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Sample IREX questions

The references shown are from the 'CAO 40.2.1 Appendix III' and will be replaced with the CASR
Part 61 Manual of Standards, Schedule 3 references when time permits.
900081 2.1 For a single-stage unscheduled flight along routes, where valid area forecasts are not
readily available, the published prior notice required for a pre-flight forecast is 900042 2.3
An aerodrome surface air temperature is + 9 degrees C and the cloudbase is 1500 ft above
aerodrome elevation. If the temperature lapse rate is 3C per 1000 ft in clear air and 1.5C in cloud,
the difference in height between the freezing level in clear air to that in cloud would be closest to 900043 2.4(a)
An aircraft is flying at A070 in a layer of Stratocumulus cloud with light turbulence. OAT is minus 5
degrees C: What type of airframe icing may be expected, if at all?
900201 2.4(b)
A pilot is committed to flying within 4000 metres of a large thunderstorm. Select the flightpath giving
the least risk of encountering hail.
900202 2.4(c)
A thunderstorm is active approximately 10 km from the destination aerodrome. During landing, which
hazard is most likely to be encountered?
900203 2.4(d)
Where in thunderstorms would turbulence normally be most severe?
900204 2.7
From which of the following sources would a pilot directly obtained a VOLMET message?
900042 2.8(a)
ERC L6 refers.
You plan a flight from WAVE HILL, NT (YWAV) (S1724 E13107) to DARWIN, NT (YPDN) at A080.
ETD is 1430 UTC. What is the rated coverage of the DARWIN NDB (DN) that you may expect?
900004 2.8(b)
A pilot cruising in CTA and using the NDB for track guidance discovers that he has inadvertently
diverged from the authorised track by 3 degrees. What action should the pilot take?
900066 2.9(a)
You are flying northward over the sea, by day. The coastline running parallel to your track is 35 nm to
your right, and a NDB station located 30 nm inland has a rated coverage of:
"Range 80 (HN50) OW 110 (HN 65)"
Your ADF fixed-card indication shows that the NDB station is on a relative bearing of 045. What is the
actual relative bearing of this station from your aircraft?
900205 2.9(b)
When flying within the rated coverage of the aid, under what conditions should you always treat
cockpit ADF indications with caution?
900207 2.10(a)
Indication of VOR scalloping is evidenced by 900521 2.10(b)
You are tracking inbound on the VOR 360 radial. The OBS setting has been set to provide command
indications. Which cockpit VOR indications would inform you that you have achieved station

900045 2.11(a)
An aircraft tracks out from overhead an NDB on a constant heading.
Planned track ....... 030(M)
Heading ............... 040(M)
Backbearing ........ 185 Relative.
What is the track error (in degrees)?
900264 2.11(b)
ERC L3 refers.
To maintain track on W359 while flying from TAMWORTH, NSW (YSTW) to MUDGEE (YMDG)
(S3234 E14936), you allow for 7 degrees right drift. No. 1 ADF is on QUIRINDI (QDI) NDB, and No. 2
ADF on SCONE NDB (SCO). At JODEX which of the following respective ADFs bearings will be
900003 2.11(c)
From overhead an NDB an aircraft maintains a constant heading of 094M. Your planned track is
091M, and the relative bearing to the NDB is 188 degrees. What drift (in degrees) has been
experienced since passing overhead the NDB?
900530 2.11(d)
An aircraft situated to the south-east of an NDB is flying in a westward direction. If the aircraft is
maintaining a track of 270M by allowing for 10 degrees right drift, what is the relative bearing that
would indicate the aircraft is positioned south of the station?
900019 2.11(e)
An aircraft is situated to the east of an NDB and is required to intercept a track of 030M from that
NDB. If the aircraft takes up a HDG of 330M, what is the relative bearing that would indicate the
aircraft has intercepted the required track?
900526 2.13
You are tracking inbound on the VOR 145 radial. What OBS setting should be set to provide
command indications, and what would be the correct TO/FROM indication?
900336 2.14
ERC L4 refers.
You are flying at A100 by day from WALGETT, NSW (YWLG) (S3002 E14808) to CHARLEVILLE,
QLD (YBCV), via W463.Additional chart information:
BEETI - SGE ..... track 080M, distance 80 nm
BEETI - CMU ..... track 261M, distance 78 nm
If CMU VOR is NOT serviceable during the period of your flight, which of the following pair of
neighbouring beacons will permit you to fix your position at BEETI?
900210 2.15
Your 330M track passes a VOR station 60 nm on your left. You allow for 10 degrees left drift in your
HDG. When your position is abeam the station, what OBS setting, giving a TO indication, has to be
selected to centre the CDI?
900524 2.16
ERC L4 refers.
You are flying at A070 from MOUNT ISA (MA) (S2040 E13929) on J64 to CAIRNS. You departed MA
maintaining a HDG of 051M, with the VOR OBS selected to 051. The cockpit VOR OBI has a scale of
a target (small inner) circle with 4 dots on each side of it.At 30 DME MA, the CDI shows a deflection
one dot to the left of the target circle. What is your new heading to fly directly from your present
position to intercept track at TASHA?
900262 2.17
ERC L1 refers.
If the NDB at STRAHAN, TAS (YSRN) is not serviceable between 0100 UTC and 0300 UTC, by
which combinations of neighbouring radio navigation aids would you fix your position 10,000 feet
overhead this airfield?

900006 2.18
During ground testing of an aircraft's radar equipment (which has a power output rating in excess of
30 kW), without the use of an approved beam attenuating device, what is the minimum distance
permitted between an energised rotating antenna and refuelling equipment?
900450 2.19.a(iii)/b(ii)
You are tasked on an IFR flight, by night, from point ALPHA to point BRAVO, 320 nm apart. You plan
for A080 and an average groundspeed of 180 knots. The aircraft GPS is unserviceable.
Point ALPHA is an unlicensed aerodrome without any navigation aid. Point BRAVO has an NDB.
There are no other navigation aids enroute, and IMC may be expected. With regards to the
requirements of track keeping, what rated coverage (by night) for the NDB at point BRAVO would you
assess as the minimum for the flight to proceed safely?
900279 2.19(a)(i)
A pilot holding a command instrument rating has recorded 10 hours of instrument flight time, including
several instrument approaches, within the last 30 days as PIC in two-pilot operations. The same pilot
has also recorded 3 hours of instrument flight time in commercial single pilot operations.
What is the MINIMUM additional recent experience as PIC, if any, that is required for the pilot to act
as PIC of a single pilot IFR flight?
900354 2.19(a)(i)
Which of the following recency requirements is the MINIMUM that will permit you to fly in IMC, as
pilot in command, all published instrument procedures at CAIRNS, QLD (YBCS)?
900408 2.19(a)(iii)/(b)
You are flying in G airspace but the track takes you near CTA. Flight condition is IMC, and your only
means of navigation is by NDB. To ensure your intended flight path does not violate CTA, you should
plan to avoid the relevant boundary by a minimum of 900216 2.19(b)(v)
ERC L4 refers.
You are planning a flight, by day, from CHARLEVILLE, QLD (YBCV) (S2625 E14616) to MITCHELL,
QLD (YMIT), 90 nm to the east along W369. ETA is 0400 UTC. No TAF is available for YMIT, an
unlicensed aerodrome. Area Forecast valid for your flight indicates the following conditions:
WIND: 2000 ft L/V 5000 ft 170/10 7000 ft 190/15
CLOUDS: BKN CUSC 4500/9000
Is an alternate aerodrome required, and why?
900341 2.19(b)(i)/2.20
You are engaged in an IFR CHTR flight carrying passengers. With accurate QNH set, what must the
altimeters pre-flight check demonstrate in order for the aircraft to depart on the initial route sector?
900022 2.19(b)(i/v)/2.2
The TAF for your destination aerodrome (YBXX) is given as:
TAF YBXX 290030Z 0214 25010KT 9999 BKN010
T 15 13 10 07 Q 1018 1020 1020 1019
The nominated alternate aerodrome (YBYY) has a TAF as follows:
TAF YBYY 290045Z 0214 33015KT CAVOK
T 15 14 11 07 Q 1017 1020 1021 1019
The flight time to the planned destination requires 1 hour 15 minutes, and from the destination to the
nominated alternate, another 45 minutes. What is the latest ETD for which these TAFs will be valid?
900232 2.19(b)(ii)
ERC L1 refers.
You plan a trip from HOBART, TAS (YMHB) (S4251 E14732) to WYNYARD (YWYY) via W233. The
area forecast valid for your flight includes BKN050/120 and a freezing level of 7300 feet. At what level
should you plan the flight?

900023 2.19(b)(ix)
The meteorological minima for take-off on RWY 21 at PERTH, WA (YPPH) in an IFR category A
single-engine aircraft should be at least above 2.19(b)(v)/(vi)
An aerodrome within a primary CTR has operational requirements for 30 minutes weather holding
and 30 minutes traffic holding. You are overhead the aerodrome for landing, with 30 minutes holding
fuel in addition to fixed reserve. The nearest suitable alternate (which does not require any holding) is
30 minutes away. ATC advises you that an approach to the aerodrome is currently not available for
the next 30 minutes due to traffic. What action should you take?
900014 2.19(b)(vi)
A flight is estimated to arrive at its destination at 0145 UTC. The destination TAF includes the
"PROB30 INTER 0204 2000 -TS"
If the pilot does not wish to nominate an alternate, how much additional holding time, if any, is
900044 2.19(b)(vii)
Because of the destination's lighting facility, a planned NGT CHTR flight requires the provision of an
alternate. The following 'numbered' airfields are considered for their suitability (disregard their
geographical dispersion):
Assuming weather and navigation aid requirements are not operationally limiting, and no responsible
person will be in attendance at these airfields, which of them would be suitable as alternate(s)?
900016 2.20
ERC L2 refers.
You are flying at A090 from MILDURA, VIC (YMIA) (S3414 E14205) via CANTY to MELBOURNE,
VIC (YMML). At what distance from MELBOURNE will you be entering its controlled airspace?
900516 2.20(a)
For an IFR aircraft, in which classes of airspace will enroute level(s) be assigned by ATC?
900212 2.20(b)
You have received a SID clearance for your departure from CANBERRA, ACT (YSCB) to SYDNEY,
NSW (YSSY), but no discrete SSR transponder code had been assigned. On entering the runway for
take off you ensure that your transponder is selected to 900531 2.20(c)
The latest position where an IFR Category flight departing EMERALD, QLD (YEML) must make a
departure report is 900242 2.20(c)(v)
You are flying from CANBERRA (YSCB) to SYDNEY (YSSY) at A090 in cloud. You received and
acknowledged the clearance:
Approaching BINDOOK (BIK) your aircraft suffers total radio failure. You set the transponder to the
appropriate code, carry out blind transmissions at the required positions, and listen out on ATIS and
relevant navigation aids. In the absence of any ATC instruction via the navigation aids transmissions,
which procedure should you now fly?
900007 2.20(d)(i)
Two aircraft are descending on the same track in CTA and have been advised that they are subject to
a 'step descent' to 2,000 ft and 4,000 ft respectively. The pilot of the higher aircraft reports
approaching his initial assigned altitude of 8000 ft. The lower aircraft has just vacated 7000 ft. What
reporting action, if any, should the pilot of the lower aircraft take at this point?

900114 2.20(d)(i)
TAC-2 refers.
You are flying at A100 from CANBERRA, ACT (YSCB) to COROWA, NSW (YCOR) via HOLBROOK.
You encounter significant icing conditions when 30 DME outbound. Commencing a descent, you turn
back to YSCB. The aircraft DME is unserviceable, and GPS RAIM is now unavailable. What is the
lowest altitude to which you may descend in IMC at this point?
900473 2.20(e)(i)
TAC-4 refers.
You are tracking from PINGELLY (S3232 E11705) to PERTH, WA (YPPH), and have been cleared to
conduct a DME Arrival. To what altitude may you descend in IMC at 24 DME?
900362 2.20(e)(i)/2.24
ERC L2 refers.
You are flying at night from WARRACKNABEAL, VIC (YWKB) (S3619 E14225) to HOPETOUN, VIC
(YHPN) (approximately 37 nm NNW of YWKB). Nearing YHPN you sight and identify the aerodrome
lighting for Runway 01. GPS RAIM is available. What distance from the aerodrome would be the
earliest that you may descend below the route LSALT?
900297 2.20(e)(i)/2.25
You are conducting a missed approach from the ECHUCA, VIC (YECH) NDB approach in your
Category B aircraft. What is the maximum IAS you may fly at?
900532 2.20(e)(i)/2.26
For a category B aircraft, which of the following dimensions determines the circling area for the RWY
21 NDB approach at PORT MACQUARIE, NSW (YPMQ)?
900027 2.20(e)(ii)
An IFR category flight is approaching an aerodrome at night and is authorized to conduct a visual
approach. Radar vector is not available. Aerodrome lighting is listed in the ERSA as L1, L4. The pilot
shall not descend below the IFR LSALT or the DME steps until within 900215 2.20(e)(iii)
You are in cloud and below the published LSALT under radar vectoring by APPROACH. Just after
receiving an instruction to take up a particular HDG you lose radio communication with APPROACH.
Which of the following actions should you take?
900249 2.20(e)(v)
Your flight remains in IMC when nearing the destination WYNYARD, TAS (YWYY). Due to nearby
thunderstorms and aircraft equipment, the only reliable instrument approaches available for your
arrival are VOR and VOR/DME. The AWIB is not serviceable. What is the lowest meteorological
minima for a straight-in instrument approach to land on RWY 27?
900104 2.20(e)(vi)
In VMC conditions in a GAAP CTR, which of the following classes of traffic will be provided with
separation service by ATC?
900025 2.20(e)(vii)
The last portion of the VHF aerodrome lighting (PAL) illumination cycle will be indicated by the
flashing of 900248 2.20(e)(i)
You fly inbound to TAMWORTH, NSW (YSTW) from the north-east. ATC clears you as follows:
Your intention is to proceed on the outbound leg of the approach procedure as soon as possible. How
would you fly the procedure when you reach the TW VOR?
900183 2.21
In what class of aeroplanes, and under what conditions if any, does a command (single-engine
aeroplane) instrument rating authorises the holder to act as pilot-in-command on IFR flights?

900147 2.23
What minimum rate of climb (ft/min) must an aircraft achieve, with a GS of 90 kt, to ensure that it has
the minimum designed obstacle clearance during a published missed approach?
900299 2.25
You are conducting the KUNNUNURRA, WA (YPKU) NDB procedure in IMC. At the commencement
of the final segment of the approach, and at 1900 feet, the ADF indicator fluctuates +/- 15 degrees
continuously about the expected bearing to the station. The "ident" of the aid continues to be
satisfactory. In these circumstances which of the following approach procedures should you adopt?