ANATOMY & PHYSIOLOGY OF BONE

AND FRACTURE HEALING

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True about Osteoclast is all except - (PGI June 2K)

a) Derived from monocytes
b) Stimulated by PTH
c) Phagocytosis o f foreign bodies
d) Resporption o f bone
Major mineral of the bone is (A IM S M ay 10)
a) Calcite
b) Hydroxyapatite
c) Calcium oxide
d) Calcium carbonate
Bone apposition is best in (AIIMS Nov 01)
a) Osteoblastic activity at the area o f stress
b) Endochondral ossification
c) Subperiosteal cambium layer
d) Osteoblastic activity in howships lacunae
Regarding bone remodelling, all are true except a) Osteoclastic activity at the compression site
b) Osteoclastic activity at the tension site
c) Osteoclastic activity and osteoblastic activity are
both needed for bone remodelling in cortical and
cancellous bones
(A IIM SN ov 01)
d) Osteoblasts transforms into osteocytes
Which of the changes occur in bone growth a) Increased acid phosphatase
(AIIM S Dee 97)
b) Increased urinary calcium
c) Increased bone nucleotidase
d) Increased osteocalcin
Indicators of bone formation includes all of following
except(A107, 11)
a) Osteocalcin
b) Alkaline phosphatase
c) Hydroxyproline
d)Type 1 procollegen
Bone resorption markers are (PGI June 08)
a) Serum propeptide o f type I procollagen
b) Osteocalcin
c) Urine total free deoxypyridinoline
d) Free glutamic acid cross linkage
Rate of newly synthesized osteoid mineralization can
be best estimated by (A1 09)
a) Tetracycl ine labeling
b) Alizarin red stain
c) Calcein stain
d) Van kossa stain
Bone formation markers (PGI Dec. 07)
a) Procollagen-I
b) Alkaline phosphatase
c) Hydroxyappetite
d) Calcitonin
e) TRAP
Adult bone trabeculae are differentiated from foetal
bone trabeculae histologically by the presence of a) Haversian system
(DPG Mar. 09)
b) Lamellar structure
c) Certain special staining characteristics
d) Different types o f bone cells in each
Direct impact on the bone will produce a a) Transverse fracture
(AIIMS M ay 03)
b) Oblique fracture
c) Spiral fracture
d) Communited fracture

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The one most consistent sign o f fresh fracture is a) Crepitus

b) Bony tenderness (PGI 97)
c) Deformity
d) Abnormal mobility
e) Shortening o f bone
Pathognomonic sign of traumatic fracture is a) Redness
b) Swelling
(JIPMER 98)
c) Crepitus
d) Tenderness
Pathologic fracture can occur in all except-(PGIDec. 05)
a) Metabolic bone disease b) Osteosarcoma
c) Osteochondroma
d) Bone cyst
e) Fluorosis
Pathological # is seen in following except a) Radiation
b) Anaemia
(PGI June 2K)
c) O steoporosis
d) Osteomalacia
Stress fracture not involves(PGI 00)
a) M etatarsals
b) Metacarpals
c) Tibia
d)Calcaneum
The usual site of stress fracture includes -(TN 93)
a) Tibia
b) First metacarpal bone
c) Second metacarpal bone
d) Second metatarsal bone
Commonest site of m arch# is (PGI June 2K)
a) Involves shaft o f 2 & 3rd metatarsals
b) Avulsion # o f 5th metatarsals
c) Calcaneus involved
d) Olecranon involved
What is March fracture?
(PGI 99, NEET/DNB
a) Fracture o f 2nd metatarsal
Pattern)
b) Fracture o f 4* metatarsal
c) Fracture o f cuboids
d) Fracture o f tibia
An army recruit, smoker and 6 months into training
started complaining of pain at posteromedial aspect
of both legs. There was acute point tenderness and
the pain was aggravated on physical activity. The
most likely diagnosis is (A I04)
a) Beargers disease
b) Gout
c) Lumbar canal stenosis d) Stress fracture
All of the following factors facilitate nonunion
except (AI 97)
a) Haematoma formation
b) Periosteal injuries
c) Absence o f nerve supply d) Chronic infection
Initial stage of clinical union o f bone is equivalent
to(BIHAR 90)
a) Callus formation
b) Woven bone
c) Haematoma formation d) Calcification only
e) None o f the above
Factors that promotes callus formation -(PGIDec.03)
a) Micromovements between the fracture fragments
b) Appropriate approximation o f the fragments
c) Muscle interposed in between the fracture fragment
d) Early initiation o f mobilization
e) Ischemia

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Callus inducion is hampered in (PG IJune 06)

a) Hypoxemia
b) Fractured fragments o f bone
c) Micromovements
d) Muscle interposition in between fractured fragments
e) Early mobilization
Healing o f# of bone is affected b y - (PGI Dec 07)
a) Micromovement
b) M uscle interposition
c) Hypoxia
d) Bone fragments
True about fracture healing except a) N utrition affects healing (NEET/DNB Pattern)
b) Stable fixation promotes healing
c) Compression at fracture site causes nonunion
d) Hormonal status may affect healing
Non- union is a complication of - (AlIMSJune 98
a) Scaphoid #
NEET/DNB Pattern)
b) Colies #
c) Inter-trochanteric# o f hip
d) Supracondylor # o f the humerus
The following fractures are known for Non-union
except (DNB 90, UP 02)
a) F racturc o f lower h alf o f tibia
b) Fracture o f neck o f femur
c) Fracture o f scaphoid
d) Fracture o f patella
e) Supracondylar fracture o f humerus
In some old fractures, cartilaginous tissue forms
over the fractured bone ends with a cavity in between
containing clear fluid. This condition is called as a) Delayed union
b) Slow union
(AI04)
c) Nonunion
d) Pseudoarthrosis

SHOULDER AND ARM INJURIES

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Rotator interval is between - (MAHE 05, AIIM S 06,

a) Supraspinatus & teres m onor
Jipm er 02)
b) Teres major & teres minor
c) Supraspinatus & subcapsularis
d) Subscapularis & infraspinatus
Most common muscle damaged in rotator cuff a) Supraspinatus
(NEET/DNB Pattern)
b) Infraspinatus
c) Subscapularis
d) Teres minor
Lift o ff test is done to assess the function o f a) Supraspinatus
b) Infraspinatus ( A I 10)
c) Teres minor
d) Subscapularis
A person is able to abduct his arm, internally rotate
it, place the back of hand on the lumbosacral joint,
but is not able to lift it from back. W hat is the
Etiology?
a) Subscapularis tendon tear
(AIIMS Nov 10)
b) Teres m ajor tendon tear
c) Long head o f biceps tendon tear
d) Acromioclavicularjt. dislocation

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Most common joint to undergo recurrent dislocation

is (AI 97, AIIM S 97, NEET/DNB Pattern)
a) Shoulder joint
b) Patella
c) Knee joint
d) Hip joint
Uncomplicated shoulder dislocation most commonly
occurs in the following direction (NEET/DNB
a) Anterior
b) Posterior
Pattern)
c) Superior
d) Medially
A 20-years old male presents with anterior shoulder
dislocation. This injury is usually caused as a
combination of which of the following a) Abduction & external rotation
(AIIMS Nov II)
b) Adduction & external rotation
c) Abduction & internal rotation
d) Adduction & internal rotation
Anterior dislocation of shoulder is most commonly
complicated by - (PGI 97, AIIMS 95, A I 97, 96 NEET/
a) Axillary artery injury
DNB Pattern)
b) Circumflex nerve injury
c) Recurrent dislocation
d) Axillary nerve injury
Following anterior dislocation of the shoulder, a pt
develops weakness of flexion at elbow and lack of
sensation over the lateral aspect forearm; nerve
injured is (AI 01, AIIM S 99)
a) Radial nerve
b) Musculocutanous nerve
c) Axillary nerve
d) Ulnar nerve
The lesions associated with recurrent dislocation
of shoulder include all, except - (AIIM S May 06)
a) Hill-Sachs lesion
b) Bankarts lesion
c) Capsular laxity
d) Supraspinatus tear
Bankarts lesion is seen at (AIIMS June 2K)
a) Post surface o f glenoid labrum
b) Ant surface o f glenoid labrum
c) Ant part o f head o f humerus
d) Post part o f head o f humerus
Bankarts lesion involves t h e __of the glenoid
labrum(AIIMS Nov 06)
a) Anterior lip
b) Superior lip
c) Antero-superior lip
d) Antero-inferior lip
Hill sachs lesion is most commonly seen ina) Recurrent shoulder dislocation
(NEET/DNB
b) Posterior shoulder dislocation
Pattern)
c) Fracture neck o f humrus
d) Anterior shoulder dislocation
A 6 year old boy has a history o f recurrent
dislocation of the right shoulder. On examination,
the orthopedician puts the patient in the supine
position and abducts his arm to 90 degrees with the
bed as the fulcrum and then externally rotates it but
the boy does not allow the test to be performed. The
test done by the orthopedician is - (AIIMS May 01)
a) A pprehension test
b) Sulcus test
c) D ugas'test
d) MC M urrays test

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Traumatic glenohumeral instability on one direction

with Bankarts lesion are treated by a) Conservative methods
(NIMHANS 03)
b) Surgery
c) Rehabilitation
d) Observation followed by inferior capsule shift
W hich is true regarding shoulder dislocation a) Posterior dislocation is often over-looked
b) Pain is severe in anterior dislocation
c) R adiography m ay be m isleading in posterior
dislocation
(SG P G I02, N1MHANS 99)
d) All o f the above
A 24-yar old male, known epileptic, presented
following a seizure with pain in the right shoulder
region. Examination revealed that the right upper
limb was adducted and internally rotated and the
movements could not be performed. Which o f the
following is the most likely diagnosis - (DPG 10)
a) Posterior dislocation o f shoulder
b) Luxatio erecta
c) Intrathoracic dislocation o f shoulder
d) Subglenoid dislocation o f shoulder
Posterior glenohumeral instability can be tested
by(AIIM S M ay 10, 09)
a) Jerk test
b) Crank test
c) Fulcrum test
d) Sulcus test
Follow ing statem ent regarding dislocation of
shoulder are true except(KA 97)
a) Head o f humerus usually dislocates forward from
shoulder joint
b) Injury is produced by forced extension & external
rotation o f abducted arm
c) In posterior dislocation, appearance o f shoulder
is not normal
d) None o f the above
Common injury to baby is(CMC 02)
a) Fracture humerus
b) Fracture clavicle
c) Fracture scapula
d) Fracture femur
True about fracture clavicle is(PGI 97)
a) M alunion
b) M ost common site is medial l/3 rd & 273rd
c) Comminuted fracture
d) Due to fall on outstretched hand
True statement regarding fracture o f clavicle is a) Most common complication is malunion (AI2K)
b) Occurs at the jn. o f medial l/3 rd& lateral 2/3 1*1
c) Usually occurs due to fall on elbow
d) Communitted fracture is common
All are TRUE about clavicle, e\ccpt-(AJIMS May 93)
a) No treatment required for fracture but rest
b) Breaks at mid point
c) First bone to ossify
d) Ossifies in membrane
The most common bone fractured during birth a) Clavicle
b) Scapula
(MP 98)
c) Radius
d) Humerus

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Proximal humerus fracture which has maximum

' chances o f av ascular necrosis (NEET/DNB
a) One part
b) Two part
Pattern)
c) Three part
d) Four part
Treatment of choice in 65 year old female with
impacted # neck of humerus is - (AIIM S June 99,
a) Triangular sling
PG12K, UP 2K)
b) Arm chest strapping
c) Arthroplasy
d) Observation
Most common nerve involvement in fracture surgical
neck humerus (AI02, AIIM S Dec 97)
a) Axillary nerve
b) Radial nerve
c) Ulnar nerve
d) M edian nerve
A bo v fell down from a tree and has fracture of neck
of humerus. He cannot raise his arm because of the
involvement of (A I 2K)
a) Axillary nerve
b) Supraspinatus nerve
c) M usculocutaneous nerve
d) Radial nerve
Which of the following movements will be affected if
the greater tubercle of the humerus is lost a) Abduction and lateral rotation (AIIM S Nov 2K)
b) Adduction and flexion
c) Adduction and medial rotation
d) Flexion and medial rotation
Hanging cast is used in (AIIMS Dec 95)
a) # Femur
b) # Radius
c) # Tibia
d) # Humerus
Nerve commonly involved in fracture distal shaft of
the Humerus (NEET/DNB Pattern)
a) Radial nerve
b) Medial
c) Ulnar
d) Circumflex brachial nerve

ELBOW INJURIES
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Three bony point relationship is m aintained

in '
(AIIM S Dec 95, 93, Nov 91)
a) Supracondylar # humerus b) Dislocation o f elbow
c) # Lateral condyle
d) Intercondylar #
T hree p oin t rela tio n sh ip is reversed in all,
except (AIIMS June 2K, 91)
a) # Medial epicondyle
b) # Lateral epicondyle
c) Supracondylar #
d) Intercondylar #
3 point symmetry is not disturbed in which fracturea) Fracture ulna only
(AIIM S M ay 93)
b) Fracture radius only
c) Fracture o f radius & ulna both bones o f forearm
d) Weak posterior capsule
After falling from a height, a child lands on his fully
out stretched hands. On examination there is pain
and swelling over his right elbow. Give your probable
diagnosis (AIIM S Nov 2K)
a) Fracture olecranon
b) Post dislocation o f elbow
c) Supra condylar fracture o f humerus
d) Fracture both bones forearm

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Complications of supracondylar fracture of humerus

are all except (PGI Dec 05)
a) Elbow stiffness
b) Malunion
c) Nonunion
d) M yositis ossification
e) Gun-Stock deformity
A ll o f th e fo llo w in g are c o m p lic a tio n s o f
supracondylar fracture o f humerus in children,
except (AIIM S M ay 06)
a) Compartment syndrome b) Myositis ossificans
c) Malunion
d) N onunion
Volkmanns contracture, which artery is involveda) Radial
b) Brachial
(NEET/DNB Pattern)
c) Ulnar
d) lnterosseus
The malunion o f supracondylar fracture o f the
humerus most commonly leads to - (AIIMSM ay 06)
a) Flexion deformity
b) Cubitus varus
c) Cubitus valgus
d) Extension deformity
The most common complication of supracondylar
fracture is (PGI 97, AIIM S 97)
a) Osteosarcoma
b) Genu valgum
c) Blood vessel injury
d) Volkmanns ischaemic contracture
e) Malunion with gun stock deformity
Cabitus varus is most commonly seen in a) Rickets
(A l 94, NEET/DNB Pattern)
b) Post inflammatory epiphyseal damage
c) Fracture lateral condyle humerus
d) M alunited supracondylar fracture
Most commonly injured nerve in supracondylar
fracture of humerus (A 1 11)
a) Median
b) Ulnar
c) Radial
d) Anterior interosseus nerve
Which complication may arise after supracondylar
fracture (PGI 95)
a) Median nerve injury b) Damage to brachial arteiy
c) Cubitus varus
d) All o f the above
A 10-year-old boy presenting with a cubitus varus
deformity and a history of trauma 3 months back,
on clinical examination has the preserved 3 bony
point relationship of the elbow. The most probable
diagnosis is (A l 94, AIIM S 94, M ay 04)
a) Old unreduced dislocation o f elbow
b) Non-union lateral condylar fracture o f humerus
c) M alunited intercondylar fracture o f humerus
d) M alunited supracondylar fracture o f humerus
All of the following are associated with supracondylar
fracture of humerus, except(A102,NEET/DNB
a) It is uncommon after 15 yrs o f age
Pattern)
b) Extension type fracture is more common than the
flexion type
c) C u b itu s varus d e fo rm ity co m m o n ly resu lts
following malunion
d) Ulnar nerve is most commonly involved

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Supracondylar fracture is usually caused by a) Hyperflexion injury

(MAHE 02, S G P G I01)
b) Axial rotation
c) Extension injury
d) Hyperextension injury
Cubitus-valgus deformity is complication of a) # Lateral condyle o f humerus (AIIMS June 97)
b) # Intercondylar o f humerus
c) # o f the olecranon
d) # Head o f the radius
All true regarding fracture lateral condyle humerus
except (PGI 93, Jipm er 98)
a) Salter Harris type IV injury
b) Most common complication o f surgically treated
cases is cubitus valgus deformity
c) Tardy ulnar nerve palsy occurs
d) Cubitus varus occur more commonly than valgus
e) Open rudction & internal fixation
M ost common com plication o f lateral condyle
humerus fracture (NEET/DNB Pattern)
a) Malunion
b) Nonunion
c) VIC
d) M edian nerve injury
Tardy ulnar nerve palsy caused by - (PGI June 02)
a) Supracondylar #
b) Lateral condylar #
c) Olecranon #
d) Intercondylar #
e) Distal radio-ulnar dislocation
Tardy ulnar nerve palsy seen in - (AIIM SD ec 98)
a) Medial condyle # humerus
b) Lateral condyle # humerus
c) Supracondylar condyle # humerus
d) Fracture shaft humerus
A 6 -year old child has an accident and had # elbow,
after 4 years presented with tingling and numbness
in the ulnar side o f finger, fracture is a) Supracondylar # humerus
(AIIM S June 99)
b) Lateral condylar # humerus
c) Olecranon #
d) Dislocation o f elbow
A 12-year-old child presents with tingling sensation
and numbness in the little finger and gives history
of fracture in the elbow region 4 years back. The
probable fracture is a) Lateral condyle fracture humerus
b) Injury to ulnar nerve
c) Supracondylar fracture humerus
d) Dislocation o f elbow
A patient sustained injury to the upper limb 3 yrs
back; he now presents with valgus deformity in the
elbow and paresthesias over the medial border of
the hand. The injury is likely to have been - (AI01)
a) Supracondylar # humerus
b) Lateral condyle # humerus
c) Medial condyle # humerus
d) Posterior dislocation o f the humerus

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Pulled elbow is fPG I 94)

a) A sprain o f extensor tendons
b) Dislocation o f head o f radius
c) Fracture o f lateral condyle o f humerus
d) Dislocation o f elbow
Pulled elbow means (NEET/DNB Pattern)
a) Fracture o f head o f radius
b) Subluxation o f head o f radius
c) Fra,cture dislocation o f elbow
d) Fracture ulna
A 30 years old male comes to ortho emergency with
his 3 years old daughter who is crying. The father
gives the history of child being swung by forearm.
The most probable diagnosis is - (A I IMS 01, TN 02)
a) Supracondylar humerus fracture
b) Elbow dislocation
c) Stress fracture
d) Pulled elbow
A one and a half year old child holding her fathers
hand slipped and fell but did not let go of her fathers
hand. After that she continued to cry and hold the
forearm in pronated position and refused to move
the affected exremity. W hich o f the following
management of this stage is most appropriate a) Supinate the forearm
(AIIMS Nov 04)
b) Examine the child under GA
c) Elevate the limb and observe
d) Investigate for osteomyelitis
A 3 year old girl has developed painful elbow after
being jerked by the forearm. The next thing to be
done is (AIIM S 93, A M U 99, Jipm er 01)
a) C uff & collar sling immobilization
b) Reduction setting and AEPOP application
c) X-ray and elevation o f limb in posterior slab
d) Fully supinate the forearm
A child is spinned around by holding his hand by his
father. W hile doing this the child started crying
and does not allow his father to touch his elbow. The
diagnosis is (AIIMS M ay 01)
a) Pulled elbow
b) Radial head dislocation
c) Annular ligament tear
d) Fracture olecranon process
Commonest dislocation of dbov>-(NEET/DNB Pattern)
a) Anterior
b) Posterior
c) Both same
d) Medial
Deformity in posterior elbow dislocation- (NEET/
a) Flexion
b) Extension
DNB Pattern)
c) Both
d) None
In posterior dislocation o f elbow, most prominent
part(NEET/DNB Pattern)
a) Coronoid
b) Radial head
c) Olecranon
d) None

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W hat is seen on x-ray w ith p osterior elbow

dislocation (NEET/DNB Pattern)
a) Coronoid process posterior to humerus
b) Coronoid process anterior to humerus
c) Coronoid process below humerus
d) None
AH are common with elbow dislocation, except a) Myositis ossificans progressiva (DELHIPG Feb. 09)
b) Median Nerve Palsy
c) Brachial artery injury
d) Volkmanns contracture
Most common elbow injury' in adolescents is-(Al 90,
a) Dislocation
A M U 97, UP 01)
b) Physeal injury
c) Supracondylar fracture
d) Olecranon fracture
An oblique # of olecranon. If displaced proximally.
The treatment is (AIIMS SP 96)
a) Excision & resuturing
b) Tension band wiring
c) Elbow is immobilized by cast
d) Open reduction & external fixation
In fracture of the olecronon, excision of the proximal
fragment is indicated in all of the following situation
except (A l 04)
a) Old ununited fracture
b) Non-articular fracture
c) Fracture extending to coronoid process
d) Elderly patient
Open reduction is not required in which fracture a) Patella
(AIIM SM ay 95)
b) Outer 1/3 o f radius head
c) Condyle o f humerus
d) Olecranon displaced #
Excision of head of radius in a child should not be
done because(Jipmer 01)
a) It produces instability o f elbow joint
b) It leads to secondary osteoarthritis o f elbow
c) It causes subluxation o f inferior radio-ulnar joint
d) It causes myositis ossificans
If head of the radius is removed, it will result
in (PG! 91)
a) Lengthening o f limb
b) Valgus deformity
c) Varus deformity
d) No deformity

FOREARM . WRIST AND HAND INJURIES

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Fracture of both bone forearm at same level, position

o f the arm in plaster is (AIIMS June 99)
a) Full supination
b) 10 degree supination
c) Full pronation
d) Mid- prone
Most common fracture in t\&e.r\\-(NEET/DNBPattern)
a) TCNF
b) Colies fracture
c) IT fracture
d) Supracondylar fracture

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Following displacem ent seen in C olles fractue

EXCEPT(AIIMS June 97)
a) Dorsal tilt
b) Ventral tilt
c) Dorsal displacement
d) Lateral displacement
104. All of the following can be the complications of a
malunited Colies fracture except (AI 04)
a) Rupture o f flexor pollicis longus tendon
b) Reflex sympathetic dystrophy (RSD)
c) Carpal tunnel syndrome
d) Carpal instability
105. Most common complication of Colics #- Karri 00, AI95
a) Malunion 97, AIIMS M ay 95,>NEET/DNB Pattern)
b) Avascular necrosis
c) Finger stiffness
d) Rupture o f EPL tendon
106. Dinner fork deformity is seen in a) Colles fracture
(NEET/DNB Pattern)
b) March fracture
c) Lateral condyle fracture
d) Supracondylar fracture
107. Which tendon gets involved in Colles fracture?
a) Abductor pollicis longus
(Rohtak 97, WB 99)
b) Extensor pollicis brevis
c) Extensor pollicis longus
d) All the above
108. Complication of C olles fracture include all of the
following except (AI 98, 96)
a) Malunion
b) Nonunion
c) Sudecks osteodystrophy
d) Rupture o f EPL tendon
109. Not a complication of Colies fracture - (JIPMER 00)
a) Stiffness o f wrist
b) Stiffness o f shoulder
c) Carpal tunnel syndrome d) Wrist drop
110. Seen in Colies # A/E (AIIMS May 95)
a) Proximal shift
b) Dorsal tilt
c) Lateral tilt
d) Pronation
111. In colies fracture not seen is (AI 97)
a) Proximal impaction
b) Lateral rotation
c) Dorsal angulation
d) Medial rotation
112. Smith's fracture involves which bone- (NEET/DNB
a) Distal radius
b) Proximal ulna Pattern)
c) M etatarsal
d) Patella
113. Management ofSm ithsfracture is(AI 94)
a) Open reduction and fixation
b) Plaster cast with forearm in pronation
c) Closed reduction with below - elbow cast
d) Above- elbow cast with forearm in supination
114. All are injuries of lower end o f radius except a) Smiths fracture
(PGI 95, TN -98)
b) Colles fracture
c) Night stick fracture
d) Bartons fracture

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W hat is the most common injury sustained due to

fall on out-streched hand by a person aged 65 years?
a) Colles fracture
(UPSC I I 10)
b) Supracondylar fracture
c) Shoulder dislocation
d) Fracture o f metacarpals
Fracture scaphoid is usually seen in (PGI 95)
a) Elderly male
b) Elderly postmenopausal female
c) Young active adult
d) Children
Most common site of scaphoid fracture is - (A197)
a) W aist
b) Proximal fragment
c) Distal fragment
d) Tilting o f the lunate
In children fracture scaphoid is though rare but
usually involves (JIPMER 98, AIIM S 92)
a) Waist
b) Proximal poie
c) Neck
d) Distal pole
Which one of the following statements is not correct
regarding fracture of the scaphoid (UPS 01)
a) It is the m ost commonly fractured carpal bone
b) Persistent tenderness in the anatomical sunffbox
is highly suggestive o f fracture
c) Immediate X-ray o f hand may not reveal fracture
line
d) Malunion is a frequent complication
The commonly inured carpal bone next to scaphoid
is (NB 91)
a) Triquetrum
b)Trapezoid
c) Lunate
d) Capitate
e) Hamate
The most common nerve involvement is dislocation
of Lunate is (UP 98)
a) Median nerve
b) Anterior interosseus
c) Posterior interosseus d) Ulnar nerve
Which carpal bone fracture causes median nerve
involvement?
(1VIMS 2000)
a) Scaphoid
b) Lunate
c) Trapezium
d)Trapeziod
Which of the following statement(s) is/are true?
a) Oedema & tenderness over the anatomical snuffbox
is the pathognomonic featues o f Fracture o f the
scaphoid
(PGI 92)
b) Normally the radial styloid is A lower than the ulnar
c) Dinner fork deformity is charateristic of Colles fracture
d) All o f the above

HAND INJURY
124.

True regarding mallet linger is - (AIIM SN ov 00)

a) Avulsion o f tendon at the base o f the middle
phalanx
b) Avulsion o f extensor tendon at the base o f the
distal phalanx
c) Fracture o f distal phalanx
d) Fracture o f the proximal phalanx

125.

126.

127.

128.

129.

130.

131.

132.

A 30 year old man involved in a fisticuff, injured

his middle finger and noticed slight flexion of DTP
joint. X-ray were normal. The most appropriate
management at this stage is (AIIMS Nov 04)
a) Ignore
b) Splint the finger in hyperextension
c) Surgical repair o f the flexor tendon
d) Buddy strapping
M allet finger is due to avulsion of extensor tendon
o f(PG I Dec 01)
a) Proximal phalanx
b) Middle phalanx
c) Distal phalanx
d) M etacarpals
e) Any other phalanx
Bennetts fracture is fracture dislocation of base
of metacarpal (M H 10, P G I 00, UP 88)
a) 4th
b) 3rd
c) 2nd
d) I s1
During fixation of Bennetts fracture, which muscle
hinders it (Karri 99, A IIM S M ay 94. PG I 92)
a) Extensor pollicis brevis
b) Flexor pollicis brevis
c) Flexor pollicis longus
d) Abductor pollicis longus
One o f the common fractures that occur during
boxing by hitting with a closed fist is - (NEET/DNB
a) Monteggia fracture dislocation
Pattern)
b) Galeazzi fracture dislocation
c) Bennetts fracture dislocation
d) Smiths fracture
Game Keepers thumb is (PGI 92, KA 95)
a) Ulnar collateral ligament injury o f MCP Joint
b) Radial collateral ligament injury o f MCP joint
c) Radial collateral ligament injury o f CMC joint
d) Ulnar collateral ligament injury o f CMC joint
A cricketer holds a catch and then presents with
pain at the base o f the right thumb. He should be
examined to specifically rule out damage to which of
the following structure (AIIMS Nov II)
a) Extensor pollicis brevis
b) Abductor pollicis longus
c) Volar plate
d) Ulnar collateral ligament
In hand surgery which area is called no mans land a) Proximal phalanx
(AIIMS Nov 00)
b) Distal phalanx
c) Between distal phalanx crease and proximal phalaax
d) Wrist

134.

135.

136.

137.

138.

139.

FRACTURE NECK FEMUR

140.

141.

PELVIS & HIP INJURIES

133.

True about Crescent fracture is - (AIIM S May 09)

a) Anteroposterior instability with rotational stability
b) Diastasis o f pubis with pubic rami fracture
c) Antero-posterior compression is the mechanism
o f injury
d) Fracture o f the iliac bone with sacroiliac disruption

All of the following areas are commonly involved

sites in pelvic fracture except (AI 05)
a) Pubic rami
b)Alae o f ilium
c) Acetabulum
d) Ischial tuberosities
Jum pers fracture is seen in (PGI 97)
a) Calcaneum
b) Tibia
c) Pelvis
d) Neck femur
If a patient with a suspected fracture of the pelvis has
some bleeding from the urethra and is unable to pass
urine (UPSC 97)
a) He should be encouraged to pass urine after being
given antibiotics and analgesics
b) He should be immediately catheterized in the ward
c) A hot water bottle should be given followed by
injection o f corbachoi
d) He sh o u ld be p re p a re d fo r su rg e ry and
catheterization attempted in the O.T
Late complication of Acetabular fracture- (PGI 97)
a) Avascular necrosis o f head o f femur
b) Avascular necrosis o f lilac crest
c) Fixed defonnity o f the hip joint
d) Secondary osteoarthritis o f hip joint
In Fracture acetabulum, late complication is a) Osteoarthritis
(DELHI 94)
b) Tardy sciatic nerve palsy
c) Recurrent Dislocation
d) None o f the above
Kocher Langenbeck approach for em ergency
acetabular fixation is done in all Except a) Open fracture
(AIIMS M ay 09)
b) Progressive sciatic nerve injury
c) Recurrent dislocation inspite o f closed reduction
and traction
d) Morel - Lavallee lesion

142.

An elderly woman was admitted with a fracture of the

neck o f right femur which failed to unite. On
examination an avascular necrosis o f the head of
femur was noted. The condition would have resulted
most probably from the damage to - (AIIMS Nov. 03)
a) Superior gluteal artery
b) Inferior gluteal artery
c) Acetabular branch o f obturator
d) Retinacular branches o f circumflex femoral arteries
Main blood supply to the head and neck of femur
comes from (A l II)
a) Lateral circumflex femoral Artery
b) Medial circumflex femoral Artery
c) Artery o f Ligamentum Teres
d) Popliteal Artery
Increase in Pauwels angle indicate a) Good prognosis
(SG P G I00, MAHE 2K)
b) Impaction
c) More chances o f displacement
d) Trabecular alignment disrupted

143.

Garden -I fractures are also known as - (Assam 97,

a) Complete fracture without displacement UP 03)
b) C o m p le te fra c tu re w ith m in im al (p a rtia l)
displacement
c) Complete fracture with full displacement
d) Valgus impaction fractures
144. Which of the following describes grade 2 fracture
neck femur?
(NEET/DNB Pattern)
a) Incomplete fracture, medial trabeculae intact
b) Complete fracture with undisplaced neck
c) Complete fracture with ischemic head
d) Moderate displacement o f neck, vascularity damaged
145. Occult fracture o f neck femur are best diagnosed
by (SG P G I03,A IIM S SR 06)
a) Bone Scan
b) MR1
c) X-ray
d) CT scan
146. Commonest complication o f Trans-cervical fracture
o f femur is (NEET/DNB Pattern)
a) Non union
b) Malunion
c) Avascular necrosis
d) All o f the above
147. The most common site of fracture neck of femur that
causes avascular necrosis is - (DNB 00, AM U 97, AI
a) Sub-capital
b) Intertrochanteric 96)
c) Trans-cervical
d) Basal
148. AVN is seen in which type o f# o f fe m ur-fPGI.fune08)
a) Intertrochantric #
b) Subcapital #
c) Trans cervical #
d) B asal#
149. Avascular necrosis of head of the femur is most
common in (AIIM S Feb 97, A 1 96)
a) Subcapital #
b) Basal #
c) Fracture intertrochantric
d) Transcervical fracture
150. AVN of femoral head is most common ina) Intracapsuiar fracture neck o f femur
b) Extracapsular fracture neck o f femur
c) Subtrochanteric fracture (NEET/DNB Pattern)
d) Fracture shaft humerus
151. Avascular necrosis is the commonest in one of the
following fracture(DPG 10)
a) Garden 1 and 2 fracture o f femoral neck
b) Garden 3 and 4 fracture o f femoral neck
c) Sub-trochanteric fracture o f femoral neck
d) Baso-trochanteric fracture
152. Treatment of choice in fracture neck o f femur in a
40 year old male presenting after 2 days is - (AI96)
a) Hemiarthroplasty
b) C lo se d re d u c tio n and In te rn a l fix a tio n by
cancellous screws
c) Closed reduction and Internal fixation by Austin
Moore pins
d) Plaster and rest
153. A 50 years male with fracture neck of femur comes
after 3 days, treatment of choice is -(AIIMS June 99)
a) Hemiarthroplasty
b) Total hip replacement
c) Hip spika
d) CR & IF

154.

155.

156.

157.

158.

159.

160.

161.

Treatment of choice for one week old fracture neck

femur at 65 years age is (AIIMS 98, UPSC 97,
a) Hemi-replacement arthroplasty
A I 94)
b) C lo se d re d u c tio n and itn ern a! fix a tio n by
cannulated cancellous screws
c) Closed reductionand internal Fixation by Austin
more pins
d) Total hip replacement
Best treatment for fracture neck femur is a 65 year
old lady is (AIIMS Dec 94)
a) POP cast
b) Gleotomy
c) Bone grafting and compression
d) Hemireplacement arthroplasty
In the case of a 70 year old lady with intracapsuiar
fracture of the neck o f femur, the ideal treatment
would b e (AMU 00)
a) Closed traction
b) Hemiarthropalsty
c) Internal fixation with nail
d) internal fixation with nail and plate
Femoral neck fracture of three weeks old in a young
adult should be best treated by one of the following a) Total hip replacement
b) Reduction o f fracture and femoral osteotomy with
head
c) Prosthetic replacement o f femoral head
d) Reduction o f fracture and multiple pin or screw
fixation
e) Upper femoral displacement osteotomy
In 65 year old male with history of fracture neck of
femur 6 weeks old,treatment of choice - (AIIMS 94)
a) SP nailing
b) Me Murrays osteotomy
c) Hemiarthroplasty
d) None
Prosthesis at head of femur applied in (UP 98)
a) 40 years young male with if- head o f femur
b) 40 years young male with # neck o f femur
c) 40 years young male with posterior dislocation
o f hip
d) 65 years old male with nonunited fracture neck of
femur
Prosthetic replacement o f femoral head is usually
indicated for(PGI 90)
a) Fresh intracapsuiar fracture head o f femur in old
patients
b) Fresh intracapsuiar fracture o f femoral neck in a
young adult
c) Unreduced posterior dislocation o f hip
d) Untreated femoral neck fracture in a patient over
65 years
e) P a th o lo g ica l fe m o ral neck fra c tu re due to
secondaries
Trochanteric fracture o f femur is best treated by a) Dynamic hip screw
(PGI 93)
b) Inlay plates
c) Plaster in abduction
d) Plaster in abduction and internal rotation

162.

163.

164.

165.

166.

167.

168.

Most common complication o f intertrochanteric

fracture femur is (A l 98)
a) M alunion
b) Nonunion
c) Osteoarthritis
d) Nerve injury
A 60- years old man fell in bathroom and was
unable to stand, on right buttock region echymosis
with external rotation of the leg and lateral border of
foot touching the bed. The most probable diagnosis
is a) Extracapsular fracture neck o f femur
b) Anterior dislocation o f hip
c) Intracapsular fracturc neck o f femur
d) Posterior dislocation o f hip
80 years old female after fall developed inability to
walk with external rotation deformity, on examination
SLR is not possible and broadening of the GT and
lateral border of foot touching the bed. The most
probable diagnosis is (P G I93. AM U 96)
a) # Neck femur
b) # Intertrochanteric femur
c) # Subtrochanteric femur
d) # Greater trochanter
A women aged 60 yrs suffers a fall; her lower limb is
extended and externally rotated; likely diagnosis isa) Neck o f femur #
(AIIMS 98, PGI 95)
b) Intertrochanteric fem ur#
c) Posterior dislocation o f hip
d) Anterior dislocation o f hip
The commonest hip injury in the elderly patients is a) Stress#
b) Extracapsular #
c) Im pacted# neck o f femur
d) Subcapital capsular fracture neck o f femur
Prosthetic replacement of femoral head is indicated
for one of the follow ing sites of fractures-(Bihar 98)
a) Inter-trochanteric fracture of femoral neck
b) Subcapital fracture neck femur
c) Transtrochanteric fracture femur
d) Basal fracture o f femoral neck
The most common complication of extracapsular
fracture of neck o f femur is (DELHI 97)
a) Avascular necrosis
b) Nonunion
c) Malunion
d) M yositis ossificans

DISLOCATION OF HIP
169.

170.

The pain around the hip with flexion, adduction &

internal rotation of lower limb in a young adult after
a road traffic accident is suggestive of a) Intracapsular fracture o f the femoral neck
b) Extracapsular fracture o f the femoral neck
c) Posterior dislocation o f hip
(AIIM S Nov 05,
d) Anterior dislocation o f hip .
M ay 01)
A 30 year old male was brought to the casualty
following a road traffic accident. His physical
examination revealed that his right lower limb was
short, internally rotated, and flexed and adducted at

171.

172.

173.

174.

175.

176.

177.

178.

179.

the hip. The most likely diagnosis is (Al 03)

' a) Fracture neck o f femur
b) Trochanteric fracture
c) Central fracture dislocation o f hip
d) Posterior dislocation o f hip
Posterior dislocation of hip is characterized bya) M arked shortening o f limb
b) Lengthening o f limb
(NEET/DNB Pattern)
c) No change in limb length
d) Extension deformity
Sciatic nerve palsy may occur in the following in jurya) Posterior dislocation o f hip joint
b) Fracturc ncck of femur
(NEET/DNB Pattern)
c) Trochanteric fracture
d) Anterior dislocation o f hip
Pipkin fracture is defined a s(PGIDec. 05)
a) Head o f radius fracture
b) Head o f femur fracturc
c) Fracture dislocation o f ankle
d) Fracture neck of femur
e) Fracture o f C 6 Spine
Deformity in anterior dislocation of hip isa) Ext. rotation, abduction, flexion (AIIMS Nov 99,
b) Ext. rotation, adduction, flexion
DPG 99)
c) Int. rotation, abduction, flexion
d) Int. rotation, adduction, flexion
Kumar, a 31 yrs old motorcyclist sustained injury
over his Right hip joint. X-ray revealed a posterior
dislocation of the Right hip joint. The clinical attitude
of the affected lower limb will be-(AIIM S Nov 00,98,
a) External rotation, extension & abduction A 102)
b) Internal rotation, flexion & adduction
c) Internal rotation, extension & abduction
d) External rotation, flexion & abduction
Maximum shortening of limbs occur in-(AIIMS Feb97)
a) Trochantric # femur b) Post dislocation o f hip
c) # neck femur
d) Anterior dislocation of hip
Which is true about dislocation of hip joint? (KA 94)
a) Posterior dislocation is commoner
b) In posterior dislocation whole lower limb is rotated
medially
c) In anterior dislocation whole lower limb is rotated
laterally
d) All o f the above
F lexion , adduction and in tern al rotation is
characteristic posture in (JIPMER 95)
a) Anterior dislocation o f hip joint
b) Posterior dislocation o f hip joint
c) Fracture o f femoral head
d) Fracture shaft o f femur
A patient with hip in adduction and medial rotation
and is unable to move probable diagnosis is a) Posterior dislocation head o f femur (Andhra 94)
b) Fracturc shaft o f femur
c) Fracture neck o f femur
d) Sciatica

180.

In traumatic injury of the hip(PGI Dec. 02)

a) Anterior dislocation is common
b) Posterior dislocation is common
c) Avascular fracture is common
d) Visceral injury usually associated with fracture femur
e) Open reduction is always necessary

INJURIES AROUND THE TH IG H AND KNEE

181.

182.

183.

184.

185.

186.

187.

188.

189.

190.

Subtrochanteric fractures o f femur can be treated

by all of the following methods except (A 1 05)
a) Skeletal traction on Thom as splint
b) Smith Petersen Nail
c) Condylar blade plate
d) Endersnail
In fracture of femur popliteal artery is common
damaged by (PGI 93)
a) Proximal fragment
b) Distal fragment
c) M uscle haematoma
d) Tissue swelling
Why fracture shaft femur is early stabilised a) To prevent blood loss
(NEET/DNB Pattern)
b) ARDS
c) Non union
d) Compartment syndrome
Treatment of Non-union o f# shaft femur a) Open reduction with external fixation
(AIIM S Sept 96)
b) Excision o f the bone
c) Bone grafting with internal fixation with K-Nail
d) All o f the following
Treatment of choice for old non-united fracture of
shaft of femur (AIIMS 94)
a) Compression plating
b) Bone grafting
c) Nailing
d) Compression plating with bone grafting
Best treatment of 3 weeks old, fracture shaft femur
with nonunion is (AIIM S D ec 94)
a) Bone graft with internal fixation
b) External fixation
c) Internal fixation only
d) Prosthesis
M axim um sh o rten in g o f low er lim b is seen
in (A IIM SD ec 95)
a) # Shaft femur
b) # Neck femur
c) # Intertrochanter
d) Transcervical #
Callows traction is used for fracture - (AIIMSNov 10,
a) Shaft femur
b) Neck femur
11)
c) Shaft tibia
d) Tibial tuberosity
The tracdon that is applied for fracture shaft of the
femur in children below 2 years is-(NEET/DNB Pattern)
a) Russells traction
b) Sm iths traction
c) Gallows traction
d) Bryant fraction
The classical example of muscular violence is a) # o f fibula
b) # o f patella (PGI 96)
c) # o f clavicle
d) All o f the these

191.

Treatment o f displaced transverse fracture of

patella (PGI June 03, Dec 06)
a) POP
b) Tension band wiring
c) Screw
d) Patellectomy
192. Ttobe (Cylinder) cast is applied for the fracture of a) Shoulder
b) Hip
(A l 07)
c) Pelvis
d)K nee
193. About posterior cruciate ligament true statement
is (A l 07)
a) Prevent posterior displacement o f Tibia
b) Attaches to lateral femoral condyle
c) Intra synovial
d) Inserted on medial side o f medial femoral condyle
194. Posterior cruciate ligament-true statement is a) Attached to the lateral femoral condyle
b) Intrasynovial
(AIIMS Nov 06)
c) Prevents posterior dislocation o f tibia
d) Relaxed in full flexion
195. The blood supply of anterior cruciate ligament
(ACL) is primarily derived from (AI 08)
a) Superior medial genicular artery
b) Descending genicular artery
c) Middle genicular artery
d) Circumflex fibular artery
196. Which activity will be difficult to perform for a
patient with an anterior cruciate deficient knee
joint(A IIM SM ay 02)
a) Walk downhill
b) Walk uphill
c) Sit cross leg
d) Getting up from sitting
197. In anterior cruciate ligament tear, which of these
tests are positive (PGI June 02)
a) Lachmann test
b) M cM urrys test
c) Anterior drawer test
d) Posterior drawer test
e) A pleys test
198. What would be the most reliable test for an acutely
injured knee of a 27 year old athelete a) Anterior drawer test (AIIM S M ay 02,Jipmer 02)
b) Posterior drawer test
c) Lachman test
d) Steinmann test
199. Which o f the following is the SAFEST test to be
performed in a patient with acutely injured knee
joint(A l 08)
a) Lachmann test
b) Pivot shift test
c) M cM urrays test
d) A pleys grinding test
200. Which one of the following tests will you adopt while
examining a knee joint where you suspect an old
tear of anterior cruciate ligament (A l 03)
a) Posterior drawer test
b) Me Murray test
c) Lachman test
d) Pivot shift test
201. Positive pivot shift test in knee is because o f
injury to (AIIMS June 2K, A l 01)
a) Post cruciate lig.
b) Ant. cruciate lig.
c) Medial collateral ligament
d) Posterior elbow ligament

202.

203.

204.

205.

206.

207.

208.

209.

210.

A twisting injury o f knee in flexed position would

result in injury to all except (AIIM S May 02)
a) Meniscal tear
b) Capsular tear
c) Anterior cruciate ligament
d) Fibular collateral ligament
Torsion o f knee results in injury most commonly
to(AIIMS M ay 02)
a) Anterior cruciate ligament
b) M 6dial meniscus
c) Fibular collateral ligament
d) Tibial collateral ligament
When a patient gets up from sitting position which
of the following events takes place in his knee joint?
a) Medial rotation o ffem u r on a fixed tibia (AI 08)
b) Lateral rotation o f femur on a fixed tibia
c) Medial rotation o f tibia on a fixed femur
d) Lateral rotation o f tibia on a fixed femur
Medial meniscus of knee joint is injured more often
than the lateral m eniscus because the medial
meniscus is relatively (AIIMS Nov 02)
a) M ore mobile
b) Less mobile
c) Thinner
d) Attached lightly to femur
Which of the following statements about 'Menisci'
is not tru e(AI 10)
a) Medial meniscus is more mobile than lateral
b) Lateral m eniscus covers m ore tibial articular
surface than lateral
c) Medial meniscus is more commonly injured than
lateral
d) M enisci are predom inantly m ade up o f type 1
collagen
Which type o f injury causes more damage to the
semi-lunar cartilage in the knee - (AI96, AP 99,
a) Flexion and extension at the ankle
Jipm er 11)
b) Rotation on a flexed knee
c) Rotation on an extended knee
d) Squatting position
Injury to the medial meniscus is rather impossible
when the knee joint does not (NB 99)
a) Extend
b)Flex
c) Rotate
d) Abduct adduct
A patient gives a H/O twisting strain and locking of
the knee joint, the most likely diagnosis is a) Avulsion o f tibial tubercle
(PGI 97, A I 93)
b) Meniscal tear
c) Tearing o f lateral collateral ligament
d) Tear o f anterior cruciate ligament
A 18 yrs old boy was playing football, when he
suddenly twisted his knee on the ankle and he fell
down. He got up after 10 minutes and again started
playing, but next day his knee was swollen and he
could not move it. The most probable cause is a) Medial meniscus tear
(AIIMS May 01)
b) A nterior cruciate ligament tear
c) Medical collateral ligament injury
d) Posterior cruciate ligament injury

211.

212.

213.

214.

215.

216.

217.

218.

219.

220.

A ll o f the follow ing features in the knee are

recognized to be consistent with a torn medial
meniscus, except (M anipal 94)
a) Excessive forward glide b) Giving way
c) Locking
d) M e.M urrays sign
M cM urrays test is positive in injury of -(PGI June
a) Anterior cruciate ligament
02, Karn. 11)
b) Posterior cruciate ligament
c) Medical meniscus injury
d) Popliteal bursitis
Atheletic sustained an injury around the knee joint
suspecting cartilage damage, which of the following
is an investigation o f choice - (AP 2K, AIIM S 94)
a) Pain X-ray
b) Clinical examination
c) A rthroscopy
d)A rthrotom y
W hich is the investigation of choice for a sport
injury of the knee(AP 93, TN 97)
a) Ultrasonography
b) Plain radiography
c) Arthrography
d) Arthroscopy
In w hich of the follow ing m eniscal tears w ill
m eniscectom y be a more suitable option than
meniscal repair ?
(A I 08)
a) Tears in the outer zone
b) Tears in the middle zone
c) Tears in the inner zone
d) Tears at the junction o f anterior horn o f medial
meniscus & tibial collateral ligament
An athletic teenage girl complains of anterior knee
pain on climbing stairs and on getting up after
prolonged sitting. Which of the following is the most
likely diagnosis?
(AI II)
a) Chondramalacia Patellae
b) Plica Syndrome
c) Bipartite Patella
d) Patellofemoral osteoarthritis
Commonest dangerous complication of posterior
dislocation of knee is (AIIM S N ov 99)
a) Popliteal artery injury
b) Sciatic nerve injury
c) Ischaemia o f lower leg compartment
d) Femoral artery injury
Management of hem arrthrosis(PGI June 04)
a) Compression bandage b) Needle aspiration
c) P O .P cast
d) Rest to the joint
e) Synovectomy in recurrent cases
Locking o f knee joint can be caused b ya) Osgood shalter
(PGI Dec 05)
b) Loose body in knee joint
c) Tuberculosis o f knee
d) Medial meniscal partial tear
In bounce home test of knee joint, end feel is
described as all except?
(AIIMS M ay 11)
a) Bony
b) Empty
c) Springy
. d)Firm

221.

A patient met with Road Traffic Accident with injury

to the left knee. Dial test was positive. What could
be the cause ?
(AIIMS N ov 10)
a) Medial Collateral Ligament Injury
b) Posterolateral Corner Injury
c) Lateral Meniscus Tear
d) Medial M eniscal Injury

INJURY TO THE LEG. ANKLE AND FOOT

222.

What is acceptable angulation after reducing the

fracture tibia (AIIM SM ay 93)
a) 5
b) 10
c) 15
d) 20
223. Patellar tendon bearing P.O.P. cast is indicated in
the following fracture (A I 02)
a) Patella
b) Tibia
c) Medial malleolus
d) Femur
224. Treatment of choice for non-united fracture of
lower 1/4"' tibia with multiple discharging sinuses
& various puckered scar with 4 cm shortening
of leg (AIIMS D ec 09)
a) Plating
b) External fixator
c) Ilizarovs fixator
d) Intramedullary nail
225. The stability' of the ankle joint is maintained by all
of the following, except (AIIMS Dec 03)
a) Plantar calcaneonavicular (spring) ligament
b) Deltoid ligament
c) Lateral ligament
d) Shape o f the superior talar articular surface
226. The most commonly affected com ponent of the
lateral collateral ligament complex in an ankle
sprain is the (AIIM S Dec 03, A l 98)
a) Middle com ponent
b) Anterior component
c) Posterior component d) Deeper component
227. Most common ligament in jured in ankle sprain a) Anterior talofibular
(NEET/DNB Pattern)
b) Posterior talofibular
c) Deltoid
d) Calcaneofibular
228. Inversion injury at the ankle can cause all of the
following except(A l 02)
a) Fracture tip o f lateral melleolus
b) Fracture base o f the 5th metatarsal
c) Sprain o f Ext. Digitorum brevis
d) Fracture o f sustentaculam tali
229. The mechanism of injury of transverse fracture of
medial malleolus results due to (Andhra 99)
a) Abduction injury
b) Adduction injury
c) Rotation injury
d) Direct injury
230. Watson Jones operation is done for-(AIIM SNov 08)
a) Polio
b) Muscle paralysis
c) Neglected clubfoot
d) Chronic ankle instability

231.

Talus receives a rich blood supply from the following

arteries except (NEET/DNB Pattern)
a) Anterior tibia
b) Posterior tibial
c) Peroneal
d) Dorsalis pedis
232. Fracture o f talus without displacement in x-ray
would lead to (PGI June 02)
a) Osteoarthritis o f ankle
b) Osteonecrosis o f head o f talus
c) Avascular necrosis o f body o f talus
d) Avascular necrosis o f neck o f talus
e) Non union
233. Avascular necrosis is a complication o f(AI99)
a) Fracture o f talus
b) Fracture o f medial condyle o f femur
c) Olecranon fracture
d) Radial head fracture
234. MC comp, o f # talus is (AIIMS May 95)
a) Avascular necrosis
b) Nonunion
c) Osteoarthritis o f ankle joint
d) Osteoarthritis o f subtalar joint
235. Calcaneum is associated most com m only with
w hich # (AIIMS Feb 97)
a) # rib
b) # vertebrae
c) # skull
d) # fibula
236. Bohlers angle is decreased in fracture o f a) Calcaneum
b) Talus (AIIM SM ay 07,
c) Navicular
d) Cuboid
A l 07)
237. G issan es angle in in traarticu lar fracture o f
calcaneum (AMU 02, MAHE 04)
a) Reduced
b) Increased
c) Not changed
d) Variable
238. Neutral triangle is seen radiologically in-(NIM S 03)
a) Neck femur
b) Proximal humerus
c) Calcaneus
d) Talus
239. # of calcaneous management depending upon a) Type o f fracture
(PGI June 08)
b) Subtalar joint dislocation
c) Duration o f presentation
d) Degree o f displacement
240. Least common complicaation of fall from height is a) Fracture base o f skull
(AIIMS DEC 94)
b) Fracture calcaneum
c) Fracture fibula
d) Fracture 12,h thoracic vertebra

SPINAL INJURIES
241.

242.

M ost com m on site for tra u m a o f spine is a) Cervical

b) Thoracic (NEET/DNB Pattern)
c) Lumbar
d) Sacrum
The commonest cause of spinal cord injuries in our
country is (AMU 02, S G P G I03)
a) Road traffic accident
b) Fall from a height
c) Fall into well
d) House collapse

243.

Which o f the following skull fractures is called a

M otorcyclists fracture (Al 09)
a) Ring fracture o f base o f skull
b) Hinge fracture o f base o f skull
c) Comminuted fracture o f skull
d) Depressed fracture o f skull
244. Jaffersons fracture is the fracture of a) Odontoid
b) C,
(NEET/DNB Pattern)
c) Cj
d) C,
245. All of the following are true about fracture of the
atlas vertebra, except (A l 05)
a) Jefferson fracture is the most common type
b) Quadriplegia is seen in 80% cases
c) Atlantooccipital fusion may sometimes be needed
d) CT scans should be done for diagnosis
246. Hangmans fracture is-(Kant 98,NEET/DNB Pattern)
a) Subluxation o f C5 over C6
b) Fracture dislocation o f C2
c) Fracture dislocation o f ankle joint
d) Fracture o f odontoid
247. Regarding Hangmans fracture true is-(JIPMER 99,
a) High post admission mortality AM U 02.SGPG/ 04)
b) Most common axis fracture
c) Surgical treatment is necessary
d) Union almost always occurs
248. True regarding Hangmans fracture is-(Manipal 00)
a) Odotoid process fracture o f C2
b) Spondylolisthesis o f C2 over C3
c) W hiplash injury
d) Fracture o f hyoid bone
249. Hangmans fracture is fracture of C 2- (AIIMS 99.
a) Dens fracture
b) Lamina
A l 93)
c) Pars interarticularis
d) Spinous process
250. All are true regarding w hiplash in jury except a) Lumbar spine is commonly involved (PGI 96,98)
b) Fractures are not common
c) Paresthesia and chronic pain
d) Hyperextension injury
e) Sprains and strains without radiological findings
251. Regarding whiplash injury, a true statement includes
a) Contusion o f the spinal cord and fracture o f vertebra
b) Fracture o f vertebral body
c) Spinal cord injury without vertebral fracture
d) Vertebral fracture without spinal cord injury
252. Whip-lash injury is caused due to -(AIIMSMay 03)
a) A fall from a height
b) Acutc hyperextension o f the spine
c) A blow on top to head
d) Acute hyperflexion o f the spine
253. Tear drop fracture of lower ccrvical spine implies a) Wedge compression fracture
(AIIMS SR 05,
b) Axial compression fractures
06.KA 02)
c) Flexion-rotation injury with failure o f anterior body
d) Flexion compression failure o f body
254. Burst Fracture of spine is a (Al 07)
a) Compression Fracture b) Extension injury
c) Direct injury
d) Flexion - rotation

255.

Most common type of injury to spinal cord is -(Al 07)

a) Flexion
b) Extension
c) Compresson
d) Flexion - rotation
256. In a Pt. with head injury, unexplained hypotension
warrants evaluation of (A 1 02)
a) Upper cervical spine
b) Lower cervical spine
c) Thoracic spine
d) Lumbar spine
257. Chance fracture is/are(PGI 93, 90)
a) Mainly ligamentous injury
b) Neurological involvement is common
c) Flexion compression injury
d) Seat belt injury
258. The compression fracture is commonest in a) Cervical spine
b) Upper thoracic spine
c) Lower thoracic spine
d) Lumbosacral region
259. Return o f Bulbocavernous reflex in spinal shock a) Sign o f recovery from spinal shock (JIPMER 99)
b) Partial lesion o f spinal cord
c) Complete transection o f spinal cord
d) Incomplete transection o f spinal cord
260. Bulbocavernosus reflex is elicited by A/E - (PGI 93)
a) Gians pens
b) Clitoris
c) Tug o f foley cathcter d) Perianal
261. Complete transection o f the spinal cord at the C7
level produces all of the following except- (Al 02)
a) Hypotension
b) Limited respiratory effort
c) Anaesthesia below the level o f the lesion
d) Areflexia below the level o f the lesion
262. On accident there is damage of cervical spine, first
line o f management is - (AIIMS Nov. 99, PGI 94,
a) X- ray
NEET/DNB Pattern)
b) Turn head to side
c) Maintain airway
d) Stabilise the cervical spine
263. Careless handling of a suspected case of cervical
spine injury may result in (UPSC 99)
a) Injury to the spinal cord leading to quadriparesis
or quadriplegia
b) Intracranial haemorrhage with cerebral imtation o f
unconsciousness.
c) Cervical haematoma with compression o f brachial
vessels
d) Complete paralysis o f the affected upper extremity
264. A scooter is hit from behind. The rider is thrown
off and he lands w ith his head hitting the kerb. He
does not move, complains of severe pain in the neck
and is unable to turn his head. W ell-meaning
onlookers rush up to him and try to make him sit up.
W hat would be the best course of action in this
situation?
a) He should be propped up and given some water to
drink
b) He should not be propped up but turned on his
face and rushed to the hospital

265.

266.

267.

268.

269.

2 70.

271.

272.

273.

274.

c) He should be turned on his back and a support

should be placed behind his neck and transported
to the nearest hospital
d) He should not be moved at all but carried to the
nearest hospital in the same position in which he
has been since his fall.
Patient develops myelopathy post-trauma. What dose
of methyl prednisolone is to be given ?
a) 30mg/kg within 3hrs.
(AIIMS Nov 11)
b) 45mg/kg within 6 hrs.
c) 60mg/kg within 9 hrs.
d) 75mg/kg within 12 hrs.
A young woman met with an accident and had mild
quadriparesis. Her lateral X-ray cervical spine
rev ealed CL-C,
5 nfracture dislocation. Which of the
following is the best line o f management? (AI 05)
a) Immediate anterior decompression
b) Cervical traction followed by instrument fixation
c) Hard cervical collar and bed rest
d) Cervical laminectomy
Material used in verterbroplasty is -(AIIMSMay 08)
a) Isomethyl methacrylate
b) Isoethyl methacrylate
c) Polyethyl methacrylate
d) Polymethyl methacrylate
Percutaneous vertebroblasty is indicated in all
except (AIIMS M ay 11)
a) Tuberculosis
b) M etastasis
c) O steoporosis
d) Hemangioma
W'rist flexion and linger extension test the following
nerve root(AIIM SSR 05, Jipmer 03)
a) Ck
b) C 7
c) G
d) T,
A patient involved in a road traffic accident presents
with quadriparesis, sphincter disturbance, sensory'
level up to the upper border of sternum and a respiratory
rate of 35/m inute. The likely level of lesion is b ) C .- C ,
(AI10)
a) C ,-C 2
d ) T 3- T 4
c) T, -T,
Disc prolapse commonly occurs at - (PGI June 01)
a) L4 - Ls
b)Ls- Si
c) C5 -C 6
d)L s-Si
e) C 3 - C 4
Prolapsed intervertebral Disc (P1D) is most common
at(DPGFeb. 09)
a) C 10C n
b )C 2C3
c) L2 L4
d) L5 S|
After L<- Si the next commonest site of intervertebral
disc prolapse is (JIPMER 95)
a) C6 -C 7
b )T u -L i
c) Li - L2
d) L2 - Lj
A 44- years old man presented with acute onset o f
low backache radiating to the right lower limb.
Examination revealed SLRT < 40 on the right side,
weakness of extensor hallucis longus on the right
side, sensorv loss in the first web space of the rieht

275.

276.

277.

278.

279.

280.

281.

282.

foot and brisk knee jerk. Which of the following is

tbe most likely diagnosis (AIIMS M ay 04)
a) Prolapsed intervertebral disc L4.5
b) Spondylolysis L5-S1
c) Lumbar canal stenosis
d) Spondylolisthesis L4-5
A middle-aged lady presents with complaints of lower
back pain. On examination there is weakness of
extension o f right great toe with no sensory
impairment. An MR1 of the lumbosacral spine would
most probably reveal a prolapsed intervetebral disc
at what level?
(AIIMS N ov II)
a) L3-L4
b)L4-L5
c) L5-S1
d)Sl-S2
A previously healthy 45 yrs old laborer suddenly
develops acute lower back pain with right-leg pain
& weakness of dorsiflexion o f the right great toe.
Which of the following is true (A I02)
a) Immediate treatment should include analgesics
muscle relaxants & back strengthening exercises
b) The appearance o f the foot drop indicate early
surgical intervention
c) If the nerurological signs resolve within 2 to 3
w'eeks but low back pain persists, the proper
treatment would include fusion of affected Lumbar
vertebra
d) If the neurological signs fail to resolve within 1
week, Lumbar laminectomy and excision o f any
herniated nucleus pulposus should be done
Investigation of choice for lumbar prolapsed disc a) X-ray
b) CT Scan (NEET/DNB
c) MRI
d) Myelogram Pattern)
Partial anterior dislocation o f one segm ent o f the
spine over another is (NEET/DNB Pattern)
a) Spondylosis
b) Spondylolisthesis
c) K yphosis
d) Scoliosis
Least helpful for the diagnosis of spondylolisthesis a) AP x-ray o f spine
b) Lateral x-ray o f spine
c) MRI
d) CT
(AIIMS Nov 11)
Which o f the following is not recommended in the
treatment of chronic low back pain (AI 09)
a) NSAIDs
b) Bed rest for 3 months
c) Exercises
d) Epidural steroid injection
Progression of congenital scoliosis is least likely
in which of the following vertebral anomalies a) Fully segmented Hemivertebra
(AI 10)
b) Wedge vertebra
c) Block vertebra
d) Unilateral unsegmented bar with Hemivertebra
Hari Verdhman, 9 yrs old child, presents with
sco liosis, hairy tuft in the skin o f back and
neurological deficit. Plain X- rays reveal multiple
vertebral anomalies & a vertical bony spur overlying
lum bar spine on AP view. The most probable
diagnosis is (AI 02)
a) Dorsal dermal sinus b) Diastometamyelia
c) Tight filUmterminale d) Caudalregresionsyndrome

283.

284.

285.

286.

Vertebra plana seen in (PG I June 06)

a) Eosinophilia granuloma b) Trauma
c) Pagets disease
d) M alignancy
e) Ewings sarcoma
Cranio-vertebral junction abnormalities are seen in
all except(AIIM SN ov 11)
a) Rheumatoid arthritis
b) Ankylosing spondylitis
c) Odontoid dysgenesis d) Basilar invagination
Subluxation of atlanto- occipital joint is seen in all
except(DELHI 91)
a) Gout
b) Parpharyngeal abscess
c) Rheumatoid arthritis
d) Ankylosing spondylitis
In scoliosis degree o f deform ity is calculated
by(NEET/DNB Pattern)
a) Cobbs method
b) Hamburger method
c) Haldane method
d) M ilwaukee method

PERIPHERAL NERVE INJURIES

287.

Which nerve repair has worst prognosis ? (Delhi

a) Ulnar
b) Radial PG Mar. 09)
c) Median
d) Lateral popliteal
288. Tinel sign is used for (NEET/DNB Pattern)
a) To assess the severity o f damage o f nerve
b) To classify the type o f nerve injury
c) To locate the site o f nerve injury
d) To assess the recovery
289. Median nerve injury at wrist, is commonly tested
by'
'(A I9 7 )
a) Contraction o f abductor pollicis brevis
b) Contraction flexor pollicis brevis
c) Loss o f sensation on palm
d) Loss o f sensation on ring finger
290. Median nerve injury at the wrist causes - (PGI 98)
a) Claw hand
b) Loss o f apposition o f thumb
c) Policemans tip deformity
d) Saturday night palsy
291. Compression of a nerve within the carpal tunnel
products inability to (AIIMS May 05)
a) Abduct the thumb
b) Adduct the thumb
c) Flex the distal phalanx o f the thumb
d) Oppose the thumb
292. Pointing index sign is seen in nerve palsy a) Ulnar
b) Radial
(AIIM S 97)
c) Median
d)Axillary
293. Ape thum b d eform ity is seen in involvem ent
of (At. 2K, NEET/DNB Pattern)
a) Median nerve
b) Ulnar nerve
c) Radial nerve
d) Axillary nerve
294. A cut injury on wrist causes inability o f thumb to
touch the tip o f little finger, the nerve likely to be
damaged is (AIIMS June 97)
a) Ulnar
b) Radial
c) Median
d) Deep branch o f ulnar nerve

295.

A boy presents with complaints of hypoaesthesia and

wasting of thenar eminence. The nerve most likely
to be damaged in this patient (AIIM S 02)
a) M usculocutaneous nerve b) Median nerve
c) Ulnar nerve
d) Radial nerve
296. Nerve damaged due to lunate dislocation (in carpal
tunnel) (PGI 2000)
a) Median & ulnar
b) Median
c) Ulnar
d) Radial
297. All of the following muscles are paralyzed in trauma
to median nerve at the wrist except - (AIIMS May 08)
a) Adductor pollicis
b) Abductor pollicis
c) First two lumbicals
d) Muscles o f the Thenar eminence
298. Median nerve lesion at the wrist causes all o f the
following, except(A l 10)
a) Thenar atrophy
b) Weakness o f Adductor pollicis
c) Weaknes o f 151 and 2nd lumbricals
d) Weakness o f Flexor pollicis Brevis
299. Ulnar nerve injury at wrist involves following
except (PGI 98)
a) Palmar interossei
b) Opponens pollicis
c) Dorsal interossei
d) Adductor pollicis
300. From ents sign is characteristically seen in a) Ulnar nerve injury
(AIIMS June 97, M ay 93,
b) Median nerve injury
DPG 94, NEET/DNB
c) Radial nerve injury
Pattern)
d) Intercostobrachial nerve injury
301. Claw hand is caused by lesion of (Al 07)
a) Ulnar nerve
b) Median nerve
c) Axillary nerve
d) Radial nerve
302. A patient with leprosy presents with clumsiness of
hand. His ulnar nerve is affected. Clumsiness is due
to palsy o f which muscle (AIIMS June 00)
a) Extensor carpi ulnaris b) Abductor pollicis brevis
c) Oppenens pollicis
d) Interosseous muscle
303. Following an incised wound in the front of wrist, the
subject is unable to oppose the tips of the little finger
and the thumb. The nerve (s) involved is/are a) Ulnar nerve alone
(UPSC 00)
b) Median nerve alone
c) Median and ulnar nerves
d) Radial and ulnar nerves
304. Low ulnar nerve palsy is characterised by - (PGI 03)
a) Claw hand
b) Sensory loss o f medial four digits
c) Weakness o f grips
d) Inability to extend at M.C.P. joint
e) Inability to abduct the thumb
305. Injury to the Ulnar nerve at the wrist causes paralysis
of- '
(Al'95)
a) Apposition o f the thumb
b) Abduction o f the carpo-metacarpal joint o f the thumb
c) Adduction o f the thumb
d) Flexion o f the MCP joint of the middle finger

306.

307.

308.

309.

310.

311.

312.

313.

314.

315.

A boy presents with injury to medial epicondyle of

the humerus. Which of the following would not be
seen (AHMS 02)
a) Weakness o f the ulnar deviation and flexion
b) Complete paralysis o f the Illrd and IV th digits
c) Atrophy o f the hypothenar eminence.
d) Decreased sensation o f the hypothenar eminence
A cut injury' of the ulnar nerve results in a) Total claw hand
(COMED 09)
b) Paralysis o f all lumbricals
c) Paralysis o f all interossei
d) Paralysis o f all slips ofthe flexor digitorum profundus
Wasting o f the intrinsic muscles ofth e hand can be
expected to follow injury of the (UPSC-II 09)
a) Ulnar nerve
b) Radial nerve
c) Brachial nerve
d) Axillary nerve
Ulnar paradox is seen in - (NEET/DNB Pattern)
a) High ulnar lesion
b) Low ulnar lesion
c) Triple nerve disease
d) Combined ulnar and median nerve injury
Damage to the radial nerve in the spiral groove
spares which muscle (Al 94)
a) Lateral head o f triceps b) Long head o f triceps
c) Medial head o f triceps d) Anconeus
Injury to radial nerve in lower part o f spiral
groove (A l 03)
a) Spares nerve supply to extensor carpi radialis longus
b) Results in paralysis o f anconeus muscle
c) Leaves extensions at elbow joint intact
d) Weakens pronation movement
A 30-year-old male underwent excision of the right
radial head. Following surgery, the patient developed
inability to extend the fingers and thumb of the right
hand. He did not have any sensory deficit. Which
one o f the following is the most likely cause?
a) Injury to Posterior interosseus nerve
b) Iatrogenic injury to common extensor origin
c) Injury to anterior interosseus nerve
d) High radial nerve palsy
(AIIMS M ay 04)
All of the following are affected in low radial nerve
palsy except (A l 11)
a) Extensor carpi radialis longus
b) Extensor carpi radialis brevis
c) Finger extensors
d) Sensation on dorsum o f hand
A person is not able to extend his m etacarpo
phalangeal joint This is due to injury to which nerv e a) Ulnar nerve
(AIIMS June 00)
b) Radial nerve injury
c) Median nerve injury
d) Post. Introsseus nerve injury
A 19 year old boy fell from the motar bike on his
shoulder. The doctor diagnosed him a case of Erbs
paralysis. The following signs and symptoms will be
obsereved except (AIIMS 02)
a) Loss o f abduction at shoulder joint

b) Loss o f lateral rotation

c) Loss o f pronation at radioulnar joint
d) Loss o f flexion at elbow joint.
316. A young boy who was driving motorcycle at a
high speed collided with a tree & was thrown on his
right shoulder. Though there was no fracture, his
right arm was medially rotated and forearm pronated.
The following facts concerning this patient are
correct, except (AIIMS 04)
a) The injury was at Erbs point
b) A lesion o f C5 and C6 was present
c) The median and ulnar nerves were affected
d) Supraspinatus, Infraspinatus, Subclavius & Biceps
brachii were paralyzed
317. A pole vaulter had a fall during pole vaulting and had
paralysis o f the arm . W hich o f the following
investigations gives the best recovery prognosis a) Electromyography
(AIIMS N ov 03)
b) Muscle biopsy
c) Strength Duration Curve
d) Creatime phosphokinase levels
318. All are true regarding brachial plexus injury,
except(A l 06)
a) Preganglionic lesions have a better prognosis than
postganglionic lesions
b) E rb s palsy causes paralysis o f the abductors
and external rotators o f the shoulder.
c) In Klum pkes palsy, H om ers syndrome may be
present on the ipsilateral side
d) Histamine test is useful to differentiate between
the preganglionic and postganglionic lesions
319. Most common cause of neurological deficit in upper
li m b is (AIIMS No v 93)
a) Polio
b) Erbs palsy
c) C 1-C 2 dislocation
d) Fracture dislocation o f cervical spine
320. All the following nerves are involved in entrapment
neuropathy except (A l 09)
a) Femoral nerve
b) Median nerve
c) Ulnar nerve
d) Lateral cutaneous nerve o f thigh
321. Meralgia paresthetica is due to involvement of a) Medial cutaneous nerve o f thigh (AIIM S D ec 06,
b) Lateral cutaneous nerve o f thigh
M ay 10)
c) Sural nerve
d) Femoral nerve
322. Carpel tunnel syndrome is due to compression ofa) Radial nerve
(Al 02)
b) Ulnar nerve
c) Palmer branch o f the Ulnar nerve
d) Median nerve

323.

324.

325.

326.

327.

328.

329.

330.

331.

332.

In Carpal tunnel syndrome, features are of a) Compression o f ulnar nerve

(JIPMER 99)
b) Com pression o f median nerve under the flxor
retinaculum
c) Anaesthesia over thenar eminence
d) Atrophy o f hypothenar muscles
Carpal tunnel syndrom e can be caused by the
following except (A l 09)
a) Diabetes M ellitus
b) Amyloidosis
c) A ddisons Disease
d) Hypothyroidism
Which of the following does NOT predispose to carpal
tunnel syndrome (AIIMSDec 94)
a) Hypertension
b) Hypothyroidism
c) Pregnancy
d) Acromegaly
True about carpal tunnel syndrome- (PGI Dec 03)
a) Paraesthesia o f the lateral 2 fingers
b) Atropy o f the thenar eminence
c) Atropy o f the hypothenar eminence
d) Claw hand
e) Tinel sign is positive
True about carpal tunnel syndrome -(PG I June 09)
a) More common in female (F>M)
b) Acromegaly can cause
c) Positive tinels sign
d) Nerve conduction study done
e) Transverse carpal ligament are cut to relieve syndrome
Carpal tunnel syndrome all are present except a) U lnar nerve dysfunction (NEET/DNB Pattern)
b) Tinel sign
c) Phalens sign
d) Pain & paraesthesia o f wrist
As regards carpal tunnel syndrome, which one of
the following statements is not correct?
a) It may occur in hypothyroidism.
(U PSC -110)
b) Pain or tingling o f fingers often occurs at night
c) there is decreased strength o f abduction, flexion
and opposition o f the thumb.
d) Localised tenosynovitis o f the flexor tendons o f
the fingers is an infrequent cause
True about carpal tunnel syndrome - (PG IM ay 10)
a) Occur in pregnancy
b) Affects medial 3'A finger
c) Associated with Hypothyroidism
d) Froment sign positive
e) M edian nerve involvem ent is present
M ost com m on ca u se o f ta r sa l tu n n el
syndrome (AIIM S May 09)
a) Osteoarthritis
b) Ankylosing spondylitis
c) Psoriatic arthritis
d) Rheumatoid arthritis
A 56-vears old female presents with nocturnal pain
in the right thumb, index and middle fingers for the
past 3 months. All of the provocative tests can be
performed except (AIIMS Nov II)
a) Finkelsteins test
b) Tinel sign
c) Phalcns test
d) Tourniquet test

333.

334.

335.

336.

337.

338.

339.

Nerve injured in fibular neck fracture-fNEET/DNB

' a) Common peroneal
b) Tibial
Pattern)
c) Sural
d) Femoral
Trauma to neck of humerus, nerve damaged-(jVET/
a) Radial
b) Ulnar DNB Pattern)
c) Median
d) Axillary
Posterior dislocation o f Hip can damage which
nerve(NEET/DNB Pattern)
a) Superior gluteal
b) Sciatic
c) Inferior gluteal
d) Femoral
In axillary nerve paralysis, all the following are true
except(NEET/DNB Pattern)
a) Deltoid muscle is wasted
b) Extension o f shoulder with arm abducted to 90
degrees is impossible
c) Small area o f numbness is present over the shoulder
region
d) Patient cannot initiate abduction
A burn patient develop claw hand. Joint affected
will b e(P G IDec 08)
a) Flexion at Proximal Interphalangeal Joint
b) Flexion at Distal Interphalangeal Joint
c) Extension at Distal interphalangeal joint
d) Extension at Metarcarpophalangeal joint
e) Flexion at Metarcarpophalangeal joint
In a patient with a history' of burning pain localized
to the plantar aspect o f the foot, the differential
diagnosis must include (AIIM S Dec 03)
a) Peripheral vascular disease
b) Tarsal coalation.
c) Tarsal tunnel syndrome
d) Planter fibromatosis
A commonest cause for neuralgic pain in foot is a) Compression ofcomunication between medial and
lateral planter nerves
(A l 03)
b) Exaggeration o f longitudinal arches
c) Injury to deltoid ligament
d) Shortening o f planter aponeurosis

PAEDIATRICS ORTHOPEDIC
340.

341.

342.

In children, all are true except (A 100)

a) Dislocations are rare
b) Comminuted fractures are common
c) Thick periosteum
d) Soft bones
P erich on d rialrin gis(PGI June 08)
a) Seen around foramen magnum
b) Seen around epiphyseal plate
c) M ore prominent in adults
d) Shear strength increases with age
Which is the commonest fracture in children ?
a) Fracture clavicle
(PGI 96, A l 95)
b) Supracondylar fracture
c) Green stick fracture o f lower end o f radius
d) All o f the above

343.

344.

345.

346.

347.

348.

349.

350.

351.

In children best rem odelling is seen in fracture

with(AIIM S Feb 97)
a) Angulation in diaphysis
b) Angulation in metaphysis
c) Rotation in diaphysis
d) Rotation in metaphysis
Green stick fracture is (NEET/DNB Pattern)
a) Fracture in adults
b) Complete fracture
c) Incomplete fracture
d) Fracture spine
Type VI Rangs injury indudes (PGI D ec 08)
a) T ra n s v e rs e fra c tu re o f m e ta p h y sis w ith
longitudinal extension into physis
b) Open injury with loss o f physis
c) Thurston H ollands sign
d) Perichondrial ring injury
e) Intraarticular fractures
An 8 year old boy with a history o f fall from 10 feet
height complains of pain in the right ankle. X-ray
taken at that time are normal without any fracture
line. But after 2 years, he developed a calcaneovalgus
deformity. The diagnosis is (AIIMS May 01)
a) U ndiagnosed malunited fracture
b) Avascular nercrosis talus
c) Tibial epiphyseal injury
d) Ligamentous injury o f ankle joint
Perthes disease is - (AIIM S May 94, NEET/DNB
a) Fracture o f femoral shaft
Pattern)
b) Osteochondritis o f femoral epiphysis
c) Infarction o f femoral head
d) Fracture dislocation o f femoral neck
A 10 years old male with pain in left hip & limping
on examination restricted abduction & internal
rotation, probable diagnosis is - (AIIMS Nov 99)
a) Septic arthritis o f hip
b) Tuberculous arthritis o f hip
c) Congenital dislocation o f hip
d) Perthes disease
Which one of the following is the investigation of
choice for evaluation of suspected Perthes disease?
a) Plain X-ray
(AI 05)
b) Ultrasonography (US)
c) Computed Tomography (CT)
d) M agnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)
Perthes disease is treated by (AIIM SNov 93)
a) High dose o f calcium with steroids
b) Total hip replacement
c) S u p erv ised co n tain m en t o f fem oral head in
acetabulum
d) Relieving weight bearing
Regarding Perths disease all of the following are
correct except (PGI 95)
a) Osteonecrotic osteochondritis
b) Decreased bone age
c) Male predominance
d) Restricted abduction
e) Age o f onset has no affect on course

352.

353.

354.

355.

356.

357.

358.

359.

360.

361.

362.

True about perthes disease (PGI Nov 09)

a) Avascular necrosis o f femoral head
b) Onset before 10 years o f age
c) Osteotomy is used for treatment
d) Limb shortening
An 11 year old 70 kg. child presents with limitation of
abduction an internal rotation. There is tenderness
in scarpas triangle. On flexing the hip the limb is
abducted. The diagnosis is (AIIMS Nov 01)
a) Perthes disease
b) Slipped capital femoral epiphyses
c) Observation hip
d) Tuberculosis hip
14 year old boy with 78 kg weight & hypothyroidism
developed sudden onset of severe pain & tenderness
on left hip as a result o f minor fall. M ost likely
diagnosis is (PGI 95, JIPM ER 02)
a) Fracture neck femur
b)SCFE
c) Perthes
d) Hip Dislocation
Slipped capital fem oral epiphysis is seen most
commonly in which age group -(NEET/DNB Pattern)
a) Infants
b) Adolescents
c) Old age
d) Childhood
Comm onest deform ity in congenital dislocation
of hip(PG I 97)
a) Small head o f femur
b) Angle o f torsion
c) Decreased neck shaft angle
d) Shallow accetabulum
Primary pathology in CDH - (NEET/DNB Pattern)
a) Large head o f femur b) Shallow acetabulum
c) Excessive retroversion d) Everted limbus
AH o f the following statem ents are true about
development dysplasia (DDH) of the hip, except a) It is more common in females
(AI 06)
b) Oligohydramnios is associated with a higher risk
o f DDH
c) The hourglass appearance o f the capsule may
prevent a successful closed reduction
d) Twin pregnancy is a known risk factor
Which o f the following test is useful in diagnosis of
congenital dislocation o f hip ?
(PGI 99)
a) Barlows test
b) Thomas test
c) Hibbs test
d) Laguerres lest
Provocative Test for detecting CDH? (MH 10.NEET/
a) Peterson test
b) Barlow test DNBPattern)
c) Perkins test
d) Von Rosen tests
True about B/L CDH (PGI Dec 07, 06)
a) Exaggerated lordosis b) B/L genu valgum
c) Waddling gait
d) Shentons line broken
e) Short stature
Seen in B/L congenital hip dislocation is/are a) Short strature
(PGI June 01)
b) Wandering acetabulum
c) Waddling gait
d) Lumbar lordosis

363.

364.

365.

366.

367.

368.

369.

370.

371.

372.

373.

In a newborn child, abduction and internal rotation

produces a click sound. It is -(Andhra 93, Delhi 93)
a) O rtolanis sign
b) Telescoping sign
c) Lachm ans sign
d) Me M urrays sign
Dysplastic hip in a child, investigation o f choice a) X-ray
b)M RI
(NEET/DNB
c) USG
d) CT Scan
Pattern)
Von Rosen Splint is used in (PGI 97)
a) CTEV
b) CDH
c) Fracture shaft o f femur d) Fracture tibia
Absolute indication of X-ray of pelvis in case of
congenital dislocation of hip are all except a) Positive family history
(AIIMS June 99)
b) Breech presentation
c) Unstable hip
d) Shortening o f limb
TrueaboutCDH(PGINov. 10, June 09)
a) Usually b/1
b) Genu valgum
c) Wadding gait
d) Shentons line broken
e) Spine lordosis present
Talipes equinovarus is (PGI 97)
a) Equinus, inversion, abduction
b) Equines, inversion, adduction
c) Equines, eversion, adduction
d) Equines, eversion, abduction
CTEV is caused by all except -(PGIDec 01, June 01)
a) Neurological disorder b) Idiopathic
c) Spina fibida
d) Cubitus varus
e) Arthrogryposis multiplex
The ideal treatment of bilateral idiopathic clubfoot
in a newborn is (AI 06)
a) Manipulation by mother
b) M anipulation and Dennis Brown splint
c) M anipulation and casts
d) Surgical release
Triple arthrodesis involves-//!/01, NEET/DNB Pattern)
a) Calcaneocuboid, talonavicular and talocalcaneal
b) Tibiotalar, calcaneocuboid and talonavicular
c) Ankle joint, calcaneocuboid and talonavicular
d) None o f the above
Triple arthrodesis is NOT done before- skeletal
maturation because of (AIIMS June 98)
a) Shortening o f foot
b) Recurrence o f deformity
c) Inadequate fusion
d) Complete correction not possible
All are true statement regarding talipes euinovarus
except(PG I May 10)
a) Cubitus valgus
b) Inversion o f the foot
c) Abduction o f the forefoot
d) Arthrogryposis multiplex congenita causes it
c) Treatment should start after 3 month

374.

375.

376.

377.

378.

379.

380.

381.

382.

383.

TVue about CTEV(PGINov. 10)

a) A/w Arthrogroposis Multiplex Congenita
b) Spina bifida is a risk factor
c) A/w nerurological disease
d) Cubitus varus present
e) Mostly idiopathic
Treatment of club foot in new born is a) Observation ti 116 months o f age (AIIMS Dec 95)
b) Corrective splint application
c) Manipulation alone
d) Tendon release operation
Early CTEV is treated b y (UP 99)
a) CTEV cast from 1st postnatal day
b) M anipulation
c) Manipulation & Strapping
d) Operative repair as early as possible
Rocker bottom foot is seen in (PGI Dec 08)
a) Congenital vertical talus
b) Excessive correction o f Grice procedure
c) A rthrogryposis
d) Holding club foot in too long corrected position
e) Force dorsiflexion against equinus varus
A newborn child presents with inverted foot and the
dorsum ofthe foot cannot touch the anterior tibia.
The most probable diagnosis is - (AIIM SNov 10)
a) Congenital vertical talus
b) Arthrogryposis M ultiplex
c) CTEV
d) Flat foot
Psedoarthrosis is seen in all of the following excepta) Idiopathic
b) Fracture
(Al 98)
c) Osteomyelitis
d) Neurofibromatosis
Phocomelia is best described as (A l 98, 96)
a) Defect in development o f long bones
b) Defect in development o f flat bones
c) Defect o f intramembranous ossification
d) Defect o f cartilage replacement by bone
M usculoskeletal abnorm alities in neurofibro
matosis is (UP 01)
a) Hypertrophy o f limb
b) Scoliosis
c) Pseudoarthrosis
d) All
Transient synovitis (toxic synovitis) of the hip is
characterized by all o f the following, except a) May follow upper respiratory infection
b) ESR and white blood cell counts are usually normal
c) Ultrasound o f the jo in t reveals widening o f the
joint space
(AIIMS M ay 06)
d) The hip is typically held in adduction and internal
rotation
A 7yr. old boy with abrupt onset of pain in hip with
hip held in abduction. Hemogram is normal. ESR is
raised. W hat is the next line of managementa) Hospitalize and observe
(AIIMS May 09)
b) Ambulatory observation
c) Intravenous antibiotics
d) USG guided aspiration o f hip

384.

385.

386.

387.

388.

389.

390.

391.

392.

393.

394.

A six year old boy presents to the em ergency

department with a painful limp. Clinical examination
reveals tenderness in the femoral triangle and some
limitation of hip movements. An X-ray was done which
was normal. Which of the following should be the
next course of action ?
(A l 11)
a) Wait and Watch/Observation
b) U ltrasonogrpahy
c) A spiration
d) MRI Scan
The characteristic triad of Klippel -Feil syndrome
includes all of the following, Except(A l 10)
a) Short neck
b) Low hair line
c) Limited neck movements d) Elevated scapula
Tn klippel - Feil syndrome, the patient has all of the
following clinical features except(A l 05)
a) Low hair line
b) Bilateral Neck webbing
c) Bilateral shortness o f steronomastoid muscles
d) Gross limitations o f neck movements
Sprengelsdeformity is(UP2K)
a) Absence o f clavicle
b) Acomioclavicular dislocation
c) Congenital elevation o f scapula
d) Recurrent dislocation o f shoulder
Sprengels shoulder is due to deformity - (TN 02)
a) Scapula
b) Humerus
c) Clavicle
d) Vertebra
A b o u t c o n g e n ita l t o r tic o llis a ll are true
except (AIIM SM ay 07,A l 07)
a) Always associated with breech extraction
b) Spontaneous resolution in most cases
c) 2/3rd cases have palpable neck mass at birth
d) Uncorrected cases develop plagiocephaly
Pappu, 7 yrs old young boy, had fracture of lateral
condyle o f femur. He developed malunion as the
fracture was not reduced anatomically. Malunion
will produce(A l 02)
a) G enuvulgum
b) Genu varum
c) Genu recurvatum
d) Dislocation o f knee
Most common cause of genu valgum in children is a) Osteoarthritis
b) Rickets
c) Pagers disease
d) Rheumatoid arthritis
Which statement is true regarding genu varum
(bowleg)(PG ID ec. 01)
a) In infants, it may be considered normal
b) Occurs due to epiphyseal dysplasia
c) Seldom associated with tibial angulation
d) Affects only tibia but nerve femur
e) Does not require any treatment
Blounts disease is (A 1 11, P G I June 00)
a) Genu valgum
b) Genu varum
c) Genu recurvatum
d) M eniscal injury
B lo u n ts d sease is associated w ith all o f the
follwoing, except (Al 11)
a) Genu varum
b) Genu Recurvatum
c) Internal Tibial Torsion d) External Tibial Torsion

395.

396.

397.

398.

399.

400.

401.

402.

403.

404.

Nail patella syndrome is characterized by a) Iliac horn

b) Sacral horn
c) Absent patella
d) Knee deformity
e) Dislocation o f patella
Commonest presentation of congenital dislocation
of knee is (AIIMS Sept 96, M H 11)
a) Varus
b) Valgus
c) Flexion
d) Hyperextension
Fairbank triangle is seen in -(NEET/DNB Pattern)
a) CDH
b) Congenital coxa vara
c) Perthes disease
d)SCFE
Congenital Coxa vara is treated by - (PGI June 04)
a) Fixation by SP Nail
b) Osteotomy
c) Bone grafting
d) Traction
e) Splint
All the follow ing are causes o f a painful limp
except(Al 95)
a) Slipped femoral epiphysis b) TB o f the hip
c) Perthes disease
d) Infantile Coxa Vara
The commonest cause o f limp in a child o f seven
years is (UP 02)
a) T.B. hip
b)C.D.H
c) Perthes diseased) Slipped upper femoral epiphysis
Traumatic dislocation of epiphysial plate of femur
occurs (PGIDec. 02)
a) Medially
b) Laterally
c) Posteriorly
d) Rotationaliy
e) Anteriorly
Epiphyseal enlargement occurs in - (AIIMS May 94)
a) Pagets disease
b) Sheurm anns disease
c) Epiphyseal dysplasia d) Hemophilia
Epiphyseal dysgenesis is a feature of-(AIIMSMay 93)
a) Hyperparathyroidism b) Hypoparathyroidism
c) Hypothyroidism
d) Hyperthyroidism
Metaphyseal lesion in children include - (PGI 91)
a) Fracture
b) Osteomyelitis
c) Dislocation
d) Ewings tumour
e) Osteosarcoma

METABOLIC AND ENDOCRINE BONE

DISORDERS
405.

406.

407.

Caffeys disease is (UP 03)

a) Renal osteodystrophy
b) Infantile cortical hyperostosis
c) Osteomyelitis o f jaw in children
d) Chronic osteomyelitis in children
Osteomalacia is assciated with (A l 03)
a) Decreases in osteoid volume
b) Decrease in osteoid surface
c) Increase in osteoid m aturation time
d) Increase in mineral apposition rate
Osteomalacia is due to (NEET/DNB Pattern)
a) Vitamin C deficiency
b) Vitamin D deficiency
c) Vitamin E deficiency
d)N one

408.

409.

410.

411.

412.

413.

414.

415.

416.

417.

418.

419.

Basic pathological defect in rickets is a) Decreased osteoblastic activity (VP 97, RA 98)
b) Non functional osteoclast
c) Defective osteoclastic resorption o f uncalcified
osteoid and cartilage
d) Defective proliferation o f physis
Decreased mineralization of Epiphyseal plate in a
growing child is seen in (AI 2K)
a) Rickets
b) Osteomalacia
c) Scurvy
d) Osteoporosis
True about nutritional rickets (PGI Dec 03)
a) Craniotabes
b) M ultiple#
c) W idening o f wrist
d) I Phosphate in serum
e) Growth retardation
Rickets in infant present as all except (Aiims M ay 07, NEET/DNB Pattern)
a) Cranitabes
b) W idened Fontanel
c) Rachitic Rosary
d) Bow legs
Which of the following is a persistant biochemical
marker of rickets (AI 98)
a) S.C'a'1
b) S. Alkaline phosphatase
c) S. Acid phosphate
d) S. phosphate
Radiological features of rickets include a) Narrowing o f epiphysis
(PGI Dec 05)
b) Cupping o f metaphysis
c) Ricketic rosary
d) Pelkans spur
Windswept deformity is seen ia-(NEET/DNB Pattern)
a) A chondroplasia
b) Ankylosing spondylitis
c) Rickets
d) Scurvy
All are true regarding Osteomalacia except a) High serum C a "
(PGI Nov 09)
b) Normal serum phosphate
c) Normal serum calcium
d) Osteosclerotic lesions
e) Pseudofracture seen
M ilkmans Fracture is a type o f(AI 09)
a) Pseudofracture
b) Clavicular fracture
c) Humeral fracture
d) Metacarpal fracture
Increased alkaline phosphate in seen in - (AI99)
a) Multiple myeloma
b) Primary hyperparathyroidism
c) Chronic renal failure
d) O steoporosis
Alkaline phosphatase is elevated in all excepta) Rickets
(AIIMS Dec 97)
b) Osteomalacia
c) Hypoparathyroidism
d) Hypophosphatem ia
A patient Shw eta with raised serum alkaline
p hosp hatase and raised parath orm one level
along with low cacium and low phosphate level is
likely to have (AIIMS June 99)
a) Primary hyperparathyroidism
b) Pagets disease
c) O steoporosis
d) Vitamin D deficiency

420.

421.

422.

423.

424.

425.

426.

427.

428.

429.

During a routine check up, a 67-year- old man is

found to have a level of serum alkaline phosphatase
three times the upper limit of normal. Serum calcium
and phosphorus concentrations and liver funcition
test results are normal. He is asymptomatic. The
most likely diagnosis is (AIIMS Nov. 99)
a) Metastatic bone disease
b) Primary hyperparathyroidism
c) Pagets disease o f bone
d) Osteomalacia
A 67 year old man on biochemical analysis found to
have three fold rise o f level o f serum alkaline
phosphatase that of upper limit of norm value during
a ro u tin e ch eck u p but serum calciu m and
phosphorous concentration and liver function test
results and normal. He is asvmpto-matic. The
probable cause is (AIIMS 99)
a) Multiple myeloma
b) Pagets disease o f bone
c) Primary hyperparathyroidism
d) Osteomalacia
A young patient presents with enlargem ent of
costocondral junction and with the white line of
Fraenkel at the metaphysis. The diagnosis is a) Scruvy
b) Rickets
c) Hyperparathyroidism d) Osteomalacia
A 50 year old man presented w ith m ultiple
pathological fractures. His serum calcium was 11.5
mg/dl and phosphate was 2.5 mg/dl. Alkaline
phosphatase was 940 I.U./dl. The most probable
diagnosis is (AIIMS Nov 05)
a) O steoporosis
b) Osteomalacia
c) Multiple myeloma
d) Hyperparathyroidism
Hyperparathyroidism causes a) Multiple bone cysts
(NEET/DNB Pattern)
b) Subperiosteal bone resorption
c) Browns tumor
d) All o f the above
Brown Tumor is seen in (AI 10, 06)
a) Hypothyroidism
b) Hyperthyroidism
c) Hypoparathyroidism
d) Hyperparathyroidism
Resorption o f the terminal phalanx is not seen
in (KERALA 98)
a) Hyperparathyroidism b) Reiters syndrome
c) Scleroderma
d) Psoriasis
Tufting of the terminal phalanx is not seen in-(AI95)
a) Hypoparathyroidism
b) Hyperparathyroidism
c) Hyperthyroidism
d) Hypothyroidism
Absence o f lamina dura in the alveolus occurs
in (DPG Mar. 09)
a) Rickets
b) Osteomalacia
c) Deficiency ofVitamin C d) Hyperparathyroidism
Which of the following is a primary defect in Pagets
disease?
(WB 2K)
a) O steoblast
b) Osteoclast
c) O steocyte
d) Fibroblast

430.

Pagets disease of bone commonly affects-(PGIJune 01,

a) Skull
b) Vertebra
Dec 06, 2K)
c) Pelvis
d) Femur
e) Humerus
431. Treatm ent o f choice for Pagets disease of the
bone is (Al 95)
a) Vitamin D
b) Immobilization ofthe limb
c) Surgical treatment d) Calcitonin
432. All of the following statements regarding Pagets
disease are correct except (Manipal 97)
a) Females are affected more than males
b) It frequently leads to Osteogenic sarcoma
c) Scrum alkaline phosphates level is T ed
d) Also called as Osteitis deformans
433. True about pagets disease (PG I Nov 09)
a) Common in young girl 10-16 yr o f age
b) tALP
c) Associated with hypercalcemia &
hypophosphatem ia
d) More common in female
e) Associated with chondrosarcoma
434. 60 yrs old male with bony abnormality at upper tibia
associated with sensorineural hearing loss. On
laboratory examination serum alkaline phosphatase
levels are (440mU/I) elevated and serum Ca^and
PO_, are norm al, Skeletal survey shows ivory
vertebrae and cotton wool spots in x-ray skull.
Diagnosis is (AIIM SM ay 07)
a) Fibrous dysplasia
b) Pagets disease
c) Osteosclerotic metastasis d) Osteoporosis
435. Pagets disease after 10 years develops into a) Osteosarcom a
(NEET/DNB Pattern)
b) Fibrous cortical defect
c) Osteoid osteoma
d) Ankylosing spondylitis
436. Pagets disease also known as (PGI June 2K)
a) Osteitis deformans
b) Osteitis fibrosa cystica
c) O steochondritis
d) Osteomalacia
e) Marble bone disease
437. Osteoporosis is characterized b y- (PGI J u n e 05)
a) Increased serum alkaline phosphatase
b) Decreased bone density
c) Wasting o f muscles
d) L oosers zone seen
e) Decreased serum Ca2+
438. Osteoporosis is seen in (A l 94)
a) Thyrotoxicosis
b) Cushings disease
c) M enopause
d) All o f the above
439. All are causes of Osteoporosis, except(AI00)
a) Thyrotoxicosis
b) Hypothyroidism
c) Chronic heparin therapy d) Old age
440. Osteporosis may be seen in all ex cep t-^ / 98, 96, 94)
a) Hyperparathyroidism
b) Hypoparathyroidism
c) Thyrotoxicosis
d) Heparin administration

441.

Osteoporosis is characterized most commonly by a) Fracture vertebra

b) Backache (Al 99, 94)
c) Bowing o f legs
d) Abdominal pain
442. Most common site of osteoporosis(NEET/DNB
a) Humerus
b) Vertebrae
Pattern)
c) Scapula
d) Flat bones
443. W h ich o f th e fo llo w in g is seen
in
osteoporosis (AIIM S June 2K)
a) Low Ca, high P 0 4, high alkaline phosphatase
b) Low Ca, low P 0 4, low alkaline phosphatase
c) Normal Ca, normal P 0 4, normal alkaline phosphatase
d) Low Ca, low P 0 4, normal alkaline phosphatase
444. True about osteoporosis(PGI Dec 07)
a) T with age
b) Due to diet deficiency in Ca
c) Commonly presented with #
d) Cod- fish vertebra seen
445. Treatment of postmenopausal osteoporosis a) Tamoxifen
b) Progesterone (PGI June 06)
c) Estrogen
d) Alendronate
e) Calcitonin
446. Rx of postmenopausal osteoporosis- (PGI D ec 04)
a) Calcitonin
b) Alendronate
c) Progesterone
d) Tamoxifiene
e) Androgen
447. All of the following agents decreases bone resorption
in osteoporosis, Except (A l II)
a) Alendronate
b) Etidronate
c) Strontium
d) Teriparatide
448. B one d e n sity is d ec re a sed in w hich o f the
following (PGI June 02)
a) O steoporosis
b) AVN o f bone
c) O steopetrosis
d) Fracture and collapse o f cancellous bone
e) Fluorosis

AVASCULAR NECROSIS &

OSTEOCHONDROSES
449.

450.

451.

Avascular necrosis can be a possible sequelae

of fracture of all of the following bones, except a) Femur neck
b) Scaphoid
(A l 03)
c) Talus
d) Calcanucm
Traumatic avascular necrosis occurs in which
fracture (PGI June 01, Dec 2K)
a) Neck femur
b) Surgical neck humerus
c) Talus
d) Lunate
e) Scaphoid
M ost common site of avascular necrosis amongst
the following is (A l 99)
a) Medial candyle o f fem ur#
b) Talus #
c) Olecranon #
d) Head of the radius #

452.

453.

454.

455.

456.

457.

458.

459.

460.

Avascular necrosis seen in -(PGI June 04, Nov 10)

a) # Surgical neck o f humerus b )# Neck o f scapula
c) # Neck o f talus
d) # Neck o f femur
e) # Neck o f radius
Traumatic fracture showing avascular necrosis a) Femoral neck
(PGI Dec 07)
b) Surgical neck o f humerus
c) Body o f talus
d) Cuboid
Posttraumatic avascular necrosis occur in fracture
of(PGI June 09)
a) Neck femur
b) Surgical neck humerus
c) N eck talus
d) Waist scaphoid
e) Ncck radius
Aseptic necrosis can occur in (PGI Dec OH)
a) Perthes disease
b) Slipped capital femoral epiphysis
c) Steroid administration
d) Caisson disease
e) G auchers disease
Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for
avascular necrosis of head of femur ? (COMED 09)
a) Alcohol
b) Smoking
c) Obesity
d) Chondromyxoid fibroma
A 45 year old was given steroids after renal transplant.
After 2 years he had difficulty in walking and pain
in both hips. Which one o f the following is most
likely cause (A l 05)
a) Primary osteoarthritis b) Avascular necrosis
c) Tuberculosis
d) Aluminum toxicity
A thirty one year old male with neprhrotic syndrome
complains o f pain in right hip joint of 2 months
duration. The movements at the hip arc free but
painful terminally. The most likely diagnosis is a) Tuberculosis o f hip
(AIIMS Nov 03)
b) Avascular necrosis o f femoral head
c) Chondrolysis o f hip
d) Pathological fracture o f femoral neck
A woman of 45, a known cause of pemphigus vulgaris
on a regular treatm ent with controlled primary
disease presented with pain in the right hip and knee.
Examination revealed no limb length discrepancy
but the patient has tenderness in the scarpa's triangle
and limitation of abduction and internal rotation of
the right hip joints as compared to the other side.
The most probable diagnosis is a) Stress fracture o f ncck o f femur (AIIMS May 04)
b) Avascular necrosis o f femoral head
c) Perthes disease
d) Transient synovitis o f hip
A patient of nephrotic syndrome taking steroids
for 6 years presented with a limping gait and of
limitation of abduction and internal rotation. He
most probably has (AIIM S Nov 01)
a) Primary osteoarthritis b) Avascular necrosis
c) Tuberculosis
d) Aluminum toxicity

461.

After chronic use o f steroids severe pain in right

, hip with im mobility is due to -(NEET/DNB Pattern)
a) Avascular necrosis
b) Perthes disease
c) Hip dislocation
d) Osteoarthritis
462. A 50-year-old man sustained posterior dislocation
of left hip in an accident. Dislocation w as reduced
after 3 days. He started complaining of pain in left
hip after 6 months. X-ray of the pelvis were normal.
The most relevant investigation at this stage will
be(AIIMS Dec 04)
a) CRP Levels in blood
b) Ultrasonography ofhip
c) Arthrography o f hip
d) MRI ofhip
463. Avascular necrosis of hip, investigation of choice a) MRI
b)USG
(NEET/DNB
c) CT
d)XRAY
Pattern)
464. Avascular necrosis of femur seen in -(PGI Dec 04)
a) Steroid therapy
b) G auchers disease
c) Fracture
d) Pancreatitis
465. Avascular necrosis is seen in (PGI Dec 02)
a) Sickle cell disease
b) Thalassemia
c) Polycythemia
d) Hyperparathyroidism
466. Osteonecrosis of femoral head seen in a) Sickle cell disease
b) G auchers disease
c) Polycythcmia
d) Hyperparathyroidism
e) Fracture
(PGI June 05)
467. Avascular necrosis is/are seen in - (PGI Nov 09)
a) Fracture neck o f femur b) G auchers disease
c) Polycythemia
d) Hyperparathyroidusm
e) Sickle cell disease
468. Which joint is commonly involved in osteochondritis
dessicans (A l 95, NEET/DNB Pattern)
a) Ankle joint
b) Knee joint
c) Wrist joint
d) Elbow joint
469. M ost
common
site
of
osteochondritis
dessicans (AIIMS June 98)
a) Lateral part o f the medial femoral condyle
b) Medial part o f the medial femoral condyle
c) Lateral part o f the lateral femoral condyle
d) Medial part o f the lateral femoral condyle
470. Kinebocks disease is due to avascular necrosis ofa) Femoral neck
(Al 03)
b) Medial cuneiform bone
c) Lunate bone
d) Scaphoid bone
471. W hich of the following is true about manifestations
of Kienbocks disease (PGI Dec 05)
a) Constant tenderness is present
b) Seen in old age
c) Restriction o f joint movement is late sequale
d) Tenderness in lunate bone
e) Ulna is shortened
472. Osgood-Schllatters disease is seen in a) Proximal tibia
b) Proximal femur
c) Distal tibia
d) Distal femur
e) Patella
(PGI Nov 10, Dec 01)

473.

474.

475.

Osgood Shattller disease (PGI June 07)

a) Involve the knee joint b) Pelvis
c) Wrist joint
d) Cervical spine
What is K ienbochs disease(A IIM SJune2K )
a) Osteochondritis o f lunate
b) Osteochondritis o f neck o f femur
c) Osteochondritis o f navicular
d) Osteochondritis o f tibial condyle
Osteonecrosis is not seen in - (NEET/DNB Pattern)
a) Olliefs disease
b) Kienboch
c) Kohlers disease
d) Perthes disease

484.

485.

486.

JO INT DISORDERS (ARTHRITIS)

487.
476.

477.

478.

479.

480.

481.

482.

883.

All of the following statements about synovial fluid

are true, Except(AIIMS M ay 10, A! 09)
a) Secreted prim arily by type A synovial cells
b) Follows Non - Newtonian fluid kinetics
c) Contains hyaluronic acid
d) Viscosity is variable
The articular cartilage is characterized by all of the
following features except (DPG 10)
a) It is devoid o f perichondrium
b) It has a rich nerve supply
c) It is avascular
d) It lacks the capacity to regenerate
Which of the following statements about changes in
articular cartilage w ith aging is not true - (AI 10)
a) Total proteoglycan content is decreased
b) Synthesis o f proteoglycans is decreased
c) Enzymatic degradation o f proteoglycans is
increased
d) Total water content o f cartilage is decreased
Osteoarthritis following is not a predisposing
factor (KERALA 96)
a) Diabetes mellitus
b) Defective joint position
c) W eightbearing joints
d) Incongruity o f articular surfaces
e) Old age
Ostearthritis commonly involves- (PGI June 02)
a) Proximal IP joint
b) Distal IP joint
c) Is'carpom etacarpal joint d) Wrist joint
e) Distal radio - ulnar joint
The most common site o f primary osteoarthrosis
is (TAMILNADV 97)
a) I lip joint
b) Knee joint
c) Ankle joint
d) Shoulder joint
Heberdens Arthropathy affects(AI05)
a) Lumbar spine
b) Symmetrically large joints
c) Sacroiliac joints d) Distal interphalangeal joints
Bouchards nodes are seen in (DPG Mar. 09)
a) Proximal IPjoints
b) Distal IP joints
c) Sternoclavicularjoints d) Knee joint

488.

489.

490.

491.

492.

493.

Osteoarthritis is associated with all of the following

except(AI 99)
a) Decreased joint space
b) Subchondral sclerosis
c) Osteophyte formation
d) C a deposition in joint space
Which o f these muscles undergoes w asting first in
osteoarthritis knee-f/f/ 07, AIIM S May 07, Nov. 11)
a) Quadriceps only
b) Hamstrings only
c) Gastronemius
Deformity most com m only seen in primary
osteoarthritis of knee joint - (NEET/DNB Pattern)
a) Genu valgum
b) Genu recurratuni
c) Genu varus
d) Procurvatum.
A 6 8 yr old man came with pain and swelling of
right knee. Ahlback grade 2 osteoarthritic changes
were found on investigation. W hat is the further
management?
(A llM S May 10)
a) Arthroscopic washout b) High tibial osteotomy
c) Total knee replacement d) Conservative
A 65 years old lady presented with a swollen and
painful knee. On examination, she was found to have
grade III osteoarthritic changes. What is the best
course of action?
(AI It)
a) Conservative management
b) Arthroscopic washing
c) Partial knee replacement
d) Total knee replacement
All of the following statements about High Tibial
Osteotomy are true, Except (AI 09)
a) Magnitude o f correction achieved is greater
than 30
b) Indicated in Unicompartmental osteoarthritis
c) Performed through concellous bone
d) Recurrence is a long term complication
All true about high tibial osteotomy except a) Can correct varus over 30 degress
b) Deformity recurs after a long time
c) Done through cancellous bone (AIIMS M ay 11)
d) Done in case o f unicompartmental disease
Severe disability' in primary osteoarthritis of hip is
best managed by (PGI 95)
a) Arthrodesis
b) A rthroplasty
c) Me M urrays osteotomy
d) Intra-articular hydrocortisone and physiotherapy
Osteoarthritis all arc true except - (PGIDec 03, 02)
a) Occurs after 50 years o f age
b) Single joint involvement
c) Heberdens node present
d) Lower limb deformity seen
e) Ankylosis occurs
40 years patient having arthritis of PIP and DIP along
with carpometacarpal joint of thumb and sparing of
wrist and metacarpophalangeal joint, most likely
diagnosis is - (AI 01, 00, AIIM S June 99, Dec 95)
a) Rheumatoid arthritis
b) Osteoarthritis
c) Psoriatic arthritis
d) Pseudogout

494.

495.

496.

497.

498.

499.

500.

501.

502.

503.

Which joint is spared in Rheumatoid arthritis a) MP joints o f hand

(NEET/DNB Pattern)
b) DIP joints o f finger
c) PIP joints o f finger
d) Atlanto-axial joint
Swan-neck deformity is (AIIMS2K, PGI 92)
a) Flexion of Metacarpophalangeal joint and extension
at interphalangcal joint
b) Extension at Proximal interphalangcal joint and
flexion at Distal interphalangeal joint
c) Flexion at proximal interphalangeal joint and
extension at distal interphalangeal joint
d) Extension at Metacarpophalangeal joint and flexion
at interphalangealjoint
Butonniere deformity' occur due to - (PGI Dec 08)
a) Flexion o f Proximal interphalangealjoint
b) Flexion at Distal interphalangealjoint
c) Extension at Distal interphalangealjoint
d) Extension at Mctarcarpophalangeal joint
e) Flexion at Mctarcarpophalangeal joint
Joint not involved in Rheumatoid arthritis according
to 1987 modified ARA criteria? (AIIMS Dec 08)
a) Knee
b) Ankle
c) Tarsometatarsal
d) Metatarsophalangeal
Rheumatoid arthritis is associated with all except a) Cardiac involvement
(NEET/DNB Pattern)
b) Bauchards nodes
c) Herberdens node
d) Swan-neck deformity
W hat is pathognomic feature o f rheumatoid
arthritis?
(AIIMS May 05)
a) Rheumatoid factor
b) Rheumatoid nodule
c) Morning stiffness
d) Ulnar drift o f fingers
Rheumatoid factor in rheumatoid arthritis is
important because (A l 02)
a) RA factor is associated with bad prognosis
b) Absent RA factor rules out the diagnosis o f
Rheumatoid arthritis
c) It is very common in childhood Rheumatoid arthritis
d) It correlates with disease activity
In rheumatoid arthritis, pathology starts in thea) Articular cartilage
b) Capsule
(A l 95)
c) Synovium
d) Muscles
In a case of undifferentiated arthritis, presence of
anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (anti CCP) indicates
strong possibility o f which of the following?
a) Rheumatoid arthritis
(U P SC -110)
b) Systemic lupus erythematosis
c) Mixed connective tissue disorder
d) Reactive arthritis
All the following are true about Rheumatoid arthritis
except(A l 94)
a) Positives for Anti-IgG antibody
b) Juxta-articular osteoporosis
c) M orning stiffness
d) C Reactive protein indicates better prognosis

504.

505.

506.

507.

508.

509.

510.

511.

512.

513.

514.

All are features of Rheumatoid - arthritis, EXCEPTa) Osteosclerosis of jo in t

(AIIM S June 97)
b) Soft tissue swelling
c) Narrowing o f joint space
d) Periarticular osteoporosis
Which of the following is true regarding Rheumatoid
arthritis(A l 94)
a) Typically involves small and large joints
symmetrically but spares the cervical spine
b) Causes pleural effusion with low sugar
c) Pulmonary nodules are absent
d) Enthesopathy prominent
Which is true regarding rheumatoid arthritis a) Small and large joints are affected mostly
b) Younger females are affcctcd more commonly
c) Diagnosed only if Rheumatoid factor is positive
d) Life expectancy is unchanged
(PGI Dec 06)
e) Hepatosplenomegaly is common
True about Rheumatoid arthritis (PGI Dec 06)
a) Involves peripheral joints more commonly than
axial joints
b) Does not decrease life expectancy
c) A/w vasculitis
d) Adrenal hyperplasia
Earliest radiological change in RA a) Decreased joint space
(NEET/DNB Pattern)
b) Articular erosion
c) Periarticular osteopenia
d) Subchondral cyst
True regarding feltys syndrome is all, except a) Splenomegaly
(AIIMS Dec 97)
b) Rheumatoid arthritis
c) Neutropenia
d) N ephropathy
Indication of systemic steroids in Rheumatoid
arthritis is (Al 97)
a) Mononeuritis multiplex
b) Carpal tunnel syndrome
c) Presence o f deformities
d) Articular cartilage involvement
Wind-sweep deformity is seen in -(AIIM SDec 98)
a) Ankyloising spondylitis b) Scurvy
c) Rheumatoid arthritis
d) Rickets
All the following diseases are associated with HILA
B-27 & Uveitis, except (A l 00)
a) Bechcets syndrome
b) Psoriasis
c) Ankylosing Spondylitis d) Reiters syndrome
Seronegative arthritis include(AIIM S 01)
a) Ankylosing spondylitis b) Reiters arthritis
c) Psoriatic arthritis
d) Entcropathic arthritis
e) All o f the above
Spondyloarthopathy w hich is seronegative are all
except (NEET/DNB Pattern)
a) AS
b) Psoriasis
c) JRA
d) Reiter syndrome

515.

516.

517.

518.

519.

520.

521.

522.

523.

524.

525.

Ankylosing apondylitis is associated with - (Al 99)

a) HLA-B27

b) HLA - B-8
c) HLA - DW4/DR4
d) HLA - DR3
Which is not involved in Ankylosing spondylitis (A IM S Dec 95, AIIM S 93)
a) Knee & Ankle
b) Sacroilac Jt.
c) Wrist & elbow
d) Spine
All arc true regarding Anklosing spondylitis
except(PGI 97)
a) Sacroilitis
b)HLA-B27
c) Iridocyclitis
d) More common in females
In ankylosing spondylitis, radiological change are
first seen in (DPG 10)
a) Sacro-iliacjoints
b) Intervertebral ligament
c) Vertebral bodies
d) Intervertebral discs
Earliest investigation for diagnosis of Ankylosing
spondylitis(PGI M ay 10)
a) MRI STIR sequence
b) Bone scan
c) CT scan
d) X- ray
e) USG
True statem ents about ankylosing spondylitis
include all except(Manipal 09)
a) HLA-B27 is found in 90% o f sufferers
b) Uveitis is found in 15 to 20% o f sufferers
c) The conditions is commoner in female
d) The radiological changes can occur in the spine
before symptoms
A 65 yrs old man with H/O back pain since 3 months.
ESR is raised. On examination marked stiffness
and mild restriction o f chest movements is found.
On x-ray, syndesmophytes are present in vertebrae.
Diagnosis is (AHMS May 10)
a) Ankylosing spondylitis
b) Degenerative osteoarthritis o f spine
c) Ankylosing hyperosteosis
d) Lumbar canal stenosis
Syndermophytes are seen in (UP 08)
a) AS
'
b) RA
c) OA
d)All
Bamboo spine with sacroilitis - (NEET/DNB Pattern)
a) Ankylosing spondylitis b)RA
c) OA
d) Psoriatic arthritis
Enthesopathy is commonly found in (PGI 94)
a) Rheumatoid arthritis
b) Rheumatic fever
c) Ankylosing spondylitis
d) Osteoarthritis
Which one of the following definitions best fits the
term enthesitis ?
(UPSC-I 09)
a) Inflammation at the site o f tendinous or ligamentous
insertion into bone
b) Inflammation o f the periarticular membrane lining
the joint capsule
c) Inflammation o f a sac-like cavity near a joint that
decreases friction
d) A palpable vibratory or crackling sensation elicited
with joint motion

526.

527.

528.

529.

530.

531.

532.

533.

534.

535.

536.

537.

All are true regarding psoriatic arthritis except a) Arthritis mutilans

(PGI 02, JIPMER 01)
b) DIP involvement
c) Ankylosis o f small joints
d) Sacroilitis
e) Lengthening o f digit known as telescoping
Terminal interphalangeal joints of hands are
commonly involved in (Al 93)
a) Psoriatic arthropathy b) Rheumatoid arthritis
c) Still diseases
d) Ankylosing spondylitis
True about psoriatic arthritis are all expect a) HLA-CoXS association
(NEET/DNB Pattern)
b) Involvement o f DIP joint
c) More common in males
d) DOC is methotrexate
A 35 year old male develops involvements o f PIP,
DIP and metacarpophalangeal joints w ith sparing
of wrist and carpometacarpal joints. The probable
diagnosis is (AIIMS June 99)
a) Psoriatic arthopathy
b) Osteoarthritis
c) Rheumatoid arthritis
d) Pseudo gout
MC joint involved in G out(AIIMS May 95)
a) Knee
b)H ip
c) MP joint o f the big toe d) MP joint o f thumb
Which of the following is not affected in gout?
a) M uscle
b) Skin
(PGI Dec 2k)
c) Cartilage
d) Tendon
e) Bursa
In gout tophi is found in -(PGI Nov. 10, PGI June 03)
a) Synovial fluid
b) Articular Cartilage
c) Joint capsule
d) Skin
e) Muscle
In a patient with gouty arthritis, synovial fluid
aspiration will show (A l 09)
a) Monosodium Urate crystals
b) Calcium Pyrophosphate crystals
c) Mononuclear Leucocytosis
d) Polymorphonuclear Leukocytosis
Specific test for gout is - (AI 98, AIIM S Sept 96)
a) Raised serum uric acid level
b) Raised uric acid in synovial fluid o f joint
c) Raised urea level
d) Raised urease enzyme level
A person has severe pain & swelling in great toe.
True statements are (PGI June 09)
a) Allopurinol used in acute control o f gout
b) Colchicine acts slowly
c) Colchicine cause gastrointestinal disturbances
d) High serum uric acid level may be not present
e) Joint fluid aspiration is done for investigation
Drug used in acute gout (NEET/DNB Pattern)
a) Allopurinol
b) Probenacid
c) Colchicine
d) Sulfinpyrazone
CPPD crystals are seen in which disease a) Hypothyroidism
(NEET/DNB Pattern)
b) Primary hyperparathyroidism
c) Hemochromatosis
d) All o f the above

538.

539.

540.

541.

542.

543.

544.

545.

546.

547.

548.

549.

Which of the following is not seen in pseudogout a) Small joints affected

(AIIMS Nov 09)
b) Large joints affected
c) Chondrocalcinosis
d) Deposition o f calcium pyrophosphate
How to differentiate gout with pseudogout a) Large joint involvement
(PGI June 2k)
b) Birefringent (Particles) crystals
c) Serum uric acid normal
d) Associated with hyperparathyroidism
e) Pain is very intense
A lady presents with right knee swelling. Aspiration
was done in w hich CPPD crystals were obtained.
Next best investigation is (AIIMSMay 10)
a) ANA
b)RF
c) CPK
d)TSH
A 60 year old man with diabetes mellitus presents
with painless, swollen right ankle joint. Radiographs
of the ankle show destroyed joint with large number
of loose bodies. The most probable diagnosis is a) C harcots joint
b) Cluttons joint (AI03)
c) Osteoarthritis
d) Rheumatoid arthritis
Most common charcots joints involved in diabetes
mellitus are those o f(AI97)
a) Shoulder
b) Ankle
c) Knee
d) Foot
False about Charcot's joint in diabetes mellitus isa) Limitation o f movements with bracing
(AI 08)
b) A rthrodesis
c) Total ankle replacement
d) A rthrocentesis
Most common site for Pseduotumour like growth
in haemophilic arthropathy is (AI 98)
a) Quadriceps femoris
b) Hamstring muscle
c) Gastrocnemius
d) Iliopsoas
M ultiple loose bodies are seen in - (PGI June 01)
a) Osteochondritis dessicans
b) Synovial chondromatosis
c) Osteoarthritis
d) Rheumatoid arthritis
c) Osteogenesis imperfecta
Osseous loose bodies in the joints are common in
all of the follow ing, except (DPGFeb. 09)
a) Osteochondritis dessicans
b) Osteoarthritis
c) Osteochondral fracture
d) Rheumatoid arthritis
Joints o f hand are not affected in (NEET/DNB
a) AS
b)RA
Pattern)
c) OA
d) Psoriatic arthritis
Chondrocalcinosis is seen in (AIIMS M ay 02)
a) O chronosis
b) Hypoparathyroidism
c) Rickets
d) Hypervitaminosis D
Erosion o f bone is seen with all of the follow ing
except (AI 94)
a) Gout
b) SLF
c) Psoriasis
d) Rheumatoid arthritis

550.

Which is NOT characterized by bony lesion a) Gout

b) SLE (AIIMS Dec 94)
c) Psoriasis
d) Rheumatoid arthritis
551. The earliest manifestation of Alkaptonuria is a) Ankylosis o f lumbodorsal spine
b) Ochronotic arthritis
c) Prostatic calculi
d) Pigmentation o f tympanic membrane
e) All o f the above
552. Deforming Polyarthritis is associated associated
with all of the follow ing except (JIPMER 99)
a) Rheumatoid arthritis
b) Psoriatic arthritis
c) Behcets syndrome
d) Ankylosing spondylitis

SKELETAL INFECTIONS
553.

Acute Osteomyelitis is most commonly caused by a) Staphylococcus aureus

(A 102, UP 98)
b) Actinomyces bovis
c) Nocardia asteroids
d) Borrelia vincentii
554. The most common organism causing osteomyelitis
in drug abusers is (PGI 97)
a) Ecoll
b) Pscudomonas
c) Klebsiella
d) Staph Aureus
555. Earliest site of bone involvement in hematogenous
osteom yelitis - (AIIM S Nov 10, May 09, PG I 98)
a) M etaphysis
b) Diaphysis
c) Epiphysis
d) Point of entry of the nutrient artery
556. True r e g a r d in g a c u te o s te o m y e litis in a
child(PGI June 02)
a) Diagnosis by X-ray is 8-10 days after onset
b) There is diffuse tenderness at the site
c) Antibiotic therapy should be at least for 4 weeks
d) Salmonella is the most common cause
557. Complications of acute osteomyelitis -(PGI June 05)
a) M alignancy
b) Fracture o f the affected bone
c) Sepsis
d)Chronicity
558. Radiologically, earliest sign of osteomyelitis is a) Loss o f muscle and fat planes
(DPG Feb. 09)
b) Periosteal reaction
c) Callus formation
d) Presence o f sequestrum
559. Cloacae are present in (NEET/DNB Pattern)
a) Sequestrum
b) Involucrum
c) Normal bone
d) Myositis
560. Sequestrum is best defined as - (NEET/DNB Pattern)
a) A piece o f dead bone
b) A piece o f dead bone surrounded by infected tissue
c) A piece o f bone with poor vascularity
d) None
561. All are associated w ith chronic osteomyelitis excepla) A m yloidosis
(AI 99)
b) Sequestrum
c) Mctastatic abnormality
d) M yositis ossificans

562.

563.

564.

565.

566.

567.

568.

569.

570.

571.

572.

573.

True about osteomyelitis (PGI Nov 09)

a) Staph, aureus is most common causative organism
b) Epiphysis most commonly involved region
c) In sickle cell anemia - salm onella is causative
organism
d) Sequestrum is a piece o f dead bone
e) Involucrum is dense sclerotic bone overlying a
sequestrum
True about HIV', Osteomyelitis is all exceot a) Necrosis absent
(AIIMS June 97)
b) Often bilateral
c) Periosteal new bone formation
d) Most common cause is staph, aureus
Chronic persistent neutrophilic discharge is seen
in (NEET/DNB Pattern)
a) Chronic osteomyelitis b) Acute osteomyelitis
c) Septic arthritis
d) None
Brodies abscess is (NEET/DNB Pattern)
a) Acute osteomyelitis
b) Subacute osteomyelitis
c) Chronic osteomyelitis
d) Septic arthritis
M ost com m on cause o f nongonococcal septic
arthritis is (AIIMS Feb 97)
a) Staph-aureus
b)H.influenza
c) Pseudom onas
d) Streptococcus
Septic arthritis in a 2 year old child is often caused
by*
(AIIM SM ay 94)
a) Hemophilous influenzae
b) Staphylococcus aureus
c) Gonococci
d) Pneumococci
Septic arthritis is diagnosed by-(NEET/DNB Pattern)
a) X-ray
b) Joint aspiration
c) USG
d) MRI
Tom smith's arthritis is due to (PGI 99)
a) Pyogenic infection in infancy
b) TB
c) RA
d) OA
Tom Smith arthritis involves (MH 10)
a) Knee
b) Hip
c) Ankle
d) Wrist
Most common cause of bony ankylosis is-(AIIMSMay 93)
a) Rheumatoid arthritis
b) Pyogenic arthritis
c) Traumatic arthritis
d) Osteoarthritis
In Bony ankylosis, there is (VP 98)
a) Painless, No movement
b) Painful complete movement
c) Painless complete movement
d) Painful incomplete movement
Which of the following statements about tubercular
osteom yelitis is not true ?
(Al 08)
a) It is a type o f secondary osteomyelitis
b) Sequestrum is uncommon
c) Periosteal reaction is characteristic
d) Inflammation is minimal

574.

Tuberculosis spine; most common site is-(AIIMSDec

a) Sacral
b) Cevical
95, A l 95)
c) Dorsolumbar
d) Lumbosacral
575. Pott's spine is commonest in spine(DELHI 94
a) Cevical
b) Thoracic NEET/DNB
c) Lumbar
d) Sacral
Pattern)
576. Commonest site for tuberculous spondylitis is a ) T 12/L,
b )C
'
(AI98)
c )L
d )S M
577. Tuberculosis of the spine commonly affects all of
the following parts of the vertebra except - (A 1 04)
a) Body
b) Lamina
c) Spinous process
d) Pedicle
578. T he m ost com m on seq u ela e o f tu b ercu lo u s
spondylitis in an adolescent is- (A l 05, NEET/DNB
a) Fibrous Ankylosis
Pattern)
b) Bony-Ankylosis
c) Pathological dislocation
d) Chronic osteomyelitis
579. Clinical features of TB spine are A/E- (PGI June 06,
a) Loss o f lordosis
b) Night sweat
04)
c) Loss o f appetite
d) Fever (evening rise)
e) Back pain
f)N one
580. Clinical features of T.B. Spine are A/E -(PGI June 03)
a) Loss o f lordosis
b) Night sweats
c) Weight gain
d) Evening rise o f temperature
e) le d appetite
581. In TB spine the first symptom is - (AIIMS M ay 95)
a) Decreased sensation
b) Decreased motor power
c) Pain
d) Increased deep tendon reflexes.
582. A 46-year-old, known alcoholic, presented with pain
in the dorsal spine. On exam ination there is
tendrness at the dorso-lumbar junction. Radiograph
shows destruction of the 1 2 th dorsal vertebra with
loss of disc space between D12- LI vertebrae. The
most probable diagnosis is (AIIM SNov 04)
a) Metastatic spine disease b) Potts spine
c) Missed trauma
d) Multiple myeloma
583. A 35 vr old Iadv with chronic backache. On X ray
she had a D12 collapse. But Intervertebra) disc
space is maintained. All are possible except - (AIIMS
a) Multiple myeloma
b) Osteoporosis N ov 10)
c) M etastasis
d) Tuberculosis
584. First symptom in tuberculous cord compression
is (AI 97)
a) Sensory change
b) Decrease tendon reflex
c) Spasticity
d) Lower limb weakness
585. The early feature of Potts paraplegia is - (D P G 10)
a) Flexor spasm
b) Increased tendon jerk
c) Ankle clonus
d) Sensory loss
586. Indicator (s) of poor prognosis in the ports spine
is/are (PGI June 09, Dec 08)
a) Healed vertebral lesion b) Grade IV potts spine
c) Kyphotic angle > 60 d) Short duration
e) Acute onset

587.

588.

589.

590.

591.

592.

593.

594.

595.

596.

597.

598.

599.

600.

Poor prognostic factors in potts paraplegia a) Acute onset o f paraplegia

(PGI Dec 03)
b) Sudden progression o f paraplegia
c) M otor paralysis alone
d) Long standing paraplegia
e) Paraplegia in children
True about TB spine is all excep t- (P G IJune2K )
a) Early paraplegia is good prognosis
b) Insidious onset paraplegia is good prognosis
c) D orsolum bar spine is commonest site
d) It is commonest site for TB o f bone in the body
False about Potts spine(NEET/DNB Pattern)
a) Commonest at dorsolum bar junction
b) Always heals by chemotherapy
c) Back pain is an early symptom
d) There is disc space narrowing on x-ray
Cold abscess in chest wall is most common due to a) T.B spine
b) T.B rib (A IM S D ec 98)
c)T.B. pelvis
d) T.B pleura
The com m onest infective lesion of the spine in
India is (AIIMS 96)
a) Pyogenic infection
b) Fungal
c) T.B.
d) Typhoid
Apparent lengthening is seen in which stage of
TB Hip (NEET/DNB Pattern)
a) Stage I
b) Stage II
c) Stage III
d) None
Wandering acetabulum is seen in (AIIMS 93)
a) Fracturc acetabulum
b) Dislocation o f femur
c) CDH
d) Tubeculosis o f hip
T riple d efo rm ity o f knee is cla ssic a lly seen
in (AIIMS Dec 94)
a) Fracture patella
b) Tuberculosis
c) Rheumatic arthritis
d) Rheumatoid arthritis
Spina Ventosa results from (BIHAR 88,
a) Sarcoidosis
NEET/DNB Pattern)
b) Tuberculosis
c) Histiocytosis X syndrome
d) Both A + B but not C
Caries sicca is seen in - (Rohatak 96, NEET/DNB
a) Hip
b) Shoulder
Pattern)
c) Knee
d) None o f the above
Synovial fluid of low viscosity seen in-(PGI June 05)
a) Gout
b) Septic arthritis
c) TB
d) Osteoarthritis
e) Rheumatoid arthritis
The joint commonly involved in sphilitic arthritis isa) Hip
b) Shoulder
(A l 93)
c) Wrist
d) Knee
Painless effusion in joints in Congenital syphilis
are called (A l 95)
a) Gluttons joint
b) Charcots joint
c) B artons joint
d) Chronic osteomyelitis
Cluttons joint are (WB 97)
a) Syphilitic joints
b) End stage Tuberculous joints
c) Associated with trauma
d) Usually painful

601.

602.

M ost common site of Actinom ycosis amongst the

following is (A l 99)
a) Tibia
b)Rib
c) Mandible
d) Femur
In actinomycosis o f the spine, the abscess usually
erodes(A l 03)
a) Intervertebral disc
b) Into the pleural cavity
c) Into the reteroperitoneal space
d) Towards the skin

BONETUMORS
603.

604.

605.

606.

607.

608.

609.

610.

611.

612.

613.

Benign bone tumor is/are (PGI Dec 06)

a) Osteoid osteoma
b) Chondroblastoma
c) Endothelial hemangioma d) Osteoclastoma
e) Osteochondroma
Which of the follow ing is not a benign bone tumor a) Osteoid osteoma
b) Chondroma (A l 96)
c) Enchondroma
d) Chordoma
Bone forming tumors are(P G ID ec 03)
a) Osteosarcom a
b) Osteoid osteoma
c) Giant cell tumour
d) Osteoblastoma
e) Chondrosarcoma
Benign bone tumors are (PGI Dec 03)
a) Osteoid osteoma
b) Osteochondroma
c) Chondroblastoma
d) Chondromyxoid fibroma
e) Multiple myeloma
All o f the following tum or are benign tumors
except(Al 98)
a) Chondroma
b) Chordoma
c) Osteochondroma
d) Enchondroma
According to a newer hypothesis Ewings sarcoma
arises from (Al 99)
a) Epiphysis
b) Diaphysis
c) Medullary cavity
d) Cortex
Classification system of bone tu mors is a) Enneking
b) M anchester
c) Edmonton
d)TN M
According to Enneking system, not true regarding
an active benign tumor is (AIIM SM ay 11)
a) Intracapsular
b) Margin o f reactive bone
c) Thick rim o f reactive bone
d) Extended curettage is treatment
Which of the following occurs in epiphysisa) Osteoclastoma
b) Chondroblastoma
c) Osteochondrom a
d) Ewings sarcoma
e) Chondrosarcoma
(PGI Dec 01)
The following tumors are seen in metaphysis a) Osteomyelitis
b) Osteosarcoma
c) Chondrosarcoma
d) Osteoclastoma
e) Ewings sarcoma
Bone tumors arising from diaphysis - (PGIDec 2K)
a) Chondrosarcoma
b) Ewings tumor
c) Osteoclastoma
d) Chondroblastoma
e) Osteid osteoma

614.

615.

616.

617.

618.

619.

620.

621.

622.

623.

624.

Most common benign tumor of the bone isa) Giant cell tumor
(AIIMS Dec. 95)
b) Simple bone cyst
c) Osteochondroma
d) Enchondroma
Dense calcification is found in - (AIIM SSep 96)
a) O steosarcom a
b) Chondroblastoma
c) Synovial sarcoma
d) Osteoblastoma
"Dimor with maximum bone matrix a) Osteoid osteoma
(NEET/DNB Pattern)
b) Chondrosarcoma
c) Enchondroma
d) None
All the statements are true about exotosis, except a) It occurs at the growing end o f bone
(AI 06)
b) Growth continues after skeletal maturity
c) It is covered by cartilaginous cap
d) Malignant transformation may occur
All of the following are the causes of sudden increase
in pain in osteochondroma, except- (AIIMSMay 06)
a) Sarcomatous change b) Fracture
c) Bursitis
d) Degenerative changes
Which of the following statement is true about
osteochondromatosis (PGI Dec 01)
a) Usually affects long bones, but can also occur in
skull and pelvis
b) Usual site is metaphyseal region
c) Also known as m ultiple exostoses, diapheseal
aclasis
d) It doesnt interfee with general body stature
e) Autosomal dominant in inheritance
True about osteochondromatosis - (PGI June 08)
a) M alignant
b) Manifest at adult
c) Knee is the most common size
d) Common in women
Babu a 19 yrs old male has a small circumscribed
sclerotic swelling over diaphysis o f femur; likely
diagnosis is (AI 01, AIIM S Nov 01)
a) O steoclastom a
b) Osteosarcoma
c) Ewing sarcoma
d) Osteoid osteoma
True statem ents(s) regarding osteoid osteoma
is/are (PGI Nov 09)
a) M alignant
b) MC bone involvement-tibia
c) Local excision or curettage cure
d) Bone pain relieved by aspirin
e) X-ray shows : densly surrounding radiolucent
lesion
A patient presents with pain in the thigh, relieved by
aspirin. X-ray shows a radiolucent mass surrounded
by sclerosis. Diagnosis is - (NEET/DNB Pattern)
a) Osteoma
b) Osteoid osteoma
c) Osteoblastom a
d) Osteoclastoma
Enchondroma commonly arises from - (DPG 10)
a) Ribs
b) Vertebra
c) Tibia
d) Phalanges

625.

626.

627.

628.

629.

630.

631.

632.

633.

634.

635.

636.

Most common tumor in hand (AIIMS June 97)

a) Exostosis
b) Giant cell tumor
c) Enchondroma
d) Synovial sarcoma
Epiphyseal tumor is(AI 07)
a) Osteoclastoma
b) Chondromyxoid fibroma
c) Osteosarcom a
d) Ewing sarcoma
Which of the following is true about Giant cell tumora) Usually presents as a lytic lesion with sclerotic rim
b) Alwasys beingn
(NEET/DNB Pattern)
c) Epiphyseal origin
d) Seen in age less than 15 years
When size o f osteoclastoma exceeds the size of
metaphysis (PGI June 08)
a) Tumor will be covered by cortex
b) Tumor will be covered by fibrous capsules
c) Covered by thin layered o f bone
d) It is limited to metaphysis
e) Covered by periosteum
Osteoclastoma is treated with (PGI Dec 2K,
a) Total bone replacement b) Excision
June 01)
c) Curettage
d) Arthrodesis
e) Chemotherapy
Soap bubble appearance at lower end of radius, the
treatment o f choice is (AIIMS June 98)
a) Local excision
b) Excision and bone grafting
c) Amputation
d) Radiotherapy
Treatment o f histologically confirmed giant cell
tumour(PGI June 03)
a) Excision, bone grafting and chemical cautery
b) Excision
c) Radiotherapy
d) Chemical excision
All are the predisposing factors of osteogenic sarcoma
except (PGI D ec 03)
a) Pagets disease o f bone b) Radiation
c) Viral infection
d) Bone infarction
Osteogenic sarcoma arise from (PGI Dec 02)
a) Epiphysis
b) M etaphysis
c) Growth plate
d) Epiphyseal cortex
e) Diaphysis
Most common site of osteogenic sarcoma
is (AI 01. AIIM S June 2K)
a) Femur, upper end
b) Femur, lower end
c) Tibia, upper
d) Tibia, lower end
Radiological features of the osteosarcoma a) New bone formation
(PGI June 06, 03)
b) Sun ray appearance
c) Codm ans triangle
d) Soap bubble appearance
e) Onion pool appearance
X-ray appearance o f osteosarcom a are all
except (NEET/DNB Pattern)
a) Periosteal reaction
b) Codm ans triangle
c) Soap-bubble
d) Sunray appearance

637.

638.

639.

640.

641.

642.

643.

644.

645.

646.

647.

All o f the following investigations are needed for

the diagnosis of osteosarcoma, except (A l 07)
a) MRI o f femur
b) Bone marrow biopsy
c) Bone scan
d) CT chest
Whfch of the following bone tumour present secondaries
in lung with pneumothorax (AIIMS Sept 96)
a) Osteosarcom a
b) Ewing sarcoma
c) O steoclastom a
d) Chondroblastoma
A pt presents with phneumothorax, Examination
shows a swelling over knee. Chest x-ray shows lung
nodules,
give
your
most
probable
diagnosis (AIIMS Dec 95)
a) Osteosarcom a
b) Ewing sarcoma
c) Multiple myeloma
d) Osteoclastoma
Management plan for osteogenic sarcoma of the lower
end of femur must include(A l 04)
a) Radiotherapy, amputation, chemotherapy
b) Surgery alone
c) Chemotherapy + Limb Salvage Surgery +
Chemotherapy
d) Chemotherapy + Radiotherapy
T - 10 Protocol for treatment o f osteosarcoma
includes all of the following except (Al 09)
a) High dose methotrexate
b) Bleomycin, Cyclophosphamide, Doxorubicin (BCD)
c) Vincristine
d) Etoposide
Feature of parosteal osteosarcoma include a) It invades the medullary cavity
(PGI Dec 01)
b) Easily diagnosed by X-ray
c) Prognosis is same as in other forms o f osteosarcoma
d) En bloc resection/amputation is the treatment o f
choice
e) Seen most commonly in younger age groups
True about parosteal osteosarcoma - (PGIM ay 10)
a) Same prognosis as medullary type
b) Never go to medulla
c) May involve medulla
7 years old child presents with a lesion in upper
tibia. X-ray shows radiolucent area with Codmans
triangle and Sunrav appearance. Diagnosis
is (AIIMS May 07, A l 07, NEET/DNB Pattern)
a) Ewing sarcoma
b) Osteosarcoma
c) Osteoid osteoma
d) Chondrosarcoma
Sunburst appearance found in (PGI Dec 07)
a) Osteosarcoma
b) Ewings sarcoma
c) O steoclastom a
d) Osteoid osteoma
e) Chondrosarcoma
Radiological investigation shows sun ray appearance;
diagnosis is (AHMD Dec 95)
a) Osteosarcoma
b)GCT
c) Osteomyelitis
d) Ewings sarcoma
True regarding osteosarcoma is - (AIIMS June 2K)
a) Occurs because o f proliferation o f osteoclasts
b) Sunray appearance in X-ray indicates new bone
formation
c) Affects mainly males in 5,h or 6lh decade
d) Lymphtic metastasis is most common

648.

649.

650.

651.

652.

653.

654.

655.

W hich o f the following malignant tumors is

radioresistant a) Ewings sarcoma
b) Retinoblastoma
c) Osteosarcoma
d) Neuroblastoma
True about osteosarcoma (PGI Nov 09)
a) Involves epiphysis o f long bones
b) M ost commonly involve knee & distal femur
c) Spread to lung through hematogenous route
d) Exclusively found in adolescent & early adult life
e) X-ray : sunray appearance
A child 10 yrs of age presents with a mass on his left
thigh. The mass seems to be arising from diaphysis
of femur, and involving the soft tissue of thigh. The
child is having fever also. Give your most probable
diagnosis (AIIM S Nov 2K)
a) Osteosarcoma
b) Ewings sarcoma
c) Chondrosarcoma
d) Malignant fibrous histiocytoma
A 12 year old girl complains of pain persisting in
his leg for several weeks with a low grade fever. A
radiograph reveals a mass in the diaphyseal region
of the left femur with overlying cortical erosion and
soft tissue extension. A biopsy of the lesion show s
numerous small round cells, rich in PAS positive
diastase sensitive granules. The most likely
histological diagnosis is (A IIM SM ay 03)
a) Osteogenic sarcoma
b) Osteoblastoma
c) Ewings sarcoma
d) Chondroblastoma
A 15-year-old boy is injured while playing cricket.
X-rays ofthe leg rule out of a possible fracture. The
radiologist reports the boy has an evidence of
aggressive bone tumor with both bone destruction
and soft tissue mass. The bone biopsy reveals a bone
cancer with neural differentiation. Which of the
following is the most likely diagnosis? (AIIMSMay
a) Chondrablastoma
b) Ew ings sarcoma 06)
c) Neuroblastoma
d) Osteosarcoma
Trueabout Ewings sarcoma is all except a) 5% cases reveals t (11 -22)
(PGI June 2K)
b) Arise from medullary cavity o f tubular bone
c) Arise from diaphysis
d) N-myc chromosome
Onion peel appearance in X-ray suggests-(DPGFeb.
a) Osteogenic sarcoma
b) Ewings sarcoma 09)
c) Osteoclastoma
d) Chondrosarcoma
A young girl presented with sw elling of right thigh,
with history of trauma 2 months back. Now she
presents with swelling at mid-shaft of femur & low
grade fever. ESR is mildly raised. X-ray shows a
laminated periosteal reaction. Next line of
investigation would be (A IIMS Dec 09)
a) MRI
b) Biopsy
c) Bone scan
. d) Blood count & CRP

656.

657.

658.

659.

660.

661.

662.

663.

664.

665.

An eight years old boy presents with progressive

swelling around the knee joint of two months duration
following mild traum a. Local examination reveals
an irregular bony swelling over the upper end of
tibia, with raised local temperature and of variable
consistency and ill defined margins. The most likely
diagnosis is (DPG Feb. 09)
a) Giant cell tumour
b) Ewing's sarcoma
c) Osteogenic sarcoma
d) Secondary metastasis
Which of the following is associated with poor
prognosis in Ewings sarcoma?
(AIIMS Nov 10)
a) B2 microglobulin
b) Fever
c) Thrombocytosis
d) Young age
Which one of the following bone tumors typically affects
the epiphysis of a long bone-(A IM S May 05,02A12K)
a) O steosarcom a
b) Ewings sarcoma
c) Chondroblastoma
d)Chondromyxoid fibroma
A 15 year-old boy presented with painful swelling
over the left shoulder. Radiograph of the shoulder
showed an osteolytic area with stippled calcification
over the proximal humeral epiphysis. Biopsy of the
lesion revealed an im m ature fibrous matrix with
scattered giant cell. W hich of the followng is the
most likely diagnosis (AIIM S Nov 04)
a) Gaint ceil tumor
b) Chondroblastoma
c) O steosarcom a
d) Chondromyxoid fibroma
Variant of Giant cell tumor is?
(AIIM SM ay 11)
a) Ossifying fibroma
b) Non ossifying fibroma
c) Osteosarcoma
d) Chondroblastoma
A 45 yrs male presented with an expansile lesion in
the centre of femoral metaphysis. The lesion shows
endosteal scalloping & punctuate calcifications.
Most likely diagnosis is (Al 02)
a) Osteosarcom a
b) Chondrosarcoma
c) Simple bone cyst
d) Fibrous Dysplasia
Characteristic radiological feature of fibrous
dysplasia (AIIMS M ay 10)
a) Thickened bone matrix
b) Cortical erosion
c) Ground glass appearance d) Bone enlargement
Most common site o f admantinoma of the long
bones is (AIIMS M ay 01)
a) Femur
b)U lna
c) Tibia
d) Fibula
True about Ameloblastoma(PGI Dec 06)
a) Cystic lesion
b) Rapidly growing
c) M alignant disease
d) MC site is Tibia
e) Presented in children
A 33-vear-old man presented with a slowly
progressive sw elling in the middle l/3 r<1 of his right
tibia. X-rays examination revealed multiple sharply
demarcated radiolucent lesions separated by areas
of dense and sclerotic bone. Microscopic examination
o f a biopsy specimen revealed island of epithelial
cells in a fibrous stroma. Which of the following is
the most probable diagnosis?
(AIIMS May 04)
a) Adamantinoma
b) Osteofibrous dysplasia
c) Osteosarcoma
d) Fibrous cortical defect

666.

Most common site of origin of adamantinoma is a) Mandible near molar tooth

(AIIM SD ec 01)
b) Middle alveolar margins
c) Hard palate
d) Mandible near symphisis mcnti
667. Most common lesion of the mandible is-f/1I I MS Nov 01)
a) Ameloblastoma
b) Squamous cell ca
c) Osteosarcoma
d) Osteoclastoma
668 .
A patient with pain in back. Lab investigation
shows elevated ESR. X-ray skull shows multiple
punched out Ivtic lesions. Most imp. Investigation
to be done is (AIIMS June 2K)
a) Serum acid phosphatase
b) CT head with contrast
c) Whole body scan
d) Serum electrophoresis
669. Lytic bevelled lesions are seen in skull X-ray, most
likely cause is (AIIM S June 2K)
a) Multiple myeloma
b) Eosinophilic granuloma
c) M etastasis
d) Osteosarcoma

METASTATIC BONE DISEASE

670.

671.

672.

673.

674.

675.

676.

677.

Most common cause of bone malignancy- (PGI June

a) Secondaries
b) Osteosarcoma
08)
c) Ewings sarcoma
d) Osteoclastoma
Three most common cancers m etastasizing to
bone(PGI Dec 07)
a) Kidney
b) Thyroid
c) Breast
d) Prostate
e) Lung
Bone metastases is com mon in which of the foilowinga) Nephroblastoma b) Neuroblastoma (PGIDec 05)
c) ROC
d) Clear cell sarcoma
Metastases least common in - (PGI Nov 10, Dec 07)
a) Skull
b) Pelvis
c) Vertebrae
d) Proximal part o f long bones o f the upper limb
e) Small bones o f the hand
Metastatic tumor least common in - (PGI June 04)
a) Pelvis
b)R ibs
c) Small bone o f lower limb d) Vertebra
e) Skull
Metastasis not found in (NEET/DNB Pattern)
a) Femur
b) Humerus
c) Fibula
d) Spine
Which of the following usually produces osteoblastic
secondaries (AIIMS M ay 09, 04)
a) Carcinoma lung
b) Carcinoma breast
c) Carcinoma urinary bladder
d) Carcinoma prostate
Expansile
lytic
osseous
metastases
are
characteristics of primary malignancy of a) Kidney
b) Bronchus
c) Breast '
d) Prostate

678.

679.

680.

681.

682.

683.

684.

685.

686

687.

688

A patient developed paraplegia. On routine

examination and X-ray it was found that there are
osteoblastic lesion in his spine. M ost probable
diagnosis is (AIIMS June 2K)
a) Carcinoma thyroid
b) Ca. Prostate
c) Breast Ca.
d) Pancreatic Ca.
Which soft tissue sarcoma commonly gives to bone
secondary(P G IJune 08)
a) Fibrosarcoma
b) Liposarcoma
c) O steosarcom a
d) Neurofibroma
e) Synovial sarcoma
True about Bone metastasis (PGI Nov 09)
a) 5% bone metastasis are symptomatic
b) Higher serum levels o f alkaline phosphatase
c) M ost common secondary in female is breast
d) Prostate produce osteosclerotic lesion
A 60 yrs old male has bone pain, vertebral collapse,
fracture pelvis, the probable diagnosis is - (AIIMS
a) Multiple myeloma
b) Secondaries Sept 96)
c) TB
d) Lung
Solitary bone cyst is most common in the a) Upper end o f humerus
(A104, AIIM S 95)
b) Lower end o f humerus
c) Upper end o f fibula
d) Lower end o f femur
Histological features of unicameral bone cysts area) Blood filled cystic spaces
(PGI Dec 02)
b) Endothelial cell lining
c) Fibrous tissue with cystic spaccs
d) Pseudocyst
e) Single cavity with connective tissue lining
Histology' of unicameral bone cyst - (PGI June 04)
a) Blood filled cavities
b) Endothelial lining
c) Giant cells
d) Bone formation
True about simple bone cyst(PGI Dec 05)
a) Seen in young adult
b) Present as well demarcated radiolucent lesions
c) Shaggy fibrous layering
d) Pathological fracture seen
e) Commonest site is diaphysis
True about aneurysmal bone cyst - (PGI Dec 07)
a) Endothelial lining
b) Blood filled spaces
c) Found in upper end o f tibia
d) Pulsatile
e) Seen in older age
Secondary aneurysmal bone cyst arises in a) Osteoclastoma
(PGIJune 07)
b) Chondroblastoma
c) Fibrous dysplasia
Differential diagnosis o f simple bone cyst
are (PGI Dec 03)
a) Giant cell tumor
b) Non ossifying fibroma
c) Enchondroma
d) Fibrous dysplasia
e) Eosinophilic granuloma

689.

690.

691.

692.

693.

694.

695.

696.

697.

698.

Which of the following conditions is least likely to

present as an eccentric osteolytic lesion a) Aneurysmal bone cyst b) Giant cell tumor
c) Fibrous cortical defect d) Simple bone cyst
A l l year old boy presented with the complaints of
pain in the right arm near the shoulder. X-ray
examination revealed an expansile lytic lesion
in the upper third of humerus. The most likely
diagnosis is (AIIM SM ay 02)
a) Giant cell tumor
b) Unicameral bone cyst
c) Osteochondroma
d) Parosteal osteosarcoma
Babloo a 10 year old boy presents with # of humerus.
X-ray reveals a lytic lesion at the upper end. likely
condition is (AI 01, AIIM S N ov 99)
a) Unicameral bone cyst b) Osteosarcoma
c) Osteoclastoma
d) Aneurysmal bone cyst
Ramu, an 8 -year old boy presented with pain in
the arm. On x-ray his upper end of humerus
demonstrates an expansile lesion in the metaphysis
with breech of the overlying cortex. Most likely
diangosis is (AIIM S M ay 02)
a) Aneurysmal bone cyst b) Unicameral bone cyst
c) Chondroblastoma
d) Osteoclastoma
A classical expansile lytic lesion in the transverse
process o f a vertebra is seen in - (AI 03, PG I Dec
04)
a) Osteosarcoma
b) Aneurysmal bone cyst
c) Osteoblastom a
d) M etastasis
An 8 year old boy presents with a gradually
progressing swelling and pain since 6 months over
the upper tibia. On x-ray, there is a lytic lesion with
sclerotic margins in the upper tibial metaphysis.
The diagnsis is (AIIM SM ay 01)
a) Osteogenic sarcoma
b) Osteoclastoma
c) Brodies abscess
d) Ewings sarcoma
True about bone tumor is(AIIM S Nov 99)
a) Multiple myeloma-more than 55 years age and above
b) Osteogenic sarcoma-fourth decade
c) Chondrosarcoma-first decade
d) Osteoclastoma-fifth decade
In a young boy, x-ray of upper end of the tibia shows
a lytic lesion. The least likely diagnosis is-(AIIM S
a) Giant cell tumor
b) Osteosarcoma Dec 94)
c) Solitary bone cyst
d) Tuberculosis
13, years old boy, LEAST common cause of proximal
lytic lesion o f head of femur is - (AIIMS June 97)
a) Plasmacytoma
b) Metastasis
c) H istiocytosis
d) Bone tumour
The differential diagnosis o f lesion, histologically
resembling giant cell tumor in the small bones of
the hands or feet, includes all of the following except
a) Aneurysmal bone cyst
(AIIMS M ay 06)
b) Fibrosarcoma
c) O steosarcoma
d) Hyperparathyroidism

699.

700.

701.

702.

703.

704.

705.

706.

707.

708.

709.

710.

All of the following statements about synovial cell

sarcoma, are true, except (Al 10)
a) Originate from synovial lining
b) Occur more often at extraarticular sites
c) Usually seen in patients less than 50 years o f age
c) Knee and foot arc common sites involved
True about hemangioma of bone(PGI Nov 10)
a) Mostly symptomatic
b) Peak incidence in 5th decade
c) Constitute 10-20% o f total bone tumor
d) Overgrowth o f bone occurs
e) hematogenous spread
Striated vertebra is seen in - (NEET/DNB Pattern)
a) TB spine
b) Hacmangioma
c) Chordoma
d) Metastasis
Which ofthe following statements is true regarding
hemangioma ofthe bone(PGI D ec 01)
a) Occurs common in skull bones
b) Requires observation as it is premalignant
c) Hamartomous in origin
d) Forms 10 -12% o f the bone tumors
e) Local gigantism occurs when it occurs in an extremity
True about non-ossify ing fibroma of bone a) Present until 3nl & 4lh decade
(PGI June 03)
b) Eccentric
c) Prominent sclerotic margin
d) Histologically giant cell with areolar tissue
e) M etaphyseal lesion
True about non-ossifving fibroma - (PGIDec 02)
a) Prominent at 2nd and 4th decade
b) Prominent sclerotic margin
c) Fibrous tissue with areolar tissue
d) Centrally located
e) Risk o f malignancy
Chordoma commonly involves (PGI June 02)
a) Dorsal spine
b) Clivus
c) Lumbar spine
d) Sacrum
e) Cervical spine
Chordoma can occur over all the following sites,
except (Al 2K)
a) Rib
b) Clivus
c) Sacrum
d) Vertebral body
Which of the following is a pulsatile
tumor?
(AIIM S M ay 10)
a) Osteosarcom a
b) Chondrosarcoma
c) Ew ings sarcoma
d) Osteoclastoma
Most common soft tissue tumor in a child -(PGIJune
a) Rhabdomyosarcoma
b) Histiocytoma
2K)
c) Fibrosarcoma
d) Liposarcoma
Regional lymph nodes are involved in which of
these (AIIM S Dec 95)
a) Ewing sarcoma
b) Osteosarcoma
c) Adamantinoma
d) Synovial cell sarcoma
Non neoplastic lesions simulating bone tumor are
all except?
(A IIM SM ay 11)
a) Fibrous dysplasia
b) Bone island
c) Bone infarct
d) Hurler syndrome

IMPORTANT COMPLICATIONS IN
ORTHOPEDICS
711.

712.

713.

714.

715.

716.

717.

718.

719.

Stellate ganglion block is useful \n-(AIIM S Nov 99)

a) Sudeck osteodystrophy
b) Compound palmar ganglion
c) Tenosynovitis
d) Osteoarthritis o f first CMC joint
Sudecks atrophy is associated with - (Delhi 99)
a) O steoporosis
b) Osteophyte formation
c) O steopenia
d) Osteochondritis
S u d e c k s d y str o p h y sy m p to m s are all
except(NEET/DNB Pattern)
a) Pain
b) Increased bone density
c) Sweating
d) Stiffness
A lady presents with swelling of hands with shiny
skin. She has a history of fracture radius and kept on
POP cast for 4 weeks after w hich she develops this.
Give the most likely diagnosis - (AIIMS Nov 00)
a) Myositis ossification
b) Rupture o f external pollicis longus tendon
c) Reflex sympathetic dystrophy
d) Malunion
A 50 year oldladv sprained her ankle 2 months back
from w hich she made a steady recovery. 2 months
after the injury she gradually developed severe pain
in her right ankle with significant limitation of
ankle movem ent. Clinical exam ination reveals
edema and shiny skin.What is the likely diagnosis?
a) Fibromyalgia
(Al 11)
b) Complex Regional pain syndrome Typel (CRPS I)
c) C o m p lex R eg io n al pain sy n d ro m e Type II
(CRPS II)
d) Peripheral Neuropathy
Heterotopic ossification occurs in - (NEET/DNB
a) Bone
b) Joint
Pattern)
c) Soft tissue
d) None
Which of the following is not true about M yositis
ossificatn?
(PGI 00)
a) Associated with muscle tendon rupture
b) In fla m m a tio n a ro u n d the ru p tu re d m u scle
deposition o f hydroxyapatite crystals with
c) Common in supracondylar fracture
d) Ossification o f musculo-periosteal haematoma
In myositis ossificans mature bone is seen a) At periphery
(MAHE 04, AM U 03)
b) In center
c) Whole muscle mass
d) In the joint capsule
R adiological feature d ifferen tiatin g m yositis
ossificans from bone tumor is (Nimhans 03,
a) Peripheral ossification
SG PG 199)
b) Central lucency
c) Discontinuity with the bone
d) None

720.

721.

722.

723.

724.

725.

726.

727.

728.

16 year old male presents with extensive heterotropic

ossification over the neck, back & shoulders and
decreased chest movem ents. He gives history of
progressive immobility since the age of 3 years.
Which of the following statement about his affecting
condition is not true ?
(A l 08)
a) They have a near normal life expectancy
b) They are predisposed to Pneumonia
c) They have short hallux
d) Increased expression o f BMP4 gene is seen
A person of 60 years age is suffering from myositis
ossificans progressive. The usual cause of death
would be (NIM HANS 01. AIIM S 00)
a) Nutritional deficiency b) Bed sore
c) Lung disease
d) Septicemia
A ll arc tru e r e g a r d in g m y o sitis o ssific a n s
progressive except (PGI 03)
a) Usually involve childs
b) Progressive form o f normal myositis
c) Respiratory problems
d) A nkylosis
e) Form normal bone
Commonest site of fracture leading to fat embolism
is (AI 99)
a) T ibia#
b )F em u r#
c) H um erus#
d)U lna#
F a c to r s fa v o r in g fa t e m b o lism in trau m a
patient(P G ID ec 07)
a) Diabetes Mellitus
b) Mobility ofjoint
c) Resp. failure
d) Hypvolemic shock
True about fat embolism(PGI June 04)
a) Seen one week after injury
b) Patechie
c) Bradycardia
d) Tachycardia
e) tln cid en ce in multiple #
Fat embolism is characterized b y- (PGI Dec 04)
a) Petecheal haemorrhages
b) Closed fractures o f femur
c) Aggregation o f chylomicrons
d) Fall in the haemoglobin
c) Fat globules in sputum & urine
True about Posttraumatic fat embolism syndrome a) Fracture m obility is a risk factor (PG I Nov. 10,
b) Associated diabetes pose a risk
June 09)
c) Bradycardia occurs
d) Thrombocytopenia
e) On ABG P a 0 2 < 60 mm Hg on F I0 2 < 0.4
The management of fat embolism includes all of the
following except(A l 04)
a) Oxygen
b) Heparinization
c) Low Molecular weight dextran
d) Pulmonary Emblectomy

729.

A person with multiple injuries develops fever,

r e s tle s s n e s s , ta c h y c a r d ia , ta c h y p n e a and
periumbilical rash. The likely diagnosis is a) Air embolism
(AIIM S Nov 08)
b) Fat embolism
c) Pulmonary embolism
d) Bacterial pneumonitis
730. Ramesh singh, a 40 yrs old man, was admitted with
fracture shaft fem ur follow ing a road traffic
accident. He was tachypnoeic, and had conjunctival
petechiae.M ost likely diagnosis is (Al 02)
a) Pulomary embolism
b) Sepsis syndrome
c) Fat embolism
d) Hemothorex
731. A 30 year old man had road traffic accident and
sustained fracture o f femur. Two days later he
d eveloped sudden b reath lessn ess. T he m ost
probable cause can be (Al 05)
a) Pneumonia
b) Congestive heart failure
c) Bronchial asthma
d) Fat embolism
732. C lincial feature o f fat em bolism includes all
excepts (PGI Nov. 10)
a) Tachypnoea
b) Systmic hypoxia may occur
c) Fat globules in urine are diagnostic
d) M anifests after several days o f trauma
e) Petechiae in the anterior chcst wall
733. A 64 year old hypertensive obsese female was
undergoing surgery for fracture fem ur under
general anaesthesia. Intra-operatively her endtidal carbon dioxide decreased to 20 from 40 mm
o f H g, follow ed by hypotension and oxygen
saturation of 85%. What could be the most probable
cause?
(DPG 09, A l 03)
a) Fat embolism
b) Hypovolemia
c) Bronchospasm
d) Myocardial infarction
734. True about fat embolism(PGI Dec 07)
a) Petechia in the anterior chest wall
b) Bradycardia
c) Fat globules in urine
d) Occurs after 1st week o f polytrauma
e) Thrmbocytopenia
735. Which o f the following is not a component o f the
crush syndrome (AIIM SMay 02)
a) Myohemoglobinuria
b) Massive crushing o f muscles
c) Acute tubular necrosis
d) Bleeding diathesis
736. The first sign of Volkmans ischemia is a) Paresthesia
(PGI Dec 2k)
b) Pain on passive extension o f fingers
c) Pain on active extension o f fingers
d) Swelling o f fingers
737. In posterior compartment syndrome which passive
movement causes pain ?
(AIIMS Nov 08)
a) Dorsiflexion o f foot
b) Foot inversion
c) Toe dofsiflexion
d) Toe planter flexion

738.

739.

740.

741.

742.

743.

744.

A patient presenting with Volkmanns Ischaemia

ali of the following are done except (PGI 00)
a) Split open the plaster o f Paris cast and bandage
b) Decompression by fasciotomy
c) Exploration
d) Sympathetic ganglion blockade
All are correct regarding compartment syndrome
except(PGI 05)
a) Pulse is a reliable indicator
b) Pain on passive stretching
c) Interstitial pressure > capillary pressure
d) H yperesthesia
e) Fasciotomy is the earliest treatment
Most com m on muscle involved in volkm anns
ischemic contracture is (AIIM SDec 98)
a) Flexor- pollicis longus
b) Flexor- digitorum profunds
c) Flexor-indicis
d) Abductor pollicis
The most common nerve involved in Volkamanns
ischaemic contracture of forearm includes - (AI 99)
a) Radial
b) Ulnar
c) Median
d) Posterior nterosseous
W hich o f the following does not involve nerve
damage(A IIM SD ec 94)
a) Guillian Barre syndrome b) Erbs paralysis
c) Volkmanns paralysis
d) Neurotmesis
The most common cause of Volkmanns ischaemic
contracture (V.I.C) in a child is -(PGI 00, AIIM S 99)
a) Intercondylar fracture o f humerus (NEET/DNB
b) Fracture both bone o f forearm
Pattern)
c) Fracture lateral condyle o f humerus
d) Supracondylar fracture o f humerus
Vascular injury during childhood is common in
fracture o f(AIIM SM ay 94)
a) Lower end o f humerus b) Lower end o f radius
c) U pper end o f femur
d) Upper end o f radius

749.

750.

751.

752.

753.

754.

755.

756.

757.

BONE DYSPLASIA AND SOFT TISSUE

AFFECTION
745.

746.

747.

748.

Trident hand seen in (AIIMS Dec 98)

a) A chondroplasia
b) M ucopolysaccharidosis
c) Diphyscal achlasia d) Cleido- cranial dystosis
The features o f A ch on d rop lasia inlcude all,
except (UP 02)
a) Defective head
b) Mental retardation
c) Autosomal recessive d) Familial
Mode of inheritance for Achondroplasia is -(PGI 96)
a) Autosomal dominant b) Autosomal recessive
c) X-linked dominant
d) X- linked recessive
Absent lateral l/3 rd o f clavicle is seen in a) Hyperparathyroidism
(PGI Dec 02)
b) Turners syndrome
c) Fibrous dysplasia
d) Cleidocranial dysostosis

758.

759.

760.

761.

Osteogenesis imperfecta is characterized by a) Blue sclera

(PGI Dec 04, 03)
b) Also known as brittle bone disease
c) Collagen defect
d) A/W otosclerosis
e) Autosomal dominant
A ll are featu res o f O steogen esis im p erfecta
except(AIIMS June 97)
a) Blue sclera
b) M ultiple #s
c) Cataract
d) Hearing loss
Not true about Osteogenesis imperfecta - (UP 00)
a) Impaired healing o f fracture
b) Deafness
c) Laxity o f joints
d) Fragile fracture
Osteogenesis imperfecta is defect in (PGI 98)
a) Bone
b) Calcification
c) Cartilage
d) Collagen
Prenatal determination of osteogenesis impcrfecta
is done by (PGI June 07)
a) Acid phosphatase
b) Alkaline phosphatase
c) Abnormal Pro- a chain
All are seen in osteogenesis imperfecta exccpta) Blue sclera
(AI 98)
b) Bilateral Hip dislocation
c) Lax ligament
d) O steoporosis
Blue sclera is feature o f (NEET/DNB Pattern)
a) Osteogenesis impcrfecta b) Osteopetrosis
c) Cleidocranial dysostosis d) Achendroplasia
Raju, a 10 yrs old child, presents with predisposition
to fractures, anemia, hepatosplenomcgaly and a
diffusely increased radiographic density' o f bones.
The most likely diagnosis is (AI 02)
a) Osteogensis imperfccta b) Pyknodysostosis
c) Myelofibrosis
d) Osteopetrosis
Not seen in osteopetrosis (AIIM SM ay 08)
a) Compression o f cranial nerve
b) Osteomyelitis o f mandible
c) Pancytopenia
d) Delayed healing o f bone
Albers schonberg disease is - (PGI June 2k, 98)
a) O steopetrosis
b) Osteoporosis
c) Osteochondritis
d) Osteomalacia
Housemaids knee is bursitis o f(A IIM S M ay 95, NEET/DNB Pattern)
a) Prepatellar bursa
b) Infrapatellar bursa
c) Olecranon
d) Ischial bursa
Site o f TB bursitis (PG ID ec 07, June 03)
a) Prepatellar
b) Subacromial
c) Subdeltoid
d) Subpatellar
e) Troc ant eric
Usual site o f TB bursitis (DPG Feb. 09)
a) Prepatellar
b) Subacromial
c) Subdeltoid
d) Trochanteric

762.

Progressive stiffening o f a joint is seen in a) Periarthritis o f shoulder

(DPG Feb. 09)
b) O steochondritis
c) Gount
d) A nkylosis
763. Painful are syndrome is seen in all except a) Complete tear o f supraspinatus (AIIMS Nov 01)
b) # greater tuberosity
c) Subacromial bursitis
d) Supraspinatus tendinitis
764. Tennis elbow, is characterized b y (DPG 09)
a) Tenderness over the medial epicondyle
b) Tendinits o f common extensor origin
c) Tendinitis o f common flexor origin
d) Painful flexion and extension
765. A 40 year old man w as repairing his wooden shed on
Sunday morning. By afternoon, he felt that the
hammer was becoming heavier and heavier. He felt
pain in lateral side of elbow and also found that
squeezing water out of sponge hurt his elbow. Which
ofthe muscles are most likely involveda) Biceps brachii and supinator
(AIIMS M ay 02)
b) Flexor digitorum superficialis
c) Extensor carpi radialis longus and brevis
d) Triccps brachii and anconeous
766. Pain & tenderness over the lateral condyle of
humerus with a painful dorsiflexion of the wrist is
indicative of(AIIM S Nov 05)
a) Golfers Elbow
b) Tennis Elbow
c) Pitchers Elbow
d) Cricket Elbow
767. D eQ uervains disease classically affects the a) Flexor pollicis longus and brevis
b) Extensor carpi radialis and extensor pollicis longus
c) Abductor pollicis longus and brevis
d) Extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis
longus
768. A bout De Q u e r v a in s d isea se, w hich o f the
following is correct (PG I Dec 08)
a) Pain after straining at thumb base
b) Involve extensor pollicis longus
c) Tense mass may visible
d) Steriod is used to relieve symptoms
e) Involve Abductor pollicis longus
769. In trigger fin ger the level o f tendon sheath
constriction is found at the level of - (AIIMS M ay
a) Middle phalanx
05, AIIM S 96)
b) Proximal interphalangealjoint
c) Proximal phalanx
d) M etacarpophalangeal joint
770. Trigger finger occurs in (PGI 98)
a) Rheumatoid athritis
b) Trauma
c) O steosarcoma
d) Osteoarthritis
771. Most common cause of trigger f\nger-(NEET/DNB
a) Trauma
b) Alcohol
Pattern)
c) Smoking
d) Drug abuse

772.

773.

774.

775.

776.

777.

778.

779.

780.

781.

Kanavels sign is seen in (AIIM S D ec 07)

' a) Tenosynovitis
b) Trigger finger
c) Dupuytrens contracture
d) Carpal tunnel syndrome
Cause o f trigger finger is (AIIM S Sept 96)
a) Thickening o f the fibrous tendon sheath
b) Following local trauma
c) Unaccustomed activity
d) All o f the above
The following structure is involved in Dupuytrens
contracture (A194, NEET/DNB Pattern)
a) Thickening o f the palm ar fascia
b) Thickening o f the dorsal fascia
c) Contracture o f the flexor tendons
d) Post bums contracture
Dupuytrens contracture occur in - (PGI Dec 08)
a) Diabetes Mellitus
b) Alcohol
c) Epilepsy
d) Rheumatoid Arthritis
e) Chronic Pulmonary disease
All are true o f Dupuytrens contractrue except a) Usually 4th finger is involved
(PGI 99)
b) Bilateral disease is rare
c) Surgical release is useful
d) May be associated with Pyronie disease
I'rue about Dupuytrens contracture - (PG IMay 10)
a) A/w peyronies disease
b) First affect index finger
c) Nodule formation & thickening o f palmar fascia
d) Amputation may be required
A-65 years alcoholic suffering from diabetes has
a flexion deformity at the right little finger over
the m etacarpophalangeal jo in t o f around 15
degree. The ideal managem ent for him would
be(AIIM S Nov 11)
a) Observation
b) Percutaneous fasciotomy
c) Subtotal fasciectomy
d) Total fasciectomy
Felon is a) Infection o f nail fold
(NEET/DNB Pattern)
b) Infection o f ulnar bursa
c) Infection o f pulp space
d) Infection o f DIP joint
Felon most common complication a) Osteomyelitis
(NEET/DNB Pattern)
b) Subungual hematoma
c) Infective arthritis
d) None
Melon seed bodies are found in which of the following
condition?
(NEET/DNB Pattern)
a) Chondrocalcinosis
b) Gout
c) Tuberculous tenosynovitis
d) Osteoarthritis o f the wrist

782.

783.

784.

True about ganglion (PGI Dec 03)

a) Common in volar aspect
b) Seen adjacent to tendon sheath
c) Comunicates with joints cavity and tendon sheath
d) It is Unilocular
The primary pathology in Athletic Pubalgia is a) Abdominal muscle strain
(A 109)
b) Rectus femoris strain
c) Gluteus medius strain
d) Hamstring strain
Hallux valgus is associated with all except a) An exostosis on the medial side o f the head o f the
first metatarsal
(PGI Dec 00)
b) A bunion
c) Osteoarthritis o f the metatarsophalangeal joint
d) Over- riding or under- riding o f the second toe by
the third

MANAGEMENT IN ORTHOPEDICS
785.

786.

787.

788.

789.

790.

Recurrent dislocations are least commonly seen ina) Ankle

b)H ip
(Al 09)
c) Shoulder
d) Patella
Recurrent dislocation is least common in a) Shoulder
b)K nec
(Delhi 94)
c) Patella
d)N one
Aviator fracture is (COMED 09)
a) Fracture neck o f talus b) Fracture scaphoid
c) Fracture calcaneum
d) Fracture 5th metatarsal
True about eponymous fractures is/are a) Montegia # is # o f the proximal third o f ulna with
radial head dislocation
(PGI Nov 09)
b) Galeazzi # is # o f the distal third o f the radius with
dislocation o f the distal radio-ulnar joint
c) Colies # is # at cortico-cancellous junction o f the
distal-end o f redius with dorsal tilt
d) Potts # is Trimalleolar ankle #
e) Bennets # is Oblique intra-articular # o f the base
o f the I s'm etacarpal
Jefferson fracture is (AIIM SM ay 95)
a) Fracture o f atlas
b) Fracture o f axis
c) Fracture o f spinous process o f C?
d) Fracture o f any cervical vertebra
Jeffersons fracture is -(A l 99, NEET/DNB Pattern)
a) C,
c) CjC,

791.

792.

b )C 2
d )C 2 C 3

W hich of the following condition should be given

most priority in case o f fracture (PGI Dec 08)
a) Open fracture
b) Dislocated fractrue
c) Vascular injury
d) M alunited fracture
e) Compartment syndrome
The correct order o f priorities in the initial
management of head injury' is (Al 92, 99)
a) Airway, Breathing, Circulation, treatment o f extra
cranial injuries

793.

794.

795.

796.

797.

798.

799.

800.

801.

802.

b) Treatment o f extracranial injuries, Airway, Breathing,

Circulation
c) Circulation, airway, Breathing, treatment o f extra
cranial injuries
d) Airway, circulation, breathing, treatment o f extra
cranial injuries
Severely injured patient with spinal fracture and
unconsciousness first thing to be done is a) GCS scoring
(AIIMS 95)
b) Spinal stabilization by cervical collar
c) Mannitol drip to decrease ICT
d) Airway maintenance
Polytrauma patient with open bleeding wound of right
thigh should be managed first of all by a) Tourniquet application
(PGI 94, Jipm er 99)
b) Tight bandage application
c) Airway maintenance
d) Blood transfusion
Long bone fracture fixation done with -(PG I Dec
06)
a) Intramedullary nail
b) Compression plate
c) External fixation
d) Screw
e) Tension band wiring
All of the following are indications for open reduction
and internal fixation of fractures except - (CSE 2K)
a) Compound fracture
b) Unsatisfactory closed reduction
c) Multiple trauma
d) Intra-articular fracture
The contraindication to internal fixation a) Physeal injury
(NEET/DNB Pattern)
b) Active infection
c) Intraarticular fracture
d) Fracture dislocation
Which fracture in children requires open reductiona) Fracture tibial epiphysis
(AIIM S 91)
b) Fracture shaft o f femur
c) Fracture both bones forearm
d) Fracture femoral condyle
Action of intram edullaryK nail is(A196)
a) Two-point fixation
b) Three-point fixation
c) Compression
d) Weight concentration
Usual treatment (s) of fracture involving articular
surface is/are (PGI June 09, 04)
a) A rthrodesis
b) Excision
c) Skeletal traction
d) Internal fixation
e) P.O.P. slab
W hich o f the following is/are not includes in
management of intra-articular fracture a) A rthrodesis
b) ExcisionfPG'/ Dec 08)
c) A spiration
d )K w ire
e) Plaster o f paris cast
Cock up splint is used in - (AIIM SD ec 95, Feb 97)
a) M edian nerve injury
b) Radial nerve injury
c) Ulnar nerve injury
d) VolkmSns ischemic contracture

803.

804.

805.

806.

807.

808.

809.

810.

811.

812.

813.

814.

815.

All of the following are used for giving skeletal

traction, except (AIIMS M ay 06)
a) Steim annsp in
b)K irschnersw ire
c) B ohlers stirrup
d) Rush pin
Maximum weight for skin traction a) 1-2 kg
b) 4-5 kg (NEET/DNB Pattern)
c) 10-15 kg
d) 15-20 kg
Contraindication for skin traction - (PG ID ec 06)
a) Dermatitis
b) Vascularity compromized status o f limb
c) A brasions
d) Hypopigmentation (vitiligo)
e) Bony deformity
Skeletal traction is given bv -(PGI June 09; Dec 08)
a) K-wire
b) Pavlik harness
c) Denham pin
d) Steinmannsp in
e) Rush pin
Risser Localiser cast is used in the management
of(AIIM S Nov 08)
a) K yphosis
b) Spondylolysthesis
c) Idiopathic scoliosis
d) Lordosis
Velpeau bandage and Sling and Swathe splint are
used in?
(AIIMS Dec 08)
a) Shoulder dislocation
b) Fracture scapula
c) Acromioclavicular dislocation
d) Fracture clavicle
Cancellous bone graft taken from - (PGI Dec 06)
a) Femoral condyles
b) Pelvis
c) G reater trochanter
d) Tibial metaphysis
Site for 1 order bone grafting(PG IJune 03)
a) Pelvis
b) Tibial metaphysis
c) Medial malleolus
d) Femoral condyle
e) Greater trochanter
Which of the following is ideal site for harvesting
bone graft (AI 08)
a) Iliac crest
b) Distal end ofthehumers
c) Distal end o f femur
d) Fibula
Standard site for primary bone graft - (PGIDec 02)
a) Pelvis
b) Greater trochanter
c) Medial malleolus
d) Lateral melleolus
e) Fibula
Tibial fracture w ith>l cm wound, slight communution
and moderate crushing is - (Jipmer 03, A M U 03)
a) Grade 1
b) Grade II
c) Grade III A
d) Grade III B
Most common organism causing infection after open
fracture (NEET/DNB Pattern)
a) Pseudom onas
b) Staphylococcus aureus
c) Klebsiella
d) Gonococcus
Open fracture is treated b y (UP 98)
a) Tourniquet
b) Internal fixation
c) Debridement
d) External fixation

816.

817.

818.

819.

Following are principles in the treatment of compound

fractures except (Jipmer 93)
a) Wound debridement
b) Immediate wound closure
c) Tendon repair
d) Aggressive antibiotic therapy
Immediate treatment of compound fracture of tibia isa) Intravenous antibiotics
(Delhi 97)
b) Thorough debridement
c) Internal fixation o f fracture
d) Amputation o f limb
Internal splints (fixation dev ices) arc used in all excepta) Compound fractures
(M anipal 99)
b) Multiple fractures
c) Fractures in elderly patients
d) Fracture neck o f femur
A compound fracture is initially treated by antibiotics,
wound toilet and (Rohtak 98)
a) Skin cover
b) External splintage
c) Prosthesis
d) Internal fixation

MISCELLANEOUS
820.

Periosteal reaction is not common in (AP93)

a) Syphilis
b)G out
c) Osteomyelitis
d) Tuberculous dactylitis
821. Indications of arthoplasty(PGI Dec. 04)
a) Osteoarthritis
b) Rheumatoid arthritis
c) Ankylosing spondylosis d)G out
e) Fracture neck femur
822. Major indication (s) for arthroplasty a) Osteoarthritis o f hip
b) Ankylosis o f elbow
c) Ununited tibial fracture
d) Ununited femoral neck fracture
e) TB spine
823. Aseptic loosening in cemented total hip replacement
occurs as a result of hypersensitivity response to a) Titanium debris
(AI04)
b) High density polythene debris
c) N.N - Dimethyltryptaminc (DMT)
d) Free radicals
824. Metal on Metal articulation should be avoided
in (AI 10)
a) O steonecrosis
b) Young female
c) Inflammatory arthritis d) Revision surgery
825. Most com m on cause o f death after Total Hip
Replacement is (A I 09)
a) Infection
b) Pneumonia
c) Anemia
d) Thromboembolism
826. A patient developed breathlessness and chest
pain, on second postoperative day after a total hip
replacem ent. Echo-cardiography showed right
ventricular dilatation and tricuspid regurgitation.
W hat is the most likely diagnosis (A I 10)
a) Acute MI
b) Pulmonary embolism
c) Hypotensive shock
d) Cardiac tamponate

827.

828.

829.

830.

831.

832.

833.

834.

835.

836.

837.

838.

Watson Jones operation is done fo r i (AIIMS Dec 08)

a) Neglected Club foot
b) Muscle paralysis
c) Valgus deformity
d) Hip replacement
S ta n ce p h a se m u scle a m o n g th e fo llo w in g
is (PGI Dec 01)
a) Quadriceps
b) Hamsring
c) Gastrocnemius - soleus d) Tibialis anterior
e) Peroneus longus
A n talgic hip g ait is related to w hich o f the
following(TAM ILNADU 94)
a) Waddling gait
b) Trendelenberg gait
c) Painful hip gait
d) Short leg gait
T ren delen b ergs gait is due to the w eakness
of(NEET/DNB Pattern)
a) Quadriceps
b) Iliopsoas
c) Sartorius
d) Gluteus medius
A one year old child presented with multiple fractures
seen in various stages of healing. The most probable
diagnosis is the case is (AIIMS Nov 06)
a) Scurvy
b) Rickets
c) Battered baby syndrome d) Fall from height
An 8 yrs old child is brough t by parents to
the casualty with a spiral fracture of Femur and
varying degree o f Ecchymosis all over body. The
Etiology is (AI 00)
a) Hit & run accident
b) Battered Baby Syndrome
c) Hockey Stick injury d) Fall from height
A 4 year old female brought to casualty department
with multiple fracture ribs, and inconspicuous
history from parents. On examination show multiple
bruise and healed fractures. The probable diagnosis
is (CSE 99)
a) Polytrauma for evaluation
b) Flail chest
c) Munchausen syndrome
d) Battered baby syndrome
Amputation is often not required in a) Gas gangrene
b) Buergers
c) Chronic osteomyelitis d) Diabetic gangrene
In below elbow amputation the length of stump
should b e(AIIM SM ay 93)
a) 10-15 cm
b )1 5 -2 0 c m
c) 20 -25 cm
d) 5 -10 cm
Myodesis is employed in amputations for all ofthe
following indications except (A l 09)
a) Trauma
b) Tumor
c) Children
d) Ischemia
In flap method of amputation which structure is kept
shorter than the level of amputation (DNB 92)
a) Bone
b) Muscles
c) Nerves
d) Skin
e) Vessels
Tarsometatarsal amputation is also known as a) Choparts amputation
(KA 99, UP 97,
b) Lisfranc amputation
AIIM S SR 06)
c) Pirogoffamputation
d) Symes amputation

839.

840.

841.

842.

843.

844.

845.

846.

847.

848.

849.

850.

851.

Ring sequestrum is seen in (TN92)

a) Typhoid osteomyelitis
b) Chronic osteomyelitis
c) Amputation stump
d) Tuberculosis osteomyelitis
Which ofthe following is true regarding a phantom
limb(AI94)
a) Occurs in leprosy
b) Follow amputation
c) Follow a psychiatric illness d) After filariasis
W hat is the percentage o f patients who have
undergone amputation which show "phantom limb"
pain ?
(DPG Feb. 09)
a) About 1%
b) About 5%
c) About 10%
d)35%
In cr ea sed b on e d e n sity in X - ray is seen
in (PGI Dec 08)
a) Collapse cancellous bone b) Periosteal reaction
c) Pagets disease
d)AVN
e) Osteomyelitis
Increased Bone density in X-ray seen in a) Increased thickening o f trabeculae
b) Fracture & Collapse o f cancellous bone
c) Defective mineralization
d) Myossitis ossificans
e) R elative disuse atrophy & surrounding bone
response
Sclerosis of bone is seen in all except -(KERALA 94)
a) Secondaries from prostate b) Fluorosis
c) Hyperparathyroidism
d) Osteopetrosis
Sclerotic lesion in the bone is seen in all except a) Osteitis fibrosa
b) Osteopetrosis (A l 91, 93)
c) M elorheostosis d) Caffeys disease
Increased density in skull vault is seen in - (PGI 90)
a) Hyperparathyroidism b) Multiple myeloma
c) Fluorosis
d) Renal osteodystrophy
Rugger Jersey Spine is seen in (Al 06)
a) Fluorosis
b) Achondroplasia
c) Renal osteodystrophy d) M arians syndrome
Rugger jersey spine in CRF is due to - (PGIDec 04)
a) Osteomalacia
b) Trauma
c) Hyperparathyroidism
d) Aluminium osteodystrophy
e) Osteopetrosis
Ruptured tendon is most commonly seen in a) Stab injury
b) Soft Tissue tumour
c) Overuse
d) Congenital defect
Most common cause o f insertional tendonitis of
tendoachilles is (AIIM S Nov 08)
a) Overuse
b) Improper shoe wear
c) Runners and jum pers d) Steroid injections
There is spontaneous rupture o f the Achilles tendon
in an 18 year old male. It is most likely to bedue to
excess stress beyond (DPG 10)
a) Tendon strength
b) Bone strength
c) M uscle strength
d) M usculotendinous junction strength

852.

853.

854.

855.

856.

857.

858.

859.

860.

861.

862.

863.

864.

Rupture of extensor pollicis longus tendon occurs

in all o f the following excep t(DPG 10)
a) Rheumatoid arthritis
b) C olles fracture
c) Drummers
d)De Quervains disease
Marble bone disease is (NEET/DNB Pattern)
a) O steoporosis
b) Pagets disease
c) O steopetrosis
d) Osteogenesis imperfecta
A lb e r s sc h o n b e r g d is e a s e is a lso know n
as - (NEET/DNB Pattern)
a) O steoprosis
b) Osteopetrosis
c) 01
d) Pagets disease
Tissue most sensitive to radiation is-(DPG Mar. 09)
a) D iaphysis
b) Cartilage
c) Epiphysis
d) M etaphysis
During the surgical procedure(DPG Mar. 09)
a) Tendons should be repaired before nerves
b) Nerves should be repaired before tendons
c) Tendons should not be repaired at the same time
d) None o f the above
Pollicization can be best described as (AI08)
a) Toe to thum b transfer b) Thumb reconstruction
c) Finger shortening
d) Amputation o f thumb
Muscle most commonly affected by congenital
absence is (A l 09)
a) Pectoralis major
b) Semimembranosus
c) Teres minor
d) Gluteus maximus
Heterotopic ossification is a condition in which there
is deposition of bone around the joints. Which of the
following parameters is the most useful for this
condition(AIIMS Nov 11)
a) Serum calcium
b) Serum phosphate
c) Serum alkaline phosphatase d) Serum PTH
X-ray of a young man shows hetrotopic calcification
around bilateral knee joints. Next investigation
would be(A IIM SM ay 07, A l 07)
a) Serum phosphate b) Serum calcium
c) Serum PTH
d) Serum Alkaline phosphatase
In which o f the following conditions Dactylitis
CANNOT be seen (DPG 10)
a) Sickle cell anaemia
b) Beta thalassemia
c) Congenital syphilis
d) Tuberculosis
Hypervitaminosis of which of the following will cause
bony abnormalities-fPG/June 09, Dec 06, June 01)
a) Vit.A
b)Vit. D
c) Vit.C
d)V it.E
e) Vit.K
Wormian bones are not noted in (Andhra 93)
a) Fibrous dysplasia
b) Osteogenesis inperfecta
c) Cretinism
d) Rickets
Wormian bones are seen in (DELHI 94)
a) Osteogenesis imperfecta
b) Scheurmanns disease
c) Pagets disease

865.

8 66

867.

868

869.

870.

871.

872.

873.

874.

875.

Rate of newly synthesized osteoid mineralization

can be best estimated by - (AIIMS Nov 10, A l 09)
a) Tetracycline labeling
b) Alizarin red stain
c) Calcein stain
d) Van kossa stain
Which o f the following structures is fixed first
during reimplantation of an amputated digit -(Al 11)
a) Bone
b) Artery
c) Vein
d) Nerve
Line joining ant. sup iliac spine to ischial tuberosity
and passes a greater trochanter - (AIIMS Nov 99)
a) N elatonslin e
b) Showmakers line
c) Chienes
d) Perkins line
Trendelenburg sign is positive in damage of the
following nerve (AIIMS Nov 08, A l 97)
a) Inferior gluteal nerve
b) Pudendal nerve
c) Superior gluteal nerve d) Posterior tibial nerve
Trendelenburgs test positive in all EXCEPT a) Posterior dislocation ofhip
b) Poliomyelitis
c) # Neck o f femur
d) Tuberculosis o f hip joint
Trendelenberg test is positive in palsy o f a) Gluteus maximus
(NEET/DNB Pattern)
b) Gluteus medius
c) Rectus femoris
d) Vastus medialis
Test for tight iliotibial band is (AIIMS Nov 01)
a) O bers test
b) O sbers test
c) Simmands test
d) C harnleys test
The operative procedure know n as microfracture
is done for the (AIIMS Nov 03)
a) Delayed union o f femur
b) Non union o f tibia
c) Loose bodies o f ankle joint
d) Osteochondral defect o f femur
Which is not a deep heat therapy-(AIIMSMay 07, Nov. 11)
a) Short wave diathermy b) Ultrasound therapy
c) Infrared therapy
d) Microwave therapy
Post Poliomyelitis, a patient has grade II power in
Gastrocnemius, grade III is Peroneus, grade IV in
Tibialis Anterior. The deformity is (A100)
a) Calcaneovalgus
b) Equino varus
c) Calcaneo varus
d) Genu valgus
You have treated the sim ple and undisplaced
fracture of shaft of right tibia in a nine year girl
with above knee plaster cast. Parents want to
know the prognosis of union o f the fractured limb
which was affected by polimovelitis four years age.
What is the bet possible advice will you offer to the
parents ?
(AIIMS Nov 03)
a) Fracture will unite slowly
b) Fracture will not unite
c) Fracture will unite normal ly

876.

877.

878.

879.

880.

881.

In 3 year child with polio paralysis, tendon transfer

operation is done at (A I IM S Dec 98)
a) 2 months after the disease
b) 2 years after the disease
c) 6-12 months after the disease
d) After skeleton maturation
Tension band wiring is done in all exccpta) Fracture patella
(NEET/DNB Pattern)
b) Fracture alecranon
c) Fracture medial malleolus
d) Colles fracture
Open reduction & internal fixation is done for all of
the following #s except (AI97)
a) Patella #
b) Olecranon #
c) Volar Bartons #
d )# Lateral condyle o f humerus
Surgical excision is contraindicated in a) Olecranon proccss b) Patella
c) Head o f radius
d) Lateral condyle humerus
A patient has 2 months POP cast for tibial fracture
o f left leg. Now he needs mobilisation with a single
crutch. You will use this crutch on which side a) L eftside
b) Right side (AIIMS Dec 00)
c) Any side
d) Both side

882.

883.

884.

* * *

W hich of the following fracture needs a violent

force?
(NEET/DNB Pattern)
a) Fracture Neck o f femur
b) Intertrochanteric fracture
c) Clavicle fracture
d) Colies fracture
Spring ligament refers to - (NEET/DNB Pattern)
a) Plantar calcaneo navicular ligament
b) Short plantar ligament
c) Long plantar ligament
d) Deltoid ligament
Which o f the following injuries is likely to cause a
severe vascular damage?
(NEET/DNB Pattern)
a) Closed posterior dislocation o f knee
b) Elbow dislocation [posterior]
c) Fracture middle l/3rd o f clavicle
d) Tibial plateau fracture
Which o f the following is a syndesmosis?
a) Superior tibio fibular joint (NEET/DNB Pattern)
b) Inferior tibio fibular joint
c) Talocalcaneal joint
d) Calcaneo cuboid joint