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Microbiology

Basic Medical Science


Time: 40 mins

DOTES Entry Level Exam


Total Marks: 50 | Pass Marks: 30

Dominus Testimonium
Please use a dark pencil/pen to complete the test. Read the instructions at the
begining carefully. This is a Sample Test Paper for DOTES Entry Level Examination
toward DOTES Cert. Level A. This series contains questions in Microbiology. This is
an entry level examination to be eligible to appear for DOTE Certification Levels.

Please Note: There is a Negative Marking of (-1) for each incorrect response.
1. Mycosis infection that is caused due to minor trauma to the skin from thorns or
splinters:
A coccidioidomycosis

C blastomycosis

B actinomycetemcomitans

D chromoblastomycosis

2. Inclusion body which is diagnostic of Granuloma inguinale:


A Hansemann cells

C Medler bodies

B Donovan bodies

D Russell bodies

3. Which of the following is not true about Orthomyxovirus?


A belongs to family of RNA virus

C belongs to family of DNA virus

B causative agent of influenza

D picornavirus

4. Influenza virus A strain that was responsible for causing 1968-1969 pandemic
Hong Kong flu
A H3N2

C H2N2

B H1N1

D H3N8

5. Presence of which of the following inclusion bodies is diagnostic of Sarcoidosis?


A Schaumann bodies

C Michaelis-Gutmann bodies

B Mikulicz's cells

D Dutcher bodies

6. Match the following inclusion bodies with their characteristic diseases/disorders:


A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Heinz bodies
Cabots ring
acidophilic Cowdry Type A
basophilic Cowdry Type B
Warthin finkeldey bodies

Basic Medical Sciences

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
-1-

measles
adenovirus
herpes simplex virus
abnormal hemoglobin precipitation
megaloblastic anemia

Microbiology
7. Mechanism of action of erythromycin:
A blocking DNA biosynthesis

C blocking protein biosynthesis 30S


ribosome

B blocking cell wall biosynthesis

D blocking protein biosynthesis 50S


ribosome

8. Pick the incorrect statements about Osteocalcin


A collagenous protein in bone

C depends on Vitamin D

B serum levels indicate osteoblast


activities

D methods of detection is
immunoassay

9. Elevated levels of alkaline phosphatase (ALP) is found in


A viral hepatitis

C myocardial infarction

B obstructive jaundice

D muscular dystrophy

10. Elevated levels of leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP) is found in


A chronic lymphocytic leukaemia
(CLL)

C paroxysmal noctural
hemoglobinuria (PNH)

B aplastic anemia

D acute myelogenous leukaemia


(AML)

11. Infections which cause leukemoid reaction


A Epstein-Barr virus infection

C psittacosis

B histoplasmosis

D systemic lupus erythematosus

12. What is not true of strict (obligate) anaerobes?


A lack superoxide dismutase and
catalase

C Escherichia coli is an example of


strict anaerobe

B peptococcus anaerobius are


intolerant to oxygen

D gather at the bottom of a tube of


thioglycollate broth

13. Test tubes and glasswares are sterilized by


A autoclave

C moist heat sterilization

B pressure sterilization

D hot air oven

14. Rheological properties of food concerns with


A sterilization of food
B consistency, texture and fluidity of
food

Basic Medical Sciences

-2-

C preventing growth of bacteria and


fungi during preservation of food
D fortification and enrichment of food

Microbiology
15. Which of the following statements is not true regarding reoviruses?
A include rotaviruses which cause
gastroenteritis in humans

C icosahedral single stranded linear


RNA

B icosahedral double stranded


linear RNA

D belongs to flavivirus families


which cause dengue fever

16. What is true about rhabdoviruses?


A causative agent of Rat bite fever
B -adrenergic receptors act as host
cell surface protein viral receptor

C genome is linear double stranded


positive-sense RNA
D genome is linear single stranded
negative-sense RNA

17. What is not true about actinomycetes?


A fungi that closely resemble
bacteria

C form branching filaments and


hyphae

B have high G+C content in their


genome

D produce asexual spores or


conidiospores

18. Which of the following is true regarding madura mycosis?


A granulomatous infection of the
skin that involves bone and
muscles

C treatment of actinomycetoma is
primarily surgical

B maduramycosis due to bacteria is


caused by Leptosphaeria

D maduramycosis due to fungi is


caused by Nocardia

19. Pathogen which is an important cause of toxic shock syndrome:


A staphylococcus saprophyticus

C staphylococcus epidermidis

B staphylococcus aureus

D streptococcus viridans

20. Which of the following is a coagulase negative species?


A yersinia pestis

C staphylococcus epidermidis

B staphylococcus aureus

D staphylococcus intermedius

21. Pick the incorrect statements about N. gonorrheae


A human antibodies IgM are
directed against gonococcal
antigenic side chains

C unencapsulated gram-negative
non-motile diplococcus
D encapsulated gram-positive
motile diplococcus

B characterized by
lipopolysaccharide O antigenic
side chains

Basic Medical Sciences

-3-

Microbiology
22. Which of the following organisms produces a metal-independent IgA specific
serine endopeptidase?
A Streptococcus pneumoniae

C Haemophilus influenzae

B Neisseria gonorrhoeae

D all of the above

23. Match the incubation periods with their correct diseases:


A.
B.
C.

Mumps
Chicken pox
Measles

A. 9 - 12 days
B. 9 - 21 days
C. 14 - 18 days

D.
E.

Pertussis (Whooping cough)


Roseola

D. 7 - 14 days
E. 5 - 15 days

24. Gonococci has developed resistance against all of the following drugs except:
A quinolones

C ceftriaxone

B penicillin

D spectinomycin

25. Most common cause of non-gonococcal urethritis which is not caused by bacteria
A chlamydia trachomatis

C tichomonas vaginalis

B herpes simplex virus

D ureaplasma urealyticam

26. Typhoid fever is characterized by all of the following laboratory findings except:
A serum ALT:LDH ratio >9:1

C leukopenia

B increased ESR

D serum ALT:LDH ratio <9:1

27. Incubation period of dengue fever is


A 5 - 15 days

C 5 - 10 days

B 3 - 14 days

D 7 - 14 days

28. Drugs which can cause leukopenia


A lithium

C corticosteroids

B clozapine

D clonazepam

29. What is not true about Small pox (variola)?


A belongs to genus orthopoxviridae
B genome is linear double-stranded
DNA

Basic Medical Sciences

-4-

C genome is linear single-stranded


DNA
D presence of Guarnieri bodies

Microbiology
30. Which of the following is not true about inclusion bodies
A Levinthal-Coles-Lillie inclusion
bodies pathognomic of psittacosis

C Howell-Jolly bodies characteristic


of Molluscum contagiosum

B Torres bodies are characteristic of


Yellow fever

D represent sites of bacterial growth


and multiplication

31. Second most common malignancy in AIDS patients


A Kaposi's sarcoma

C Hodgkin's lymphoma

B Burkitt's lymphoma

D Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma

32. Which capsular antigen component of S. enterica serotype of S.typhi reduces the
expression of neutrophil chemoattractant in host cells?
A Pili antigen

C Flagellar antigen

B Vi antigen

D K5 capsular polysaccharide

33. Dane particle is characteristic of which Hepatitis virus?


A Hepatitis B

C Infectious hepatitis

B Hepatitis C

D Hepatitis D

34. What is the primary reason behind scarcity of neutrophils in intestines of patients
with typhoid fever?
A capsule mediated stimulation of
TLR dependent IL-10 production

C enhanced IL-8 production in


intestinal mucosa

B capsule mediated reduction of


TLR dependent IL-11 production

D depressed IL-8 production in


intestinal mucosa

35. Presence of anti HBe antibodies in patients indicates:


A patients have recovered from
hepatitis B infection

C late convalescence
D bad prognosis

B high infectivity

36. Which of the following statements is not true about Sphingomyelin?


A contains ceramide

C can serve as a precursor of


glycolipids

B phosphatidylethanolamine reacts
with ceramide to form
sphingomyelin

D essential component of myelin of


nerve fibers

37. Treatment of choice for hydatid cyst in liver


A thiabendazole

C albendazole

B praziquantel

D all of the above

Basic Medical Sciences

-5-

Microbiology
38. Match the following:
A.
B.
C.
D.

strongyloides stercoralis
schistosoma haematobium
schistosoma mansoni
clonorchis sinensis

A.
B.
C.
D.

urinary schistosomiasis
biliary obstruction and cholangitis
hyperinfection syndrome
intestinal schistosomiasis

39. Organ which is most commonly the site of hydatid cyst infection:
A peritoneum

C brain

B lungs

D liver

40. Which of the following is a treponemal blood test?


A TPHA

C USR test

B RPR

D VDRL

41. Helminthic autoinfections in humans is seen with


A Schistosoma mansoni

C Strongyloides stercoralis

B Enterobius vermicularis
42. Virus shedding does not occur in
A herpes zoster (VZV) infection

C herpes simplex viral infection

B rabies infection

D poliomyelitis infection

43. The most frequently used approach for the laboratory diagnosis of syphilis:
A Wasserman test

C VDRL

B MHA-TP test

D FTA-ABS

44. Drug that can be used for treatment of molluscum contagiosum:


A artemesinin

C salvinorin A

B calamine lotion

D cantharidin

45. Which of the following statements is/are incorrect about chicken pox virus?
A also called herpes simplex virus
type 1

C aspirin can be used to reduce


fever in chicken pox

B also called herpes virus type 3


(HHV-3)

D genome is linear dsRNA duplex

Basic Medical Sciences

-6-

Microbiology
46. Match the following pathogens (viruses) with the diseases they cause:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Human herpes virus type1


(HHV-1)
Varicella zoster virus (VZV)
Human pappiloma virus (HPV)
Human herpes virus type 2
(HHV-2)
Human herpes virus type 4
(HHV-4)

A. infectious mononucleosis
B. herpes gladiatorum
C. genital herpes
D. shingles
E. genital warts

47. A nontreponemal screening test for syphilis


A Wasserman test

C VDRL

B Kahn test

D TP particle agglutination assay


(TPPA)

48. Which of the following statements about mycobacterium is not true?


A anaerobic, motile,
nonencapsulated, nonsporing

C acid fast due to presence of


mycolic acid

B aerobic, nonmotile,
nonencapsulated, nonsporing

D catalase-positive test is used to


differentiate tubercle bacilli from
atypical mycobacteria

49. Which of the following parasites do not have an intermediate host (IH)?
A onchocerca volvulus

C ancyclostoma duodenale

B Ascaris lumbricoides

D Trichinella spiralis

50. Match the parasitic diseases with their mode of transmission:


A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Onchocerciasis
Strongyloidiasis
Opisthorchiasis
Taenia saginata
Taenia solium

Basic Medical Sciences

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

-7-

uncooked fish
uncooked pork
uncooked beef
through skin
bite of black fly Simulium

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