Beruflich Dokumente
Kultur Dokumente
2. _______ determines
components in FM.
A. carrier frequency
B. modulation frequency
C. modulation index
D. deviation ratio
the
number
of
sideband
C. 100 %
D. 80 %
A. Buffer amplifier
B. Modulator
C. Power amplifier
D. Antenna coupler
49. What aspect of the carrier is changed by modulation?
A. Frequency
B. Phase
C. Amplitude
D. Depends on the type of modulation
50. The amplitude of a sine wave which is modulated by a
musical program will
A. Be complex
B. Contain fundamental frequencies
C. Contain harmonic frequencies
D. All of the above
ANSWER
1. 50 dB
2. modulation index
3. H3E
4. baseband frequency
5. spectrum analyzer
6. converter
7. A3H
8. Vary in frequency with modulation
9. Modulation
10. spectrum analyzer
11. amplitude
12. LSB
13. Buffer
14. Center frequency
15. Deviation ratio
16. a frequency of 20 kHz and above
17. 1.47
18. 0.56
19. 12.5
20. No effect
21. Armstrong system
22. balanced modulator
23. Crystal radio receiver
24. image frequency
25. A3E
26. R3E
27. J3E
28. B8E
29. C3F
30. H3E
31. G3E
32. Better fidelity
33. Higher value of operating power
34. Less audio power required
35. Interface to other radio services
36. Selectivity
37. F3E
38. Modulation
39. Capture effect
40. 100 %
41. Frequency deviation
42. 112.5 kHz
43. Frequency modulation
44. Guard bands
45. All of the above
46. Modulation
47. Demodulation
48. Buffer amplifier
49. Depends on the type of modulation
50. All of the above
51. What will be the result of the gain level being too high
for signals entering the modulator?
A. Receiver noise
B. Excessive volume of receiver output
C. Oscillator disturbances
D. Distortion and splatter
52. Amplitude modulation causes the amount of transmitter
power to
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remain the same
D. Double
53. When a carrier is modulated 100%, the total power
increases by what percentage over that of the carrier
alone?
A. 25 %
B. 50 %
C. 75 %
D. 100 %
54. When the amplitude of the modulating voltage is
increased for AM, the antenna current will
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remain constant
D. Decrease exponentially
A. sq. root of 3
B. sq. root of 2
C. 2
D. 3
57. A 1000 kHz carrier is modulated by a 2500Hz tone. One
frequency component of the modulated signal is
A. 1200 Hz
B. 5000 Hz
C. 1002.5 kHz
D. 2500 Hz
58. A 1200 kHz carrier is amplitude-modulated by two tones
of 500 Hz and 700 Hz. Which one is a frequency
component of the modulated wave?
A. 1195 kHz
B. 1199.3 kHz
C. 1199.7 kHz
D. 1205 kHz
59. Identify a modulation method, or methods in use for a
common-emitter configuration
A. Base modulation
B. Emitter modulation
C. Collector modulation
D. Both A and C
60. The RF signal injected into a balanced modulator is
10MHz and the modulating frequency is 1 kHz. Which
frequency, or frequencies, will not appear in the output?
A. 9.999 MHz
B. 10 MHz
C. 10.0001 MHz
D. Both A and B
61. Unwanted sidebands in SSB equipment can be
suppressed by one or more of the following methods.
A. Phasing method
B. Filter method
C. Decoder method
D. Both A and B
D. Amplitude damage
64. Product detection requires the process of
A. Rectification
B. Heterodyning
C. Decoding
D. Phase shifting
D. All of these
72. A device whose capacitance is deliberately made to be
a function of the applied voltage
A. Varactor diode
B. UJT
C. SAW
D. Variable capacitor
D. Baseband signal
89. The carrier of a 100% modulated AM wave is
suppressed, the percentage power saving is __.
A. 100 %
B. 50 %
C. 83 %
D. 66.66 %
90. If the modulation index if an AM wave is doubled, the
antenna current is also doubled, the AM system being used
is
A. H3E
B. J3E
C. C3F
D. A3E
91. 100% modulation in AM means a corresponding
increase in total power by _______.
A. 100 %
B. 50 %
C. 75 %
D. 25 %
92. A single-tone amplitude modulated wave has _______.
A. 2 components
B. 3 components
C. 4 components
D. 2n + 1 components
93. A carrier signal has ________.
A. Constant peak amplitude
B. Frequency range of 20 20,000 Hz
C. A varying amplitude
D. The information
94. The modulating system is _________ if the modulating
frequency is doubled, the modulation index is halved, and
the modulating voltage remains constant.
A. Amplitude modulation
B. Phase modulation
C. Frequency modulation
D. Pulse modulation
95. What is the modulation index of an FM signal if its
modulating frequency is doubled?
A. No effect
B. Twice the original index
C. Four times the original index
D. One-half the original index
96. An AM transmitter is rated 1000 W at 100% modulation.
How much power required for the carrier?
A. 1000 W
B. 666.6 W
C. 333.3 W
D. 866.6 W
97. Standard way of designating AM
A. A3E
B. B3E
C. AHE
D. C3F
98. _____ is the circuit used to detect frequency modulated
signal.
A. Discriminator
B. Modulator
C. Modem
D. Detector
99. _____ is an information signal that is sent directly
without modulating any carrier.
A. C-band
B. Q-band
C. Baseband
D. Broadband
100. Both frequency and phase modulation utilize ______
modulation.
A. Digital
B. Phase
C. Amplitude
D. Angle
ANSWER
51. Distortion and splatter
52. Increase
53. 50 %
54. Increase
55. 767 mA
56. sq. root of 2
57. 1002.5 kHz
58. 1199.3 kHz
59. Both A and C
60. 10 MHz
61. Both A and B
62. Rectification
63. Distortion
64. Heterodyning
65. Both B and C
66. Angle modulation
67. Amplitude
68. Frequency deviation
69. -5 kHz
70. 5
71. All of these
72. Varactor diode
73. Direct FM
74. VCO
75. Multiplication
of
the
main
carrier
modulated,
either
information.
under this part, only A1D, A2D, F1D, or F2D emissions will
be authorized.
CFacsimile.
EVoice.
showing of need.
D. PAM
105. What describes the amount of amplitude change
present in an AM waveform?
A. Percent modulation
B. Modulation constant
C. Envelope of modulation
D. Coefficient of modulation
106. _______ is a form of amplitude distortion introduced
when the positive and negative alternations in the AM
modulated signals are not equal.
A. Envelope distortion
B. Spurious emission
C. Carrier shift
D. Johnson noise
107. What is the advantage of phase modulation over direct
FM frequency modulation?
A. Multipliers can be used
B. The deviation is smaller
C. Simplicity and practicality
D. The oscillator is crystal-controlled
108. If the spectrum is shifted in frequency with no other
changes, this is known as
A. Frequency multiplication
B. Sideband movement
C. Baseband reorientation
D. Frequency translation
109. A device which is capable of causing frequency
translation
A. High-Q tank circuit
B. Balanced modulator
C. Low-Q tank circuit
D. IF strip
110. If the frequency of each component in a signal
spectrum is increased by the same fixed amount, this
known as
A. Modulation
B. Frequency translation
C. Up conversion
D. Both B and C
111. A particular amplifier is designed to be a frequency
doubler. If the input signal frequency is 15.4 MHz, a circuit
in the output will be tuned to
A. 7.7 MHz
B. 15.4 MHz
C. 30.8 MHz
D. 61.6 MHz
112. A sine wave of 293 MHz is phase-modulated to
achieve a maximum phase deviation of 0.2 radian. After
passing through a frequency tripler, the maximum phase
deviation will be
A. 0.2 radian
B. 0.3 radian
C. 0.4 radian
D. 0.6 radian
113. Any device to be used as a frequency multiplier must
be
A. Active
B. Passive
C. Linear
D. Nonlinear
114. A particular amplifier circuit used for frequency
doubling.
A. Push-push
B. Push-pull
C. Pull-push
D. Pull-pull
115. Frequency division is useful in the implementation of a
A. AM demodulator
B. Frequency synthesizer
C. AGC circuit
D. FM demodulator
116. Frequency division by 12 will require how many flipflops in the counter?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 6
D. 12
117. Identify an electronic device, not specifically designed
for the purpose, which can be used as a phase detector.
A. Wien bridge
B. Colpitts oscillator
C. Balanced modulator
D. Butterworth filter
118. A particular frequency synthesizer contains only a
single crystal. What words describe this synthesizer?
A. Crystal modulated
B. Inexact
C. Indirect
D. Deficient
119. A recognizable feature of a CW transmitter is
A. Keyed transmitter
B. Power amplification
C. Frequency generation
D. All of these
120. The term pulling refers to
A. The change of the crystal oscillator frequency by loading
B. One half-cycle operation of a push-pull amplifier
C. Loading on the transmitter caused by the antenna
connection
D. Reduction of the power supply terminal voltage as the
transmitter is keyed.
121. When frequency modulation is achieved by initial
phase modulation, this is called
A. Angular modulation
B. Direct FM
C. Indirect FM
D. Indirect synthesis
122. A disadvantage of direct FM is the need for
A. AGC
B. AFC
C. A frequency synthesizer
D. Phase modulation
123. Direct FM can be achieved by
A. A reactance tube modulator
B. A varactor diode
C. And AGC circuit
D. Both A and B
124. A receiver in which all RF amplifier stages require
manual tuning to the desired RF is called
A. Superheterodyne
B. Autodyne
C. TRF
D. AFC
125. Why is it often necessary to precede the demodulator
by amplifier stages in a receiver?
A. To improve fidelity
B. To reduce receiver noise
C. To eliminate image response
D. Weak antenna signals
126. A serious disadvantage of the TRF receiver.
A. Bandwidth variations over the tuning range
B. The weight and cost
C. The requirements for a closely regulated power supply
D. The requirements for a half-wave antenna
127. Identify which is not a part of a super heterodyne
receiver.
A. Local oscillator
B. Modulator
C. IF amplifier
D. Demodulator
128. Which major element will not be found in every
superheterodyne receiver?
A. RF amplifier
B. Mixer
C. Local oscillator
D. IF amplifier
129. Which major element of a superheterodyne receiver
must be nonlinear?
A. R-F amplifier
B. Mixer
C. Local oscillator
D. IF amplifier
130. The change of the modulated carrier frequency from
the original RF to the IF of the super heterodyne receiver is
known as
A. Frequency multiplication
B. Frequency allocation
C. Frequency substitution
D. Frequency translation
C. Coupling coefficient
D. Critical coupling
140. _______ is the function which tends to maintain the
sound volume level of a voice receiver nearly constant for a
large signal strength range.
A. Squelch
B. Muting
C. AGC
D. AFC
141. The function which tends to silence the receiver in the
absence of transmitted carrier.
A. Squelch
B. Muting
C. AGC
D. AFC
142. What device is incorporated in a communications
receiver to reduce impulse noise?
A. Front-end processor
B. Squelch circuit
C. AGC
D. Noise blanker
143. What type of signal in which a receiver selectivity of
2.4 kHz in the I-F circuitry is optimum?
A. FM voice
B. Double-sideband AM voice
C. FSK data
D. SBB voice
144. If the input to a detector stage is an amplitudemodulated (A3E) IF signal then the output from the stage is
A. A lower frequency carrier
B. The audio voice information
C. A Morse-code signal
D. The upper or lower set of sidebands
145. In a capacitive type, reactance-tube modulator
connected across an oscillator tuned circuit, a more
negative voltage on the grid of the reactance tube will
cause
A. An increase of the oscillator frequency
B. An decrease of oscillator frequency
C. An increase of the reactance-tube capacitance
D. An increase of the reactance tube ac plate current
146. The limiting condition for sensitivity in a
communications receiver is
A. The noise floor of the receiver
B. Power supply output ripple
C. The two-tone intermodulation distortion
D. The input impedance to the detector
147. When a communications receiver is tuned to a strong
signal, the AGC bias is measured and found to be zero.
The fault cannot be caused by a/an
A. Defective IF stage
B. Defective local oscillator
C. Defective RF stage
D. Audio output
156. Stages that are common to both AM and FM receivers
A. Tuner, local oscillator, detector, AF amplifier
B. RF amplifier, mixer, IF amplifier, AF amplifier
C. Local oscillator, RF amplifier, frequency discriminator,
detector
D. Tuner, IF amplifier, detector, AF amp
157. Occurs during CW reception if too narrow a filter
bandwidth is used in the IF stage of a receiver
A. Filter ringing
B. Undesired signals will reach the audio stage
C. Output-offset overshoot
D. Cross-modulation distortion
158. What stage mainly determines a communication
receivers sensitivity?
A. IF amplifier
B. Mixer stage
C. Detector stage
D. RF amplifier
159. What is the main advantage of FM over AM?
A. Better signal-to-noise-ratio
B. Narrower bandwidth
C. Greater propagation range
D. Total freedom from adjacent-channel interference
160. An amplitude modulation created in an amplifier before
the final RF stage.
A. Low-level modulation
B. High-level modulation
C. Direct modulation
D. Indirect modulation
161. Receiver desensitizing can be reduced by
A. Increasing the transmitter audio gain
B. Decreasing the receiver squelch gain
C. Increasing the receiver bandwidth
D. Ensuring good RF shielding between the transmitter
162. In a narrow-band FM system, the deviation ratio is
commonly one and the highest audio frequency is generally
limited to
A. 300 Hz
B. 10,000 Hz
C. 3,000 Hz
D. 7,500 Hz
163. A type of emission is produced when an amplitude
modulated transmitter is modulated by a facsimile signal
A. A3F
B. F3F
C. A3C
D. F3C
164. Where is the noise generated which primarily
determines the signal to noise ratio in a VHF (150 MHz)
marine band receiver?
A. In the detector
B. In the atmosphere
C. In the ionosphere
D. In the receiver front end
165. Cross-modulation in a receiver can be reduced by
A. Installing a filter at the receiver
B. Using a filter at the receiver
C. Increasing the receivers RF gain while decreasing the
AF
D. Adjusting the pass-band tuning
166. What is the emission designation for FM telephony?
A. F3E
B. G3E
C. J3E
D. H3E
167. What is the cause of receiver desensitizing?
A. The presence of a strong signal on a nearby frequency
B. Audio gain adjusted too low
C. Squelch gain adjusted too high
D. Squelch gain adjusted too low
168. In a phase-modulated signal (indirect FM), the
frequency deviation is directly proportional to the
A. Carrier amplitude only
B. Amplitude of the modulating tone and frequency of the
carrier
C. Carrier frequency only
D. Modulating signal amplitude only
169. An RF stage precedes the mixer stage in a
superheterodyne receiver. One advantage of including this
RF stage is
A. Better selectivity
B. Better rejection ratio
C. Greater sensitivity
D. Improved signal-to-noise-ratio
170. Two factors that determine the sensitivity of a receiver.
A. Dynamic range and third-order intercept
B. Cost and availability
C. Bandwidth and noise figure
D. Intermodulation distortion and dynamic range
171. What is an undesirable effect of using too-wide a filter
bandwidth in the IF section of a receiver?
A. Undesired signals will reach the audio stage
B. Output-offset overshoot
C. Thermal-noise distortion
D. Filter ringing
172. A system containing a limiter stage, a discriminator,
and a de-emphasis circuit?
A. Direct FM transmitter
B. Indirect FM transmitter
C. Single sideband AM receiver
D. FM receiver
173. The limiter stage of an FM receiver
A. Prevents any amplitude modulation of the IF signal
B. Limits the amount of frequency deviation in the IF signal
C. Limits the overall bandwidth of the IF stages
C. VHF transmitter
D. VHF receiver
101. Bandwidth
102. H3E
103. Continuous modulation
104. Pulse modulation
105. Coefficient of modulation
106. Carrier shift
107. The oscillator is crystal-controlled
108. Frequency translation
109. Balanced modulator
110. Both B and C
111. 30.8 MHz
112. 0.6 radian
113. Nonlinear
114. Push-push
115. Frequency synthesizer
116. 4
117. Balanced modulator
118. Indirect
119. All of these
120. The change of the crystal oscillator frequency by loading
121. Indirect FM
122.
123. Both A and B
124. TRF
125. Weak antenna signals
126. Bandwidth variations over the tuning range
127. Modulator
128. RF amplifier
129. Mixer
130. Frequency translation
131. Internal noise
132. Reduction of receiver internal noise
133. Smaller
134. Noise figure
135. 120.1 MHz
136. 88.5 MHz
137. The image rejection ratio
138. Powdered iron
139. Skirt steepness
140. AGC
141. Squelch
142. Noise blanker
143. SBB voice
144. The audio voice information
145. An increase of the oscillator frequency
146. The noise floor of the receiver
147. Open circuit in the AGCs filter capacitor
148. Cross-modulation interference
149. Limits the amplitude of the IF signal to the required level
150. Connecting a capacitor between the B+ and lead ground
151. Crossmodulation
152. Stray coupling is minimized
153. 4
154. Prevent the generation of spurious oscillations
155. Blocking dynamic range
156. RF amplifier, mixer, IF amplifier, AF amplifier
157. Filter ringing
158. IF amplifier
159. Better signal-to-noise-ratio
160. Low-level modulation
161. Ensuring good RF shielding between the transmitter
162. 3,000 Hz
163. A3C
164. In the receiver front end
165. Installing a filter at the receiver
166. F3E
167. The presence of a strong signal on a nearby frequency
168. Amplitude of the modulating tone and frequency of the carrier
169. Better rejection ratio
170. Bandwidth and noise figure
171. Undesired signals will reach the audio stage
172. FM receiver
173. Prevents any amplitude modulation of the IF signal
174. Loose
175. Multiplied by four
176. 2.4 kHz
177. Resistor
178. Avoid the requirement of neutralizing the stage
179. Rectifies and filters
180. All of these
181. Insulating enclosures around the receiver
182. Television
183. Approximately 1000 W
184. Limiter stage
185. Single sideband, suppressed carrier
186. Approximately 2.5 to 1
187. Higher
188. Improvement in frequency stability of the oscillator
189. A3F
190. A network consisting of one inductor and two capacitors
191. With a reactance modulator on the oscillator
192. Installing resistive spark plugs
193. Transmitters output signal when the modulation is zero
194. Final IF amplifier, which also acts as a limiter stage
195. Discriminator
196. The loudest signal received is the only demodulated signal
197. Modulating the plate voltage of a class-C amplifier
198. High modulating frequencies
199. The modulation of an unwanted signal is heard on the desired
signal
200. FM receiver
C. 250 kHz
D. 45 kHz
220. Amplitude modulation is the same as
A. Linear mixing
B. Analog multiplication
C. Signal summation
D. Multiplexing
221. The negative half of the AM wave is supplied by a/an
_______ on a diode modulator.
A. Tuned circuit
B. Transformer
C. Capacitor
D. Inductor
222. One of the following can produce AM.
A. Having the carrier vary a resistance
B. Having the modulating signal vary a capacitance
C. Varying the carrier frequency
D. Varying the gain of an amplifier
223. Amplitude modulators that vary the carrier amplitude
with the modulating signal by passing it through an
attenuator network is the principle of
A. Rectification
B. Amplification
C. Variable resistance
D. Absorption
224. Which component is used to produce AM at very high
frequencies?
A. Varactor diode
B. Thermistor
C. Cavity resonator
D. PIN diode
225. A collector modulator has a supply voltage of 48 V.
What is the peak-to-peak amplitude of the modulating
signal for 100 percent modulation?
A. 24 V
B. 48 V
C. 96 V
D. 120 V
226. What circuit recovers the original modulating
information from an AM signal?
A. Modulator
B. Demodulator
C. Mixer
D. Crystal set
227. What is the most commonly used amplitude
demodulator?
A. Envelope detector
B. Balanced modulator
C. Mixer
D. Crystal set
228. What circuit generates the upper and lower sidebands
and suppresses the carrier?
A. Amplitude modulator
B. Diode detector
C. Class C amplifier
D. Balanced modulator
229. _________ is a widely used balanced modulator.
A. Diode bridge circuit
B. Full-wave bridge rectifier
C. Lattice modulator
D. Balanced bridge modulator
230. In a diode ring modulator, the diodes act like
A. Variable resistors
B. Switches
C. Rectifiers
D. Variable capacitors
231. The output of a balanced modulator is
A. AM
B. FM
C. SSB
D. DSB
232. The principal circuit in the popular 1496/1596 IC
balanced modulator is a
A. Differential amplifier
B. Rectifier
C. Bridge
D. Constant current source
233. The most commonly used filter in SSB generators
uses
A. LC networks
B. Mechanical resonators
C. Crystals
D. RC networks and op amps
234. In the phasing method of SSB generation, one
sideband is canceled out due to
A. Phase shifting
B. Sharp selectivity
C. Carrier suppression
D. Phase inversion
235. A balanced modulator used to demodulate a SSB
signal is call a/an
A. Transponder
B. Product detector
C. Converter
D. Remodulator
236. Frequency translation is done with a circuit called a
A. Summer
B. Multiplier
C. Divider
D. Mixer
237. Mixing for frequency conversion is the same as
A. Rectification
B. AM
C. Linear summing
D. Filtering
signal?
A. PLL
B. BFO
C. Ratio detector
D. All of these
249. Which of the following is the most widely used
amplitude modulator
A. Diode detector
B. PLL circuit
C. VCO
D. All of these
250. Which of the following is the most widely used
balanced modulator
A. Full-wave bridge circuit
B. Balanced bridge modulator
C. Lattice modulator
D. None of these
251. A method that applied the modulated wave to the
vertical deflection circuit of the oscilloscope and the
modulating signal to the horizontal deflection circuit.
a. Trapezoidal method
b. Circular method
c. Square method
d. Any method
252. The heart of all methods of single-sideband
modulation and demodulation
a. Modulator
b. Balanced modulator
c. Modulation
d. demodulation
253. If the frequency and phase are parameters of carrier
angle, which is a function of time, the general term
___________-cover both.
a. Amplitude modulation
b. Frequency modulation
c. Phase modulation
d. Angle modulation
254. In FM radio communication system, narrow-band
(NBFM) is used rather than wideband (WBFM), because it,
a. Improves signal to noise ration
b. Reduces interchannel interference
c. Provides maximum coverage for a given amount of
power
d. All of the above
255. Radio transmitter basically consists of two principal
parts, one reproducing a carrier frequency and one for
__________.
a. IF Frequency
b. RF Frequency
c. Modulating Frequency
d. Power
256. Is a measure of its ability to maintain as nearly a fixed
frequency as possible over as long as time interval as
possible.
a. Receiver Noise Factor
b. Selectivity
c. Sensitivity
d. Frequency stability
257. Is the effect of two-transmitter when they are in close
proximity. This results into the sum and difference
frequencies of two carriers.
a. Intermodulation effect
b. Intermodulation interference
c. Intermodulation product
d. intermodulation
258. _________ is a continuous frequency capable of being
modulated or impressed with a second information carrying
signal.
a. Carrier frequency
b. Center frequency
c. IF frequency
d. RF frequency
259. The varactor diode used in FM may be represented by
the approximate equivalent circuit of the _____ in series
with a ________.
a. Diode, capacitor
b. Diode, resistor
c. Capacitor, resistor
d. Any of these
260. The name varactor comes from variable _________.
a. Resistor
b. Capacitor
c. Diode
d. reactor
261. 75 microseconds pre-emphasis time is used in
__________.
a. FM
b. AM
c. TV
d. None of these
262. Recovers the modulating voltage from the frequency
modulation by utilizing the phase angle shift between
primary and secondary voltages of tuned oscillators.
a. Direct method
b. Indirect method
c. Foster-Seeley discriminator
d. Slope detector
263. Is used in FM receivers to lock onto the received
signal and stabilized receptions.
a. Automatic Gain Control
b. Automatic Frequency Control
c. Muscle Control
d. Automatic Frequency Gain Control
264. Are amplifier circuits that are used to eliminate
amplitude modulation and amplitude-modulated noise from
received FM Signals before detection.
a. Demodulators
b. Diode detector
c. Amplitude limiters
d. None of these
265. If the total sideband power is 12.5% of the total
radiated power, find the modulation index.
a. 50 percent
b. 53.4 percent
c. 26.2 percent
d. 32.3 percent
266. Carriers are spaced at 20 kHz, beginning at 100 kHz.
Each carrier is modulated by a signal with a 5 kHz
bandwidth. Is there interference from the sideband?
a. Yes
b. No
c. Maybe
d. Secret
267. For an unmodulated carrier of 150 V and a modulated
peak value of 230 V. What is the modulation index
a. 0.35
b. 0.533
c. 0.652
d. 0.42
268. New frequencies outside the regular AM spectrum are
called ___________.
a. Distortion
b. Interference
c. Splatter
d. Harmonic
269. A DSB-SC has a total power of 350 watts with 100%
modulation suppresses 50% of the carrier, and the
suppressed carrier power goes to the sidebands. How
much power is in the sidebands?
a. 116.67 W
b. 233.33 W
c. 175 W
d. 350 W
270. A DSB-SC system must suppress the carrier by 30 dB
from its original value of 30 W. What value must the carrier
be reduced?
a. 30000 W
b. 0.03 W
c. 300 W
d. 0.003 W
271. ___________, which further amplifies the signal and
has the bandwidth and passband shaping appropriate for
the received signal.
a. RF stage
b. Mixer and local oscillator stage
c. IF stage
d. AF stage
272. In FM, a bandwidth estimate 98 percent level of
Bessel functions
a. Approximate bandwidth
b. Narrow-band Bandwidth
c. Carsons rule
d. Wideband bandwidth
273. The complete series of stages for reproducing the FM
signal with the desired carrier and deviation is the _______.
a. Modulator
b. Exciter
c. IF stage
d. RF stage
274. Is the ability of FM system to provide low-noise,
high fidelity music background/broadcast..
a. Monophonic
b. Stereophonic
c. Stereonic
d. SCA
275. It make use of the shape of IF filter frequency
response roll-off versus frequency.
a. Foster Seeley
b. Slope detector
c. Diode detector
d. Quadrature detector
276. In AM, modulation index is a number lying between
____ and 1.
a. 2
b. 5
c. 0
d. 3
277. This form of modulation is also known as independent
sideband emission.
a. A3E
b. R3E
c. H3E
d. B8E
278. An attenuated carrier is reinserted into the SSB signal
to facilitate receiver tuning and demodulation.
a. A3E
b. R3E
c. H3E
d. B8E
279. Standard AM used for broadcasting
a. A3E
b. R3E
c. H3E
d. B8E
280. Single sideband, suppressed carrier in which the
carrier is suppressed by at least 45 dB in the transmitter.
a. A3E
b. R3E
c. H3E
d. B8E
281. The shift in the carrier frequency from the resting point
compared to the amplitude of the modulating signal is
called _______.
a. Index
b. Deviation ratio
c. Carrier frequency
d. Deviation frequency
282. In FM, the amplitude of the modulated frequency wave
remains ___________ at all times.
a. Varying
b. Dependent
c. Constant
d. variable
283. An AM has a maximum span of 30 V, what is the
required minimum span to attain 100% modulation?
a. 30 V
b. 20 V
c. 0 V
d. None of these
284. DZMM having a carrier frequency of 630 kHz is
modulated by 2.6 kHz audio signal having an amplitude of
37.5 V. What is the amplitude voltage of 630 kHz carrier
frequency at 0.35 modulation index?
a. 57.6 V
b. 107.14 V
c. 206.5 V
d. 86.2 V
285. If the sideband power is 50% of the carrier power,
what is the modulation index?
a. 50%
b. 75%
c. 90%
d. 100%
286. If the increase power is 180 watts at 1
kW unmodulated output power the modulation index is
_________.
a. 75%
b. 60%
c. 50%
d. 25%
287. In AM, if the unmodulated power carrier is 10 kW, and
the total power is 15 kW, what is the upper sideband power
at 100% modulation index?
a. 25 kW
b. 2 kW
c. 2.5 kW
d. 4 kW
288. If the input resistance of the base station of AM
broadcast produced 20 kW carrier power, at what
modulation index should the antenna rise at 108.63 A?
a. 20%
b. 50%
c. 60%
d. 80%
289. ________ used a phase detector to compare the
b. 78.6 MHz
c. 52.5 MHz
d. 35.2 MHz
297. What is the change in resonant frequency of the actual
varactor capacitance value differs by -5% (0.05) of the
nominal value?
a. 2.06
b. 3.02
c. 1.03
d. 5.06
298. An oscillator resonate at 1 MHz with a nominal 100 pF
capacitor and 0.25 mH inductor, what s the resonant
frequency of the actual capacitor value is +20% of the
nominal value?
a. 1.006 MHz
b. 0.9188 MHz
c. 3.625 MHz
d. 2.00123 MHz
299. Front end is also called _________.
a. IF stage
b. AF stage
c. RF stage
d. None of these
300. Undesired signal on the other side of the local
oscillator output will have the same difference frequency
and pass into the IF amplifier.
a. Carrier frequency
b. Sum frequency
c. Difference frequency
d. Image frequency
201. Television
202. F3C
203. Intermodulation interference
204. Desensitizing
205. Bandwidth of emission and occupied bandwidth
206. A normal condition
207. Amplitude of the modulating signal
208. Maximum frequency swing to the highest modulating
frequency
209. An output, whose frequency differs from the IF by 1 kHz
210. Projected cut-off
211. Amplify of an AM signal
212. Cross-modulation interference
213. Peak negative voltage
214. FM and double sideband AM
215. Percentage of modulation
216. Capture effect
217. Double-sideband AM
218. Zero-modulation
219. 270 kHz
220. Linear mixing
221. The tuned circuit
222. Having the carrier vary a resistance
223. Variable resistance
224. PIN diode
225. 96 V
226. Demodulator
227. Envelope detector
228. Balanced modulator
229. Lattice modulator
230. Switches
231. DSB
232. Differential amplifier
233. Crystals
234. Phase shifting
235. Product detector
236. Mixer
237. Linear summing
238. Lower complexity and cost
239. Excessive use of spectrum space
240. High-frequency spikes
241. Limiter
242. Class C
243. Single sideband with suppressed carrier
244. Filter
245. DSB
246. Single sideband, suppressed carrier
247. Demodulation
248. BFO
249. Diode detector
250. Lattice modulator
251. Trapezoidal method
252. Balanced modulator
253. Angle modulation
254. All of the above
255. Modulating Frequency
256. Frequency stability
257. Intermodulation interference
258. Carrier frequency
259. Capacitor, resistor
260. reactor
261. FM
262. Foster-Seeley discriminator
263. Automatic Frequency Control
264. Amplitude limiters
265. 53.4 percent
266. No
267. 0.533
268. Splatter
269. 233.33 W
270. 0.03 W
271. IF stage
272. Carsons rule
273. Exciter
274. Stereophonic
275. Slope detector
276. 0
277. B8E
278. R3E
279. A3E
280. H3E
281. Deviation ratio
282. Constant
283. 0 V
284. 107.14 V
285. 100%
286. 60%
287. 2.5 kW
288. 60%
289. PLL
290. 18 dB
291. 26.67 uV
292. 2592 MHz, 259.2 kHz
293. 5
294. 65 kHz
295. 0.20
296. 78.6 MHz
297. 1.03
298. 0.9188 MHz
299. RF stage
300. Image frequency
a. 7.5 kHz
b. 15 kHz
c. 30 kHz
d. 60 kHz
316. If a transmitter supplies 10 kW to the antenna when it
is unmodulated, determine the total radiated power when it
is modulated at 30%
a. 10.45 watts
b. 10750 watts
c. 11.5 kilowatts
d. 10450 watts
317. Which of the following waveform characteristics
determines the wavelength of a sine wave?
a. Phase
b. Amplitude
c. Period
d. Phase angle
318. In the F3E signal, what is the term for the ratio
between the deviation of a frequency modulated signal and
the modulating frequency?
a. FM compressibility
b. Quieting index
c. Modulation index
d. Percentage of modulation
319. Which frequency band is the standard AM radio
broadcast?
a. HF
b. UHF
c. MF
d. VHF
320. The letter-designation B8E is a form of modulation
also known as
a. Pilot carrier system
b. Independent sideband emission
c. Lincompex
d. Vestigial sideband transmission
321. What are the two general categories of methods for
generating emission F3E?
a. The only way to produce an emission F3E signal is with
reactance modulator on the oscillator
b. The only way to produce an emission F3E signal is with a
balanced modulator on the oscillator
c. The only way to produce an emission F3E signal is with a
balanced modulator on the audio amplifier
d. The only way to produce an emission F3E signal is with a
reactance modulator on the final amplifier
322. 100% modulation in AM means a corresponding
increase in total power by ____.
a. 25%
b. 75%
c. 100%
d. 50%
323. How does the SSB transmitter output power normally
expressed?
a. Average power
b. In terms of peak envelope power
c. In terms of peak-to-peak power
d. Peak power
324. Determine from the following the common use of DSB
in broadcast and telecommunications
a. Satellite communication
b. FM/TV stereo
c. Two-way communications
d. Telephone systems
325. What is the source of sidebands in frequency
modulation?
a. Oscillator
b. Baseband frequency
c. Mixer
d. Carrier harmonics
326. What is the source of sidebands in frequency
modulated voice?
a. A3F
b. A3J
c. F3E
d. J3E
327. The third symbol in the designation of radio emission
under the ITU refers to
a. Type of modulation of the main carrier
b. Nature of signals
c. Type of information to be transmitted
d. Nature of multiplexing
328. An AM transmission of 3 kW is 100% modulated. If it is
transmitted as an SSB signal, what would be the total
power transmitted?
a. 500 W
b. 1000 W
c. 1500 W
d. 2000 W
329. This circuit has the function of demodulating the
frequency-modulated signal. It is a
a. Automatic gain control
b. Automatic frequency control
c. Envelope detector
d. Foster-Seeley discriminator
330. Calculate the power in one sideband of an AM signal
whose carrier power is 50 watts. The unmodulated current
is 2 A while the modulated current is 2.4 A.
a. 22 W
b. 33 W
c. 11 W
d. 44 W
331. The method of generating FM used by broadcasting
station is
a. Direct
b. All of these
c. Indirect
d. Insertion
332. Deviation ratio of an FM transmitter is the ratio of the
a. Maximum frequency swing to the highest modulating
frequency
b. Operating frequency of the assigned frequency
c. Frequency swing to the modulating frequency
d. Highest modulating frequency to the minimum frequency
333. An AM transmitter is modulated by two sine waves at
1.5 kHz and 2.5 kHz with modulations of 20 percent and 80
percent respectively. Calculate the effective modulation
index.
a. 0.7776
b. 0.6
c. 0.8246
d. 1.0
334. A DSBSC system must suppress the carrier by 50 dB
for its original value of 10 W. To what value must the carrier
be reduced?
a. 1 milliwatt
b. 10 microwatts
c. 0.10 milliwatts
d. 0.01 microwatts
335. Which circuit in the AM transmitter does the frequency
translation?
a. Synthesizer
b. Modulator
c. Mixer
d. Booster
336. A phase modulator has Kp= 2 rad/V. What RMS
voltage of a sine wave would cause a peak phase deviation
of 30 degrees?
a. 0.158 V
b. 0.185 V
c. 0.518 V
d. 0.815 V
337. In a phase-locked loop, VCO stands for
a. Variable capacitor oscillator
b. Varactor-capacitor oscillator
c. Voltage-controlled oscillator
d. VHF control oscillator
338. Diagonal clipping in envelope detection will result in
a. Distortion
b. Diagonal clipping
c. Phase reversal
d. Amplitude damage
339. An AM transmitter supplies a 10 kW of carrier power to
a 50 ohm load. It operates at a carrier frequency of 1.2 MHz
and is 85% modulated by a 3 MHz sine wave. Calculate the
RMS voltage of the signal.
a. 825 W
b. 262. 61 V
c. 1166.7 V
d. 825 V
340. What will be the total sideband power of the AM
transmitting station whose carrier power is 1200W and a
modulation of 95%?
a. 270.75 W
b. 900 watts
c. 1.8 kW
d. 542 W
341. Which among the following is capable of generating
frequency conversion?
a. Balanced modulator
b. Low-Q LC Circuit
c. Transmitter
d. Circulator
342. The most commonly used AM demodulator
a. Envelope detector
b. PLL
c. Mixer
d. Balanced modulator
343. Which is a disadvantage of direct FM generation?
a. The need for an AFC circuit
b. The need for an AGC circuit
c. Two balanced modulators are used
d. The use of Class A amplifier which is very inefficient
344. Frequency division is useful in the implementation of
a/an
a. AM demodulator
b. Frequency synthesizer
c. AGC circuit
d. FM demodulator
345. A particular synthesizer which contains only a single
crystal is
a. Direct
b. Crystal-modulated
c. Indirect
d. Exact
346. Type of emission most affected by selective fading
a. FM and DSB AM
b. SSB and TV
c. CCTV and CW
d. CW and SSB
347. Which major element will not be found in every
superheterodyne receiver?
a. RF amplifier
b. IF amplifier
c. LO
d. Mixer
348. A system uses a deviation of 100 kHz and a
modulating frequency of 15 kHz. What is the approximate
bandwidth?
a. 115 kHz
b. 230 kHz
c. 170 kHz
d. 340 kHz
349. A quadrature detector requires that
a. The inputs are coherent
b. Four gates are provided
c. The inputs are in phase
d. The inputs are similar
350. What is the power in one sideband of an AM signal
whose carrier power is 300 W, with 80 percent modulation?
a. 396 W
b. Zero
c. 48 W
d. 96 W
351. Determine the resonant frequency of a
series combination of a 0.001 microfarad capacitor and a 2
milihenry inductor.
a. 112.5 kHz
b. 35.59 kHz
c. 1125.4 MHz
d. 3.26 MHz
352. Which of the following is not a typical part of every
radio transmitter?
a. Carrier oscillator
b. Driver amplifier
c. Mixer
d. Final power amplifier
353. What is the approximate magnitude of the impedance
of a parallel RLC circuit at resonance?
a. Approximately equal to the circuit resistance
b. Approximately equal to XL
c. Low, as compared to the circuit resistance
d. Approximately equal to XC
354. What are the three major oscillator circuits often used
in radio equipment?
a. Taft, Pierce, and negative feedback
b. Colpitts, Hartley, and Taft
c. Taft, Hartley, and Pierce
d. Colpitts, Hartley, and Pierce
355. How is a positive feedback coupled to the input in a
Hartley oscillator?
a. Through a neutralizing capacitor
b. Through a capacitive divider
c. Through a link coupling
d. Through a tapped coil
356. How is the positive feedback coupled to the input in a
Colpitts oscillator?
a. Through a tapped coil
b. Trough link coupling
c. Through a capacitive divider
d. Through a neutralizing capacitor
357. How is a positive feedback coupled to the input in a
Pierce oscillator?
a. Through a tapped coil
b. Trough link coupling
b. Frequency synthesizer
c. FM demodulator
d. AGC circuit
375. Indirect frequency synthesizers will include
a. phase-locked loop
b. voltage-controlled oscillators
c. multiple bank crystals
d. both A and B
376. A particular frequency synthesizer contains only a
single crystal. What words describe this synthesizer?
a. Crystal modulated
b. Inexact
c. Indirect
d. Deficient
377. A recognizable feature of a CW transmitter is
a. Keyed transmitter
b. Power amplification
c. Frequency generation
d. All of the above
378. The term pulling refers to
a. The change of the crystal oscillator frequency by loading
b. One-half cycle operation of a push-pull amplifier
c. Loading on the transmitter caused by the antenna
connection
d. Reduction of the power supply terminal voltage as the
transmitter is keyed
379. An AM broadcast transmitter in the multi-kilowatt
operating range will have what form of final amplifier?
a. Solid-state devices
b. Vacuum tubes
c. Travelling wave tubes
d. Both a and b
380. In a broadcast station, the AGC is referred to as
a. Automatic gain control limiter
b. Compression amplifier
c. Loudness controller
d. All of the above
381. Class C amplifiers are not used in which type of
transmitter?
a. AM
b. SSB
c. CW
d. FM
382. A circuit that isolates the carrier oscillator from load
changes is called a
a. Final amplifier
b. Driver amplifier
c. Linear amplifier
d. Buffer amplifier
383. Bias for class c amplifier produced by an input RC
network is known as
a. Signal bias
b. Self-bias
c. 7.5 V
d. 4.25 V
393. A phase-locked loop has a VCO with a free-running
frequency of 14 MHz. As the frequency of the reference
input is gradually raised from zero, the loop locks at 12
MHz and comes out of lock again at 18 MHz. Calculate the
capture range.
a. 4 MHz
b. 2 MHz
c. 12 MHz
d. 8 MHz
394. If the frequency fed to the pre-amplifier of a basic
transmitter with multipliers is composed of a pair of triplers
and a doubler is 198 MHz, what frequency should the
oscillator operate?
a. 11 MHz
b. 33 MHz
c. 22 MHz
d. 66 MHz
395. A phase-locked loop has a VCO with a free running
frequency of 14 MHz. As the frequency of the reference
input is gradually raised from zero, the loop locks at 12
MHZ and comes out of lock again at 18 MHz. Calculate the
lock range.
a. 4 MHz
b. 2 MHz
c. 12 MHz
d. 8 MHz
396. A crystal oscillator is accurate within 0.0005%. How far
off frequency could its output be at 37 MHz?
a. 135 Hz
b. 150 Hz
c. 185 Hz
d. 224 Hz
397. A transmitter has a carrier power output of 10 W at an
efficiency of 80%. How much power must be supplied by
the modulating amplifier for 100% modulation?
a. 6.25 W
b. 7.14 W
c. 12.5 W
d. 14.3 W
398. A transmitter operates from a 16 V supply, with a
collector current of 2 A. The modulation transformer has a
turns ratio of 4:1. What is the load impedance seen by the
audio amplifier?
a. 96 ohms
b. 128 ohms
c. 6 ohms
d. 8 ohms
399. A collector-modulated class C amplifier has a carrier
output power of 150 W and an efficiency of 80%. Calculate
the transistor power dissipation with 100% modulation.
a. 93. 75 W
b. 120 W
c. 64 W
d. 56. 25 W
400. An AM transmitter is required to produce 20 W of
carrier power when operating from a 25 V supply. What is
the required load impedance as seen from the collector?
a. 15.625 ohms
b. 22.5 ohms
c. 11.25 ohms
d. 31.25 ohms
401. What is receiver desensitizing?
a. A burst of noise when the squelch is set to low
b. A burst of noise when the squelch is set to high
c. A reduction in receiver sensitivity because of a strong
signal on a nearby frequency
d. A reduction in receiver sensitivity is turned down
402. What is the term used to refer to the reduction of
receiver gain caused by the signals of a nearby station
transmitting in the same frequency band?
a. Desensitizing
b. Quieting
c. Cross-modulation interference
d. Squelch gain roll back
403. What is the term used to refer to a reduction in
receiver
sensitivity
caused
by
unwanted
highlevel adjacent channel signals?
a. Intermodulation distortion
b. Quieting
c. Desensitizing
d. Overloading
404. How can receiver desensitizing be reduced?
a. Ensure good RF shielding between the transmitter and
receiver
b. Increase the transmitter audio gain
c. Decrease the receiver squelch gain
d. Increase the receiver bandwidth
405. What is cross-modulation interference?
a. Interference between two transmitters of different
modulation types
b. Interference caused by audio rectification in the receiver
preamp
c. Decrease the receiver squelch gain
d. Modulation from an unwanted signal is heard in addition
to the desired signal
406. What is the term used to refer to the condition where
the signals from a very strong station are super imposed on
the other signals being received?
a. Intermodulation distortion
b. Cross-modulation interference
c. Receiver quieting
d. Capture effect
407. How can cross-modulation in a receiver be reduced?
a. By installing a filter at the receiver
comparison
b. The elimination of noise in a wideband receiver by phase
differentiation
c. Distortion caused by aural propagation
d. The combination of the two signals to produce sum and
difference frequencies
416. What is a frequency discriminator?
a. A circuit for detecting FM signals
b. A circuit for filtering two closely adjacent signals
c. An automatic band switching circuit
d. An FM generator
417. What are the principal frequencies which appear at the
output of a mixer circuit?
a. Two and four times the original frequency
b. The sum, difference and square root of the input
frequencies
c. The original frequencies and the sum and difference
frequencies
d. 1.414 and 0.707 times the frequency
418. What occurs in a receiver when an excessive amount
of signal energy reaches the mixer circuit?
a. Spurious mixer products are generated
b. Mixer blanking occurs
c. Automatic limiting occurs
d. A beat frequency is generated
419. How much gain should be used in the RF amplifier
stage of a receiver?
a. As much as possible short of self oscillation
b. Sufficient gain to allow weak signals to overcome noise
generated in the first mixer
c. Sufficient gain to keep weak signals below the noise of
the first mixer stage
d. It depends on the amplification factor of the first IF stage
420. Why should the RF amplifier stage of a receiver only
have sufficient gain to allow weak signals to overcome
noise generated in the first mixer stage?
a. To prevent the sum and difference frequencies from
being generated
b. To prevent bleed-through of the desired signal
c. To prevent generation of spurious mixer products
d. To prevent bleed-trough of the local oscillator
421. What is the primary purpose of an RF amplifier in a
receiver?
a. To provide most of the receiver gain
b. To vary the receiver image rejection by utilizing the AGC
c. To improve the receivers noise figure
d. To develop the AGC voltage
422. What is an IF amplifier stage?
a. A fixed-tuned passband amplifier
b. A receiver demodulator
c. A receiver filter
d. A buffer oscillator
423. What factors should be considered when selecting an
intermediate frequency?
a. A cross-modulation distortion and interference
b. Interference to other services
c. Image rejection and selectivity
d. Noise figure and distortion
424. What is the primary purpose of the first IF amplifier
stage in a receiver?
a. A noise figure performance
b. Tune out cross-modulation distortion
c. Dynamic response
d. Selectivity
425. What is the primary purpose of the final IF amplifier
stage in a receiver?
a. Dynamic response
b. Gain
c. Noise figure performance
d. Bypass undesired signals
426. Which stage of a receiver primarily establishes its
noise figure?
a. The audio stage
b. The IF stage
c. The RF stage
d. The local oscillator
427. What is meant by the term noise figure in a
communications receiver?
a. The level of noise entering the receiver from the antenna
b. The relative strength of a strength of a received signal 3
kHz removed from the carrier frequency
c. The level of noise generated in the front end and
succeeding stages of a receiver
d. The ability of a receiver to reject unwanted signals at
frequencies close to the desired one
428. The ability of a communications receiver to perform
well in the presence of strong signals outside the band of
interest is indicated by what parameter?
a. Noise figure
b. Blocking dynamic range
c. Signal-to-noise ratio
d. Audio output
429. What type problems are caused by poor dynamic
range in a communications receiver?
a. Cross-modulation of the desired signal and
desensitization from strong adjacent signals
b. Oscillator instability requiring frequent returning, and loss
of ability to recover the opposite sideband should it be
transmitted
c. Cross-modulation of the desired signal and insufficient
audio power to operate the speaker
d. Oscillator instability and severe audio distortion of all but
the strongest signal received signals
430. What is the term for the ratio between the largest
tolerable receiver input signal and the minimum discernible
signal?
a. Intermodulation distortion
b. Noise floor
c. Noise figure
d. Dynamic range
431. What occurs during CW reception if too narrow a filter
bandwidth is used in the IF stage of a receiver?
a. Undesired signals will reach the audio stage
b. Output-offset overshoot
c. Cross-modulation distortion
d. Filter ringing
432. How can selectivity be achieved in the front and
circuitry of a communications receiver?
a. By using an audio filter
b. By using a pre-selector
c. By using an additional RF amplifier stage
d. By using an additional IF amplifier stage
433. How should the filter bandwidth of a receiver IF
section compare with the bandwidth of a received signal?
a. Filter bandwidth should be slightly greater than the
received signal bandwidth
b. Filter bandwidth should be approximately half the
received signal bandwidth
c. Filter bandwidth should be approximately two times the
received signal bandwidth
d. Filter bandwidth should be approximately four times the
received signal bandwidth
434. How can receiver selectivity be achieved in the IF
circuitry of a communications receiver?
a. Incorporate a means of varying the supply voltage to the
local oscillator circuitry
b. Replace the standard JFET mixer with a bipolar
transistor followed by a capacitor of the proper value
c. Remove AGC action from the IF stage and confine it to
the audio stage only
d. Incorporate a high-Q filter
435. A receiver has a sensitivity of 0.6 microvolts and a
blocking dynamic range of 60 dB. What is the strongest
signal that can be present along with a 0.6 microvolt signal
without blocking taking place
a. 600 millivolts
b. 600 microvolts
c. 300 millivolts
d. 300 mircovolts
436. An AM receiver is tuned to broadcast station at 600
kHz. Calculate the image rejection in dB assuming that the
input filter consists of one tuned circuit with a Q of 40?
a. 19.28 dB
b. 39.65 dB
c. 38.57 dB
d. 19.83 dB
437. A receiver has two uncoupled tuned circuits before the
mixer, each with a Q of 75. The signal frequency is 100.1
MHz. The IF is 10.7 Mhz. The local oscillator uses high-side
modulation index?
a. 1
b. 0
c. 100
d. infinity
463. Amplitude modulation can be produced by
a. having the carrier vary a resistance
b. having the modulating signal vary a capacitance
c. varying the carrier frequency
d. varying the gain of the amplifier
464. When the modulation index is equal to zero, the total
transmitted power is equal to ________.
a. one of the sidebands
b. carrier
c. double sidebands
d. an AM wave
465. When the modulation takes place prior to the output
element of the final stage of the transmitter, prior to the
collector of the output transistor in a transistorized
transmitter, this is called ______.
a. high-level modulation
b. low-level modulation
c. zero-modulation
d. constant modulation
466. A circuit that monitors the received signal level and
sends a signal back to the RF and IF amplifiers to adjust
their gain automatically.
a. automatic phase control
b. automatic gain control
c. automatic frequency control
d. automatic volume control
467. When the modulation takes place in the final element
of the final stage where the carrier signal is at its maximum
amplitude, it is called _____.
a. constant modulation
b. zero-modulation
c. low-level modulation
d. high-level modulation
468. If a superheterodyne receiver is tuned to a desired
signal at 1000kHz and its conversion (local) oscillator is
operating at 1300kHz, what would be the frequency of an
incoming signal that would possibly cause image
reception?
a. 1600 kHz
b. 2300 kHz
c. 1250 kHz
d. 3420 kHz
469. When modulation requires a much higher amplitude
modulating signal to achieve a reasonable percent
modulation, this is called
a. high-level modulation
b. low-level modulation
c. zero-modulation
d. constant modulation
470. Amplitude modulators that vary the carrier amplitude
with the modulating signal by passing it through an
attenuator work on principle of
a. rectification
b. resonance
c. variable resistance
d. absorption
471. A circuit which function is to raise the amplitude of the
source signal to a usable level while producing minimum
nonlinear distortion adding as little thermal noise as
possible.
a. power amplifier
b. non-linear amplifier
c. buffer amplifier
d. preamplifier
472. A circuit that has a low-gain, high-input impedance
linear amplifier which is used to isolate the oscillator from
the high-power amplifiers.
a. power amplifier
b. bandpass filter
c. signal driver
d. buffer amplifier
473. With high-level transmitters, which of the following is
not a primary function of the modulator circuit?
a. it provides the capacity necessary for modulation to
occur
b. it serves as a final amplifier
c. it serves as a frequency up-converter
d. it serves as a mixer
474. It is a form of amplitude distortion introduced
when positive and negative alternations in the AM
modulated signal are not equal.
a. phase shift
b. carrier shift
c. amplitude variations
d. frequency shift
475. A carrier is simultaneously modulated by two sine
waves with modulation indices of 0.3 and 0.4, the total
modulation index
a. is 1
b. cannot be calculated unless the phase relations are
known
c. is 0.5
d. is 0.7
476. The component used to produce AM AT very high
frequencies is a
a. varactor
b. thermistor
c. cavity resonator
d. PIN diode
477. It is also known as upward modulation
a. carrier shift
b. amplitude variations
c. frequency shift
d. phase shift
478. Also known as downward modulation
a. carrier shift
b. amplitude variations
c. frequency shift
d. phase shift
479. It is a form of amplitude modulation where signals from
two separate information sources modulate the same
carrier frequency at the same time without interfering with
each other.
a. QPSK
b. QUAM
c. PSK
d. FSK
480. A receiver has a dynamic range of 81 dB. It has
0.55nW sensitivity. Determine the maximum allowable input
signal.
a. 59 mW
b. 69 mW
c. 79 mW
d. 88 mW
481. The information sources modulate the same carrier
after it has been separated into two carrier signals are at 90
degrees out of phase with each other.
a. QPSK
b. QUAM
c. PSK
d. FSK
482. Demodulating quadrature AM signal requires a carrier
recovery circuit to reproduce the original carrier frequency
and phase and two balanced modulators to actually
demodulate the signals. This is called ________.
a. asynchronous detection
b. quadrature demodulation
c. synchronous detection
d. quadrature detection
483. Quadrature amplitude modulation is also known as
________.
a. phase division multiplexing
b. phase division modulation
c. phase amplitude multiplexing
d. phase angle modulation
484. Amplitude modulation generated at a very low voltage
or power amplitude is known as
a. high-level modulation
b. low-level modulation
c. collector modulation
d. minimum modulation
485. It is the first stage of the receiver and is therefore often
called the receiver front end.
a. mixer
b. RF section
c. local oscillator
d. IF stage
486. In an SSB transmitter, one is most likely to find a
a. class C audio amplifier
b. tuned modulator
c. class B RF amplifier
d. class A RF output amplifier
487. The section of the receiver than down-converts the
received RF frequencies to intermediate frequencies.
a. RF section
b. local oscillator
c. power amplifier
d. mixer
488. The circuit that demodulates the AM wave and
converts it to the original information signal.
a. power amplifier
b. local oscillator
c. detector
d. IF section
489. A collector modulator has a supply voltage of 48 V.
The peak-to-peak amplitude of the modulating signal for
100 percent modulation is
a. 24 V
b. 48 V
c. 96 V
d. 120 V
490. What signals might feed into an FM broadcast station
audio control console?
a. microphones
b. turntables
c. remote lines
d. any of these
491. The noise reduction ratio achieved by reducing the
bandwidth is called
a. dynamic range
b. noise figure
c. bandwidth efficiency
d. bandwidth improvement
492. It is the minimum RF signal level that can be detected
at the input to the receiver and still produce a usable
demodulated information signal.
a. selectivity
b. sensitivity
c. Q-factor
d. bandwidth
493. For ideal AM, which of the following is true
a. m = 0
b. m = 1
c. m < 1
d. m > 1
494. Why are limiters used in FM receivers?
a. provide better noise performance