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LISTENING SECTION
In this section of the test, you will have the chance to show how well you understand spoken English.
There are four parts to this section with special directions for each part.
PART I
Questions 1 to 4.
Directions:
In this part of the test, you will hear some dialogues and questions spoken in English. The questions
and the dialogues will be spoken twice. They will not be printed in your test book, so you must listen
carefully to understand what the speakers are saying.
After you listen to the dialogue and the question about it, read the five possible answers, and decide
which one would be the best answer to the question you have heard. Now listen to a sample question.
You will hear:
Man
: I give up! Ill stop learning French.
Woman : Why do you say that? You are making a lot of progress.
Man
: No, I m not. Ive tried hard but still I cannot speak it well.
Woman : How come? You can speak Arabic, Hindi, Japanese and even Russian well, cant you?
Narrator : What language is difficult for the man to learn?
A. Hindi.
B. Arabic.
C. French.
D. Russian.
E. Japanese.
The best answer to this question is French. Therefore, you should choose answer (C)
1.

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

2. A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Job vacancy.
Job interview.
Electric Company.
Applying for a job.
Occupying a machine division.
Office boy.
Hotel clerk.
Travel agent.
A taxi driver.
A tour guide.

3. A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

She sees her doctor.

She visits the hospital.
She takes her medicine.
She meets him in the doctor.
She makes an appointment with him.

4. A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Its in bad condition.

Its the wrong size.
Its been worn.
Its damaged.
Its been torn.

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PART II
Questions 5 to 7
Directions:
In this part of the test, you will hear some incomplete dialogues spoken in English, followed by four
responses, also spoken in English. The dialogues and the responses will be spoken twice. They will not
be printed in your test book, so you must listen carefully to understand what the speakers are saying.
You have to choose the best response to each question.
Now listen to a sample question:
Man
: Hey, Cindy! Could you do me a favour?
Woman : What can I do for you?
Man
: Would you mind going to the post office to send my letter?
Woman : .
Narrator : What is the womans possible response?
A. I am all out sorry.
B. I love to write letters.
C. Sure, by all means.
D. Its next to the police station
Narrator : The best answer to the question is: Sure, by all means. Therefore, you should choose
answer (C).
5. Mark your answer on your answer sheet.
6. Mark your answer on your answer sheet.
7. Mark your answer on your answer sheet.
PART III
Questions 8 to 11
Directions:
In this part of the test, you will hear some dialogues or monologues spoken in English. The dialogues
or monologues will be spoken twice. They will not be printed in your test book, so you must listen
carefully to understand what the speakers are saying. After you listen to the dialogue or monologue,
look at the five pictures provided in your test book, and decide which one would be the most suitable
with the dialogue or monologue you have heard.
8. A.

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B.

E.

C.

9. A.

B.

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D.

E.

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C.

10. A.

D.

B.

E.

C.

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11. A.

D.

B.

E.

C.

PART IV
Questions 12 to 15
Directions:
In this part of the test, you will hear several monologues. Each monologue will be spoken twice. They
will not be printed in your test book, so you must listen carefully to understand what the speakers are
saying.
After you hear the monologue and the question about it, read the five possible answers and decide
which one would be the best answer to the question you have heard.

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12. A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Kilimanjaro beautiful landscape.

Kilimanjaro National Park.
Kilimanjaro highest peak.
Kilimanjaro trekking.
Kilimanjaro.

13. A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Its an inactive volcano in the north of Tanzania.

Its the World Heritage Site chosen by UNESCO.
Its the highest mountain in Africa continent.
It has the variety of wildlife seen during the trip.
Its designated as a game reserve.

14. A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Vermin.
Dandruff.
Grey hair.
Black hair.
Dead scalp.

15. A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

He was bald.
He had just black hair.
He had just white hair.
He had dense black hair.
He looked younger than his age.
This is the end of the listening section

READING SECTION
The following text is for questions 16 and 17.
University of Tanjungsiang
DEPARTMENT OF BUSINESS
WEST PALM BEACH, FL 12390
January 17, 2014
Mr. Ronald Webster
Personnel Director
Thompson Enterprise
222 State Street
Springfield, IL 62705
Dear Mr. Webster:
As her employer and her former professor, I am happy to have the opportunity to recommend Vicky
Hopkins. I have known her for four years, first as a student in my class and for the last two years as a
research assistant.
Vicky is an excellent student with above average grades in our program. On the basis of CPA of
5.6 (A=6), Vicky was offered a research assistant-ship to work on a grant under my supervision. In
every instance, Vicky completed her library search assignment within the time agreed upon. She also
well wrote the reports. While working 15 hours a week on this project, Vicky has maintained a class
load of 12 hours per semester.
I strongly recommend Vicky for her ability to work independently, to organize her time
effectively, and for her ability to write clearly and articulately.
Please let me know if I can be of further assistant.
Sincerely yours
Mark Landon
Professor of Business
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16. What is the letter about?

A. Campaigning to visit school libraries.
B. Raising funds to build school libraries.
C. Protesting magazine article about the libraries closure.
D. Finding supports to keep the libraries open on Mondays.
E. Recommending using library to help students do their assignment.
17. Who wants to close libraries on Mondays?
A. Parents.
B. Students.
C. Library customers.
D. The readers of the magazine.
E. The City Council representatives.
The following text is for questions 18 and 19.

Bid Announcement
Title of the Project
Establishment of the Database of Landslides of the World
Brief overview of the Project
Data creating, uploading and maintenance assembling the database from publication of
the ICL and other related sources (English)
Estimated number of data
About 5,000 data (Each datum is composed of some texts and pictures.)
Bid due date and time
16:00(JST) on January 20th, 2014
Contract Award
The Committee of World Landslide Database (hereinafter referred as the Committee)
reserves the right to reject any and all bids, and to waive any informality in the bidding to
serve the best interests of the Committee. The Committee may elect to award a contract
on the basis of price, perceived or actual performance, reliability, or serviceability, or a
combination of these or other criteria. The Committee may also decide not to award any
contract if it is deemed to be in the interest of the Committee. Technical evaluation,
contractor selection, and award of a contract are solely at the discretion of the
Committee. Bid withdrawal may be made only with the consent of the Committee.
Sample data are seen from;
Database of Landslides of the World in the Web of http://iclhq.org/
For more information and contact
Hiroshi FUKUOKA
Chairman of the Committee of Database of Landslides of the World
TEL: 0774-38-4111
e-mail: fukuoka@iclhq.org
18. What is the text about?
A. Information about illness.
B. The notification of further work.
C. A notification about work absence.
D. A message about Marla Picks disease.
E. Information about the progress of Marla Picks job.
19. Which statement IS NOT TRUE according to the text?
A. Marla Picks is sick.
B. This message is addressed to Mr. Jackson.
C. Mr. Jackson and Marla Picks work in the same place.
D. Marla Pick gives detailed information about her sickness.
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E. Marla Picks doesnt come to her workplace on January 15, 2014.

The following text is for questions 20 and 21.

20. Which is NOT CORRECT based on the text?

A. The headquarters of the company is Nepal.
B. The applicant must be capable of operating computer well.
C. The positions demand the big mobiles of the company workers.
D. The requirement for institutional sales officers is the same as assistant officer one.
E. The application letter must be sent less than 15 days after the advertisement is published.
21. Sumy Distillery Pvt. Ltd. is seeking to recruit competent
The underlined word has closest meaning with .
A. employ
B. require
C. accept
D. oblige
E. train
The following text is for questions 22 to 24
Margaret Hilda Roberts was born on 13 October 1925 in Grantham, Lincolnshire, the daughter of a
grocer. She went to Oxford University and then became a research chemist, retraining to become a
barrister in 1954. In 1951, she married Denis Thatcher, a wealthy businessman, with whom she had two
children.
Thatcher became a Conservative member of parliament for Finchley in North London in 1959,
serving as its MP until 1992. Her first parliamentary post was junior minister for pensions in Harold
Macmillan's government. From 1964 to 1970, when Labour were in power, she served in a number of
positions in Edward Heath's shadow cabinet. Heath became prime minister in 1970 and Thatcher was
appointed secretary for education.
After the Conservatives were defeated in 1974, Thatcher challenged Heath for the leadership of
the party and, to the surprise of many, won. In the 1979 general election, the Conservatives came to
power and Thatcher became prime minister.
She was an advocate of privatising state-owned industries and utilities, reforming trade unions,
lowering taxes and reducing social expenditure across the board. Thatcher's policies succeeded in
reducing inflation, but unemployment dramatically increased during her years in power.
Victory in the Falklands War in 1982 and a divided opposition helped Thatcher win a landslide
victory in the 1983 general election. In 1984, she narrowly escaped death when the IRA planted a bomb
at the Conservative party conference in Brighton.
In foreign affairs, Thatcher cultivated a close political and personal relationship with US
president Ronald Reagan, based on a common mistrust of communism, combined with free-market
economic ideology. Thatcher was nicknamed the 'Iron Lady' by the Soviets. She warmly welcomed the
rise of reformist Soviet leader Mikhail Gorbachev.
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In the 1987 general election, Thatcher won an unprecedented third term in office. But
controversial policies, including the poll tax and her opposition to any closer integration with Europe,
produced divisions within the Conservative Party which led to a leadership challenge. In November
1990, she agreed to resign and was succeeded as party leader and prime minister by John Major.
In 1992, Thatcher left the House of Commons. She was appointed a peeress in the House of
Lords with the title of Baroness Thatcher of Kesteven and continued giving speeches and lectures
across the world. She also founded the Thatcher Foundation, which aimed to advance the cause of
political and economic freedom, particularly in the newly liberated countries of central and eastern
Europe. In 1995 she became a member of the Order of the Garter, the highest order of knighthood in
England.
In 2002, after a series of minor strokes, Baroness Thatcher retired from public speaking. She died
of a stroke on April 8, 2013, at the age of 87.
22. What is the topic of paragraph 2?
A. Mandelas marriage.
B. The attribute on Mandelas activity.
C. The first black president of South Africa.
D. Mandelas involvement in political activities.
E. The controversy on Mandelas activity on communist party.
23. Which of the following statements is CORRECT based on the text?
A. Mandela was jailed in more than 27 prisons.
B. Mandelas second wife was a political activist.
C. Mandela had 13 children from his three marriages.
D. Mandela was against communist party in South Africa.
E. Mandela got Nobel Peace Prize when he served as the president.
24. She was the widow of Mozambican independence leader and president Samora Machel, who died
in a plane crash in 1986 (par.3)
The underlined word refers to .
A. Zenani
B. Zindzi
C. Graca Macel
D. Evelyn Mase
E. Winnie Madikizela
The following text is for questions 25 to 27.
PADANG, KOMPAS.com - Condoms may be ruined if stored in a place using neon lamps, head of
the National Population and Family Planning Agency (BKKBN) Sugiri Syarief said.
"Do not keep condoms in a room lighted with neon lamps because the contraceptives may
leak," Sugiri Syarief said when familiarizing family planning in Padang, West Sumatra, Tuesday.
Sugiri said it is no use if condoms had been produced well by the manufacturers if their
storage is inadequate. He also said that condoms must be kept in cool and dry room temperature
using electric light bulbs.
In this context, Sugiri was concerned about the inadequate condition of government
contraceptive storage facilities in various parts of Indonesia. In this context he asked the regional
administrations to pay attention to the condition of contraceptive storage facilities in their areas.
He also said that BKKBN will provide special allocation funds (DAK) to 437 regencies/cities
in Indonesia totaling Rp. 390 billion. The DAK he added will be used for the procurement of family
planning facilities and management in the regencies and cities.

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25. Which statement is NOT CORRECT based on the text?

A. Local election of Gunung Mas was held on 4th September.
B. According to KPK, it is not ethical to inaugurate a suspect as regent.
C. The Corruption Eradication Commission protested the inauguration of Gunung Mas regent.
D. Hambith bribed Constitutional Court chief justice to win the disputed election of regional
head.
E. Hambith along with Chairun Nisa and Cornelius Nalau bribed Akil Mochtar in a plenary
session.
26. The politician was arrested by The Corruption Eradication Commission was .
A. Chairun Nisa
B. Akil Mochtar
C. Hambith Bintih
D. Cornelius Nalau
E. Bambang Widjojanto
27. The KPK alleged that Hambit, the incumbent regent of Gunung Mas, attempted to bribe Akil so
that he could rule in his favor. (par.7)
The underlined word has closest meaning with.
A. join
B. save
C. graft
D. urge
E. give
The following text is for questions 28 to 30.
The sloth is the world's slowest mammal, so sedentary that algae grows on its furry coat. The plant
gives it a greenish tint that is useful camouflage in the trees of its Central and South American rain
forest home.
Sloths are identified by the number of long, prominent claws that they have on each front foot.
There are both two-toed and three-toed sloths.
All sloths are built for life in the treetops. They spend nearly all of their time aloft, hanging
from branches with a powerful grip aided by their long claws. (Dead sloths have been known to
retain their grip and remain suspended from a branch.) Sloths even sleep in trees, and they sleep a lot
some 15 to 20 hours every day. Even when awake they often remain motionless. At night they eat
leaves, shoots, and fruit from the trees and get almost all of their water from juicy plants.
Sloths mate and give birth while hanging in the trees. Three-toed sloth babies are often seen
clinging to their mothersthey travel by hanging on to them for the first nine months of their lives.
On land, sloths' weak hind legs provide no power and their long claws are a hindrance. They
must dig into the earth with their front claws and use their strong front legs to pull themselves along,
dragging their bellies across the ground. If caught on land, these animals have no chance to evade
predators, such as big cats, and must try to defend themselves by clawing and biting.
Though they couldn't be clumsier on land, sloths are surprisingly good swimmers. They
sometimes fall directly from rain forest trees into rivers and stroke efficiently with their long arms.
The three-toed sloth emits a long, high-pitched call that echoes through the forests as "ahheeee." Because of this cry these sloths are sometimes called ais (pronounced "eyes").
Three-toed sloths also have an advantage that few other mammals possess: They have extra
neck vertebrae that allows them to turn their heads some 270 degrees.
28. The passage talks about the common ... of mongooses.
A. habits
B. habitats
C. taxonomies
D. circumstances
E. characteristics
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29. How do nonrestrictive claws work?

A. To dig a hole.
B. To mark a territory.
C. To neutralize the toxin.
D. To signal reproductive status.
E. To attach the venom to the enemy.
30. The snake venom cannot stick to mongooses because of their .
A. rounded ears
B. long faces and bodies
C. strongly marked coats
D. acetylcholine receptors
E. brindle and grizzly color
The following text is for questions 31 to 34.
Why is physical education important?
Physical education plays a vital role in the students development and growth. According to recent
medical studies, physical well being of a student is directly related to his or her performance whether
in class or in the office. The article will give you reasons to agree.
The value of physical fitness can never be overstated. Its only in physical educational
classrooms that students learn the value of taking care of themselves thru proper grooming, healthy
eating and regular exercise.
Many doctors today agree that obesity is a serious health risk. Without any form of diet
management and control with the numerous processed food students intake everyday compounded
by a sedentary lifestyle, a students health can easily be at risk to many diseases like chronic heart
disease, hypertension and diabetes. Physical education in school is a preventive measure to teach
students the value of regular exercise.
Physical health allows students to function even better in classrooms. A good cardiovascular
system developed from regular exercise promotes excellent blood and oxygen circulation. This
means more nutrients circulate through out the body which includes the brain. This circulation
produces longer attention span during classes allowing longer concentration and absorption.
Students who are active in physical activities like basketball, volleyball, martial arts and
running just to name a few are more confident with themselves according to most social school
studies. Its probably because of the self discipline and dedication to excel in a sport that brings out
the best in students. In school, the physical education program introduces these sport activities to
students allowing them to make choices to which sport areas they want to get involved in.
Most physical education programs are holistic. The program allows student to interact together
to a common goal and that is to win and excel physically. It brings out the competitive sides of
students working both body and mind but also promotes sportsmanship.
The purpose of physical education is to instill in students, at an early age, the value of self
preservation and choosing a lifestyle that is good for both the mind and body.
31. What is the text about?
A. The qualification of an accredited school.
B. The necessity of studying at accredited school.
C. The influence of accredited school to students success.
D. The effect of studying at accredited school on students behavior.
E. The correlation between accredited school and students achievement.
32. The advantage of studying near house for the students is .
A. they have better personality
B. they save time, energy, and money
C. they gain future opportunity easily
D. they succeed in influencing friends
E. they have more employment opportunity
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33. Which is NOT TRUE based on the text?

A. Accredited school needs much more cost.
B. Some teenagers tend to choose closer school.
C. Accredited school students have better personality than the others do.
D. Some teenagers choose a certain school because of their friends influence.
E. The chance to have employment is broader for the students from accredited school.
34. Student from an accredited school has more open door than student with an unaccredited one.
(par. 2)
The underlined word has closest meaning with .
A. acknowledged
B. recognized
C. qualified
D. admitted
E. certified
The following text is for questions 35 to 38.
What will happen if the earth keeps getting warmer?
Global warming creates many problems, and not just that the air gets too hot. In fact, we are
already experiencing some of these problems right now.
One problem is that global warming results in more typhoons, hurricanes, and storms. Do
you know how water circulates? It falls down from the clouds as rain, then it flows into rivers and
oceans, then it evaporates into the sky, and finally it falls down as rain again. The amount of water
that evaporates from the oceans increases when temperatures rise.
When it rains more, it floods more often. As everyone knows, hurricanes and floods can
cause tremendous damage. Houses get blown or swept away, roads and bridges are destroyed, and
many people die.
Also, as temperatures rise, ice melts. Indeed, the Arctic and Antarctic ice caps have been
melting away in recent years. Polar bears in the Arctic and emperor penguins in Antarctica are in
trouble. If they could talk, they'd be saying, "Help us! Our home is getting smaller and smaller and
our food supply is getting smaller too."
When Antarctica and Greenland and glaciers around the world melt, more water will flow
into the seas, making sea levels rise. If global warming continues at its current rate, sea levels will
rise by about 20 to 60 centimeters. This means that places with a low elevation, like the island
nation of Tuvalu in the South Pacific, will probably sink into the sea.
As the Earth's climate continues to change, the types of trees, grass, animals, and other
organisms near you will also change. Farming, too, will face major problems. What will happen to
our food?
Global warming will cause (and in fact, is already causing) a variety of problems. Think
twice the next time someone tells you, "It just means we'll feel a little hotter."
35. What degree is the snow usually formed?
A. 50 Celsius
B. 90 Celsius
C. 150 Fahrenheit
D. 320 Fahrenheit
E. 410 Fahrenheit
36. Which of the following statement is CORRECT according to the text?
A. The snow will reach the ground when the ground temperature is above freezing.
B. The air temperature has no influence to the occurrence of heavy snowfalls.
C. The temperature of the ground is an important factor to produce snow.
D. Dry Valley in Antarctica has little snow.
E. Snow will occur only in very cold areas.

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37. there is a minimum amount of moisture in the air. (par. 1)

The synonym of the underlined word is .
A. fairness
B. dryness
C. clearness
D. cleanliness
E. dampness
38. The communicative purpose of the text is .
A. to explain how snow forms
B. to describe the snowing area
C. to persuade the reader to keep atmosphere cold
D. to discuss the effect of cold area to occurrence of snow
E. to inform the correlation between snow and the ground
The following text is for questions 39 to 42.
The Alcohol Controversy: Is Drinking Good for You?
Understanding the effects of drinking alcohol on health and longevity is an old topic that
constantly earns fresh attention, usually amid new studies that reveal both healthful and harmful
effects from enjoying a few beverages.
There is no universal "one size fits all" answer, but there's enough information to help you
make the right choice for yourself. Essentially, it depends on your age, gender, genetic risk for
heart disease or cancer, medications you take, addiction tendencies and social support system.
The simple message is that while moderate alcohol consumption carries certain health benefits, it
would be unwise to ignore the associated risks -- including an increased proclivity for cancer.
This is especially true for women.
Reasons for some people to avoid alcohol remain blatantly obvious. It is a major source of
addiction. Consuming more than seven drinks per week elevates the risk of alcohol use problems
in both men and women. It also can lead to other destructive behavior, family violence and an
increased number of falls in older adults. Pairing it with pregnancy, some medications or driving
can be hazardous and should be avoided.
Moderation, as defined by the U.S. Department of Agriculture, is no more than one drink
per day for women and no more than two drinks per day for men. A drink is 12 ounces of beer, 5
ounces of wine, or 1.5 ounces of 80-proof spirits. It's important to note that studies claiming
positive health benefits from "moderate drinking" included people who adhered to this definition.
(It's a long way from getting hammered!)
In addition to increasing longevity, men 40 and older and women 50 and above can enjoy
other health benefits from moderate alcohol consumption. Several recent studies point out that it
reduces the risk of heart disease and may protect against dementia and Type 2 Diabetes. In many
reviews, beer and spirits contained the same benefits as red wine.
However, there's one detail that clouds the good news. Despite this positive effect on
potential heart disease, alcohol can boost blood pressure in people diagnosed with hypertension.
In these cases, abstaining from alcohol is one proactive step that could save your heart, according
to the Cleveland Clinic.
In the end, the healthiest approach to drinking depends on your individual circumstances -and your ability to keep your consumption at a modest level. So here's a toast to good health! And
remember, please don't drink and drive.
39. The passage tells about
A. The function of Zoo for science.
B. The controversy on zoo existence.
C. Zoo as the experimental laboratory.
D. Zoo as a natural habitat for animals.
E. The importance of zoo as a conservation.

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40. Who opposes the animal placement in the zoo?

A. Scientists.
B. City dwellers.
C. Animal breeders.
D. Educated persons.
E. Animal rights activists.
41. Which statement is CORRECT according to the text?
A. Scientists argue that the zoos are out of date.
B. Scientists catch animals to develop zoochosist.
C. City dwellers protest the cruelly capture of animal.
D. Visiting a zoo can increase peoples interest in wildlife.
E.
Watching animal on TV and in the zoo give people same sense.
42. From the text, we can conclude that
A. Animal right activists support modern zoo.
B. Zoo is used just for keeping animals for distant lands.
C. Modern zoo is built by considering the animal welfare.
D. Animal research is the only way to save endangered species.
E. City dwellers like visiting traditional zoo than visiting modern one
The following text is for questions 43 to 46.
Jack Ryan: Shadow Recruit
While the previous films in the series were adapted from Clancy's best-selling novels, Shadow
Recruit is a reboot, which works as a prequel to the original Jack Ryan stories. In this one, Jack
Ryan (Chris Pine), CIA's covert financial analyst, discovers a Russian conspiracy to destroy the
American economy and must travel to Moscow to save his country. But it's not that easy when
Russian Mogul Viktor Cherevin (Kenneth Branagh), is at the helm of the attack. Who will win?
While the film is certainly not yawn-inducing and keeps the suspense level high, it fails to
create its own identity. In spite of being fast-paced and sleek in terms of stunts, it looks like a
generic action thriller, which seems to be made to keep the franchise going. We don't mind the 'lack
of originality', as long as what you see onscreen is engaging enough.
The film does manage to capture attention in the beginning, but as it proceeds, the execution
gets mediocre and what you end up seeing is a run-of-the-mill espionage thriller. While you crave
to see the urgency, suspense and high-octane action that the Bourne series or Mission Impossible
exhibit, here you get an uninspiring, one-dimensional film instead, which doesn't look real. The
'Russians as the bad guys' theme has been done to death. The protagonist conveniently dodges
danger while the girlfriend ( Keira Knightley) has nothing much to do, except for suspecting he's
having an affair.
Chris Pine, known more for his looks than performance, does a decent job, but it's the regular
direction and script which undo his effort. The background score works and (villain-cumfilmmaker) Kenneth Branagh does look vicious; unfortunately, the climax fails him too. Kevin
Costner is wasted.
For avid fans of espionage thrillers, Jack Ryan: Shadow Recruit is modestly watchable. For
the rest, wait for something different.
43. The first paragraph tells about .
A. The writers knowledge about Soekarno
B. The writers idol of the best Indonesian orator
C. The writers evaluation about Soekarno movie
D. The writers history lesson about Indonesian great hero
E. The writers amazement about the founding nation of Indonesia
44. Who is the birth name of Soekarno?
A. Ario bayu.
B. Adipati Karno.
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C. Rizqi Arifuddin.
D. Hanung Bramantyo.
E. Koesno Sostrodiharjo.
45. Which statement is NOT TRUE based on the text?
A. Soekarno is the best Indonesian orator.
B. Inggit opposed Soekarno and Fatmawatis love affair.
C. Soekarnos birth name was changed to make him healthy.
D. Soekarno was sentenced and exiled to Bengkulu to be a teacher.
E. Soekarno got married with Fatmawati after his divorce from Inggit.
46. Form the text above, we know that .
A. Hanung describes Soekarnos unseen side to make a controversy.
B. The Dutch exiled Soekarno to Bengkulu in order to meet Fatmawati.
C. The writers sense of nationalism increases after watching Soekarno movie.
D. The movie describes Soekarno figure as what the writer read in history books.
E. The Dutch disagreed with Tjokroaminotos daughter and Soekarnos political relationship.
47. Study the following sentences related to a descriptive text.
1. Magelang is an interesting tourist resort with many attractive old building.
2. It is said that most of the people are skilled in this art.
3. More than fifty-five families actually make their living by carving horns of buffaloes or cows.
4. It is located in Central Java about forty kilometers north of Yogyakarta.
5. It takes about an hour by bus from Yogyakarta.
6. Pucang, Secang, a sub- district in Magelang, is one of the popular places for horn carving
handicrafts.
The good arrangement of the sentences above is .
A. 1-4-2-5-6-3
B. 1-4-5-6-2-3
C. 1-5-4-6-2-3
D. 1-5-6-2-4-3
E. 1-5-6-4-2-3
The following text is for questions 48 to 50.
Complete the following text with the correct words!
We had a wonderful holiday in Bali. It was a great place. The people were friendly, the food was
great, and the weather was better than at home. Most days were pretty. I swam two or three times a day,
but my brother Fachri just spent all his time (48) on the beach with his eyes closed.
Last Saturday I (49) on the bus and went to the north of the island. It was much quieter there
than here and was very beautiful, but no tourists. The next day we went across to
the east coast to see some of the old villages. I learned Balinese, but I could not say much, but it was
fun to try. Fachri actually spoke it quite well, but he was (50) of opening his mouth, so I was the one
who talked to people.
48. A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

lying
sitting
talking
leaning
sleeping

49. A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

drove
went
rode
left
got

TRYOUT-1-1314-AKAB

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Bahasa Inggris 1314

50. A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

lazy
afraid
unable
unusual
reluctant

TRYOUT-1-1314-AKAB

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