1.

Cutting of the pituitary stalk decreases all of the

following hormones excepta) ACTH
b) GH
c) Prolactin
d) FSH
2. Most common hormone deficiency seen after
intracranial radiation therapy
a) Prolactin
b) Gonadotropins
c) ACTH
d) Growth hormone
3. Empty sella syndrome is often characterized by:
a) Pituitary tumor
b) Cretinism
c) Acromegaly
d) None of the above
4. TRH stimulation test is done to know the reserve of a) prolactin
b) Insulin
c) GH
d) Glucagon
5. Ramkali bai, a 35 year old female presented with one
year history of menstrual irregularity, galactorrhea.
She also had off-and-on headache. Her funds
examination showed primary optic atrophy. Which of
the following is the most likely diagnosis:
a) Craniopharyngioma
b) Pituitary macroadenoma
c) Ophthalmic ICA aneurysm
d) Chiasmal glioma
6. Suprasellar calcification with polyuria seen in
a) Langerhan cell histocytosis
b) Medulloblastoma
c) Pinealoma
d) Craniopharyngioma
e) Astrocytoma

13. Most common presentation of goitre isa) Hypthyrodism

b) Enlarged thyroid

7. Central diabetes insipidus is characterized bya) Low plasma and low urine osmolality
b) High plasma and High urine osmolality
c) Low plasma and High urine osmolality
d) Low urine and high plasma osmolality
8. All of the following conditions are known to cause
diabetes insipidus except:
a) Multiple sclerosis
b) Head injury
c) Histiocytosis
d) Viral encephalitis
9. Pituitary diabetes insipidus is improved by
a) Water restiction
b) Glucagon
c) Lithium
d) Chlorpropamide
e) Chlorthiazide
10. Which of the following is the drug choice for the
treatement of inappropriate anti-diuretic hormone
secretiona) Frusemide
b) Hydrochlorothiazide
c) Spironolactone
d) Demeclocycline
11. Best antihyroid drug to be used to pregnancy is
a) Carbimazole
b) Methimazole
c) Propylthiouracil
d) Radioactive Iodine
12. All are features of subacute thyroiditis excepta) pain in the neck
b)Fever
c) Raised ESR
d) Raised radioactive Iodine uptake

20. A 28 year old lady had put on weight (10 Kg over a

period of 3 years), and has oligomenorrhea followed
by amenorrhea for 8 months. Blood pressure is

c) hyperthyroidism
d) Asymptomatic
14. The occurrence of hyperthyroidism following
administration of supplemental iodine to subjects
with endemic iodine deficiency goiter is known as
a) Jod- Basedow effect
b) Wolff- Chaikoff effect
c) Thyrotoxicosis factitia
d) De Quervans thyroditis
15. A 20 year old girl presents with 9 month history of
neck swelling with thyrotoxic symptom. On
investigation increased T4 and decreased TSH with
palpable 2cm nodule was found. Next investigation
will be
a) USG
b) Thyroid scan
c) Radioactive iodine uptake
d) CT scan
16. In the adrenal gland, androgens are produced by the
cells in the
a) Zona glomerulosa
b) Zona reticularis
c) Zona faciculate
d) Medulla
17. Activation of the renin stimulates
a) water excretion
b) Potassium retention
c) Sodium retention
d) Magnesium excretion
18. Adrenal reserve is best tested by means of infusion
witha) Glucocoritcoids
b) ACTH
c) Hypothyrodism
d) Metyrapone
19. Intake of exogenous steroid causes
a) Addisons disease
b) Cushings syndrome
c) Pheochromocytoma
d) Conns syndrome

160/100mm of Hg. Which the following is the most

appropriate investigation
a) Serum electrolytes
b) Plasma cortisol
c) Plasma tesoterone and ultrasound evaluation of
pelvis
d) T3, T4, and TSH
21. Medical adrenalectomy is done witha) Vincristine
b) Vinblastine
c) Mitotane
d) Methotrexate
22. True about Conns syndrome
a) Increase K+
b) decrease K+
c) edema
d) raised plasma renin activity
23. Which is true about Addisons disease excepta) Hypoglcemia
b)Hypokalemia
c) Hypernatremia
d) Increased protein catabolism
24. A 25 year old male presents with weakness
,occasional vomiting hypotension, skin and mucous
membrane pigmentation. The diagnosis can best
established by
a) Metyrapone test
b) Basal Plasma cortisol level
c) 24-hour urinary 17-Ketosteroid
d) ACTH stimulation test
25. New born 7 days old with vomiting and dehydration,
clinical examination was normal except for hyper
pigmentation of nipple Electrolytes: Na: 120 meq.
K:9 meq. Most likely diagnosis
a) Primary hypothyroidism
b) Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
c) Panhypopituitarsm
d) Pyloric stenosis

26. Extra- adrenal pheochromocytoma dominantly

secretesa) Norepinephrine
b) Epinephrine
c) Metanephrine
d) Dopamine

33. Hyperglycemia occurs after what % of beta cell mass

is detroyeda) 40%
b) 60%
c) 80%
d) 90%

27. Neurofibromatosis is associated witha) Pheochromocytoma

b) Islet cell tumors
c) Papillary or medullary Ca thyroid
d) Glucagonoma

34. Factitious hyperinsulinemia is differentiated from

insulinoma by
a) C- peptide levels
b) Insulin antibodies
c) Serum glucose levels
d) none

28. Diagnostic Test for pheochromocytoma isa) Ultra sound

b) Estimation of urinary metanephrines
c) Estimation of Urinary 5-HIAA
d) Phenotolamine test
29. The diagnostic procedure not done in case of
pheochromocytomaa) CT Scan
b) MRI
c) FNAC
d) MIBG scan
30. Insulin resistance is seen in
a) Hypothyroidism
b) Acromegaly
c) Addissions disease
d) Hypopitutarism
31. Hyperglycemia is caused by all except
a) Diazoxide
b) Thiazide
c) Pentamidine
d) Propranolol
32. Minimum fasting Blood Glucose concentration for
diagnosis of diabetes mellitus isa) 114 mg/dl
b) 120 mg/dl
c) 126 mg/dl
d) 132 mg/dl

35. Which of the following is seen in 95% of patient with

diabetes mellitus
a) HLA B27
b) HLA B3-B4
c) HLA DR3-DR4
d) HLA A3
36. HLA linkage is seen ina) IDDM
b) NIDDM
c) Secondary diabetes due to pancreatic disease
d) Diabetes due to insulin antagonist
37. Ketone body which is maximum in Diabetic
Ketoacidosis is :
a) Acetone
b) Pyruvate
c) Acetoacestic acid
d) Beta Hydroxy Butyrate
38. The following statement concerning diatbetic
ketoacidosis are correct excepta) Pyrexia is uncommon even in the presence of
infection
b) Dehydration is out of proportion to the severity of
vomiting.
c) Low dose insulin therapy is treatment of choice
d) Leucocytosis is highly suggestive of associated
infection
39. The most effective correction of acidosis in diabetic
ketoacidosis isa) IV bicarbonate
b) IV saline
c) IV insulin
d) Oral bicarbonate

40. Dehydration in ketoacidosis is best treated with

a) Isolyte P.
b) Isolyte M.
c) Normal saline
d) Moral 1/6 lactate
41. In non ketotic hypersmolar hyperglycemia the blood
sugar level is
a) Slightly elevated
b) Mildly elevated
c) Moderately elevated
d) Grossly elevated
42. Diabetes mellitus can lead toa) Vitreous hemorrhage
b) Retinal detachement
c) Cranial nerves palsy
d) All
43. A 50 year old male with type 2 diabetes mellitus is
found to have 24 urinary albumin of 250 mg. Which
of the following drugs may be used to retard
progression of renal diseasea) Hydrochiorthlazide
b) Enalapril
c) Amiloride
d) Aspirin
44. In diabetic nephropathy all of the following are true
EXCEPTa) Cardiovascular abnormalities can occur
b) Micro and macro albuminuria can occur
c) ACE inhibitors can reduce micro albuminuria
d) Insulin requirement becomes high.
45. The characteristic and common presentation of
diabetic neuropathy is
a) Amyotrophy
b) Mononeuropathy
c) Symmetrical sensory neuropathy
d) Autonomic neuropathy
46. Glycosolated hemoglobin percentage which indicates
good control of diabetes
a) 8%
b) 10%
c) 15%
d) 20%

47. True about lispro insulin is

a) Action is faster and longer in duration than
regular insulin
b) It is given after meals
c) Source is lamb
d) Action is faster and short in duration than regular
insulin
48. Which is a feature of Dawn phenomenona) Early morning hypoglycemia
b) Early morning hyperglycemia
c) Breakfast hypoglycemia
d) Post prandial coma
49. Which one of the following oral hypoglycemic agents
is not an insulin secretogogue?
a)
b)
c)
d)

Gliclazide
Glimiperide
Rapaglinide
Rosiglitazone

50. Testesterone is secreted by

a) Leyding cells
b) Sertoli cells
c) Germ cells
d) Adrenal medulla
51. Precocious puberty is treated by administering
a) GnRH analogues
b) Testosterone
c) Oestrogen
d) Gonadotrophin
52. The level of 17-ketosteroids in urine is increased ina) Adrenal tumour only
b) Adrenal and testicular tumour
c) Liver secondaries
d) Bronchogenic carcinoma
53. Primary amenorrhea with anosmia is a feature ofa) Kallmann syndrome
b) Turner syndrome
c) Testicular feminization
d) Lawrence Moon Beidl syndrome

54. All of the following statements about Gynaecomastia

are true except
a)

Subcutaneous mastectomy is the initial

treatment of choice
b) Seen in liver disease
c) There may be estrogen/testosterone imbalance
d) Can be drug induced.
55. Male presenting with Gynaecomastia,reduced
testosterone and reduced LH true isa) Testicular failure
b) Testicular feminization
c) Androgen resistance
d) Sertoli Cell tumour
56. Short stature with widely spread nipples and webbing
of neck is seen ina) Downs syndrome
b) Turners syndrome
c) Klinefelters syndrome
d) Edwards infraction
57. Which of the following is not used to induced
ovulationa) Danazol
b) Clomiphene
c) hMG
d) HCG
58. A 21 year old women presents with complaint
primary amenorrhoea. Her height is 153 cm weight is
51 kg. She has well developed breast. She has no
pubic hair or axillary hair and hirsuitism. Which of the
following is the most probable diagnosis?a)
b)
c)
d)

Turner syndrome
Stein-Leventhal syndrome
Premature ovarian failure
Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome

59. Women receiving oestrogen therapy have an

increased risk of developing all of the following
cancers, excepta) Breast cancer
b) Endometrial carcinoma
c) Carcinoma of gall bladder
d) Hepatocellular cercinoma
60. Which of the following is an example of disorders of
sex chromosomes?a) Marfans syndrome
b) Testicular feminization syndrome
c) Klinefelters syndome
d) Downs syndrome
61. Klinefelters syndrome is associated with
a) XXY genotype
b) Male habitus
c) Infertility
d) Azoospermia
e) ALL of the above
62. The genotype of a patient with Androgen insensitivity
syndrome is
a) 46XX
b) 46XY
c) 47XXY
d) 45X0
63. In testicular feminization, false isa) Sex orientation is female
b) The chromosome karyotype is 46XY
c) Testosterone in undetectable in the serum
d) Serum estrogen levels are high at puberty

64. Commonest cause of ambiguous genitalia in a 2 year

old child isa) Klinefelters syndrome
b) 21-hydroxylase deficiency
c) Mixed gondal dysgenesis
d) Testicular feminisation

65. Neurofibromatosis is associated witha) Papillary Ca

b) Islet cell tumour
c) Pheochromytoma
d) Glucagonoma
67. Which of the following endocrine tumors is most
commonly seen in MEN Ia) Insulinoma
b) Gastrinoma
c) Glucagonoma
d) Somato station ma
68. Pancreatitis, pituitary tumor and pheochromocytoma
may be associated with:
a) Medullary carcinoma of thyroid
b) Papillary carcinoma of thyroid
c) Anaplastic carcinoma of thyroid
d) Follicular carcinoma of thyroid
69. A 29 year old lady with h/o 2 child births, last baby
born 6 years ago. After that she did not have check
up. Now she present with skin pigmentation lethargy,
amenorrhea, coarse voice, cold intolerance, pruritus
and atrophic vagna. All are indicated in her treatment
bleeding PV except
a) Insulin
b) Prednisolone
c) T3
d) FSH
70. IDDM is found to be associated with all except :
a) SLE
b) Addisons disease
c) Hashimotos thyroiditis
d) None