DPP No.#23,24/Solutions.

Target IIT-JEE 2016

Physics For IITJEE by Shiv R. Goel (B.Tech., IITDelhi)

DPP# 25 & 26

SOLUTIONS

SECTION B

1.

2.

B due to AC to D,
B
0i
o
=
AD(sin 60 )
4
60
AD = 2Rcos60 = R
DB = 2R cos 30 = 3R
C

0i
sin 30o
B due to BC at D,=
4 3R
i 3
0i
1

Total 0

4R 2 2 3 4 3R

B due to inner most square is

i
sin 45o sin 45o k
4 0
4 (a / 2)

A
60
30

8.

essentially making B of long placed conductor as they are

equidistant

i
2 107 10
Hence B = 0 d
104 T
2r
0.2

(i) B resultant = 2 B wire cos 30o = 2 3 105 T

30

60
Wire 1

0 i
2 2 k
a

i
so on till infinity
Next, B2 0 2 2 k.....
(3a)

5.

60

2 0 i 1 1 1
2 2 0 i
1 ...
ln 2
(a / 2) 2 3 4
a

FABC will cause magnetic field in j direction.

Wire 1

z
y
A B
x

Path

12.

Wire 2

B resultant = 2 B wire cos 60=2 10-5 T

(a)x = 0, 2 = 2m

2 10 7 10
Bstraight wire
( i)
2
It cancels out the uniform magnetic field present

Hence B total 0
(b) x = 2, z = 0 m

Bstraight wire 106 kT

B total 10 6 (i k)T
(c) x = 0, z = 0.5 m

Bstraight wire 4 106 iT

B total 5 10 6 iT

B due to

Point A,C magnitude of magnetic field is same.

Point A,D, direction of magnetic fields are opposite. But
in a single perpendicular plane to the wire, no two points
can have same magnetic field.
LR and SM are along the origin so will not induce any

magnetic field there. SQ and PR induced B will add,

B2
60

60

10.

i 1
1
BAB 0

4 / 2 2
2

0 i 1

BAF on BC
0

4 / 2 2

2 i 2
2 0 i
2
B FABC 0

4 2

2
FEDC will cause magnetic field of some magnitude but in

2 0 i
( j i)
i direction. hence Btotal

By definition of magnetic field direction it is taken as

direction of r d vector


11.
0i r d
0i d r
Hence
(Bio
Savart
Law)
or

4 r 3
4 r 3
Point A,B direction of magnetic field is same

Wire 2

30

Btotal =

4.

60

(ii) opposite direction

3.

Equidistant point

60

a E
B
a
K

F
G

BC and DE cancel out

KJ and HI cancel out
HG and LK cancel out
GF and AB cancel out
At P,QR; OP is collinear wire and wire OS is at
distance d
At S,Q; OS is collinear wire and wire OP is at distance

d with same current I as OP. hence magnitude of B at

P,Q,R,S is same.
I
I
B 0 [sin 90o sin 0] 0
4 d
4d

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DPP No.#23,24/Solutions.

13.

5 R 1i1 R 2 i 2 5

(1)

0
5

0
5
R3 5

0
R2

R1
i1

i2
R2i2

5R1i1

i3

d/2

IR 2 / 2
(B)(2
) 0
R 2
2

0 I
| B |
4R / 2
R

8.

i
2

2
(a) B 0 N
B 0
50 0
100
2R
2 0.05
2 0.1
4
= 8 10 T

(b) | B1 || B2 | as we saw in above case

(c) B 4 2 10 4 T

SECTION D

2R
2

2.

ir 2
R 2

r linear

Hence it will uniformly increase till R,

Between R1 and R2

0 I

B.d i B(2r) I B 2r
0

i 2 0 i 2 2
B 0

2r 2 2R 2
Because it is not complete circle.
Assuming current is flowing uniformly inside the
conductor.
Inside the conductor B . d 0 i inside

i
B 0 2
2R

i k

0 Ir 2
r R 0 I r R
R2
Magnetic field direction
W

SECTION C

B(2r) 0

B 0 (i k)
4R

B . d 0i enclosd

6.

length of wire = 2R
Let radius of circle be r

R
R
, y,
2
2

Consider direction unit vector =

2 / d
2d /

2
2
2
2 0 I d
2 d 2 2 0 I d
2

d
2 d2
2
d

2gpr r 2R

R/ 2

0 I
0 I

d
d
B 2

2
2

2
2
2 d 2 4 2 d 2 d
4 d / 2 d

due to AB, CD
due to BC, AC

3.

B . d I

4.

5.

2 d2
2

I
(r 2 R 22
I
2
2
R 3 R 2

/2

0 I
r 2 R 22
1 2

2r R 3 R 22
It follows different curve from what it followed
between R1 and R2. Also at R3 iclosed = 0 and hence

B0.

R3i3 - 5

R
(i3 ) 3 3 1 0
R1 R 2

Cant be zero as all are positive numbers.

i3 = 0 = i1 = i2 for only value of R1, R2, R3
Hence the magnetic field at point P is ever zero.

sin
2
d2
A

1.

B.d i B(2r)
0

R1i1 = R2i2
R2 i2 = 5 5 i3R3
R2i2 = R3i3
R1i1 = R2i2 = R3i3 and i1 + i2 + i3 = 0
Ri Ri
On 3 3 3 3 i3 0
R1
R2

15.

Target IIT-JEE 2016

Hence it falls hyperbolically till R2

Between R2 and R3

3.

i 2

(a) B 0
0i
2a 2
2
i 2
0

4 a
b
0i 3 0i 1
1

(b) B

2a 4 4ab 2
2
i 3
2
0

4 2a b
I3
0 I
[ 2]
(c) B 0
2R 4 4R / 2
I 3

0 1
2R 4

0i 1
i

(a) B
(i) 0 ( k)
2R 2
2R
i
| B | 0
2 4
4R

b
a

b
45
a

O
2

Page #2

DPP No.#23,24/Solutions.

Target IIT-JEE 2016

i 1
i 1
i 1

(i) 0
(k)
(b) B 0 (i) 0
2R 2
4R 2
4R 2
0i

( 2 1) 2 1

24R
i3
0i
0 i (j)
( k)
(c) B 0 (i)
2R 4
4 2R
4 2k
2

3 2

11
4 2R 2
0i

4.

2r
n
The angle subtended at centre by O side is 2/no of sides
2
2/n
=
n

Length of the side of polygon =

2r/n

So essentially if AB is side and O is centre,

/n

C r/n B

I r

cot sin sin
B due to AB, 0
4 n
n
n n
0 nI

2 tan sin
n
n
2 r

n2I

Total B by all sides = 0 2 tan sin

n
n
2 r

tan
0 I
n sin / n sin 0, tan 0
(b) n
2r / n / n

0 I
Hence, B
that of a circle.
2

Page #3