. JAGMAN Appendix A-1-e dictates

procedures for COs Mast.
4.
Controlled Substances
a. The Federal Controlled Substances Act (FCSA), Title II,
of the Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act of
1970, is the legal foundation of the governments fight against
abuse of drugs and other substances. This law is a
consolidation of numerous laws regulating the manufacture and
distribution of narcotics, stimulants, depressants, and
hallucinogens. Drugs may placed on the FCSA by administrative
or legislative acts passed by Congress. More recently, in 1988,
congress passed the Chemical Diversion and Trafficking Act. This
Act allows for the regulation of certain chemicals that are used
in the making of controlled substances.
b. The FCSA places all substances that are in some manner
regulated under existing federal law into one of five schedules.
This placement is based upon the substances medical use,
potential for abuse, and safety or dependence liability. The
act also provides a mechanism for substances to be controlled,
or added to a schedule; decontrolled, or removed from control;
and rescheduled or transferred from one schedule to another.
The procedure for these actions is found in Section 201 of the
FCSA (21 U.S.C. 811).
c. Proceedings to add, delete, or change the schedule of a
drug or other substance may be initiated by the Department of
Health and Human Services (HHS), by the DEA, or by petition from
any interested person the manufacturer of a drug, a medical
society or association, a pharmacy association, a public
interest group concerned with drug abuse, a state or local
government agency, or an individual citizen. When a petition is
received by the DEA, the agency begins its own investigation of
the drug. The agency also may begin an investigation of a drug
at any time based upon information received from law enforcement
laboratories, state and local law enforcement and regulatory
agencies, or other sources of information.
d. The threshold issue is whether the drug or other
substance has potential for abuse. If a drug does not have a
10-12
potential for abuse, it cannot be controlled. Although the term

potential for abuse is not defined in the FCSA, there is much
discussion of the term in the legislative history of the act.
e. The following is an example of drugs that can be found
on the various schedules: (Note: This list is by NO MEANS
exhaustive.
A complete listing of controlled substances and
drug schedules can be found on the DEA web site at
http://www.usdoj.gov/dea/index.htm under Drug Policy.)
Schedule I
Non
DEA
Other Names
Number Narcotic
1-(1-Phenylcyclohexyl)pyrrolidine 7458
N
PCPy, PHP, rolicyclidine
Substance
3,4-Methylenedioxyamphetamine
7400
MDA, Love Drug
3,
4-Methylenedioxymethamphetamine
3-Methylfentanyl
7405
MDMA, Ecstasy, XTC
9813
China White, fentanyl
3-Methylthiofentanyl
9833
Chine White, fentanyl
4-Bromo-2,
5-dimethoxyphenethylamine
7392
Nexus, 2-CB, has been sold

as Ecstasy, i.e. MDMA
5-Methoxy-3,
4-methylenedioxyamphetamine
7401
MMDA
Alpha-Methylfentanyl
9814
Alpha-Methylthiofentanyl
9832
Aminorex
1585
Codeine methylbromide
Codeine-N-oxide
9070
9053
Gama Hydroxybutyric Acid (GHB)
2010
Heroin
9200
Lysergic acid diethylamide
7315
LSD, lysergide
Marijuana
7360
Cannabis, marijuana
Mescaline
7381
Constituent of "Peyote"
cacti
Methaqualone
2565
Quaalude, Parest,
Somnafac, Opitimil,
Mandrax
10-13
has been sold as

methamphetamine
GHB, gama hydroxybutyrate,

sodium oxybate
Diacetylmorphine,
diamorphine
Morphine methylbromide
9305
Morphine methylsulfonate
Morphine-N-oxide
9306
9307
Myrophine
9308
Peyote
7415
Cactus which contains

mescaline
Psilocybin
7437
Constituent of "Magic
mushrooms"
Psilocyn
7438
Psilocin, constituent of
"Magic mushrooms"
Schedule II
1-Phenylcyclohexylamine
7460
18603
Piperidinocyclohexanecarbonitrile
N
N
Precusor of PCP
PCC, precusor of PCP
Amphetamine
Benzoylecgonine
1100
9180
Dexedrine, Biphetamine
Cocaine metabolite
Coca Leaves
9040
Cocaine
9041
Methyl benzoylecgonine,
Crack
Codeine
9050
Morphine methyl ester,

methyl morphine
Meperidine
9230
Demerol, Mepergan,
pethidine
Methadone
9250
Dolophine, Methadose,
Amidone
Methamphetamine
1105
Desoxyn, Ddesoxyephedrine, ICE,

Crank, Speed
Methylphenidate
1724
Ritalin
Morphine
9300
Opium extracts
9610
Opium fluid extract
9620
Opium poppy
9650
Papaver somniferum
Opium tincture
Opium, granulated
9630
9640
Laudanum
Granulated opium
Opium, powdered
9639
Powdered Opium
Opium, raw
9600
Raw opium, gum opium
10-14
MS Contin, Roxanol,
Duramorph, RMS, MSIR
Oxycodone
9143
OxyContin, Percocet,
Tylox, Roxicodone,
Roxicet,
Oxymorphone
9652
Numorphan
Pentobarbital
Secobarbital
2270
2315
Thebaine
9333
Anabolic steroids
N
N
Nembutal
Seconal, Tuinal
Precursor of many
narcotics
Schedule III
4000
N
"Body Building" drugs
Barbituric acid derivative
2100
Barbiturates not
specifically listed
Butabarbital
2100
Butisol, Butibel
Butalbital
2100
Fiorinal, Butalbital with

aspirin
Codeine & isoquinoline alkaloid

90 mg/du
9803
Dronabinol in sesame oil in soft

gelatin capsule
Drostanolone
7369
4000
Ethylestrenol
4000
Hydrocodone combination product

15 mg/du
9806
Ketamine
7285
Testosterone
4000
Codeine with papaverine or

noscapine
Marinol, synthetic THC in
sesame oil/soft gelatin
Drolban, Masterid,
Permastril
Maxibolin, Orabolin,
Durabolin-O, Duraboral
Tussionex, Tussend,
Lortab, Vicodin, Hycodan,
Anexsia ++
Ketaset, Ketalar, Special
K, K
Android-T, Androlan,
Depotest, Delatestryl
Schedule IV
Alprazolam
2882
Xanax
Dexfenfluramine
1670
Redux
Diazepam
Zolpidem
2765
2783
N
N
Valium, Valrelease
Ambien, Stilnoct,Ivadal
Schedule V
Codeine preparations - 200 mg/100
ml or 100 gm
Cosanyl,Robitussin AC,Cheracol,Cerose,Pediacof
Difenoxin preparations - 0.5
Motofen
10-15
mg/25 ug AtSO4/du
Dihydrocodeine preparations 10
mg/100 ml or 100 gm
Diphenoxylate preparations 2.5
mg/25 ug AtSO4
Ethylmorphine preparations 100
mg/100 ml or 100 gm
Cophene-S, various others
Opium preparations - 100 mg/100

ml or gm
Parepectolin, Kapectolin
PG, Kaolin Pectin P.G.
Pyrovalerone
Lomotil, Logen
1485
Centroton, Thymergix
f. Controlled substances identified on the Schedule of

Drugs may or may not have a valid medical use.
5.
Forensics
a. Forensics Article
6.
Evidence
a. Evidence Procedures Article
7. Manual for Courts-Martial (MCM). The MCM covers a wide

scope of legal issues affecting the United States military
services.
It is broken down into 5 parts and 27 appendices:
a. Part 1 - Preamble
b. Part 2 - Rules for Courts-Martial
c. Part 3 - Military Rules of Evidence
d. Part 4 - Punitive Articles
e. Part 5 - Non-Judicial Punishment Procedure
f. Appendices
(1) Constitution of the United States - 1787
(2) Uniform Code of Military Justice
(3) DoD Directive 5525.7
(4) Charge Sheet (DD Form 458)
(5) Investigating Officer Report (DD Form 457)
(6) Forms for Orders Convening Courts-Martial
(7) Subpoena (DD Form 453)
(8) Guide for General and Special Courts-Martial
(9) Guide for Summary Courts-Martial
(10) Forms of Findings
(11) Forms of Sentences
(12) Maximum Punishment Chart
(13) Guide for Preparation of Record of Trial by General
Court-Martial and by Special Court-Martial When a Verbatim
Record is not required
10-16
(14) Guide for Preparation of Record of Trial by General

Court-Martial and by Special Court-Martial When a Verbatim
Record is required
(15) Record of Trial by Summary Court-Martial (DD Form
2329)
(16) Forms for Action
(17) Forms for Court-Martial Orders
(18) Reports of Proceedings to Vacate Suspension of a
General Court-Martial or of a Special Court-Martial Sentence
Including a Bad-Conduct Discharge or Confinement for One Year
Under Article 72, UCMJ, and R.C.M. 1109 (DD Form 455)
(19) Waiver/Withdrawal of Appellate Rights in General
Courts-Martial Subject to Review by a Court of Military Review
(DD Form 2330)
(20) Waiver/Withdrawal of Appellate Rights in General
Courts-Martial Subject to Examination in the Office of the Judge
Advocate General (DD Form 2331)
(21) Analysis of Rules for Courts-Martial
(22) Analysis of the Military Rules of Evidence
(23) Analysis of Punitive Articles
(24) Analysis of Nonjudicial Punishment Procedure
(25) Historical Executive Orders
(26) The Joint Service Committee on Military Justice
(JSC)
(27) Punitive Articles Applicable to Sexual Assault
Offenses Committed Prior to 1 October 2007
8.
Uniform Code of Military Justice Punitive Articles:

Article 77Principals
Article 78Accessory After The Fact
Article 79Conviction of lesser included offenses
Article 80Attempts
Article 81Conspiracy
Article 82Solicitation
Article 83Fraudulent enlistment, appointment, or
separation
Article 84Effecting unlawful enlistment, appointment, or
separation
Article 85Desertion
Article 86Absence without leave
Article 87Missing movement
Article 88Contempt toward officials
Article 89Disrespect toward a superior commissioned
officer
10-17
Article 90Assaulting or willfully disobeying superior

commissioned officer
Article 91Insubordinate conduct toward warrant officer,
noncommissioned officer, or petty officer
Article 92Failure to obey order or regulation
Article 93Cruelty and maltreatment
Article 94Mutiny and sedition
Article 95Resistance, flight, breach of arrest, and escape
Article 96Releasing prisoner without proper authority
Article 97Unlawful detention
Article 98Noncompliance with procedural rules
Article 99Misbehavior before the enemy
Article 100Subordinate compelling surrender
Article 101Improper use of countersign
Article 102Forcing a safeguard
Article 103Captured or abandoned property
Article 104Aiding the enemy
Article 105Misconduct as a prisoner
Article 106Spies
Article 106aEspionage
Article 107False official statements
Article 108Military property of the United Statessale,
loss, damage, destruction, or wrongful disposition
Article 109Property other than military property of the
United Stateswaste, spoilage, or destruction
Article 110Improper hazarding of vessel
Article 111Drunken or reckless operation of vehicle,
aircraft, or vessel
Article 112Drunk on duty
Article 112aWrongful use, possession, etc., of controlled
substances
Article 113Misbehavior of sentinel or lookout
Article 114Dueling
Article 115Malingering
Article 116Riot or breach of peace
Article 117Provoking speeches or gestures
Article 118Murder
Article 119Manslaughter
Article 119a.--Death or injury of an unborn child
Article 120Rape, sexual assault, and other sexual
misconduct
Article 120aStalking
10-18
Article 121Larceny and wrongful appropriation

Article 122Robbery
Article 123Forgery
Article 123aMaking, drawing, or uttering check, draft, or
order without sufficient funds
Article 124Maiming
Article 125Sodomy
Article 126Arson
Article 127Extortion
Article 128Assault
Article 129Burglary
Article 130Housebreaking
Article 131Perjury
Article 132Frauds against the United States
Article 133Conduct unbecoming an officer and gentleman
Article 134General article
Articles covered under article 134:
o Article 134(Abusing public animal)
o Article 134(Adultery)
o Article 134(Assaultwith intent to commit murder,
voluntary manslaughter, rape, robbery, sodomy, arson,
burglary, or housebreaking)
o Article 134(Bigamy)
o Article 134(Bribery and graft)
o Article 134(Burning with intent to defraud)
o Article 134(Check, worthless, making and utteringby
dishonorably failing to maintain funds)
o Article 134(Child endangerment)
o Article 134(Cohabitation, wrongful)
o Article 134(Correctional custodyoffenses against)
o Article 134(Debt, dishonorably failing to pay)
o Article 134(Disloyal statements)
o Article 134(Disorderly conduct, drunkenness)
o Article 134(Drinking liquor with prisoner)
o Article 134(Drunk prisoner)
o Article 134(Drunkennessincapacitation for performance
of duties through prior wrongful indulgence in
intoxicating liquor or any drug)
o Article 134(False or unauthorized pass offenses)
o Article 134(False pretenses, obtaining services under)
o Article 134(False swearing)
o Article 134(Firearm, dischargingthrough negligence)
o Article 134(Firearm, dischargingwillfully, under such
circumstances as to endanger human life)
o Article 134(Fleeing scene of accident)
10-19
o
o
o
o
o
o
o
o
o
o
o
o
o
o
o
o
o
o
o
o
o
o
o
o
o
o
o
o
o
o
o
o
Article 134(Fraternization)
Article 134(Gambling with subordinate)
Article 134(Homicide, negligent)
Article 134(Impersonating a commissioned, warrant,
noncommissioned, or petty officer, or an agent or
official)
Article 134(Indecent language)
Article 134(Jumping from vessel into the water)
Article 134(Kidnapping)
Article 134(Mail: taking, opening, secreting,
destroying, or stealing)
Article 134(Mails: depositing or causing to be deposited
obscene matters in)
Article 134(Misprision of serious offense)
Article 134(Obstructing justice)
Article 134(Wrongful interference with an adverse
administrative proceeding)
Article 134(Pandering and prostitution)
Article 134(Parole, Violation of)
Article 134(Perjury: subornation of)
Article 134(Public record: altering, concealing,
removing, mutilating, obliterating, or destroying)
Article 134(Quarantine: medical, breaking)
Article 134(Reckless endangerment)
Article 134(Requesting commission of an offense)
Article 134(Restriction, breaking)
Article 134(Seizure: destruction, removal, or disposal
of property to prevent)
Article 134(Self-injury without intent to avoid service)
Article 134(Sentinel or lookout: offenses against or by)
Article 134(Soliciting another to commit an offense)
Article 134(Stolen property: knowingly receiving,
buying, concealing)
Article 134(Straggling)
Article 134(Testify: wrongful refusal)
Article 134(Threat or hoax designed or intended to cause
panic or public fear)
Article 134(Threat, communicating)
Article 134(Unlawful entry)
Article 134(Weapon: concealed, carrying)
Article 134(Wearing unauthorized insignia, decoration,
badge, ribbon, device, or lapel button)
9. Other References. The following link describes other

references which you may need during the course of your duties.
Some references listed may be cancelled or superseded, but may
still be valid for rating examinations until they are updated.
10-20
This is NOT a list of all available references, just those that

are more applicable to security duties.
REFERENCE FILES
a. Reference Lists
(1) DoD Instruction Site
(2) USN Instruction Site
Navy Doctrine Library
(3) USA Instruction Site
(4) USAF Instruction Site
(5) USMC Publication Site
10. Career Paths. The Enlisted Career Roadmap for Master-atArms details enlisted education, training and professional
career milestones that MAs should attain within their career,
broken down by rank.
school information, log into CANTRAC Volume II. For an
unofficial, consolidated list of schools a MA may attend, click
here.
The student will receive training and be tested on AntiTerrorism, Force Protection and Basic Law Enforcement to
include, but not limited to: Pier Sentry, Harbor Security, Force
Seizure, and Use/Application of Force as they pertain to the
duties of a U.S. Navy Security Force Member. The student must
obtain an academic score of 80% or better to successfully pass
the course and must attain firearms proficiency with the M9
Service pistol, M500 shotgun, M16 rifle, and M60 medium machine
gun as per OPNAVINST 3591.1F (Series). This course is designated
as high-risk IAW NPDCINST 5100.1 Series.
b. Military Police Investigator (NEC 2002) (CIN A-8320001). Academic instruction is provided in the subjects of
reporting, special operations, and supplementary examinations.
c. Military Working Dog Handler (NEC 2005) (CIN A-8300019). Trains selected Master-at-Arms and DoD personnel in the
10-21

d. Military Working Dog Kennel Master (NEC 2006) (CIN A830-0009).
Provides training in manpower, disease prevention,
first aid, care of dog kennel and equipment, training and
utilization, procurement, reports, forms and records, principals
of conditioning, veterinarian support services, and inspection
procedures.
e. Correctional Specialist Navy (NEC 9575 / 2008) (CIN A831-0001) To provide selected Petty Officers (NEC 9575) and
Master at Arms (NEC 2008) with a working knowledge of the
principles, theories, and practices which are required for the
administration, operation, and supervision of Navy
Brigs/Correctional Custody Units.
f. Brig Staff Afloat (CIN A-831-0003). To provide selected
petty officers with a working knowledge of the principles,
theories, and practices which are required for the
administrating, operating, and supervising of Navy Brigs Afloat.
g. Protective Service Training and Antiterrorism Driving
(NEC 2009) (CIN A-840-0001). Provide training in protective
services to personnel who conduct Protective Service missions
for executive level DoD leaders who are potential targets of
terrorism.
h. Small Arms Marksmanship Instructor (NEC 0812) (CIN A041-0148).
weapons characteristics, and operation, fundamentals of
marksmanship, range management, and teaching techniques.
i. Crew Served Weapons Operations and Maintenance Course
Browning .50 Caliber M2 Machine Gun, the MK 19 Mod 3 Machine
Gun, the M240 Series Machine Gun, the M60 Machine Gun as well as
10-22

Instructor course.
j. Crew Served Weapons Instructor (NEC 0814) (CIN A-8302215). The Crew Served Weapons (CSW) Instructor course is
command anti-terrorism (AT) watchstanders as a crew-served
casualty control drills, and tactical employment CSW training.
k. Navy Security Force Sentry (CIN A-830-2216) Taught by
l. Security Reaction Force Team Member Basic
movements.
m. Armed Sentry/Security Reaction Force - Basic (ASC/SRF:B)
n. Security Reaction Force Advanced (CIN A-830-0396).
crew members whether pierside, at sea, or at an air facility
to deal with potential threats whether from the pier, small
boat, or any other means from penetrating a unit under emergency
o. Non-Lethal Weapons (NLW) Basic Instructor (CIN A-8300035). Provides the NLW Basic Instructor the necessary
10-23

Pepper Spray).
p. Antiterrorism Training Supervisor (AT TRASUP) (NEC 9501)
q. Antiterrorism Officer (CIN J-830-0015). This course is
execution.
r. Naval Security Force Officer (Ashore/Afloat NSFO) (CIN
A-7H-0007).
knowledge and skills to manage Naval Security Force (NSF)
assets, determine AT/FP readiness status, implement, organize
and oversee all NSF/AT/FP and Law Enforcement policy changes.
s. Security First Responder Course (CIN S-830-0026). The
10-24

t. Navy Physical Security Course (CIN A-830-0001). Course
crime prevention.
u. Level II Coxswain Operations and Tactics (CIN A-0620050). The Level II Coxswain Operations and Tactics course is
craft.
v. Naval Coastal Warfare Tactical Supervisor (CIN A-0620051). Topics addressed in this course include knowledge of
battlespace management from a tactical/operational perspective developing skills for battlespace situational awareness,
operational coordination and control via orders development and
dissemination, C3, EOD and host nation integration and rules of
engagement/self defense for AT/FP and NCW. Practical exercises
include development of an in-port security plan and simulated
watchstanding exercises emphasizing Tactical Supervisor decision
making, boat driving, and protection of the HVA.
w. Non-Compliant Boarding, Visit Board Search Seizure
(VBSS) Team Member (CIN A-830-0395). This course is will train
VBSS Team Members to safely board and search a non-compliant
vessel while maintaining control over crew members. This course
is designed to train an entire team together in the operation of
specialty VBSS equipment, operations, tactics and techniques.
x. Visit, Board, Search and Seizure (VBSS) Boarding Officer
(CIN A-2E-0085) prepare the VBSS Boarding Officer (BO),
10-25
Assistant Boarding Officer (ABO), Security Team Leaders (STL),

Liaison Officer and Intelligence Specialist (IS) to plan,
execute, teach the biometrics collection/equipment and debrief
VBSS Procedures (Compliant and Non-Compliant Low Freeboard) in
support of Maritime Interception Operations (MIO).
y. Visit, Board, Search and Seizure (VBSS) Breacher (CIN A830-0022) Prepares selected surface ship VBSS team personnel to
perform mission planning and target analysis duties as a
mechanical breacher utilizing appropriate breaching tools and
techniques against various target sets in support of Maritime
Interdiction Operations (MIO) Visit, Board, Search and Seizure
(VBSS) procedures for Non-Compliant Low Freeboard.
z. Ammunition Supply Administration (CIN A-041-0040). The
student will learn the knowledge, skills, and proper procedures
safety information.
aa. Phoenix Raven Qualification (CIN A-830-0398). This is
an Air Force course. This course qualifies selected security
personnel to perform as members of a force protection team
assigned to deployed AMC aircraft. The course covers mission
capabilities and planning, cross-culture and verbal judo
communication, mission intelligence sources, legal
considerations, embassy operations, explosive detection and
procedures, introduction to terrorism, terrorist operations,
individual protective measures, detecting terrorist
surveillance, hostage survival, airfield surveys, and aircraft
familiarization.
Extensive training is given in PPCT defensive
tactics, ASP Baton training, ground fighting, application of the
force continuum, less than lethal force weapons, and firearms
training. A written test and exercise scenarios enable students
to apply the knowledge learned while performing as members of a
PHOENIX RAVEN team.
ab. Surveillance Detection (CIN S-830-0046). This course is
duties in Surveillance Detection allowing commands to develop
and implement a comprehensive Surveillance Detection Program to
10-26
and conduct overt surveillance detection operations; comply with

DoD standardized reporting procedures; and deter, detect, and
Surveillance Detection Program Overview, Terrorist Surveillance
Surveillance Assessment Matrix, Conducting a Target Analysis,
Operational Planning, and Surveillance Detection Reporting.
There are three practical exercises and two case studies as
well.
ac. Customs Border Clearance Agent Afloat (CIN J-5510050). Defines procedures and responsibilities and outlines
customs and certain agricultural inspection and entry
requirements to eliminate the introduction of narcotics, drugs,
and other contraband into the United States through DoD
channels. This course follows guidelines set forth in DoD
5030.49R.
ad. Emergency Vehicle Operators Course (EVOC)
ae. Emergency Vehicle Operators Course (EVOC) Instructor
af. Basic Instructor (NEC 9502) (CIN A-012-0043). The
ag. Expeditionary Combat Skills (CIN: A-830-0030). The
Expeditionary Combat Skills (ECS) course is designed to provide
10-27
eligible personnel with basic expeditionary combat skills

training necessary to professionally and safely perform high
risk security operations when assigned to Navy Expeditionary
Combat Command (NECC) organizations. This course will provide
NECC personnel with the necessary individual knowledge, skills
and abilities to perform Basic Expeditionary First Aid, don and
wear Individual Combat Equipment (ICE) and CBR gear, function
safely in a field and CBRNE environment, learn basic Land
Navigation, understand basic radio communications procedures and
reports, understand Counter-Improvised Explosive Devices (C-IED)
operations, and conduct range live fire, missions, and
ammunition handling safely with minimum risk. The ECS course
will allow personnel to demonstrate, qualify and become
comfortable with both primary and secondary weapons. Students
will perform basic movement while engaging targets,
transitioning from primary to secondary weapon, executing
vehicle emergency egress procedures, and conducting live-fire
exercises in a controlled environment. Additionally, students
will become familiar with the psycho/physiological effects
induced during deadly force or life threatening confrontations
and measures to effectively minimize their impact on engagement
decision making during Judgment-Based Engagement Training (JET).
ah. Army Combat Life Saver (CIN G-433-0029). The combat
lifesaver is a non-medical sailor trained to provide lifesaving
measures beyond the level of self-aid or buddy-aid. A properly
trained combat lifesaver is capable of stabilizing many types of
casualties and can slow the deterioration of a wounded sailor's
condition until medical personnel arrive. Functioning as a
combat lifesaver is a secondary mission undertaken when the
tactical situation permits.
ai. United States Navy (USN) Individual Augmentee (IA)
Combat Training (NIACT) (CIN A-250-0100). To prepare Sailors
for integration with Army Units performing Army missions in
potential combat environments.
aj. Riverine Combat Skills Maritime Interdiction Operations
Basic (CIN A-020-0020). This course is designed to train NECC
personnel in the knowledge and skills required to perform as a
member of an Expeditionary Combat Command. The sailor will
receive training in individual weapons, munitions, land
navigation, combat conditioning, communications, offensive
techniques, defensive techniques, scouting and patrolling
techniques, and military operations on urban terrain techniques,
convoy, Improvised Explosive Device, vehicle check points,
searches and night vision devices.
10-28
ak. Navy Riverine Force Small Craft Maritime Interdiction

Operations Team Trainer Advanced (CIN A-840-0397). The course
content will include the following: Basic and Advanced Maritime
Interdiction Operations, Equipment Familiarization, Boarding
Techniques, The use of Force Continuum, Deadly Force
Restrictions and Guidelines, Effective Communications
Procedures, Combative Tactics, Immediate Action Drills (SOPs),
MIO Team Tactics and Firearms procedures and proficiency, Combat
Medicine, Mission Planning, Detainee/Prisoner Handling
procedures, Craft Familiarization, Full mission Profile
scenarios (night/day), Human Intelligence collection procedures,
Close Quarters Combat.
al. Riverine Crewman (CIN: A-062-0052). To provide Riverine
Crewmembers instruction on safety, navigation, communications,
operator maintenance, high speed maneuvering and handling,
weapons and weapons employment, tactical boat operations and
other individual and collective skills unique to riverine crafts
operating in a riverine environment.
12. Navy Security Force (NSF) Navy Tactical Task (NTA) List.
This list maps NTAs to NSF required operational capabilities.
THIS LIST IS NOT ALL INCLUSIVE, and only demonstrates common
tasks normally required for mission accomplishment.
13. Master-at-Arms Core Task List. This list details those
tasks/sub-tasks/skills that were determined to be core in the
Apprentice, Journeyman and Master skill levels as identified in
the Master-at-Arms Training Continuum Conference in May 2009.
While individual duty station watch stations may vary, or
require additional training, it was decided that the attached
skills represented core knowledge/skill requirements at the
Apprentice, Journeyman and Master skill levels.
14. Master-at-Arms Professional Certifications. The Navy
Credentialing Opportunities Online (COOL) office administers the
Navy Credentialing program. Master-at-Arms are eligible for
numerous certifications based on their training and experience
(https://www.cool.navy.mil/ma.htm). MAs are also eligible for
other certifications based on their other military duties.
Funding for approved programs will be paid for by Navy COOL.
See web site for complete details.
15. Master-at-Arms Apprenticeship Programs. Completion of a
Department of Labor approved Apprenticeship program shows
potential employers completion of an industry standard training
10-29
and skills in an On The Job training setting. Currently,

Master-at-Arms can apply through the U.S. Military
Apprenticeship Program Office (USMAP) for:
Police Office I Security
Specialist
10-30
Assignment 1: Installation Security

(Questions from pages 1-1 through 1-17)
1. What represents the machinery by which an organization
plans and accomplishes its assigned responsibilities?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Administration
Command and control
Communications
Organization
2. Administration provides for uniformity of operations

in light of the continuing turnover of personnel
within the naval service.
a. True
b. False
3. Which element of administration involves developing a
selected course of future action?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Command and control

Communications
Organization
Planning
4. Which element of administration is the authority which

a commander in the military service lawfully exercises
over his or her subordinates by virtue of rank or
assignment?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Command
Communications
Organization
Planning
Assignment 1-1
5. Which element of administration entails the orderly

arrangement of materials and personnel by functions in
order to obtain the objective of the unit?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Command and control

Communications
Organization
Planning
6. Which element links together each of the elements of

administration and applies equally to all of them?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Command and control

Communications
Organization
Planning
7. Who is responsible for the overall management of a

Security Detachment or Department?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Antiterrorism Officer
Assistant Security Officer
Commanding Officer
Security Officer
8. From which functional area does the Security Officer

maintain records and correspondence?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Administration
Communications
Logistics
Planning

develop AT plans?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Administration
Communications
Operations
Planning
Assignment 1-2

direct the AT efforts?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Communications
Logistics
Operations
Training

acquire a MWD asset?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Communications
Logistics
Personnel Management
Training

disseminate information?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Communications
Operations
Training

discipline security force members?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Administration
Operations
Training
14. How often should the Security Officer conduct a

detailed review of all Security Force post orders?
a.
b.
c.
d.
At
At
At
At
least
least
least
least
Annually
Monthly
Semi-Annually
Weekly
Assignment 1-3
15. What document authorizes the Commanders Authority for

the protection or security of DoD property or places?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Section
Section
Section
Section
20
21
20
21
of
of
of
of
the
the
the
the
Internal
Internal
Internal
Internal
Security
Security
Security
Security
Act
Act
Act
Act
of
of
of
of
1949
1949
1950
1950
16. For security departments having a total combined

strength (military and civilian including contract
security personnel) of __________ or more persons, an
assistant security officer should be considered for
assignment to run the departments day to day
operation.
a.
b.
c.
d.
25
50
100
200
17. Who develops and manages the AT/FP program?

a.
b.
c.
d.
Command Duty Officer
Security Officer
18. After completing the required minimum ATO training,

who is authorized to be an ATO?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Commissioned Officer
Chief Petty Officer
Civilian GS-11 or higher
All of the above
19. What Navy Level II training course trains ATOs in AT

procedures?
a.
b.
c.
d.
ATO
ATO
ATO
ATO
A-830-0015
J-830-0015
A-850-0015
J-850-0015
Assignment 1-4
20. The ATO manages resources that may include

watchstander gear, security boats, nonlethal weapons,
and inspection equipment.
a. True
b. False
21. Which of the following is an example of Random

Antiterrorism Measure (RAM)?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Closing a base access gate at 1800 every day

Closing a base access gate without warning
Security checkpoint from dusk to dawn
100% ID check at the main gate
22. Who conducts interviews/interrogations and collects,

seizes, preserves, documents and stores evidence?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Investigator
Security Officer
Sentry
Watch Officer
23. Who is responsible for facilitating and establishing

policy for the Navys law enforcement/investigative
programs?
a.
b.
c.
d.
ATO
CSI
NCIS
SECO
24. What log will be kept of an interview/interrogation?

a.
b.
c.
d.
OPNAV 5580/5
OPNAV 5580/7
SECNAV 5580/5
SECNAV 5580/7
Assignment 1-5
25. Which security operation job primary duties involve

manning a stationary/static guard position, a walking
post, or a security patrol?
a.
b.
c.
d.
MWD Handler
Patrol Officer
Reaction Force Member
Sentry

law enforcement?
a.
b.
c.
d.
MWD Handler
Patrol Officer
Sentry
27. Running a commercial vehicle inspection station is a

primary duty of the Vehicle/Boat inspector.
a. True
b. False
28. Who is in charge of the security boat and its mission?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Harbor Security Boat Coxswain

Harbor Security Boat Crew Member
Patrol Supervisor
Watch Commander
29. Who mans a crew served weapon to provide protective

fire during security boat operations?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Harbor Security Boat Gunner
Assignment 1-6
30. Who provides the link between the community and

emergency services?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Emergency Dispatcher
On-Scene Commander
Patrol Officer
Patrol Supervisor
31. Who is responsible for security, safety,

accountability, classification, maintenance,
requisitions, issuance, demilitarization, and proper
disposal of arms and ammunition?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Armory/AA&E Supervisor
AA&E Custodian/Armorer
Patrol Supervisor
Watch Commander
32. Who maintains the security unit armory or ready for

issue room; conducts inspection of unit assigned
weapons, ammunition, and storage spaces?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Patrol Supervisor
Watch Commander
33. Who handles, maintains, and trains a MWD to operate in

both detector and patrol functions?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Kennel Master
MWD Handler
MWD Supervisor
MWD Trainer
34. Who is normally assigned to an installation where

there are seven or more MWD teams assigned?
a.
b.
c.
d.
MWD
MWD
MWD
MWD
Decoy
Kennel Master
Supervisor
Trainer
Assignment 1-7
35. What is the NEC for the Military Working Dog Handler?
a.
b.
c.
d.
2003
2004
2005
2006
36. What is the NEC for the Military Working Dog Kennel
Master?
a.
b.
c.
d.
2003
2004
2005
2006
37. A Master-at-Arms can receive the Military Working Dog

Handler NEC thru on-the-job-training (OJT).
a. True
b. False
38. MWD handlers originally trained solely for patrol dog
handling may receive comprehensive OJT for detector
dog handling.
a. True
b. False
39. Who determines the duty cycles, duty hours, and
methods of using MWD teams?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Kennel Master
Security Officer
Both B and C are correct
Assignment 1-8
40. Personnel who have been relieved of police duties for

misconduct pending investigation/disciplinary action,
etc., can be assigned to kennel support duties.
a. True
b. False
41. What are the minimum hours per week for a handler to
use a drug/explosive detector dog for drug/explosive
interdiction sweeps?
a.
b.
c.
d.
2
5
7
10
42. Which form is used for MWD Training and Utilization

Record?
a.
b.
c.
d.
5585/1
5585/2
5585/3
5585/4
43. Which form is used for Canine Validity Test Data?

a.
b.
c.
d.
5585/5
5585/6
5585/7
5585/8
44. Which form is used for Detector Dog Training and

Utilization Record?
a.
b.
c.
d.
5585/2
5585/3
5585/4
5585/5
Assignment 1-9
45. Which form is used for MWD Utilization Record

(Supplemental)?
a.
b.
c.
d.
46.
a.
b.
c.
d.
5585/2
5585/3
5585/4
5585/6
Which form is used for MWD Status Report?

5585/2
5585/3
5585/4
5585/5
47. What proficiency level is a detector dog that can

detect a training aid 6-7 feet high?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Level
Level
Level
Level
Three
Five
Seven
Twelve

detect a training aid 0-6 feet high?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Level
Level
Level
Level
One
Two
Three
Four

detect a training aid 3-4 feet deep?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Level
Level
Level
Level
Three
Five
Seven
Nine
Assignment 1-10
50. Who tactically leads Reaction Force to its objectives?

a.
b.
c.
d.
Patrol Supervisor
Reaction Force Team Leader
Watch Commander
51. Who may augment fixed posts?

a.
b.
c.
d.
Harbor Patrol
Patrol Guard
Sentry
52. How many hours per week should a basic Special

Reaction Team perform sustainment training?
a.
b.
c.
d.
No
No
No
No
less
less
less
less
than
than
than
than
two hours per week

four hours per week
eight hours per week
ten hours per week
53. How often should the Security Officer conduct an

evaluation of the Special Reaction Team?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Monthly
Quarterly
Semi-Annually
Annually
54. Who is responsible for supervising all watch section

functions to include: Patrol, sentries, emergency
dispatcher and electronic security systems monitor,
harbor security, and the armory?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Chief of the Guard
Patrol Supervisor
Watch Commander
Assignment 1-11
55. The senior security operations member at the scene of

an incident, unless otherwise designated by the
Security Officer, who possesses the required tactical
skills shall assume the duties as On-Scene Commander.
a. True
b. False
56. Who is responsible to the Security Officer for the day

to day operations and job execution of units Security
and force protection services?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Patrol Supervisor
Security Operations Officer
Watch Commander
57. Who is responsible for mobile supervision of patrols

and sentries and acts as back up relief for the watch
commander?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Patrol Officer
Patrol Supervisor
Watch Supervisor
58. Who manages command security and AT training, the

Field Training Officer (FTO), and Personnel
Qualification System (PQS) programs?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Field Training Officer
Patrol Supervisor
Trainer
Assignment 1-12
59. Who manages command Antiterrorism/Force Protection

program?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Security Officer
Trainer
Both A and C are correct
60. What collateral duty of the Trainer/Planner supervises

the training program?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Advanced Security Force Planner

Security Force Trainer
Security Training Supervisor
61. Who maintains, stores, processes, inventories, and

transfers custody of evidence?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Chief of the Guard

Evidence Custodian
Patrol Supervisor
Watch Commander
62. What is the OPNAV number of the bound evidence log?

a.
b.
c.
d.
5580/22
5580/24
5590/22
5590/24
63. What is the OPNAV number of the Evidence/Property

Custody Document (ECD)?
a.
b.
c.
d.
5580/22
5580/24
5590/22
5590/24
Assignment 1-13
64. Status of Forces Agreements (SOFAs) establish the

rights and obligations of the U.S. and Host Nations
where our forces are stationed.
a. True
b. False
65. Who develops the Post Order for each fixed and mobile
post?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Security Officer
Watch Commander
For the following 5 questions (66-70), answer each

Antiterrorism measure definition with its term
66. Visible security measures to create a hard target
that is difficult to attack and to disrupt terrorist
cycle of operations through the use of Random
Antiterrorism Measures (RAMs)
a.
b.
c.
d.
Defend
Detect
Deter
Mitigate
67. Alert, well-trained, and well-equipped watchstanders

armed with current intelligence to recognize and
report incidents of preoperational surveillance and
track potential threats
a.
b.
c.
d.
Defend
Detect
Deter
Mitigate
Assignment 1-14
68. Measures and procedures commensurate with the threat

level; and based on a recent vulnerability assessment;
protect critical assets, capabilities, infrastructure
and personnel, and identify, classify, and neutralize
threats through well-rehearsed preplanned responses
a.
b.
c.
d.
Defend
Detect
Deter
Mitigate
69. Measures and procedures that minimize consequences of

a terrorist attack
a.
b.
c.
d.
Defend
Detect
Mitigate
Recover
70. Measures that restore mission effectiveness

a.
b.
c.
d.
Detect
Deter
Mitigate
Recover
71. What is the definition of Force Protection Condition

Alpha?
a. Applies when an increased or more predictable threat
of terrorist activity exists
b. Applies when there is an increased general threat of
possible terrorist activity against personnel or
facilities, the nature and extent of which are
unpredictable
c. Applies when an incident occurs or intelligence is
received indicating some form of terrorist action or
targeting against personnel or facilities is likely
d. Applies in the immediate area where a terrorist attack
has occurred or when intelligence is received that
terrorist action against a specific location or person
is imminent
Assignment 1-15

Bravo?
b. Applies when an incident occurs or intelligence is
c. Applies in the immediate area where a terrorist attack
is imminent
d. Applies when there is an increased general threat of
unpredictable
Charlie?
b. Applies when an incident occurs or intelligence is
c. Applies when there is an increased general threat of
unpredictable
d. Applies in the immediate area where a terrorist attack
is imminent
Assignment 1-16

Delta?
a. Applies when an incident occurs or intelligence is
b. Applies when an increased or more predictable threat
c. Applies in the immediate area where a terrorist attack
is imminent
d. Applies when there is an increased general threat of
unpredictable
75. Commanders will transform general measures and

procedures contained in each FPCON into specific
measures and procedures to protect their critical
assets, capabilities, infrastructure, and personnel.
a. True
b. False
Assignment 1-17
Assignment 2: Expeditionary Security

1. At which of the following commands do Security Force
Specialists serve in an Expeditionary capacity?
a.
b.
c.
d.
NAS Sigonella
NSA Norfolk
Riverine Squadron One
USS ENTERPRISE (CVN 65)
2. Which of the following missions is not included in the

NECC Battlespace?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Intelligence Collection
Maritime Civil Affairs
Airfield Security
Strategic Weapons Security
3. Crew Composition for small craft in Maritime

Expeditionary Security Forces include all the
following except:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Reactionary Force
Coxswain
Engineer
Crewman/gunner
4. How many sailors comprise an Embarked Security Team?

a.
b.
c.
d.
6
10
12
14
5. Which of the following boats are not used by MESF

forces?
a.
b.
c.
d.
SURC
34-foot Dauntless SeaArk
Organization
11 meter RHIB
Assignment 2-1
6. Management of the watch team and direct control of all

watch positions are the duty of which position?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Tactical Supervisor
Chief Of the Guard
Reactionary Team
Platoon leader
7. Which of the following NECC commands is responsible to

develop, manage, and provide adaptive force package
training?
a.
b.
c.
d.
NAVELSG
ETG
ETC
MESF
8. Which of the following NECC commands is responsible to

deliver to a worldwide audience maritime expeditionary
core capability training and instruction?
a.
b.
c.
d.
NAVELSG
ETG
ETC
MESF
9. Which of the following acronyms refers to mission

planning?
a.
b.
c.
d.
CVAMP
BOGSAT
BAMCIS
MOPP
10. Which of the following instructions covers boat

operations?
a.
b.
c.
d.
NTTP
NTTP
NTTP
NTTP
3-5
3-10
3-15
3-20
Assignment 2-2
11. Which of the following instructions covers convoy

operations?
a.
b.
c.
d.
NTTP
NTTP
NTTP
NTTP
4-01.3
4-10.3
4-30.1
4-03.1
12. Which of the following instructions covers maritime

interception operations?
a.
b.
c.
d.
NTTP
NTTP
NTTP
NTTP
3-07.13
3-07.12
4-01.3
3-07.11
13. Which of the following instructions covers weapons

handling and characteristics?
a.
b.
c.
d.
OPNAVINST 5530.13C
OPNAVINST 5580.1A
NTRP 3-07.2
NTRP 3-07.2.2
14. Which of the following instructions covers RAVEN

Operations?
a.
b.
c.
d.
OPNAVINST 5530.14D
OPNAVINST 5530.13C
AMCI 31-104
MCWP 3-15.11
15. Which of the following instructions covers crew served

weapons employment?
a.
b.
c.
d.
NTTP
NTTP
MCWP
MCWP
3-07.13
3-07.12
3-15.11
3-15.1
Assignment 2-3
16. The Inshore Boat Unit is part of what area?

a.
b.
c.
d.
Naval Coastal Warfare

Naval Riverine Force
Naval Security Force
Strategic Systems Program and Submarine Force
Protection Detachment
17. Where is Riverine Group One located?

a.
b.
c.
d.
Corpus Christi, TX
Mayport, FL
Norfolk, VA
San Diego, CA
18. Which area provides waterborne security for Navy

installations and is part of an installations organic
security force?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Naval Coastal Warfare

Naval Riverine Force
Naval Security Force
Strategic Systems Program and Submarine Force
Protection Detachment
19. What is Mobile Security Detachment (MSD) personnel not

trained to conduct?
a. Entry control point operations, including teams to
clear small boats before they come alongside a
protected asset
b. Perimeter security around a pier
c. Visit, board, search, and seizure (VBSS) operations
d. Waterside security operations limited to harbor
operating areas
20. Who does the ATTWO report to while in port?
a.
b.
c.
d.
CO
CDO
TAO
XO
Assignment 2-4
21. Who does the COG report to?

a.
b.
c.
d.
ATTWO
CO
TAO
XO
22. Who Coordinates integration of waterborne and

shoreside AT/FP assets into installation security
forces?
a.
b.
c.
d.
ATTWO
CO
TAO
XO
23. Who is the senior enlisted security force member who

supervises AT/FP Watchstanders?
a.
b.
c.
d.
CDO
COG
OOD
TAO
24. When moored at a U.S. Navy installation, ships pier

and waterborne watchstanders will be under the
tactical control of the installations security force.
a. True
b. False
25. Preplanned surveillance detection countermeasures to
deter terrorist activities can include installing
mechanical devices, varying modes of watchstander
behavior, and employing physical barriers.
a. True
b. False
Assignment 2-5
26. What is the ECPs second layer of defense?

a.
b.
c.
d.
Contact Sentry
Cover Sentry
Inspection Team
Weapons Team
27. What is the ECPs last layer of defense?

a.
b.
c.
d.
Contact Sentry
Cover Sentry
Inspection Team
Weapons Team
28. Who is responsible for all personnel and weapons at an

ECP?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Contact Sentry
Cover Sentry
Inspection Team
Weapons Team
29. Who conducts vehicle inspections, as assigned, based

on FPCON and installation procedures?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Contact Sentry
Cover Sentry
Inspection Team
Weapons Team
30. Who should be positioned behind ballistic protection?

a.
b.
c.
d.
Contact Sentry
Cover Sentry
Inspection Team
Weapons Team
Assignment 2-6
31. Who makes initial contact with individuals seeking

entry onto an installation or pier?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Contact Sentry
Cover Sentry
Inspection Team
Weapons Team
32. What Level is used to protect

if lost, stolen, compromised,
serious damage to the command
the operational capability of
a.
b.
c.
d.
Level
Level
Level
Level
a security interest that

or sabotaged would cause
mission or gravely harm
the United States?
1
2
3
4
33. What Level is used to protect a security interest that

if lost, stolen, compromised or sabotaged would cause
great harm to the command mission or strategic
capability of the United States?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Level
Level
Level
Level
1
2
3
4
34. What Level is used protect a security interest that if

lost, stolen, compromised, or sabotaged would cause
damage to the command mission or impact upon the
tactical capability of the United States?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Level
Level
Level
Level
1
2
3
4
Assignment 2-7
35. Who augments fixed posts, covers withdrawal of forces,

and conducts tactical entries and clearing of ships,
piers, and buildings?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Contact Sentry
Pier Sentry
Reaction Force
Weapons Team
36. Who maintains a master listing of all security unit

weapons and the assignment of those weapons?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Armorer
Commanding Officer
Chief of the Guard
37. Prior to issuing any firearm or ammunition to any

individual, the issuing activity will require that the
individual execute a DD Form __________.
a.
b.
c.
d.
2740
2750
2760
2770
38. What form must remain in your possession while

carrying a firearm on duty?
a.
b.
e.
f.
OPNAV
OPNAV
OPNAV
OPNAV
5511/2
5512/1
5511/1
5512/2
39. An armed response force must be able to respond within

25 minutes of an alarm or report of intrusion in AA&E
storage areas.
a. True
b. False
Assignment 2-8
40. How many years must a security check log of an AA&E be

kept?
a.
b.
c.
d.
2
3
4
5
41. Who is normally in charge of the rear convoy element

to monitor rear security?
a.
b.
c.
d.
ACC
CC
LVC
VC
42. Who is charged with responsibility for the planning,

preparation, execution, and tactical employment of a
convoy?
a.
b.
c.
d.
ACC
CC
LVC
VC
43. Who is responsible for standard equipment requirements

(ammunition, food, water, fuel, etc.) as well as
organizing and rehearsing crew drills of assigned
vehicle?
a.
b.
c.
d.
ACC
CC
LVC
VC
Assignment 2-9
44. Who ensures vehicle is on correct route via map or

global positioning system (GPS) based movement
tracking system (Blue Force Tracker, Movement Tracking
System (MTS), and/or Qualcomm)?
a.
b.
c.
d.
ACC
CC
LVC
VC
45. Who is responsible for fueling and maintaining

vehicle?
a.
b.
c.
d.
CSW Operator
Designated Marksman
Driver
LVC
46. Who is responsible for primary and alternate sectors

of fire?
a.
b.
c.
d.
CSW Operator
Designated Marksman
Driver
Guardian Angels
47. Who assists the CC to ensure proportionate fire is

used for any given threat?
a.
b.
c.
d.
CSW Operator
Designated Marksman
Driver
Guardian Angels
48. Who are emplaced in hidden positions where they can

observe and engage the enemy before they can attack
the convoy?
a.
b.
c.
d.
CSW Operator
Designated Marksman
Guardian Angels
Security Personnel
Assignment 2-10
49. Who renders medical treatment and supervises

evacuation of casualties?
a.
b.
c.
d.
A&L Team
Combat Life Savers
Gun Truck
LZ Team
50. Who prepare casualties for movement and/or evacuation?

a.
b.
c.
d.
A&L Team
Combat Life Savers
Gun Truck
LZ Team
51. Who is responsible for establishing and marking the

landing zone for possible MEDEVAC or other required
support provided by air?
a.
b.
c.
d.
A&L Team
Combat Life Savers
Gun Truck
LZ Team
52. What is assigned or attached to hardened vehicles with

CSWs to provide suppressive fire support to the convoy
as well as to serve as a deterrent to potential threat
forces?
a.
b.
c.
d.
A&L Team
Combat Life Savers
Gun Truck
LZ Team
Assignment 2-11
53. Who makes initial determination as to the adequacy of

the intended fastrope landing zone (LZ) for HVBSS
insertions?
a.
b.
c.
d.
ACC
AFC
AMC
ATL
54. Who provides a precision marksman (PM) for all HVBSS

missions and VBSS missions if required?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Commanding Officer
HVBSS Team Leader
LEDET Team Leader
SOF Commander
55. Who provides and controls mission-ready aircraft and

aircrews to support the HVBSS operation?
a.
b.
c.
d.
ACC
AFC
OSC
VIC
56. HVBSS is an option during daylight or night time

without LEDET OPORD authorization.
a. True
b. False
57. What instruction provides procedures for Enemy
Prisoners of War, Civilian Internees, Retained
Persons, and other Detainees?
a.
b.
c.
d.
OPNAVINST 3461.6
OPNAVINST 3641.4
SECNAVINST 3461.6
SECNAVINST 3641.4
Assignment 2-12
58. Reaction forces are armed personnel quickly responding

to threats and incidents, augmenting Navy security
forces, auxiliary security forces, and on-watch
personnel.
a. True
b. False
59. What paragraph of the NTTP 3-07.2.2 covers the safe
weapon handling procedures for the M11 service pistol
at the clearing barrel?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Para
Para
Para
Para
2.3
3.3
4.3
5.3

weapon handling procedures for the M9 service pistol
at the clearing barrel?
a.
b.
c.
d.
61.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Para
Para
Para
Para
2.3
3.3
5.3
6.3
What paragraph of the NTTP 3-07.2.2 covers the safe

weapon handling procedures for the M16 rifle at the
clearing barrel?
Para
Para
Para
Para
3.3
4.3
5.3
6.3

weapon handling procedures for the M14 rifle at the
clearing barrel?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Para
Para
Para
Para
3.3
4.3
5.3
6.3
Assignment 2-13

weapon handling procedures for the Mossberg 500
shotgun at the clearing barrel?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Para
Para
Para
Para
3.3
4.3
5.3
6.3
64. What is a single-shot weapon designed for use with the

M16A3 rifle and fires a 40mm grenade?
a.
b.
c.
d.
M201
M203
M302
M79
65. Who exercises local control of assigned small boats

and associated personnel and reports directly to the
TACSUP?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Coxswain
Crewman/Gunner
Engineer
Patrol Leader
66. Who mans a crew served weapon to provide protective

fire during security boat operations?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Coxswain
Crewman/Gunner
Engineer
Patrol Leader
Assignment 2-14
67. Who is responsible for the operations, care, and

maintenance of all propulsion, auxiliary machinery,
damage control, communication systems, electrical and
electronic devices on a patrol boat?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Coxswain
Crewman/Gunner
Engineer
Patrol Leader
68. A Riverine Squadron consists of specially designed

craft configured to operate in harbors of Navy bases.
a. True
b. False
69. Identify the boat pictured below?
a.
b.
c.
d.
RAC
RCB
RPC
None of the above
Assignment 2-15
a.
b.
c.
d.
RAC
RCB
RPC
None of the above
a.
b.
c.
d.
RAC
RCB
RCP
None of the above
Assignment 2-16
72. What is the CIN for the Navy Security Force Sentry
School?
a.
b.
c.
d.
A-830-2216
A-830-2217
C-830-2216
C-830-2217
73. What is the CIN for the Non-Compliant Boarding, Visit

Board Search Seizure (VBSS) Team Member School?
a.
b.
c.
d.
A-2E-0085
A-830-0022
A-830-0033
A-830-0395
74. What is the CIN for the Visit, Board, Search and
Seizure (VBSS) Boarding Officer School?
a.
b.
c.
d.
A-2E-0085
A-830-0022
A-830-0033
A-830-0395
75. What is the CIN for the Visit, Board, Search and
Seizure (VBSS) Breacher School?
a.
b.
c.
d.
A-2E-0085
A-830-0022
A-830-0033
A-830-0395
Assignment 2-17
Assignment 3: Shipboard Security

1. Who has the primary duty working as a member of a
security boat team or manning a crew-served weapon to
provide protective fire during security boat
operations?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Harbor
Harbor
Harbor
Both B
Security Boat Coxswain

Security Boat Crew Member
Security Boat Gunner
and C are correct
2. Who can be assigned as a Command Antiterrorism Officer

(ATO)?
a.
b.
c.
d.
A Commissioned Officer
Chief Petty Officer (E-7 to E-9)
GS-11 or higher civilian staff officer
All the above are correct
3. What is the primary reference for Physical

Security/Antiterrorism?
a.
b.
c.
d.
NTTP 3-07.2.1
NTTP 3-07.2.2
OPNAVINST 5530.14D
SECNAVINST 1640.9C
4. Who is responsible for supervising all watch section

responsibilities including the emergency dispatcher?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Operations Officer
Security Officer
Watch Commander
Assignment 3-1
5. Who is responsible for the overall management of a

Security Detachment or Department?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Anti-Terrorism Officer
Commanding Officer
Security Officer
6. What is the primary reference for Customs Inspections

of operational ships and aircraft?
a.
b.
c.
d.
OPNAVINST 5530.13C
OPNAVINST 5530.14D
OPNAVINST 5840.2
SECNAVINST 1640.9C
7. Crime prevention is the pro-active method to reduce

criminal opportunities, protect potential victims, and
prevent loss of property.
a. True
b. False
8. What are three types of small arms commonly carried by
master-at-arms while conducting watch standing duties?
a.
b.
c.
d.
M7
M9
M9
M9
9mm
9mm
9mm
9mm
Pistol,
Pistol,
Pistol,
Pistol,
Mossberg 500 Shotgun,

M60 Machine Gun, M16A
M16A Rifle
M14 Rifle
M16A Rifle
Rifle

law enforcement?
a.
b.
c.
d.
MWD Handler
Patrol Officer
Sentry
Assignment 3-2
10. Running a commercial vehicle inspection station is a

primary duty of the Vehicle/Boat inspector.
a. True
b. False
11. Who is normally in charge of the security boat and its

mission?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Patrol Supervisor
Watch Commander
12. Any boat or craft has the potential to be terroristdriven weapon.

a. True
b. False
13. A harbor security boat crewmember/gunner may not
verify vessel credentials.
a. True
b. False
14. Preplanned surveillance detection countermeasures to
deter terrorist activities can include installing
mechanical devices, varying modes of watchstander
behavior, and employing physical barriers.
a. True
b. False
Assignment 3-3
15. Who is responsible for security, safety,

accountability, classification, maintenance,
requisitions, issuance, demilitarization and proper
disposal of arms and ammunition?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Patrol Supervisor
Watch Commander
16. What document provides a detailed description of

Security Officer and Security Force duties?
a.
b.
c.
d.
NTTP 3-07.2
NTTP 3-07.2.1
OPNAVINST 5530.14
SECNAVINST 5530.4
17. Whose duties include supervision of personnel and

property inspections, pier access and control, vehicle
check points, clearing barrel procedures, watch
turnover, and security threat response?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Chief of the Guard
Patrol Supervisor
Watch Commander
18. Who is directly responsible to the patrol watch

commander for training on patrol/law enforcement
duties?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Patrol Supervisor
Trainer
Assignment 3-4
19. Who directs the Antiterrorism Training Team (ATTT)?

a.
b.
c.
d.
Security Officer
20. Who is responsible for the first layer of defense at

the Entry Control Point (ECP)?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Contact Sentry
Cover Sentry
Inspection Team
Weapons Team
21. What procedures standardize watch turnover between

oncoming and offgoing personnel?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Clearing Barrel
Guard Mount
Watch Turnover
Weapons Turnover
22. Which is not the purpose of a clearing barrel?

a.
b.
c.
d.
Load and Make Ready

Test Fire
Unload
Unload, Show Clear
23. What should always be followed prior to using a

clearing barrel?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Inspect general condition of clearing barrel

Inspect behind/adjacent to clearing barrel
Clear unnecessary personnel away from clearing barrel
All of the above
Assignment 3-5
24. Who is in charge of the security boat and its mission?

a.
b.
c.
d.
Coxswain
Crewman/Gunner
Engineer
Patrol Leader
25. Which course teaches basic tactical individual and

team movements?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Armed Sentry/Security Reaction Force - Basic

Navy Security Force Sentry
Security Reaction Force Team Member Basic
Security Reaction Force Advanced
26. Which course teaches basic sentry skills to include

weapons handling and non-lethal weapons?
a.
b.
c.
d.

27. In which school will Team members learn how to deal

with potential threats, whether from the pier, small
boat, or any other means of penetrating a unit under
emergency conditions, by utilizing proper reaction
force measures and tactical team movements?
a.
b.
c.
d.

28. What is the Navy Enlisted Classification Code (NEC) of

the Antiterrorism Training Supervisor?
a.
b.
c.
d.
9501
9502
9503
9504
Assignment 3-6

the Small Arms Instructor?
a.
b.
c.
d.
0811
0812
0813
0814

the Crew Served Weapons Instructor?
a.
b.
c.
d.
0811
0812
0813
0814
31. Who primarily responds to heightened security states

including security alerts and incidents, augments
fixed posts, covers withdrawal of forces, and conducts
tactical entries and clearing of ships, piers, and
buildings?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Duty Master-at-Arms
Patrol Watch Commander
Section Leader
32. Who does the Security Officer report to when he/she is

a Division Officer?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Commanding Officer
Combat Systems Officer
Executive Officer
Operations Officer
33. When the Security Officer is a Department Head he/she

reports to the Commanding Officer.
a. True
b. False
Assignment 3-7
34. A Patrol officer may be assigned on larger platforms.

a. True
b. False
35. Who maintains the security unit armory or ready for
issue room?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Antiterrorism Officer (ATO)
Watch Commander
36. Who conducts post inspections?

a.
b.
c.
d.
Assistant Security Officer (ASECO)

Patrol Supervisor
Watch Commander
37. The watch commander is responsible for supervising

mobile and fixed posts.
a. True
b. False
38. Who is responsible to the Security Officer for the day
to day operations and job execution of units Security
antiterrorism, and force protection services
a.
b.
c.
d.

Operations Officer
39. Who acts as back up relief for the watch commander?

a.
b.
c.
d.

Chief of the Guard
Patrol Supervisor
Watch Commanders Assistant
Assignment 3-8
40. Who tactically employs command assets to defend the

unit against terrorist attack when in port?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Antiterrorism Tactical Watch Officer (ATTWO)
Tactical Action Officer (TAO)
Assignment 3-9
Assignment 4: Corrections
1. Members are sentenced to confinement __________
punishment not _______ punishment.
a.
b.
c.
d.
As, As
As, For
For, As
For, For
2. Prisoners forced to comply with unreasonable routines

__________ respect for authority.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Follow
Lose
Love
Obey
3. Punishment alone is always corrective.

a. True
b. False
4. As a Corrections Specialist you will never encounter
EPWs.
a. True
b. False
5. The three types of prisoners you would encounter most
often are Adjudged, Detained, and Sentenced.
a. True
b. False
6. What are the types of shore brigs?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Consolidated/level
Consolidated/level
Consolidated/level
Consolidated/level
I, Waterfront/level I
I, Waterfront/level II
II, Waterfront/level I
II, Waterfront/level II
Assignment 4-1
7. Which shore facility also houses CCU?

a.
b.
c.
d.
Consolidated/level I
Consolidated/level II
Waterfront/level I
Waterfront/level II
8. The ultimate goal of the incentive program is to build

self-discipline, reward negative behavior, and improve
function of the facility.
a. True
b. False
9. Who is responsible to maintain good order and
discipline; carry out POD; and ensure the health,
welfare and safety of staff and prisoners?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Control center supervisor

Receiving and release supervisor
Restoration and pre-release
Ships Brig Supervisor
10. What SECNAVINST governs the Military Corrections

Program?
a.
b.
c.
d.
1640.9C
1650.4C
1690.4C
1690.9C
11. Restoration and pre-release are two training programs

offered to prisoners.
a. True
b. False
Assignment 4-2
12. Who determines a prisoners work assignment?

a.
b.
c.
d.

Classification and assignment
13. Who is the first point of contact during the intake

phase?
a.
b.
c.
d.

14. What is considered the HUB of the Brig?

a.
b.
c.
d.

15. Confinement facilities provide a climate conducive to

positive change with programs tailored to the needs of
prisoners and the service.
a. True
b. False
16. Confinement is the physical restraint of a Person.
a. True
b. False
17. B&W/DIMRATS may be imposed as punishment upon
personnel in paygrades E-6 or below attached to or
embarked in a vessel.
a. True
b. False
Assignment 4-3
18. A person who is legally ordered into confinement and

is awaiting trial or rehearing, or is being held for
questioning pursuant to an order by competent
authority is a __________.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Detainee
Prisoner
Prisoner of War
Transient Prisoner
19. A prisoner who is held in confinement pending

disposition instructions from another command,
awaiting transportation to a designated confinement
facility, or return to parent unit is a _________.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Detainee
Prisoner
Prisoner of War
Transient Prisoner
20. A person who is adjudicated by courts-martial or

military tribunal/military commission and ordered into
confinement is a __________.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Detainee
Prisoner
Prisoner of War
Transient Prisoner
21. What is the maximum number of days a person can be

sentenced on B&W or DIMRATS?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Two
Three
Four
Five
22. Officer and Warrant Officer prisoners are kept with

the non-commissioned prisoners.
a. True
b. False
Assignment 4-4
23. Pregnancy precludes confinement in naval confinement

facilities as long as there is a medical treatment
facility nearby that can provide for labor, delivery,
and management of obstetric emergencies.
a. True
b. False
24. Who can order Commissioned Officers, Warrant Officers,
or Midshipmen into arrest or confinement?
a.
b.
c.
d.
CO
CDO
Department Head
XO
25. What form is used for a Temporary Absence of a

prisoner from a brig for trial work or other proper
purposes?
a.
b.
c.
d.
DD
DD
DD
DD
2508
2708
2718
2818
26. What form is used to release a prisoner?

a.
b.
c.
d.
DD
DD
DD
DD
2508
2708
2718
2818
27. What may be established in areas where a confinement

facility is not readily accessible?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Consolidated Brig
Pretrial Confinement facilities
Ships Brig
Waterfront Brig
Assignment 4-5
28. What facilities provide confinement and rehabilitation

opportunities for prisoners who will be discharged or
transferred to the United States Disciplinary Barracks
(USDB) or to Federal prisons if their offenses and
sentences, after the appellate process, allow such a
transfer?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Consolidated Brig
Ships Brig
Waterfront Brig
29. What facilities are located on operating Navy or

Marine Corps installations to service local needs and
normally contain a correctional custody unit (CCU) and
a short-term confinement facility that houses pretrial
detainees, prisoners who will return to duty, or
prisoners who are being discharged after serving short
sentences, usually less than a year?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Consolidated Brig
Ships Brig
Waterfront Brig
30. Who maintains the prisoner accountability and security

system?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Brig Duty Officer

Control Center Supervisor
Correctional Custody Unit Supervisor
Quarters Supervisor
31. Who is responsible for maintenance of good order and

discipline, sanitation, and accountability and welfare
of prisoners in an assigned berthing area?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Brig Duty Officer

Quarters Supervisor
Receiving and Release Supervisor
Assignment 4-6
32. Who is responsible for maintaining relevant records

and supplies including health and comfort (H&C) items,
prisoner personal property, clothing issue, and
storage?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Brig Duty Officer

33. Who attempts to correct the attitude and motivation of

enlisted personnel through a regimen of hard work,
intensive counseling, physical training, and
motivational attitudinal training conducted in a
strict military environment?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Brig Duty Officer

34. What is the maximum number of prisoners a Correctional

Counselor can have during group counseling?
a.
b.
c.
d.
20
40
60
As many as the facility can handle
35. What is the NEC of the Correctional Counselor?

a.
b.
c.
d.
9502
9516
9545
9561
36. The Training supervisor is responsible for planning

and coordinating of work projects and working parties
employing prisoners?
a. True
b. False
Assignment 4-7
37. Who is responsible for establishing the individual

prisoner's program upon completion of orientation?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Brig Duty Officer

Classification and Assignment
Training Supervisor
38. What program is provided to encourage positive

behavior?
a.
b.
c.
d.
EMI program
Incentive program
Rewards and Education program
None of the above
39. What is the maximum number of days that a person can

be confined in a Ships Brig?
a.
b.
c.
d.
10
20
30
As long as it takes for the Courts Martial
40. Who is responsible for the daily operations of the

ships brig?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Commanding Officer
Operations
Patrol Officer
41. Who is designated as the Executive Agent in charge of

all Detainee Operations?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Department of
Department of
United States
United States
the Army
the Air Force
Navy
Coast Guard
Assignment 4-8
42. What is the primary reference for the

Brig/Corrections Force Afloat?
a.
b.
c.
d.
NTTP 3-07.2.1
OPNAVINST 1640.9C
SECNAVINST 5530.14D
SECNAVINST 1640.9C

the Correctional Specialist Navy Ashore?
a.
b.
c.
d.
9557
9575
9585
9595
Assignment 4-9
Assignment 5: Strategic Weapons Facility

1. What is the minimum clearance a SWF MA must hold?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Confidential
Secret
Sensitive
Top Secret
2. The Guard Officer is an operational position.

a. True
b. False
3. Which of the following officers has operation command
of the Master at Arms/Security Force Specialists at
Strategic Weapons Facilities?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Guard Officer (Navy or Marine)

MCSFCo Commanding Officer (Marine)
SWF Commanding Officer (Navy)
SWF Security Officer (Navy)
4. Which one of the following NECs is not necessary and

not utilized at a SWF?
a.
b.
c.
d.
0812
0814
2005
2008
5. The duties of an MWD at a SWF include narcotics

detection.
a. True
b. False
Assignment 5-1
6. What is the primary duty of an MA at a SWF?

a.
b.
c.
d.
Asset Security
Investigations
Law Enforcement
Tactical Supervision
7. An MA at a SWF qualifies and may operate all of the

following except
a.
b.
c.
d.
M14 rifle
M16 rifle
M240G machinegun
M249 SAW
8. What does TECP stand for?

a.
b.
c.
d.
Tactical Electronic Communications Position

Tactical Entry Check Point
Tactical Extraction Command Post
Temporary Entry Control Point
9. Who is the SPS?

a.
b.
c.
d.
Static Post Sentry

Static Post Supervisor
Supervisor of Protective Sentries
Surveillance Protection Sentry
10. What is PRP?

a.
b.
c.
d.
Personal Reactionary Protection

Personnel Reliability Program
Preliminary Response Plan
Protective Rules Program
Assignment 5-2
11. HSBs assigned to SWFs are responsible for which of the

following?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Enforcement of fish and wildlife rules and regulations

Enforcement of regional boat operation and safety
Ensuring the integrity and security of waterways
Transfer of pilots for units getting underway
12. Which of the following equipment is not utilized for

SWF security?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Infrared Cameras
Nightvision
Rangefinders
All of the above
13. Who is the senior operational person in charge of any

one particular AOR?
a.
b.
c.
d.
AOR Officer of the Day

Battalion Officer of the Day
MCSFCO Commanding Officer
14. What is an SRT?

a.
b.
c.
d.
Security Response Team

Special Reaction Team
Special Response Team
Station Reaction Tactics
15. What is the Strategic Weapons Facilities (SWF)

Mission?
a. Provide security for national strategic assets at
Strategic Weapons Facilities.
b. Provide security for U.S. Navy bases ports and harbors
when carriers are out of port.
c. Both A and B
d. None of the above
Assignment 5-3
16. What must a Master-at-Arms do to be assigned to SWF

duty?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Pass
Pass
Pass
Pass
a
a
a
a
PRT
PRT
PRP
PRP
screening
screening
screening
screening
and
and
and
and
hold
hold
hold
hold
a
a
a
a
confidential clearance
secret clearance
top secret clearance
secret clearance
17. The SWF commanding officer is responsible to the

__________.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Director of the SSP

MCSFCO
President of the United States
Secretary of the Navy
18. Who is responsible for the overall operation of guard

force personnel (Navy and Marine) and the execution of
MCSFBN missions in all Areas of Responsibility (AOR)
a.
b.
c.
d.
Guard
Guard
Guard
Tower
Chief
Clerk
Officer
Sentry
19. Who assists the Guard Officer in coordination and

control of guard force personnel and all matters
pertaining to the administrative/logistical support,
training, and employment of the guard force personnel?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Guard
Guard
Guard
Tower
Chief
Clerk
Duty Officer
Sentry
Assignment 5-4
20. Who assists the Guard Chief with

administrative/logistical support and database entry
of all required training and employment of the guard
force personnel?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Assistant Chief
Guard Clerk
Guard Officer
Tower Sentry
21. Who is directly responsible for coordination and

execution of guard force personnel and resources
between all MCSFBN AORs?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Assistant Officer of the Day

Battalion Officer of the Day
Officer of the Day
22. Who is responsible to the MCSFBN CO via the Company

Officer of the Day (COD) for the efficient functioning
and employment of guard force personnel within their
applicable AOR?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Division Commanders
Officer of the Day
23. Who is Responsible to the SPS for the training, guard

mount, deployment, and supervision of all TECP
sentries?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Assistant Static Post Supervisor
Division Commanders
TECP Petty Officer in Charge
Assignment 5-5
24. Division Commanders are responsible to the MCSFBN CO

for the training, discipline, and administration of
their divisions.
a. True
b. False
25. What document provides guidelines for the Personnel
Reliability Program (PRP)?
a.
b.
c.
d.
OPNAVINST 3591.1E
OPNAVINST 5530.14D
SECNAVINST 5510.35
SECNAVINST 5535.10
26. What document is used for small arms training and

qualification?
a.
b.
c.
d.
OPNAVINST 3591.1E
OPNAVINST 5530.14D
SECNAVINST 5510.35
SECNAVINST 5535.10
27. What provides protection from small arms fire?

a.
b.
c.
d.
Concealment
Cover
Observation
Sentry
28. What allows team members to remain unseen by the

threat?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Concealment
Cover
Observation
Sentry
Assignment 5-6
29. During the Initial Communication of a hostage

situation it is advised to make promises to the
hostage takers until a skilled negotiator arrives.
a. True
b. False
30. What publication is used for First Aid?
a.
b.
c.
d.
NTTP
NTTP
NTTP
NTTP
4-01.1
4-01.1.1
4-02.1
4-02.1.1
Assignment 5-7
Assignment 6: Strategic Aircraft

1. What type of aircraft does VQ fly?
a.
b.
c.
d.
C-130
E-2C
E-6B
P-3
2. How many divisions are within the security department?

a.
b.
c.
d.
2
3
4
5
3. How often do physical security surveys need to be

conducted at the activity level?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Daily
Weekly
Monthly
Annually
4. An E-7 can become the Antiterrorism Officer (ATO).

a. True
b. False
5. What are the two types of sentries used in Strategic
Aircraft security?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Fixed and Roving

Fixed and Seaward
Land and Seaward
Roving and Seaward
Assignment 6-1
6. What type(s) of weapons are used by Strategic Aircraft

security?
a.
b.
c.
d.
M-9
M-16
M-60
Both A and B are correct
7. Who is responsible for approving the EAL?

a.
b.
c.
d.
Commanding Officer
Patrol Supervisor
Security Officer
Watch Commander
8. What manual is used for weapons training and

qualifications?
a.
b.
c.
d.
DODINST O-2000.12H
OPNAVINST 3591.1E
OPNAVINST 5530.14D
SECNAVINST 5500.29C
9. Where is the Navys Strategic Communications Wing One

located?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Edwards Air Force Base

Lackland Air Force Base
Pope Air Force Base
Tinker Air Force Base
10. The ATO is guided by what instruction?

a.
b.
c.
d.
DODINST O-2000.12H
OPNAVINST 3591.1E
OPNAVINST 5530.14D
SECNAVINST 5500.29C
Assignment 6-2
11. What are the four types of jurisdiction?

a.
b.
c.
d.
Executive,
Executive,
Exclusive,
Exclusive,
Concurrent, Partial, Proper

Current, Partial, Proprietary
Current, Partial, Proper
Concurrent, Partial, Proprietary
12. Guidance for the Use of Deadly Force is found in what

instruction?
a.
b.
c.
d.
DODINST O-2000.12H
OPNAVINST 3591.1E
OPNAVINST 5530.14D
SECNAVINST 5500.29C
13. For deadly force to be appropriate, what are the three

conditions that must exist?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Opposition, Capability, and Intent

Opportunity, Capability, and Intent
Opposition, Capacity, and Intent
Opportunity, Capacity, and Intent
14. What instruction directs the Protection Levels for

alert and non-alert E-6 aircraft?
a.
b.
c.
d.
AFI 31-101
DOD 5200.1-R
OPNAVINST 5530.14D
SECNAVINST 5510.36
15. Is the Use of Deadly Force authorized for the

protection of E-6 aircraft?
a. Yes, anytime
b. Yes, only when authorized by the Watch Commander
c. Yes, only after all of means of non-lethal force have
been applied to protect the resource
d. Never
Assignment 6-3
16. The Aircraft Alert Area Entry Controller can allow

entry into the area based on personal recognition of
the individual.
a. True
b. False
c. Not applicable, only have to ID personnel at the
aircraft itself.
17. Who is responsible for monitoring and enforcing the
Two-Person Rule inside the close in area of Alert
ABNCP E-6s?
a.
b.
c.
d.
CBS & Alert Area EC

CIS/EC & CBS
CIS/EC & Reaction Force
Reaction Force & CBS
18. In addition to the appropriate badge, what other means

is required for allowing entry into the alert aircraft
close in security area?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Check of Drivers License

DD FM 2
Personal Recognition
Listed on a valid EAL
19. Where is the primary alert location for alert E-6

ABNCP configured aircraft?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Edwards Air Force Base

Offutt Air Force Base
Pope Air Force Base
Travis Air Force Bade
20. What two posts, as a minimum, must provide security

for alert E-6 aircraft?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Alert Area EC & Reaction Force

CIS/EC & CBS
Reaction Force & CIS/EC
None of the above
Assignment 6-4
Assignment 7: Protective Service Detail

1. There are ____ PPOs authorized by Department of
Defense.
a.
b.
c.
d.
4
6
8
None of the above
2. A PSVA must be conducted within ____ days of an

official taking assignment as a permanent HRB.
a.
b.
c.
d.
30
60
90
180
3. How often are PSVAs reviewed?

a.
b.
c.
d.
Annually
Semi-annually
Monthly
None of the above
4. What are the protective measures are associated with a

Level One High Risk Billet?
a. Protective Security detail support provided to an
official who requires continuous protection as
recommended by the Personal Security Vulnerability
Assessment
b. PSD support provided to an official who requires
protection during periods of official duty or travel
as recommended by the PSVA
c. Support provided to an official who requires advanced
individual antiterrorism awareness and personal
protection training
Assignment 7-1
5. What protective measures associated with a Level Two

High Risk Billet?
Assessment of official duty or travel as recommended
by the PSVA
b. Support provided to an official who requires advanced
protection training
c. PSD support provided to an official who requires
6. What are the protective measures associated with a
Level Three High Risk Billet?
Assessment
b. Support provided to an official who requires advanced
protection training
c. PSD support provided to an official who requires
7. What are the top three HRBs within the DoD?
a. Director of NCIS, Secretary of State, Defense Minister
of Kenya
b. Service Chiefs, Combatant Commander, Director,
National Security Agency
c. Secretary of Defense, Chairman of Joint Chiefs of
Staff, Deputy Secretary of Defense
Assignment 7-2
8. Who is responsible for credentialing and training PSS

within the DON?
a.
b.
c.
d.
NCIS
AFOSI
PFPA
NSA
9. Who serves as the executive agent for all Protective

Service matters within the DON?
a.
b.
c.
d.
BUPERS
NCIS
NECC
OPNAV
10. ____ serves as the security advisor to an HRP.

a.
b.
c.
d.
Limo Driver
Shift Leader
Personal Security Advisor
Advance agent
11. Which walking formation utilizes four protection team

members placed to the front, rear, left, and right
around the PSA and principle?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Wedge
Circle
Modified Diamond
Diamond
12. Which of the following is not a step in response to an

attack?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Shoot suppressive rounds down range

Arms reach
Sound-off
Cover
Assignment 7-3
13. Who is responsible for billets and screenings of

Master-at-Arms requesting the 2009 NEC?
a.
b.
c.
d.
NCIS NEC 2009 Program Manager

Master-at-Arms Detailer
CNIC
None of the above
14. Who is required to provide annual training and other

administrative functions for Master-at-Arms working in
protection?
a.
b.
c.
d.
MA Detailers
Navy Knowledge Online GMT
Enlisted Community Manager
Naval Criminal Investigative Service
15. The ____ has tactical control of the PSD.

a.
b.
c.
d.
PSA
Limo Driver
Advance Agent
Shift Leader
16. The DOD O-2000.22 Designation and Physical Protection

of DOD High Risk Personnel (HRP) instruction states in
combat zones and in areas outside of the United States
where contingency or expeditionary operations are
underway protection is NOT limited to HRPs?
a. True
b. False
17. Where the NEC 2009 Protective Service Specialist C
School located?
a.
b.
c.
d.
United States Air Force, Lackland, Air Force Base, TX

United States Army, Fort Leonard Wood, MO
Fleet Training Center, Dam Neck, Virginia Beach, VA
None of the above
Assignment 7-4
18. What instruction gives NCIS the authority to perform

protective operations for the DON?
a.
b.
c.
d.
OPNAVINST 5530.14D
OPNAVINST 5585.2B
SECNAVINST 5430.107
None of the above
19. What agency determines the threat level for an HRB?

a.
b.
c.
d.
DIA
NSA
FBI
CIA
20. This PSD position uses its vehicle to screen and block
traffic and can be used as an evacuation platform.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Follow Car Left/Right Rear

Shift Leader
Follow Driver
Limo Driver
21. The ____ is when team members are facing outward, arms
interlocked (usually for severe crowd situations).
a.
b.
c.
d.
Cave-in
Circle
Wedge
Modified diamond
Assignment 7-5
Assignment 8: Staff Duty

1. Ensure that installations and activities ________,
maintain, and ___________ AT plans and programs that
incorporate AT measures in concert with DoD standards.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Execute/track
Develop/Maintain
Develop/Implement
Survey/Document
2. AT risk management is the process of _______

identifying, assessing, and controlling risks arising
from operational factors and making decisions that
balance risk cost with mission benefits.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Accumulative
Collectively
Systematically
Sporadically
3. Which of the following documents is not used to assist

commanders and staff in developing collective and
individual training objectives?
a. Mission training plans
b. Navy Tactics Reference Publication (NTRP) and Navy
Tactics, Techniques, and Procedures (NTTP) manuals.
c. Strategic defense plans
d. MILPERSMAN
4. Personnel billets that because of grade, assignment,
travel itinerary, or symbolic value may make the
occupant an especially attractive or accessible
terrorist target are known as ________ billets.
a.
b.
c.
d.
High Risk
Classified
High Risk Personnel
CNO priority
Assignment 8-1
5. All personnel and their family __________ enroute to

an assignment outside the United States shall receive
a terrorist threat awareness, personal protection, and
pre-departure travel security briefing prior to
commencement of travel.
a.
b.
c.
d.
5 years and older

10 years and older
14 years and older
21 years and older
6. AT protective measures and contingency plans shall be

incorporated in the installation/base AT plan. Any AT
plans, orders, or documents that detail Force
Protection Conditions (FPCON), AT measures, or
specific sites shall be classified as _______________.
a.
b.
c.
d.
NOFORN
Confidential
Secret
FOUO
7. ____________ shall arrange for the training of

personnel designated and assigned to High Risk Billets
(HRBs) and ensure compliance of High Risk Personnel
training requirements.
a.
b.
c.
d.
SECNAV
ISIC
Members Commanding Officer
Chief of Naval Personnel
8. Installations/Base sites shall ensure that AT plans,

when separated from AT measures and FPCONs, will
remain ___________.
a.
b.
c.
d.
FOUO
Unclassified
Confidential
Secret
Assignment 8-2
9. Which of the following is not a responsibility of

Deputy Chief of Naval Operations (DCNO)?
a. Formulate Navy AT policy
b. Serve as the permanent Navy representative to the
Services Security Chiefs Council
c. Head coordinator for Auxiliary Security Force(ASF)
d. Validate and release CNOIVA and Security post reports
10. One of the inherent responsibilities of the Commander
of U.S. Fleet Forces Command (USFF) is to ___________.
a. Ensure SUPSHIP review of the required list standard
items related to AT
b. Designate and ensure the proper training of a regional
ATO
c. Assume primary responsibility for coordinating the
Federal law enforcement response
d. Conduct Higher Headquarters AT reviews of CONUS
Regional Commands
11. Commanders of major commands or major subordinate
commanders are not allowed to mandate inspections more
frequently without express written permission from the
Chief of Naval Operations (CNO).
a. True
b. False
12. When a communication element or site is outside the
confines of a support installation and is designated
as an operating location where personnel perform duty
at all times, all of the following will apply except:
a. Entry to critical communications facilities will be
controlled
b. An emergency water supply will be maintained and
stored underground
c. Security force requirements will be coordinated with
local civilian police, host nation military, or
security forces for backup and response forces for
unmanned sites
d. Maintain a direct line of sight with Security
installation
Assignment 8-3
13. Military Working dogs should be left unattended only

in an emergency and all of the following rules will be
observed except:
a. Use only the leather collar and a kennel chain to
stake out an MWD. Do not use the choke chain and leash
b. Make sure that the MWD has shade during hot weather
c. Secure MWD to Vehicle rear door only
d. Check the MWD often to make sure that it is not in
distress
14. As a crime prevention measure, naval installations
using MWDS for law enforcement and physical security
duties will have MWD warning signs; these signs will
be marked how?
a. White and red letters on front door of kennel only
b. Red and black letters on all sides of kennel and
training area
c. Red and blue letters at entrance of base
d. Orange letters at Security building entrance
15. Who has the sole responsibility for Military Working
Dog (MWD) veterinary services?
a.
b.
c.
d.
U.S. Navy
U.S. Army
Certified Veterinarian
U.S. Air force
16. Which of the following is not a deployment category

for Military Working Dogs?
a.
b.
c.
d.
CAT
CAT
CAT
CAT
1
2
5
3
Assignment 8-4
17. Screening Personnel desiring assignment to staff duty

must complete the Flag Officer (Staff) Duty Screening
in accordance with ____________.
a.
b.
c.
d.
MILPERSMAN 1306-945
OPNAVINST 3300.15B
DoD Directive 2000.12
DoD Directive 2000.16
18. The standoff zone, also referred to as the setback

area, is the first tier of defense and includes the
space between the outer perimeter of the site and the
exterior of what you are protecting.
a. True
b. False
19. TFFMS is the single, authoritative repository for
a.
b.
c.
d.
Total force manpower requirements

Active Duty Manpower Personnel
Navy/Reserve Personnel
All of the above
20. The Antiterrorism Officer course (CIN J-830-0015) is

required for those Navy commissioned officers,
enlisted E-7 and above, and DoD equivalent
civilians/contractors assigned as Antiterrorism
Officer (ATO).
a. True
b. False
21. Master-at-Arms Staff duty positions are normally
filled by a _______ or ________.
a.
b.
c.
d.
MAC-MACM (E7-E9)/Security Officer Designator 649X/749X

MA3-MA1/MAC-MACM
Security Officer Designator 649X/749X/NEC 9545
NEC 2002/NEC 2009
Assignment 8-5
22. The Geographic Combatant Commander AT policies and

programs shall take precedence over all AT policies or
programs of any DoD Component operating or existing in
that Commands area of responsibility (AOR) except:
a. Under the security responsibility of a Chief of
Mission (COM) pursuant to the Memorandums of
Understanding
b. Emergency situations
c. Unless otherwise directed
Assignment 8-6
Assignment 9: Weapons & Use of Force

1. Which of the following is not one of the four cardinal
rules in weapon safety?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Treat every weapon as if it were loaded

Keep your finger on the trigger at all times
Keep weapon on safe until you intend to fire
Never point a weapon at anything you do not intend to
shoot
2. What is the maximum effective range of the M9 9mm

pistol?
a.
b.
c.
d.
17ft
2000m
50m
1100ft
3. Which of the following is not considered an example of

nonlethal force?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Serious damage to internal organs

Physical obstacles
Riot Control Agents
Batons
4. Deadly forced is defined as

a. Force a person uses to detain a suspect
b. Force that a person uses causing, or that a person
knows or should know would create a substantial risk
of causing, death or serious bodily harm
c. Tools that allow the commander to accomplish an
objective without requiring the destruction of an
enemy
d. Establish fundamental policies and procedures
governing the actions of forces in military operations
Assignment 9-1
5. Deadly force is justified in all of the following

circumstances except?
a. Lesser means have been exhausted, are unavailable, or
cannot be reasonably employed
b. The risk of death or serious bodily harm to innocent
persons is not significantly increased by use
c. The purpose of its use is in self-defense or defense
of others
d. The purpose is to detain a suspect not believed to
have committed a serious offense
6. What tool allows the commander to employ sufficient
force to accomplish an objective without requiring the
destruction of an enemy or the habitat?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Deadly force
Compliant techniques
Nonlethal Weapons
Self defense
7. Of the following, which event would justify the use of

deadly force?
a. Prevent the commission of a serious crime that
involves imminent danger of death or serious bodily
harm
b. Prevent the theft of tobacco products by a minor
c. After employing warning shots at a suspected gate
runner
d. From the window of a moving patrol unit while engaged
in high speed pursuit
8. What is the term for shots utilized from afloat vessels
to issue a warning and establish intent of an inbound
waterborne craft?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Verbalization
Compliance techniques
Rule of engagement
Warning shots
Assignment 9-2
9. Which of the following weapons is authorized to be used

when firing warning shots?
a.
b.
c.
d.
M2 50 Caliber Heavy Machine Gun

M9 9mm Pistol
MK39 MOD 2 50MM Machine Gun
Concussion grenades
10. What is the term that establishes fundamental policies

and procedures governing the actions to be taken by US
commanders during all military operations and
contingencies and routine military department functions?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Defense Conditions of Readiness

Military Campaign Post Orders
Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE)
Force Protection Measures
11. The Lautenberg Amendment prohibits which of the

following from handling a firearm or ammunition?
a. Anyone convicted of shoplifting
b. Anyone with a domestic violence conviction
c. Anyone with more then three points on their driving
record
d. Anyone listed on a Military Protective Order
12. Which of the following properly defines a Condition 1 M9
9mm service pistol?
a. Magazine inserted, slide backwards, safety off, round
in chamber
b. Magazine inserted, slide forward, safety off, round in
chamber
c. Magazine inserted, slide forward, safety on, round in
chamber
d. Magazine removed, slide forward, safety on, round in
chamber
Assignment 9-3
13. Which of the following properly defines a Condition 3 M9

9mm service pistol?
a. Magazine inserted, slide forward, chamber empty,
safety on
b. Magazine inserted, slide forward, round chambered,
safety off
c. Magazine inserted, slide forward, chamber empty,
safety off
d. Magazine empty, slide forward, chamber empty, safety
on
14. All Category II and above Navy personnel ashore who are
armed with a pistol are required to qualify on all of
the following except?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Navy Handgun Qualification Course

Handgun Practical Weapons Course
Handgun lowlight Course
Basic Firearms Safety Course
15. All personnel armed with a pistol must requalify with

live fire how often?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Triennially
Annually
Monthly
Bimonthly
16. In what reference can the requirement for semiannual

pistol sustainment training be located?
a.
b.
c.
d.
CJCSI 3330.55B
DoD 2000.16
OPNAVINST 3591.1E
SECNAVINST 5530.14A
Assignment 9-4
17. Which of the following properly defines a Condition 1

service rifle?
a. Magazine inserted, bolt
in chamber
b. Magazine inserted, bolt
chamber
c. Magazine inserted, bolt
empty
d. Magazine removed, slide
chamber
to the rear, safety off, round

forward, safety on, round in
forward, safety on, chamber
forward, safety on, round in
18. Which of the following properly defines a Condition 3

service rifle?
a. Magazine inserted, bolt forward, chamber empty, safety
on
b. Magazine inserted, slide forward, round chambered,
safety off
c. Magazine inserted, slide forward, chamber empty,
safety off
d. Magazine empty, slide forward, chamber empty, safety
on
19. All Navy personnel armed with the rifle are required to
qualify on which courses of fire?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Rifle
Rifle
Rifle
Rifle
Orientation and qualification

Qualification and rifle low light courses
Qualification and strobe light courses
familiarization and training
20. All Navy personnel armed with a rifle must requalify how
often?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Triennially
Monthly
Annually
Every 8 months
Assignment 9-5
21. What is the name of the weapons qualification course for

all Navy personnel armed with a shotgun?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Shotgun
Shotgun
Shotgun
Shotgun
Qualification Course of Fire

Low Light Course of Fire
Practical Weapons Course
Law Enforcement Officers Qualification Course
22. Which of the following shotgun condition codes is not

applicable to Navy operations?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Condition
Condition
Condition
Condition
1
2
3
4
23. Which of the following properly describes a Condition 1

Shotgun?
a. Magazine tube empty, chamber empty, breech bolt
forward, action closed, weapon on safe
b. Magazine tube filled, chamber empty, breech bolt
c. Magazine tube filled, round in chamber, breech bolt
d. Magazine tube filled, chamber empty, breech bolt to
the rear, action open, weapon on safe
24. What is the maximum effective range of the M500 shotgun?
a.
b.
c.
d.
100yds
100m
50ft
46m
Assignment 9-6
25. Which of the following is not a machine gun used by Navy

security forces?
a.
b.
c.
d.
M240
M60
M107
M2 50 caliber
26. Under current warning shot guidance, warning shots are

authorized in which of the following areas?
a.
b.
c.
d.
U.S. internal and terroritorial waters and seas

At anchor in Bahrain
Pierside in Hong Kong
When steaming in a multi-national formation in
international waters
27. When should warning shots be fired?

a.
b.
c.
d.
At the farthest point away from the ship

As the last option prior to the use of deadly force
At the maximum range of the applicable weapon
Upon the suspected vessel entering the identification
zone
28. Which of the following is not one of the six-steps in

the escalation of force continuum?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Covert presence
Professional presence
Verbalizations
Lethal force
29. Serious bodily harm includes all of the below except

a.
b.
c.
d.
Fractured bones
Bloody nose
Damage to internal organs
Deep cuts
Assignment 9-7
30. Which nonlethal weapon would be utilized to disorient

combatants?
a.
b.
c.
d.
RCAs
Physical obstacles
Light
Handcuffs
31. Which of the following properly describes a Condition 1

Crew Served Weapon?
a. Ammunition on Feed Tray, Bolt pulled to the rear,
Weapon on Safe, Cover open
b. Ammunition on Feed Tray, Bolt locked to rear, weapon
on safe, cover closed
c. Feed tray clear, bolt forward on empty chamber, weapon
on fire, cover closed
d. Ammunition in can located adjacent to the weapon
32. What is purpose of the Standing Rules of Engagement?
a. To promulgate guidance to commander for the conduct of
law enforcement operations
b. To provide antiterrorism/force protection benchmarks
c. To provide implementation guidance on the application
of force for mission accomplishment and the exercise
of self-defense
d. To provide commanding officers guidance to conduct
surveillance detection operations
33. What is the maximum effective range for the M60 series
machinegun?
a.
b.
c.
d.
650yds
1000ft
2 miles
1100m
Assignment 9-8
34. What is the maximum effective range for the M-16 service
rifle?
a.
b.
c.
d.
3600yds
400ft
550m
1 mile
35. What is the single largest factor in accidents involving

firearms?
a.
b.
c.
d.
The weapon is on safe

The individual is qualified to handle a weapon
Assumption that the weapon is not loaded
The individual is a SAMI
Assignment 9-9
Assignment 10: Military Law of Evidence

(Questions from 10-1 through 10-15)
(Assignment 10, 11, 12 & 13 is derived from Chapter 10)
1. The military courts derive their existence from what

article of the Constitution?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Article
Article
Article
Article
I
II
III
IV
2. What article of the UCMJ is considered the key that

opens the door to the military law of evidence?
a.
b.
c.
d.
6
15
36
40
3. Who has prescribed the rules of evidence for military

personnel?
a.
b.
c.
d.
President of the United States

Chief of Naval Operations
Judge Advocate General
Secretary of the Navy
4. The Military Rules of Evidence (MRE) are found in what

source?
a.
b.
c.
d.
JAG Manual
Navy Regulations
U.S. Constitution
Manual for Courts-Martial
5. Points of law on particular issues are interpreted by

what judicial system(s)?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Court of Military Review

Court of Military Appeal
Both a and b above
Federal District Courts
Assignment 10-1
6. Some of the major sources for the military law of

evidence are found in which of the following
documents?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Statutes
Constitution
Scholarly writings
All of the above
7. Of the following terms, which one is sometimes used

to describe the rules of evidence?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Issues
Elements
Technicalities
Interpretations
8. The MRE are not applied to what judicial proceeding?

a.
b.
c.
d.
General court-martial
Special court-martial
Summary court-martial
Captains mast
9. The rules of evidence are made applicable to courtsmartial by what MRE?

a.
b.
c.
d.
15
31
101
133
10. What is the ultimate issue at a trial by courtmartial?

a.
b.
c.
d.
Guilt or innocence of the accused

Innocence of the accused only
Guilt of the accused only
Rights of the accused
Assignment 10-2
11. What is the broader meaning of the term corpus

delicti?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Murder victim
Element of an offense
Body or substance of crime
Fundamental facts connected with an illegal act
12. In which of the following offenses must intent be

proven?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Rape
Burglary
Drunkenness
Neglect of duty
13. Evidence that the accused was drunk could constitute a

defense for the c o m m i s s i o n o f w h i c h o f t h e
following acts?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Rape
Arson
Murder
Larceny
14. An accused is required to assume the burden of proof

to show innocence to which, if any, of the following
offenses?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Rape
Arson
Neglect of duty
None of the above
15. Evidence is divided into a total of how many basic

forms?
a.
b.
c.
d.
2
3
4
5
Assignment 10-3
16. The courts assume that Department of Defense documents

are genuine.
a. True
b. False
17. When a document is to be introduced as evidence and
only part of it is to be read to the court, what
portion of the document must be submitted?
a. The entire document
b. The cover of the document and that portion to be
read only
c. The section or chapter of the document containing the
portion to be read only
d. The portion to be read only
18. A knife used to take the life of a victim is what form
of evidence?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Real
Indirect
Documentary
Demonstrative
19. Evidence that is partly documentary and partly real is

what category of evidence?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Oral
Partial
Indirect
Demonstrative
20. What are the two types of evidence?

a.
b.
c.
d.
Direct and indirect

Admissible and indirect
Direct and circumstantial
Circumstantial and admissible
Assignment 10-4
21. A confession from an accused is what type of evidence?

a.
b.
c.
d.
Real
Direct
Demonstrative
Circumstantial
22. Evidence that tends to establish a fact from which a

fact in issue may be inferred is what type of
evidence?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Real
Direct
Demonstrative
Circumstantial
23. Direct evidence is superior to circumstantial

evidence.
a. True
b. False
24. Admissibility of evidence depends on what factor(s)?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Relevancy
Competency
Authenticity
All of the above
25. What is meant by the authenticity of evidence?

a.
b.
c.
d.
The
The
The
The
identity of the evidence

admissibility of the evidence
genuine character of the evidence
relevancy of the evidence
Assignment 10-5
26. A trial counsel and defense counsel agree that a

certain item sought to be introduced into evidence is
what it purports to be. What is this agreement called?
a.
b.
c.
d.
A stipulation
An authentication
A mutual gesture
An attestment
27. What is a definition of relevancy as applied to

evidence?
a. The evidence has been accepted by the court as
admissible
b. The information will reasonably tend to prove or
disprove any matter in issue
c. The evidence has been proven to be competent
d. The identity of the evidence has been authenticated
28. Evidence that is relevant and not barred by any
exclusionary rule is described by what term?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Relevant
Competent
Authentic
Stipulation
29. Competency of evidence is a matter of whether or not

the evidence can meet what test(s)?
a. Public policy, reliability, undue prejudice, and
relevancy
b. Public policy, reliability, and undue prejudice only
c. Public policy and reliability only
d. Public policy only
Assignment 10-6
30. What is prima facie evidence?

a. Evidence that will prove or disprove any matter in
issue
b. Evidence that is admissible as fit and appropriate
proof in a particular case
c. Evidence that would be objectionable as irrelevant
d. Evidence that is good and sufficient, on its face,
to meet the issue if no other testimony is offered
31. How does the prosecution establish a prima facie case?

a. By introducing enough evidence to outweigh the
general presumption that the accused is innocent
b. By providing enough good evidence against the
accused to ensure an airtight case
c. By shifting the burden of proof to the accused
d. By presenting evidence that is entirely
circumstantial
32. When, if ever, may a prima facie case be overthrown?
a. Upon an appeal of the trial
b. When the accused introduces sufficient evidence
in rebuttal
c. When the accused objects to the evidence that is
presented
d. Never
33. What is meant by reasonable doubt?
a.
b.
c.
d.
An honest and real doubt caused by insufficient proof

Proof beyond the possibility of mistake
Doubt caused by a fault-finding attitude
Doubt caused by moral attitude
Assignment 10-7
34. In a case involving drunkenness, which of the

following statements would be admissible?
a. The accused was drunk the day before that specified
b. The accused is known to be a heavy drinker
c. The accused was in the company of others who were
drunk
d. The accused had been drinking a short time prior
to that specified
35. Evidence of other offenses or acts of misconduct may
be introduced when the evidence tends to accomplish
which of the following actions?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Identifies a person as the perpetrator of an offense

Proves a plan of the accused
Proves guilty knowledge or intent
All of the above
36. Hearsay testimony is best described as what kind of

evidence?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Overruled
Secondhand
Presumptive
Prima facie
37. Hearsay is generally not admitted in evidence.

a. True
b. False
38. Dying declarations of an alleged victim are excepted
from what rule?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Documentary
Res gestae
Prima facie
Hearsay
Assignment 10-8
39. In most cases, if a dying declaration is to be

introduced at a trial for criminal homicide, in
what condition must the person be at the time of
trial?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Dead
Critical
In extremity
Impending death
40. Which of the following is an example of an exception to

hearsay testimony?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Affidavit
Res gestae
Prima facie
Documentary
41. Which of the following definitions best describes res

gestae?
a. Any evidence that is admissible as hearsay
b. A statement made unde r conditions where the
victim was in extremity
c. Voluntary exclamations or acts made at the time the
offense was committed
d. Involuntary exclamations or acts made at the time the
offense was committed
42. During trial, evidence is first introduced by whom?
a.
b.
c.
d.
The
The
The
The
prosecution
defense counsel
court bailiff
senior court member
Assignment 10-9
43. When, if ever, may one witness be present in court

while another witness testifies?
a. When the judge orders the witness to hear the
testimony
b. When the trial counsel and defense counsel agree to
the presence of the witness
c. When the second witness has finished his or her
testimony
d. Never
44. Objection to a witness on grounds of incompetence is
made at what time?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Before
Before
Before
At any
the court convenes only

the court reaches a verdict only
the witness is sworn only
time
45. A court-martial convened by the Navy can require the

appearance of witnesses from which of the following
services?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Navy only
Navy and Marine Corps only
Navy, Marine Corps, and Coast Guard only
All Armed Forces
46. When a witness is stationed near the location where

the court convenes, by whom is the witness notified?
a.
b.
c.
d.
CO of the witness
Trial counsel
Military judge
Defense counsel
Assignment 10-10
47. When practicable, a request for the attendance of a

military witness is made to allow a minimum notice
of how many hours before court convenes?
a.
b.
c.
d.
12
24
48
72
48. A subpoena is normally issued for a civilian witness a

minimum of how many hours before the time the
witness must travel from home to comply with the
subpoena?
a.
b.
c.
d.
12
24
48
72
49. When, if ever, may an accused be forced to testify?

a. When ordered by his or her CO
b. When compelled by a military judge
c. When the defense counsel calls him or her to the
witness stand
d. Never
50. When is an accomplice competent to testify?
a.
b.
c.
d.
At all times
In a capital offense only
When asked by the judge only
When a credible witness only
51. When, if ever, may a trial counsel be required to

testify?
a.
b.
c.
d.
After the verdict

Before the court proceedings
When his or her testimony is desired
Never
Assignment 10-11
52. A child must be 16 years old in order for his or her

testimony to be admissible.
a. True
b. False
53. When, if ever, may a husband testify to the
confidential communications received from his wife?
a.
b.
c.
d.
When the wife has given consent

When ordered by the judge
Under any circumstances
Never
54. In cross-examination, what type of evidence may not be

introduced to attack the credibility of the
witness?
a. Proving that the witness was convicted of a crime
involving moral depravity
b. Testimony as to the character of the witness
c. Proving that the witness was previously convicted of
perjury
d. Testimony that the witness has a bad reputation for
truthfulness
55. Who decides whether or not a witness is competent to
testify?
a.
b.
c.
d.
The
The
The
The
trial counsel only

defense counsel only
judge only
trial counsel, the defense counsel, or the judge
56. The testimony of a witness may be impeached if it is

proved that the witness made contradictory
statements during the present trial.
a. True
b. False
Assignment 10-12
57. Which of the following is a definition of a

deposition?
a. A written declaration under oath or affirmation made
by a witness in the presence of the adverse party
b. An oral declaration under oath made by a witness
in the presence of the adverse party
c. A written declaration made by the accused and
witnessed by two other persons
d. An oral declaration made by an accused and witnessed
by two other persons
58. A deposition may be taken by which of the following

persons?
a.
b.
c.
d.
A legal officer
A court officer
A notary public
Each of the above
59. Depositions are not in violation of the hearsay

rule for what reason(s)?
a. Because the witness is placed under oath only
b. Because there is an opportunity for crossexamination only
c. Because the witness is under oath and there is an
opportunity for cross-examination
d. Because the accused is present while the deposition
is taken
60. An affidavit differs from a deposition in what way?
a. An affidavit is made without giving the other side an
opportunity to ask questions of the declarer
b. An affidavit is unsworn
c. An affidavit is hearsay
d. An affidavit is always admissible
Assignment 10-13
61. During the examination of a witness, the fourth

examination of the witness is known by what term?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Redirect examination
Re-cross-examination
Cross-examination
Cross-direct-examination
62. Leading questions are allowed in court proceedings at

which of the following times?
a. When asked by the defense counsel
b. When asked by the trial counsel
c. When the witness appears hostile to the party who
called him or her
d. When a double question is asked
63. Are double questions allowed in court? If so, under
what circumstances?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Yes; when asked by the trial counsel

Yes; to shorten court proceedings
Yes; when confronted by a hostile witness
no
64. During a trial, which of the following types of

questions is not forbidden?
a. Classified military question
b. Incriminating question
c. Degrading question dealing with a material issue of
a trial
d. Degrading question dealing with a minor issue of a
trial
65. A witness may not give his or her opinion regarding
which of the following characteristics of a person?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sanity
Sobriety
Identity
Guilt
Assignment 10-14
66. Are witnesses allowed to discuss their testimony with

any of the following persons? If so, with whom?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Yes; the accused

Yes; other witnesses
Yes; any court official
No
Assignment 10-15
Assignment 11: Forensics part 1

(Questions from Chapter 10: Forensics Article)
1. What is the most positive way to identify a person?

a.
b.
c.
d.
Pictures
Personal identification
Fingerprints
Background information
2. When, if ever, do the friction ridges on a persons

hands change during his/her lifetime?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Just after birth

When the individual gains maturity
At the age of 65
Never
3. Which of the following terms is not used in

classifying or describing fingerprints?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Bifurcation
Core
Divergence
Tangent
4. What term identifies fingerprints that spread apart

at two ridges that have been running nearly
parallel?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Deformed fingers
Pattern area
Divergence
Focal points
Assignment 11-1
In answering questions 5 to 8 select the classification

term that matches the description question.
5. The delta and core located within the pattern area
of loops and whorls.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Palmer
Shoulders
Focal points
Bifurcation
6. The forking or dividing of one ridge line into two

or more branches.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Palmer
Shoulders
Focal points
Bifurcation
7. The points at which the recurring ridge of a looptype pattern definitely turns inward or curves.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Palmer
Shoulders
Focal points
Bifurcation
8. Pertaining to palm impressions of the hand.

a.
b.
c.
d.
Palmer
Shoulders
Focal points
Bifurcation
Assignment 11-2
9. A point is a ridge characteristic formed by

bifurcation, ridge ending, or dot.
a. True
b. False
10. The taking of good, clean, fingerprints is not
difficult.
a. True
b. False
11. The two innermost ridges that start parallel,
diverge, and tend to surround the entire pattern area
are called type lines.
a. True
b. False
12. The term plantar pertains to sole impressions of the
foot.
a. True
b. False
13. Prior to fingerprinting a subject, what is the first
thing you should have the subject do?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Wash his hands

Sign the fingerprint card
Place his fingers on the ink plate
Call his lawyer
14. A good fingerprint impression should be what color?

a.
b.
c.
d.
Gray
Black
Brown
Dark gray
Assignment 11-3
15. What is the purpose for taking plain fingerprint

impressions?
a.
b.
c.
d.
To reduce smudging
To reduce deformity
They are easier to take
To verify rolled impressions
16. When a photographic fingerprint impression is being

taken, the photographic paper should be placed in a
fixing bath for approximately how many seconds?
a.
b.
c.
d.
10
20
30
40
17. What is the greatest problem with making palm

prints?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Palm prints are basically the same for everyone

Palm prints require too much space on the page
Palm prints are frequently smudged
Palm prints are difficult to obtain due to the
hollow in the palm
18. What is the best method to record palm prints?

a. Use very flexible paper with white powder
b. Have the individual press down hard with the palm
c. Use a tubular object wrapped with printing paper to
roll the prints
d. Have the individual use heavy, black printers ink
19. Which of the following will result in poor
fingerprint impressions?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Failure to
Failure to
Failure to
All of the
clean the inking apparatus

clean the individuals fingers
roll the fingers properly
above
Assignment 11-4
20. Latent prints fall under a total o f h o w m a n y

g e n e r a l classifications?
a.
b.
c.
d.
One
Two
Three
Four
21. When a latent print is found at a crime scene, which

of the following actions should be taken first?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Lift it with masking tape

Lift it with robber tape
Measure out the pattern
Photograph it
22. What fingerprint powder has the advantage of showing

up on either a dark or light background?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Dragons blood
Blue
Gray
White
23. Which of the following items should not be used to

apply fingerprint powder?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Fiberglass
Feather brush
Camels hair brush
Tissue paper
24. When using a short-wave u l t r a v i o l e t l i g h t , t h e

investigator should wear which of the following
apparel?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Rubber gloves only

Goggles only
Rubber gloves and goggles
Goggles and protective clothing
Assignment 11-5
25. What are the most common materials used for lifting
latent fingerprints?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Masking tape and rubber lifters

Adhesive and transparent tapes
Clear tape and rubber lifters
Rubber lifters and transparent Lifting tapes
26. What type of tape is best for lifting prints located

on curved or uneven surfaces?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Scotch
Masking
Rubber
Shipping
27. Fingerprint patterns have a total of how many basic

classification designations?
a.
b.
c.
d.
One
Two
Three
Four
28. What fingerprint pattern has two or more deltas?

a.
b.
c.
d.
Accidental whorl
Ulnar
Radial
Arches
29. Patterns that flow toward the thumbs are known as what
type of loops?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Accidental whorl
Ulnar
Radial
Arches
Assignment 11-6
30. What fingerprint loops flowing in the direction of

the-little fingers?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Radial
Tented arches
Plain arches
Ulnar
31. What type of pattern has the ridges forming

concentric circles or spirals?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Whorls
Loops
Tented arches
Arches
32. A loop must have a total of how many essential

characteristics?
a.
b.
c.
d.
One
Two
Three
Four
In answering questions 33 through 36, select the term that

matches the description given as the question.
33. A positive impression made from a mold.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Object
Mold
Cast
Impression
34. Anything making an impression.

a.
b.
c.
d.
Object
Mold
Cast
Impression
Assignment 11-7
35. Any indentation from which a cast is made.

a.
b.
c.
d.
Object
Mold
Cast
Impression
36. A negative impression.

a.
b.
c.
d.
Object
Mold
Cast
Impression
37. What should be the first thing done to an impression

found at a crime scene?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Photographed
Protected
Sketched
Casted
38. Spraying an impression with which of the following

material will help to strengthen the impression to
support the weight of the casting material?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Shellac
Plastic spray
Hair net spray
Each of the above
39. Usually how many coats of a spray material is

sufficient to help support the weight of the casting
material in sandy soils?
a.
b.
c.
d.
1 to 2
3 to 10
12 to 15
16 to 20
Assignment 11-8
40. When plastic spray is used to help support the weight

of the casting material, a thin mist of which of the
following materials should be allowed to settle on the
print?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Water
Light oil
Vinegar
Shellac
41. Reinforcement material should be added to the print

after how much plaster has been laid?
a.
b.
c.
d.
1/8 to 1/4 in.

3/16 to 5/16 in.
1/2 to 3/4 in.
15/16 to 1 1/2 in.
42. When added with the water used in making plaster,

which of the following materials will hasten the
setting?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sugar
Borax
Salt
Pepper
43. It usually takes plaster how many minutes to harden

after preparation?
a.
b.
c.
d.
10
15
20
45
to
to
to
to
12
18
30
60
44. When casting under water and using plaster, how many
parts of salt should be added to 10 to 12 parts of
plaster to hasten the setting time?
a.
b.
c.
d.
1
2
3
5
to
to
to
to
2
4
4
7
Assignment 11-9
45. Which of the following casting materials is lighter

than plaster of Paris, much more economical, and is
highly recommended for use?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Epoxy
Dental stone
Silicone rubber
Posmoulage
46. Which of the following casting materials may be used to

obtain fingerprint impressions found in putty and
caulking?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Epoxy
Dental stone
Silicone rubber
Posmoulage
47. Which of the following materials would be

excellent to make a cast of extremely faint hammer
blows on a safe?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Posmoulage
Epoxy casting
Silicone rubber
Dental stone
48. What is the approximate circumference of a tire,

in feet?
a.
b.
c.
d.
1
5
10
13
to 3
to 8
to 12
to 15
Assignment 11-10
49. When using a hollow cast with melted moulage, how

many minutes should you let it stand before pouring
out the excess moulage?
a.
b.
c.
d.
1 to 1 1/2
2 to 3
5 to 6
10 to 15
50. When a laboratory examines cast and mold evidence,

class and individual characteristics are considered.
a. True
b. False
51. Which of the following types of markers may be used
to mark glass fragments?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Grease pencil
Diamond point pencil
Carborundum pencil
All of the above
In answering questions 52 through 55, select the

examination term that matches the description given as
the question.
52. Refers to the change of direction of a ray of light
passing through a medium.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Density
Fluorescence
Refractive index
Spectrographic analysis
53. Based on the fact that mineral constituents impart a

distinctive reaction when this technique is used.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Density
Fluorescence
Refractive index
Assignment 11-11
54. This technique is based on comparing the

characteristics of known and unknown pieces of
glass.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Density
Fluorescence
Refractive index
55. Has the greate st value in demonstrating major

differences between two samples.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Density
Fluorescence
Refractive index
I n a n s w e r i n g q u e s t i ons 56 through 61, select the term

that matches the description given as the question.
Responses may be used more than once.
56. Made when a tool is pressed against or into a
receiving surface.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Tool mark
Friction mark
Combination mark
Negative impression
57. Made when a crowbar is forcefully inserted into a

space between a door and the door facing.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Tool mark
Friction mark
Combination mark
Negative impression
Assignment 11-12
58. Made when a tool cuts into or slides across a

surface.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Tool mark
Friction mark
Combination mark
Negative impression
59. Usually made when a crowbar is used to pry open a door

or window.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Tool mark
Friction mark
Combination mark
Negative impression
60. An impression, cut, scratch, or abrasion made when a

tool is brought into contact with an object.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Tool mark
Friction mark
Combination mark
Negative impression
61. This type of mark may be made by a bolt cutter.

a.
b.
c.
d.
Tool mark
Friction mark
Combination mark
Negative impression
62. Tool mark evidence may be used for which of the

following reasons?
a. To link a person who uses a given tool with the
crime scene
b. To establish a connection between similar evidence
discovered in a series of crimes
c. To compare a tool mark from a crime scene with a
tool mark found on the property of a suspect
d. All of the above
Assignment 11-13
63. When processing a tool mark as evidence, how many

different courses of actions are available to the
investigator?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Three
Five
Seven
Nine
64. A casting can be just as good or better than the

original impression.
a. True
b. False
65. Serial numbers on manufactured objects are made up of
which of the following?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Individual letters
Combination of numbers
Combination of numbers, letters or symbols
All of the above
66. Serial numbers are usually attached to objects in all

but which of the following ways?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Engraved
Permanent ink
Molded
Etched
Assignment 11-14
Assignment 12: Forensics part 2

(Questions from Chapter 10: Forensics Article)
1. On a normal person, blood usually begins to clot after

how many minutes?
a.
b.
c.
d.
1
2
3
6
to
to
to
to
2
3
5
8
2. What color is blood after it has completely dried?

a.
b.
c.
d.
Red
Black
Reddish-brown
Reddish-black
3. When a drop of blood falls from 6 to 12 inches, the

bloodstains appear as a circular disk on a smooth
surface.
a. True
b. False
4. When a drop of blood falls from 2 to 3 yards, it may
splash upon impact and form many small bloodstains.
a. True
b. False
5. Blood usually clots in approximately how many minutes?
a.
b.
c.
d.
1 to 3
4 to 6
10 to 20
25 to 30
Assignment 12-1
6. Before sending a bloodstained article to the lab for

examination it should be thoroughly dried. How should
the drying process be completed?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Place
Place
Place
Place
the
the
the
the
article in a dryer
article under heat lamps
article where an electric fan can blow across
article where it can dry naturally
7. What fraction of an ounce of blood is required for

laboratory examination?
a.
b.
c.
d.
1/16
1/6
1/4
1/2
8. How many tubes of blood should be submitted to the

lab for examination?
a.
b.
c.
d.
One
Two
Three
Four
9. Human blood is classified into a total of how many

blood groups?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Six
Five
Three
Four
10. In the continental United States. what is the

approximate percentage of people who belong to
blood group AB?
a.
b.
c.
d.
7%
2%
3%
5%
Assignment 12-2
11. In the continental United States, what is the

approximate percentage of people who belong to
blood group O?
a.
b.
c.
d.
75%
63%
51%
43%
12. Grouping dried blood stains is considerably more

difficult than grouping liquid blood.
a. True
b. False
13. When human blood is examined in the laboratory,
the preferred test is the precipitin test.
a. True
b. False
14. For blood group testing, what size bloodstain is
generally sufficient for a conclusive determination?
a.
b.
c.
d.
1/16 x 1/8
1/6 x 1/8
1/2 x 1/4
3/4 x 7/8
15. Approximately what percentage of the population are

secretors?
a.
b.
c.
d.
25%
35%
65%
80%
Assignment 12-3
In an swe ri ng q ues ti ons 1 6 th rou gh 21, select the term

that matches the description given as the question.
Responses may be used more than once.
16. A continuous dark line of varying width running up the
center.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Cortex
Cuticle
Medulla
Cuticular scales
17. The outer surface of the hair.

a.
b.
c.
d.
Cortex
Cuticle
Medulla
Cuticular scales
18. Similar to overlapping shingles on a roof.

a.
b.
c.
d.
Cortex
Cuticle
Medulla
Cuticular scales
19. The inner portion of the hair.

a.
b.
c.
d.
Cortex
Cuticle
Medulla
Cuticular scales
20. The core portion of the hair shaft.

a.
b.
c.
d.
Cortex
Cuticle
Medulla
Cuticular scales
Assignment 12-4
21. Contains the pigmentation of the hair.

a.
b.
c.
d.
Cortex
Cuticle
Medulla
Cuticular scales
22. What is usually the first thing a laboratory

determines about a hair sample?
a.
b.
c.
d.
If it is
If it is
The race
The part
from a male or female

human or animal
of the person
of the body the hair is from
23. In the case of human hairs the laboratory

determinations may include which of the following?
a.
b.
c.
d.
How the hair was removed

How the hair was treated
Blood grouping
All of the above
24. Contact between two pieces of fabric seldom can be

made without an interchange of fiber material.
a. True
b. False
25. When known samples from a victim or suspect are
collected, what minimum quantity of hair or fabric
strands should be collected?
a.
b.
c.
d.
5
12
20
35
Assignment 12-5
26. When you secure soil for comparison samples, about

how much soil should you collect?
a.
b.
c.
d.
1
2
5
1
teaspoon
tablespoons
large scoops
quart
27. When a soil sample is taken, it is seldom necessary

to dig deeper than how many inches?
a.
b.
c.
d.
1/8 to 1/4
1/8 to 3/16
1/2 to 3/4
1 to 2
In answering questions 28 through 37, select the

laboratory technique that matches the description
given as the question. Responses may be used more than
once.
28. Permits qualitative and quantitative analysis of a
substance.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Infrared light
Ultraviolet light
Spectrophotometer
Gas-liquid chromatography
29. Material to be analyzed is injected.

a.
b.
c.
d.
Spectrograph
Infrared light
Spectrophotometer
30. Has no fluorescent effect that can be seen with the

unaided eye.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Spectrograph
Infrared light
Ultraviolet light
Spectrophotometer
Assignment 12-6
31. The light emission phenomenon resulting is one of

fluorescence.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Infrared light
Ultraviolet light
Spectrophotometer
32. Minute quantities of evidentiary material are often

analyzed.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Spectrograph
Infrared light
Spectrophotometer
33. A mixture of several substances may be analyzed.

a.
b.
c.
d.
Spectrograph
Infrared light
Spectrophotometer
34. Produces a graph showing the basic constituents and

trace elements.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Spectrograph
Infrared light
Spectrophotometer
35. Uses a slightly shorter wavelength than normal

visible light.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Spectrograph
Infrared light
Ultraviolet light
Spectrophotometer
Assignment 12-7
36. The application of this instrument l i e s p r i m a r i l y

i n i t s identification and analysis of
substances.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Spectrograph
Ultraviolet light
Spectrophotometer
37. Uses a slightly longer wavelength than normal

visible light.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Infrared light
Ultraviolet light
Spectrophotometer
38. Only DOD-certified examiners or intern examiners

under direct supervision of a certified examiner are
authorized to conduct polygraph examinations.
a. True
b. False
39. From whom should you obtain authorization to conduct a
polygraph examination?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Local NCIS agent

Director of the NCIS
Under Secretary of the Navy
Senior officer present afloat
40. The polygraph examiner is prohibited from conducting

examination when, in the examiners opinion, the
person fits which of the following descriptions?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Physically fatigue
Known to have a mental disorder
Below the age of reason
Each of the above
Assignment 12-8
41. Upon completion of the polygraph examination, the

examiner may come to one of how many conclusions?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Seven
Six
Three
Four
Concerning polygraph examination, in answering questions 43

through 49 select the conclusion that matches the
description given as the question. Responses may be
used more than once.
42. The subject is informed that the examination has been
completed and the charts will be subjected to a
detailed analysis.
a.
b.
c.
d.
No opinion
No deception
Inconclusive
Deception indicated
43. The examinee is deliberately distorting the charts.

a.
b.
c.
d.
No opinion
No deception
Inconclusive
Deception indicated
Assignment 12-9
44. The examiner interrogates the examinee and

attempts to determine the causes of specific
responses.
a.
b.
c.
d.
No opinion
No deception
Inconclusive
Deception indicated
45. The examinee has a cold and rapport is not

established.
a.
b.
c.
d.
No opinion
No deception
Inconclusive
Deception indicated
46. The examinee seems to suffer from a p e r m a n e n t

p s y c h o l o g i c a l disorder.
a.
b.
c.
d.
No opinion
No deception
Inconclusive
Deception indicated
47. After the subject leaves the room the examiner

carefully evaluates the charts and confers with the
investigator if doubts exist.
a.
b.
c.
d.
No opinion
No deception
Inconclusive
Deception indicated
48. A subsequent examination may be made by the

original examiner without obtaining additional
approval.
a.
b.
c.
d.
No opinion
No deception
Inconclusive
Deception indicated
Assignment 12-10
49. W h a t a c t i o n s h o u l d t h e Master-at-Arms take at a

crime scene if the offense is to be investigated by
NCIS?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Question witnesses
Collect all evidence
Present the findings
Protect the crime scene
50. When evidence is searched for in large outdoor

areas, it is advisable to divide the area into
strips approximately how wide?
a.
b.
c.
d.
10 ft
2 ft
7 ft
4 ft
51. When you search indoors or outdoors, the search area

may be divided into what type of areas?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Zones only
Sectors only
Zones and sectors
Regions
52. Evidence may not be released to any person other than

the evidence custodian without supervisor
approval.
a. True
b. False
53. Properly prepared sketches are useful for which of the
following reasons?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Preparing reports
Questioning witnesses
Refreshing your memory
Each of the above
Assignment 12-11
54. A sketch provides the best means of portraying

distances between objects at the scene.
a. True
b. False
55. What method of sketching should be used for indoor
sketches?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Outline
Vertical
Horizontal
Triangulation
56. Of the following considerations, which one is most

important in crime scene photography?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Time
Evidence flags
Extraneous objects
Maintaining perspective
In answering questions 58 through 63 select the

photographic term that matches the description given as
the question. Responses may be used more than once.
57. Controls the amount of time the light is allowed to
reach the film.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Film speed
Lens speed
Shutter speed
Exposure meter
58. Controls the amount of light transmitted to the film.

a.
b.
c.
d.
Filters
Film speed
Lens speed
Shutter speed
Assignment 12-12
59. Identifies the sensitivity of the film to light.

a.
b.
c.
d.
Film speed
Lens speed
Shutter speed
Exposure meter
60. Controls the amount of light entering the lens.

a.
b.
c.
d.
Filters
Film speed
Lens speed
Exposure meter
61. Determines the light value of a scene or object.

a.
b.
c.
d.
Filters
Film speed
Shutter speed
Exposure meter
62. Classified as slow, medium, or fast.

a.
b.
c.
d.
Film speed
Lens speed
Shutter speed
Exposure meter
63. What are the two general categories of color film?

a.
b.
c.
d.
Ektachrome and anscochrome

Ektacolor and anscocolor
Negative and positive
Prints and slides
Assignment 12-13
Assignment 13: Evidence Procedures

(Questions from Chapter 10: Evidence Procedures Article)
1. Physical evidence is one of the most valuable assets

in pursuing an investigation to a successful
conclusion.
a. True
b. False
2. Which of the following techniques is used to achieve
the maximum benefit from physical evidence?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Handling
Collecting
Preserving
Each of the above
3. Physical evidence is divided into a total of how

many general categories?
a.
b.
c.
d.
One
Two
Three
Four
4. A wall, floor, or telephone pole would be what

category of evidence?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Secure
Temporary
Both A and B above
Fixed
5. Which of the following individuals must be able to

authenticate a piece of evidence at a later date?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Investigator
Security officer
Person who first receives it
All of the above
Assignment 13-1
6. Correct identification of evidence occurs when the

member taking custody of the evidence promptly
marks and tags the item.
a. True
b. False
7. Evidence should be inscribed with which of the
following two items?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Name of collector and date and time

Initials of collector and military date and time
Case control number and storage location
Name of command and estimated value
8. Which of the following should you not do when you mark

evidence?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Destroy latent characteristics

Reduce the objects function
Devalue the object
Each of the above
9. When an item of evidence cannot be marked without

destroying evidentiary characteristics, which of the
following actions should be taken?
a. Place the item in a sealed container and mark it for
identification
b. Identify the item with an evidence tag only
c. Photograph the item only
d. Draw and identify the item only
10. The chain of custody begins when an item of
evidence is collected by the security force member.
a. True
b. False
Assignment 13-2
11. What term identifies a written, chronological record

of evidence transactions?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Good record keeping

Evidence tagging
Investigative notes
Chain of custody
12. Each person listed on the chain of custody is

responsible for each item of evidence while under the
individuals control.
a. True
b. False
13. Who assumes the responsibility of evidence when it is
not in use by a competent authority?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Owner
Security Officer
Evidence custodian
Investigations supervisor
14. What individual appoints the evidence custodian and

the alternate?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Commanding officer
Executive officer
Security officer
Chief Master-at-Arms
15. What OPNAV Form is used as the evidence/property

custody receipt?
a.
b.
c.
d.
5527/9
5527/15
5527/17
5527/22
Assignment 13-3
16. What method should be used to enter items on the

evidence custody document?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Typed only
Printed in Ink only
Typed or printed in ink
Pencil
17. What should be done with the second copy of the

evidence/property custody document?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Kept with the evidence

Returned to the owner
Attached to the incident compliant report
Sent to the local NCIS office
18. The evidence log and all supporting documentation

should be retained for a minimum of how many years?
a.
b.
c.
d.
10
2
3
5
19. The combinations of all evidence containers must be

changed in which of the following situations?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Annually
When a new security officer is appointed
When a suspected breach of evidence security occurs
Each of the above
20. A complete inventory of evidence and reconciliation

of documents must be accomplished at least how
often?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Annually
Semiannually
Quarterly
Monthly
Assignment 13-4
21. Which of the following individuals should not be

involved in an evidence inventory?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Security officer
An interested third party
Evidence custodian
Alternate evidence custodian
22. Of the following methods of evidence transmittal,

which one is not authorized?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Registered mail
First-class mail
Second-class mail
Freight or hand-carry
23. Which of the following materials may not be

transmitted through the U.S. mail?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Gas
Chemical
Ammunition
Each of the above
24. What is the final link in the evidence custody chain?

a.
b.
c.
d.
Disposition
Transfer
Storage
Control
Assignment 13-5
COURSE OBJECTIVES
The objective of this course is to provide Masters-at-Arms with
occupational information in the following mission areas:
Installation Security, Expeditionary Security, Shipboard
Security, Corrections, Strategic Weapons, Strategic Aircraft,
Protective Services, Staff Duty as well as guidance on weapons
and the Use of Force, and other organizational and legal issues.
INSTRUCTIONS FOR TAKING THE COURSE ASSIGNMENTS
The links and material that you are to study are included in
each chapter. Study the material and links carefully before
attempting to answer the questions. Pay close attention to tables
and illustrations, and read the information in the links. The
assignment questions for each chapter are included at the end of
chapter 10. Answering the questions correctly helps to accomplish
the objectives.
SELECTING YOUR ANSWERS
Read each question carefully, and then select the BEST answer.
You may refer freely to the text. The answers must be the result
of your own work and decisions. You are prohibited from
referring to or copying the answers of others and from giving
answers to anyone else taking the course.
SUBMITTING YOUR ASSIGNMENTS
To have your assignments graded, you must be enrolled in the
course with the Nonresident Training Course Administration
Branch. Following enrollment, there are two ways of having your
assignments graded:
Use the Internet to submit your assignments as you complete

them
Send all the assignments at one time by mail to CPPD, NRTC
Grading on the Internet: Advantages to Internet grading are:
You may submit your answers as soon as you complete an

assignment
You get your results faster
In addition to receiving grade results for each assignment,

you will receive course completion confirmation once you
i
have completed all the assignments. To submit your

assignment answers via the Internet, go to:
https://www.courses.cnet.navy.mil
Grading by Mail: When you submit answer sheets by mail, send all
of your assignments at one time. Do NOT submit individual answer
sheets for grading. Mail all of your assignments in an envelope,
which you either provide yourself or obtain from your nearest
Educational Services Officer (ESO). Submit answer sheets to:
COMMANDING OFFICER, CPPD, VOLED DET (NRTC) N211
6490 SAUFLEY FIELD ROAD PENSACOLA, FL 32559-5000
Answer Sheets: Each course includes an answer sheet for your
assignments.
If you are going to mail in your answer sheets,
please make copies of the included answer sheet. Explanations
for completing the answer sheets are on the answer sheet.
Follow the instructions for marking your answers on the answer
sheet. Be sure that blocks 1, 2, and 3 are filled in
correctly. This information is necessary for your course to be
properly processed and for you to receive credit for your work.
COMPLETION TIME
Courses must be completed within 12 months from the date of
enrollment. This includes time required to resubmit failed
assignments.
PASS/FAIL ASSIGNMENT PROCEDURES
You will be given the opportunity to resubmit failed
assignments. You may resubmit failed assignments only once.
Internet students will receive notification when they have
failed an assignment--they may then resubmit failed assignments
on the web site. Internet students may view and print results
for failed assignments from the web site. Students who submit by
mail will receive a failing result letter and a new answer sheet
for resubmission of each failed assignment.
COMPLETION CONFIRMATION
After successfully completing this course, can download a copy
of your letter of completion on the NRTC web site:
https://www.courses.cnet.navy.mil
ii
STUDENT FEEDBACK QUESTIONS

We value your suggestions, questions, and criticisms on our
courses. If you would like to communicate with us regarding this
course, we encourage you, if possible, to use e-mail. If you
write or fax, please use a copy of the Student Comment form that
follows this page.
For subject matter questions:
Contact the following Navy Center of Excellence
Center for Security Forces (CSF)
757-462-2189 or DSN 253-2189
For enrollment, shipping, grading, or completion letter
questions:
Email: NRTC@navy.mil
Phone: Toll Free 1-877-264-8583
Comm: 850-452-1511
DSN:
922-1511
FAX:
850-452-1370
(Do NOT fax answer sheets)
ADDRESS:
COMMANDING OFFICER
CENTER FOR PERSONAL AND PROFESSIONAL DEVELOPMENT
ATTN: VOLED DET (NRTC)
6490 SAUFLEY FIELD RD
PENSACOLA FL 32509
iii
Student Comments
Course Title:
Master-at-Arms
NAVEDTRA:
14137B
Date:
We need some information about you:

Rate/Rank and Name:
SSN:
Command/Unit:
Street Address:
City:
State/FPO:
ZIP:
Your comments, suggestions, ect:
iv
Privacy Act Statement: Under authority of Title 5, USC

301, information regarding your military status is
requested in processing your comments and in preparing a
reply. This information will not be divulged without
written authorization to anyone other than those within DOD
for official use in determining performance.
NETPDTC 1550/41 (Rev 4-00)

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Although the words he, him, and his

I represent the fighting spirit of the Navy and those who

I proudly serve my countrys Navy combat team with

I am committed to excellence and the fair treatment of all

SPECIAL PHYSICAL REQUIREMENTS

a. Administration: Administration represents the machinery

Positions and Responsibilities

AT/FP program including law enforcement, physical security,

SECNAVINST 3300.2B Department of the Navy (DON) Antiterrorism

emergency dispatcher and electronic security systems monitor,

NTTP 3-07.2.1 Chapter 5, Paragraph 5.3.9, Antiterrorism

(g) Harbor Security Boat Coxswain. Normally in

Analyze available information, prioritize available

Operate and manage multiple response teams

Inspects assigned posts and equipment

NTTP 3-07.2.3, Chapter 2.5.5, Appendix B, D, J, H, K, L, Q, R, S,

Establish the rights and obligations of the U.S. and

Defend Measure and procedures commensurate with the

Force Protection Conditions (FPCON) and Measures:

localized condition. FPCON Delta measures are not intended to

d. Antiterrorism Training Team (ATTT)/Force Protection

NWP 3-07.2 (Rev. A) Chapter 5, Paragraph 5.2, Navy Doctrine for

(1) AA&E Survey

(2) Automated Entry Control Systems (AECS) operated

Ashore Installation Training:

division is responsible for the overall training and

(1) Long Range Training Plan

and must attain firearms proficiency with the M9 Service pistol,

m. Antiterrorism Training Supervisor (AT TRASUP) (NEC 9501)

q. Navy Physical Security Course (CIN A-830-0001). Course

Operational Planning and Surveillance Detection Reporting. There

Antiterrorism Tactical Watch Officer (NAVEDTRA 43385-9)

Boat Operations (NAVEDTRA 43152-F)

7. Critical Task List. These skills were designated as critical

Navy Expeditionary Logistics Support Group

First Naval Construction Division (1NCD)

Navy Expeditionary Guard Battalion (NEGB)

Maritime Expeditionary Security Force (MESF)

Maritime Civil Affairs Group (MCAG)

Navy Expeditionary Intelligence Command (NEIC)

Expeditionary Training Command (ETC)

Combat Camera (COMCAMLANT)

Expeditionary Combat Readiness Center (ECRC)

Adaptive, Responsive, Expeditionary

Naval Expeditionary Combat Command

(a) Provides contingency construction support to

Forward operations base construction and operation

Worldwide expeditionary logistics

(4) Naval Coastal Warfare Group/Maritime Expeditionary

Scalable and sustainable security teams capable of

Combat arms force provides maritime operations in rivers

(6) Maritime Civil Affairs Group

Assess, plan and coordinate civil/military operations in

Provides timely, focused, and customized maritime

(8) Expeditionary Combat Readiness Center

Train, equip, certify, deploy, and redeploy IA In-Lieu-Of,

o Battle damage assessment

Provide flexible, capable, and ready maritime expeditionary

Battle Space Interoperability

Maritime Expeditionary Security Force

(a) Small Craft Operations:

(b) Embarked (Vessel) Security Teams: