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: ea oft ait afer 2014 STATE TALENT SEARCH EXAMINATION 2014 man-x & frenfirat & fare FOR STUDENTS OF CLASS X MENTAL ABILITY TEST ( For Students of Class X) Time : 45 Minutes Max. Marks : 50 (For Blind Candidates Time: 1 Hour) INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES Read the following instructions carefully before you open the question booklet. 1. Answers are to be given on a separate answer sheet (OMR sheet). 2. Please write your Roll Number as allotted to you in the admission card very clearly on the test-booklet and darken the appropriate circles on the answer sheet as er instructions given. 3. There are 50 questions in this test. All are compulsory. 4. Please follow the instructions given on the answer sheet for marking the answers. 5. If you do not know the answer to any question, do not waste time on it and pass on (o the next one, Time permitting, you can come back to the questions, which you have left in the first instance and attempt them 6. Since the time allotted for this question paper is very limited, you should make the best use of it by not spending too much time on any one question 7. Rough work can be done on the given Blank Pages at the end of the booklet but not on the answer sheet/loose paper 8. Every correct answer will be awarded one mark. There will be no negative marking 9, Please return the Answer sheet (OMR) only to the invigilator after the test. 10. Hindi version of the question paper will be considered as final in case of any dispute arising out of variation in translated version. ‘TURN OVER THE PAGE AND START gh in any manner wl Code:S STSE/14 BSER 2014 {tents of this booklet rests with the BSER and no part of it should be used by Poe aunner uhatsorver without the prior permission of the BSER. The tems are prepare. “effort basis, In case of any dispute the opinion of the experts appointed by BSER will be final, Booklet Number feat ea T5912 Roll No. Te FR ‘atfaer ater adta ( mar x & ferenfizat & far) ara : a5 fae pie : so ( afeets sreaticat & fer wag: 1 eet) udtentirat & fer Freq wa qf ates a aa fre eo at oe a ufc 1 SP ra eae rea 1 2. Bray svat det ear Aa fe one wie aa oe fea nar &, tegen de yee 3x saree wag we fafat ok a wa ah at Ie Fe ea aden 8 so wer 81 wit es otra 4. FTW Paley act & fare seams we hea me feet st en @ ame ax saat ae aif cafe ana fret wea aT Sax Fel aad & at ga aT aga waa 4 targa ai ame wet ag aa afe are 3 aa fae at fora wea @t snd oe ors fear oT, Fa aa rH Sth Tee he 6. waite ga oes va & fore fruiiea ana aga aif Ber Seq Aa 7 CTR 7. Tw wre yferar Hit F fed we fw St Pray on wae fee eeee/aT art WR ART 8. Weta wel See ST em ofa We fare se ee Foe sims eT eT 9. Baa utter & are dae sar-was (allo WHO sie) @t Fritere at atese! 10. syaried fram Fo areay @ 3d fret st fase at Rafe a mesa & fret orga a frie ar ToT Ban Fs vated ste sa at STEN aT | ye ee a ben 3 atta ataar ater aS MENTAL ABILITY TEST aoe: Fa weraa 4 art so wes ti naka wea Ue ate at) 2 THERE ARE 50 QUESTIONS IN THIS PAPER. EACH QUESTION CARRIES ONE MARK. 1 BR Re ara a aay seem a 8, ad wear ore wT Ae ) Re 2) 3A (3) er (4) Wear Kabul is related to Afghayfstan in the same way as Baghdad is related to 0) treq (Iran (3) Bhutan Pakistan DCBA Ud TRPN 4 fate Wan a wey @, ae wary HGF aT ae (1) NMLK (2) TRO (3) WUTR eae DCBA is related to TRPN in the same way as IHGF is related to (1) NMLK (2) TRQO (3) wuTR YWUS. W3A (3-4) / Questions (3-4) fram : yet den 3 wa 48 om fara & atfaits ora al faces fates ave a BH BI oa fered at af st ora a fe Direction : In Question Nos. 3 and 4 except one alternative other alternatives are alike in a certain way. Select the odd alternative in Question Nos. 3 and 4 3. (1) Sts (2) 71 (3) amd (4) ae (1) Horse (2) Cow (3) Goat OF Lion. My 27 (2) 125 (3) 144 (4) 343. 5 Prefered a racn # few ye aia afar: 2, 8, 24, 80, 2. 243 (2) 242 (3) 162 (4) 240. Find the missing term in the following series 2, 8, 26, 80, 2. 243 (2) 242 (3) 162 (4) 240. 6 and Fae A ge sere Hi aia aif : ZBF, WDE, TFD, ee: NJ. (1) Que (2) QcH (8), Rx6c (4) QHD. Find the missing group of letters in the following series : ZBF, WDE, TFD, __? _, NJB. z ‘ (Q) Que (2) QcH HQC (4) QHD. 3 4 i 01/X i ¢ io [P.T.0, (4) Reais “aie fae fg a A ROAD #1 URDG ferar amet & at sel qe A swaN BT Fe fora arin 2 (1) VXDQ VZDQ (3) UXDQ (4) UZDQ. ; In a certain code, ROND is written as URDG. How will SWAN be written in that Buses code? i (1) VXDQ “Azp9 (3) UXDQ (4) UZDQ. 8 fe x = 48 ait ACT = 48, Tt PEN =? Oy 235 (2) 48 (3) 70 (4) 84 IfX = 48 and ACT = 48, then PEN = ? a Q) 35 (2) 48 3) 70 (4) 84 aa pug ei cay pafet ti aa pas ei a Ba Ca an ware 7 a) fat ar (2) We aT (3) wd | (4) aT TL \ and Bare brothers. Cand D are sisters. 4's son is Ds brother. How is B related oC? im (1) Father (2) Brother Qa" Nephew ance s 10. Lcafatap pa pt gan metas pw arti dem ee Val Way e ? as & b a) wa (2) sist ar 3) ari ar (4) oa aT - -W \ Ais father of Cand Dis son of B, Bis brother of A and Cis sister of D. How is > (e-> Brelated to £? (1) Daughter May Brother-in-law (3) Sister-in-law (4) Husband. at: oy ar aos Sh i a ow fat 8 em 8 at om TR PR A 17 a &1 3a ah 4 orratt at er & H .25 (2) 24 (3) 9 (4) 26 in a row of students Renv’s position is 8th from one end and 17th fro1 end. The number of students in that row is m the other (ees 4 @) 9 (4) 26. ae pot wat, RPA sat s TA ont fg OF Bat, oa eH war ara & ? oe (2) Q (3) R @) Ss. i{ Pis taller than Q, Ris shorter than P, Sis taller than T but shorter than Q, then wo among them is the tallest ? (l PR (2) @ (Sire Re: 4) Ss 13, cfigor fren & o fare acrere ard ys tan fe 5 fare acre eel yea 8 fret gen am ard ySax 12 fart ae ara Heer wREH ferry a farce St aes 7 (yy) 18 fart (2) 20 fer (3) 5 fer (4) 17 fat Mahesh walks 8 km in south direction and turns to right side and walks 5 km, “again he turns to right and walks 8 km. Now he turns to left side and walks \2 km, Now Mahesh is at what distance from the starting point ? ( 18km ce 20 km (3) Skm 17 km. \, 01/x & é PEVAL LIV AN VAD TT ALU a cy (Ss) MAT-1 140 (GUST o ad Bi ray avd ah ge frat fern 8 ti ae fae at ae at ee aq eri 2 Q) aK 2) serra (3) afer (4) sacafear It ts 3 O'clock by a watch. Suppose that hour-hand is pointing south-west direction. Then in which direction will the minute-hand be ? (Q) North (2) South-East (3) South (4) North-West. 15, eafefgr fa stam a ante wren, tha, sha ar weary exten ® 2 Which of the following Venn-diagrams represents Languages, French, German ? « “Oye xo Y 16, fea wa ote Hoga arte shhaet al eaicn &, fpr sided at eater &, ara sed ai cuter & 1 Preateiad 4 8 ater sex eitttedt a seed wt eet 2 In the diagram circle represents college professors, triangle represents engineers, rectangle represents doctors. Which of the following letters will represent engineers and doctors ? Ee f fe es os (ij B (2) z “Ox a) ¥. 17, Aas avinrer fowler get wait Ra MA Ae 2 es (2) L (3) M (4) ™ Which letter is in midway between H and R in the English alphabet ? () K @Q) L Bu (4) ON, 18. Prafertiad 4 a strat wa yre fea wa wx UNCONSCIOUS’ & stent 8 Aet aaTAT mI aT 2 (1) NOSE (2) COIN (3) SUN (4) SON. Which gne of the following words cannot be made from the letters of the word ‘UN ISCIOUS' ? (y NOSE (2) COIN (3) SUN (4) SON. STSE/14-_MAT [o17x] [pmo (1) ‘MAT-1 ay 19. aR A> B,B>c oft c> Det aa B-wT Fret fara Fa fattaa wa Gea e ? QQ) A>D (2) A>c (3) B>D (4) D>A If A > B, B> Cand C > D, then which of the following conclusions is definitely wrong ? (l) A>D (2) a>c (3) B>D wea ae 6 x 442 = 16 8 a) areal a dt otal at vege aac] ae aT facet wel alee sari 2 eee). pene ae Le +3it x,231 6 (3) +3 x, 436 (4) + att x, 6 aK 2. a Which of the following alternatives will make the equation 6 x 4.+ 2 = 16 correct ‘ after interchanging two operations and two digits ? 244h Be (1) +andx, 2and4 (2) +andx,2and6 yyy 2x4 zs (@) +andx, 4 and6 (4) + and x, 6 and 2 bLURG { a) Petfatian wei & ania wa are wel frees a sifer : B, ChONG a fet @ oe oT RY Gaby ber bro 6+ KD co 6+ 26 6 K2 a. aeeier! oe Q) cad,b Q) b,d,a,c (3) ¢dab (4) bad, Choose the correct alternative from the following words in a meaningful sequence : ‘ a, _ Districts » b. Village: ax d c. State -[ d. Tehsil.” c,a,d,b (2) b, d,a,e (3) cadab (4) bade. oo, fre at apie wa H rafters sifere : a wer b. WaT c. fant Pe i () abed (2) ¢bad (3) cadb (4) ca,b,d. ‘Arrange the following in a logical order : is a. Examination we b, Selection C c. Advertisement d, Appointment. a abed (2) ¢, bad (3) c,a,d,b waite, a,b, d. ‘STSE/14- MAT 01/x 23, 24. tw a 27. 28. | STSE/14—-Mar pte Moy es UR ware (7) Crug Se me 1 feet gicee ¥ 00 yes #1 yet Haters mh fee a fim abet ay sete tr (1) 990 (2) 366 (3) 792 (4) 1098. deca ut hes 300 pages. In numbering of the pages how many total digits will be QQ) 220) (2) 366 (9-792 (4) 1098. SP Se Hoe a at & fot int ah ahem, sab Fl ah com ay a 14 afew €1 ai at den & iM. 7 Q) 5 (3) 10 (4) 6. In a group of cows and hens, the number of legs are 14 more than twice of the number of heads. The nymber of cows is ae? 5 (3) 10 (4) 6. frmiferfiac we a werarees fuer ( 2 )} er & e-em sie arm 2 In the following question, what digit will come in place of question mark ( 2) Int LS 6 5 (3) 47 ( 37 (2) “i (4) 18. Frmifeitan fast a ois we faftaa tet an argue aed £1 werner fea he aren In the following figures digits follow a certain pattern. What will replace question mark ( ?) sign ? 2) 2802. 184i Wig laa 14 9 G a) 12 (2) 21 (34 (4) 35. fret oq hs & ae six Sach wey uw fees wee 2, sel we aT aT foes: & qral aie & vel & meq 8) fea 1d farmed AS wet fees site 1648 ; 1339 ::?:? (1) 721: 1440 (2) 824: 918 (3) 618: 1030 (4) 26:816 In the following question, there is a certain relation between two terms in the left side of the sign : : . Similar type of relation is there between the two terms in the right side of the sign : : . Select the correct option from the given alternatives. N1g39 34-24? 721: 1440 (2) 824: 918 (3) 618:1030 (4) 26:816 Uh oF & al, ysmail cen -acel at Hen aT aA eT (l)° 4:3:6 (Qi ac61e (3) 4:8:3 (4) 4:6:3 cas of corners, sides and surfaces of a cube is 4:3:6 (225673 (3) 4:8:3 (4) 4:6:3 (P10. (8) Sk _ BRT (29-30) / Questions ( 29 - 30) freer : Frefertac geen a anaes exer aif cer fea ae wet & ser Ai) Ue een Frat siftrardt Sh ug ux cafes a Prafen a fer Preafeattact mews & : seca i FHS hy 60% steel @ signa ales enc setthafer a1 Sifcay ferara, cares fare she afore starr Gov @ xin Tete Sot #1 feat water seit eh HHS FH 50% stat a aye wal wel geacane seit ay 15 FeIg 1994 FH 22 ad B afwe a set et sre & afaten satigar ary ares can eH a) (ii) 8 Hye, stat ar wlan at AA 90% stat @ errs a at ot Paafe eh b) (vy) @ Hy, wife atferereren eodtafin Feta oe freern at anf eo) i) BH, cers afr ot other B afeafers a oe stead Frafee eh a ? Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given Following are the criteria for appointing persons for the post of Technical Officer in an organisation. The candidate must — i) _be a graduate in engineering discipline with at least 60% marks. ii) _ have passed XII examination with at least aggregate percentage of 60 in Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics. iii) _have passed written examination iv) _ have passed group discussion and interview with at least 50% marks. v) __ not be more than 22 years on July 15, 1994. In case of a candidate who satisfies all other criteria except at a) _ (ii) above, in terms of percentage of marks but has secured 90% marks in graduation, may be appointed b) _[v) above, but is a post-graduate in engineering is to be referred to the Director personnel c) (i) above, but has appeared in the final degree examination may be provisionally appointed. 29. ta ace adhere Sian st afta ad at ater A via gai ae sat xu a sifae fae, tare faa vd afin 4 staat 70% ai ure fai sea fated ager ore at ra aye Tat a Hea A 75% san wnt fal See HAT 15 ate, 1972 #1 G31 Suet (1) rate et ett (2) Freee anita at snifeg att (3) rere Prater et (4) afer att _ STSE/14 - MAT O1/x ee (9) MAT-1 Rav Malhotra has appeared in final degree examination in Mechanical Mnbinecring. He has secured 70% aggregate marks in Physics, Chemistry and fathematics in class XII. He has passed the written examination and has one ge Bas in both group discussion and interview. He was born on (1) _ will not be appointed (2) will be referred to Director personnel an be appointed provisionally will be appointed. 30. aT XA Stic fears, Tatas faa ait afore A fier cheat 3 70% afte sar area fara Sik 80% sap G Heres & eaae sit 50% aia a ates fat seer SH 25 FR, 1972 st ga! Sea fees aden seiol et aan aye Tal wa AeA eee se ence vee (1) Feng Frain et (2) Frafen set erat (3) freee anit at afaa ath (4) Fags S71 Priya Mirchandani has secured 70% aggregate marks in Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics in Class XII. She has secured 80% aggregate marks in graduation in Metallurgy and 50% in post-graduation. She was born on February 25, 1972. She has passed the written examination and has secured 55% marks both in group discussion and interview. She (a) be appointed provisionally will not be appointed (3) _ will be referred to Director personnel (4) will be appointed. WHT (31-32) / Questions (31-32) fader : wea Gem 31 wa 32.4 fas & a ame & ead we ae I er foa a ee sar-faa aed #1 aren-faa we a a wm arg wp we aU et) areal saves FS eH ta faa ar gaa seo @, at aerear-fert Berger at sttgt om wah Bel Se Faa wh aT aif | Direction : In Question Nos. 31 and 82 there are two sets of figures, One set contains problem-figures while the other has answer-figures. There is a sequence according to which the problem-figures are arranged. You have to select one figure from the set of answer-figures which can be placed in sequence after the set of problem-figures. Find out the correct figure. Bi, anei-faa / Problem-figures gav-faa / Answer-figures elas] fa[a[ala U7 (2) (3) (4) 32. arei-faa / Problem-figures Sacfaa / Answer-figures STSE/14 - MAT LE MAT-1 (10) 33, wea feat & oh aye Fi fa a, a, che p aeren-fer an fet 1, 2,97 4 Sa a 1 faa a cen Ba fread war bi soca @ faa p an at ah ae wary Pa Ca D4» eatta aif) Two sets of the figures are given in the question, Figures A, B, C and D are Problem-figures and figures 1, 2, 3 and 4 are answer-figures. There is a definite relationship between figures A and B, Establish a similar relationship between C and D by choosing a figure D from the answer-figures. WrET-faa / Problem-figures aacfaa / Answer-figures | [etOjel?] Ath l4 (A) (B) {C) (D) (1) (2) (4) i 34. wet aun faa fea wa B1 sat Sow faa ar fast S Ber et eT 1 Ta A few | a ama Sif) In the question there are four figures given. One of these does not correlate with the rest of the figures. Find out the odd figure. rar Q) 2 (3) (4) 35, ote fea wa faa of fart aeet tare & 2 How many straight lines are there in the diagram given below ? . j | a (3) 8 (4) 10. ? j | | | Ces er13 36, ata fea 1a faa Fi feet are Ut 2 How many parallelograms are there in the diagram given below > oa @ 12 @ 1 STSE/14- MAT O1/X (4) 8. (11) MAT-1 MALE FS wish & ae image of MALE is oe 2) aLAM (@) ELAM (4), MAda Frefetfars ary facrect af a fea 18 fers ox) ar ction afer & ‘The mirror image of the given figure (X) from the following four alternatives is (x) Q@) (2) (4) TAM et fafara aren A-a wez e 7 Q) CHILD (2) KID var7 COLE (4) CAN Which word have identical water image ? (1) CHILD (2) KID (3) “COLE (4) CAN an facscat tf fea 1a faa (x) ar ser afar & ‘The water image of the given figure (X) from the four following alternatives is B ABs 41, ae srege sh yt eet aren F- faaed & ? Which is the alternative that completes the figure matrix ? 4.0 |A400 |A000| (a) (Opes 42, SA-a fared TST STL AE HT wefara eat 8 7 () WME Oe M,Z,H (3) W.NE (4) ZH Which of the following alternatives represents group of similar letters GQ) WME (2) M.Z,H (3) W,N.E (4) Z,H,T fo wet & oh ew er AT HE 216 GE aera wet A aed EH Feed grat efit forat dita wae ein wt? {bp (2) 8 (3) 9 (4) 5. ‘A cube is painted on all of its surfaces and then divided into 216 equal smaller cubes, How many smaller cubes will be there with three ey 2 oe 7 Q) 8 @) 9 5. 14- MAT [osx {PT0. MAT-1 (12) 44. 45, 46 47 48. STSE/14- MAT 01/X ote ord & fea me feat ds amare ae 3 & fatte aes a sim aT On the basis of the figures of dice given below which digit will appear on the opposite face of 3 ? YEE (Ge (ee Ir ph od at ed te cope & pee Pn em? Four figures A, B, Cand D are given in the question. Which of the three figures will form a triangle ? A B ce D Wan () BCD (2) ACD (3) ABC ABD. wet Hoon atef 4, Bc an pdm &) ah da ania @ at a fai em 2 Four figures A, B, Cand Dare given in the question. Which of the three will form a square ? D (l) ABC (2) BDA Bf ACD (4) BCD. at me ameft x 4 fry at fre fafa Ft cater var @ at ted & agen fag freafetiad sa-faat 4 a fred et aaa 2 In the given figure X, the position in which dot is placed can appear in the same pattern in which of the following answer-figure: (Xx) “un (2) (3) (4) are xo gael Ft stg vx ata-ah wet See-srpfe ahh 2 Which correct answer-figure will be formed by joining the parts of the figure X? (x) (2) (3) (4) ee P , a Be a fare mor are x oma Faro etn 2 of the © given alternatives will exactly make up the key figure X? : esp Se hey Sere (x) qQ) (4) Brrerfer art ompfial ge aera we a fr #1 ae orp fd ata om Spina Fe wa wy ae 2 The four Problem-figures have certain common features. Which figure from answer-figures will have the same features ? ce Re Slmlvs) (PO[AIA] Q) (2) (3) ya LCT-2 — LANGUAGE COMPREHENSION TEST ( For Students of Class X ) Time : 45 Minutes (For Blind Candidates Time 1 Hour ) INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES Read the following instructions carefully before you open the question booklet. 1. This test contains 40 Questions in English Language and 40 Questions in Hindi Language. The candidate has to attempt this test only in one Language i. either in English or in Hindi. Mark the language of test opted by you very clearly on the answer sheet (OMR) as per instructions given on the answer sheet Answers are (0 be given on a separate ‘answer sheet (OMR sheet) Please write your Roll Number as allotted to you in the admission card very clearly on the test-booklet and darken the ‘appropriate circles on the answer sheet as jax. Marks : 40 Code:S STSE/14 wea afer ata atte 2014 STATE TALENT SEARCH EXAMINATION 2014 man-x & feenferat & fere FOR STUDENTS OF CLASS X Booklet Number feat eat 40912 Roll No. aan 206s fF saver atrarar wat (war x 3 Pamnfirat & fore ) aaa : a5 fre apie: 40 ( aheedta arated % fare ara: 1 Het ) cagtentizat & fire frat Se SRT Se Sat Sea a 1 1. Fa wea # go wer sidoh oma shy 40 54 feat war & &) faenfiral at gai & hae ow sarer at ara & ar at itil fees 2, ah mt mm at saw a sacw (site THe Ro) We fea my fed) 3, SH UH WET FAC-TAH (ato We HTe wiz) Hat 4. Far Hear Ter area ar fae ae eter ye fear nar t, Prema 2 sie aa structions given. sone foi ae fore aero feet A 5 ve follow the instructions given on the a) ua & FAR aR Saat Seq see answer sheet for marking the answers. Goa sraiiech aes oncom weet aac 6 If you do not know the answer to any a atl a A auatinn de.on wane een aoe aca A ee Be fn Te eR ome buck to the questions, which you have iy fear, Sa ane stra sah ee SA) feft in the first instance and attempt them. 7. Fw a & fe fruits exes iinet, 7. Since the time allotted for this question gale gaan stream wei site fare paper eyes, oy heal a Ewen WCET Eg rs, RE eee 8, Rough work can be donc on the given far an want 8 fry FURR / aT ATA Blank Pages at the end of the booklet but watt not on the answer sheet /loose paper 9, water ah seer Wer oem wera Pave sem Ta 9, Every correct answer will be awarded one Pancha fark There will be no negative markin : wm 10, Please return the Answer sheet (OMR) 10. Far utter & hustle! (ate only to the invigilator after the test. reo) a frttare wi attergy PLEASE TURN OVER THE PAGE AND START rar ys vated atte ara ard array wf YOUR WORK. ‘BSER 2014 ‘The copyright of the conte: anybody in any manner w! ‘on best effort basis. In case of [ nts ofthis booklet rests with the BSER and no part of should be used by hhatsoever without the prior permission of the BSER. The items are prep frany dispute the opinion of the experts appointed by BSER will be final, STSE/14 - LCT 02/X| (3) Ler2 “ran areere ete faa: fret a wea H go 40mm ever WA 1 ate ae 1. Freferfera avi 9 agit aot ae & % (2) @ @ 4 @ 41 2, frefafan ai 8a wa et au Q) (3) af 4) aI 3. ‘aa: + a! wet A wet aha et (Q) agter (2) aE () Faz (4) ater 4, ‘Shere! wee a et aaa & Q) 3 + fre 2) “aq fre (3) a+ fare (@) she + fre | 5, Prafefan weet Yada wrx ati & w 4 oan @) 7 oer 6. frefafaa wet A orfreaa ara’ aca e w Q) 7 om (a) 41 [P-T.0. STSE/14 - LCT [02x | 17. fara wee Foret Tee ? QQ) sear 2) ste (3) st @) ai (18, Fresferfiad weet Ha! wera 8 at aren re ae & Q) ae (2) snfera (4) stterd ‘Froferan 8 a facta ae a at ster t Q) a - afr (3) fafa - fra 74) 24. “aaa! ua ‘ur’ ad a aa aren wee aH e (QQ) safe - stati (2) (3) am - fase (4) 25. ‘afta’ we aa aa ae 3 (1) ‘faa - = Wq - Fa (3) 74 - fra We - et (2) affix (4) Frere 1 a aha we ahh & oem wast ? ; (2) arefere czy LcT-2 28, fae are 3 ue tea she we fata a, 38 ae Q) Fa area (2) faa ary @) were ara (4) fae aray | 29. Fresferfian are 3 ig! area @ Q) gta gee ve were 2) 23% serait afr mene oa t (3) cist a Ga a aca ster aT ari fear 4) Ay ay aria gant | 30. 204m fell arom ora werar fiend wel fara at aa eae! ordad ara F fara were & fara fam ai ent & 2 Q) yet fare 2) seq fre (3) are fara (4) ani fara 1 31. fram qa fae were ara & () wei a (2) Fn a (3) wai aw (4) farm wh 32. ‘wae wea’ sel # we HE aren qeraT & Q) we ata aren (2) efea sort (3) wa we ee a tot (4) we att 33, ‘aa sy orn’ yet wr ae ord t Q) we aca em (2) 490 AT @) BaF @ RT " STSB/14 - LOT (02/x | CRESS 35. 36. a7: 38. 39. 40. (8) SAAT eT wre aw fer —fow ae cen 1! cites a ore @ Q) yaa sa a8 7 ore ay RHE HT Q Ween koe ai (3) Gan shen arn aafea gan sraurt ae & (@) ster 8 eter dt ora eon arfee | ‘wae & fan ag ard agi ei’ sel a supe ciate & Q) 43 ann wef (2) far te HF st ge ae Fremet (3) FAM ohh fre aA fea 4 ste (4) y@ wer a eta cre | Pefatan wel Fo qpreres frre & () sea 2) eo (3) ater (4) en | “a aa afte wa Sten! daa a cian & () san Q) ayaa @) 37H (4) ae | ‘rma qn fara fay sore yee fae 1’ Ger A acta Q) seen (2) 30H (3) 7 4) sm | ‘spre wat at wretone aft sf orga 1" faa AY orcfare & QQ) age (2) HH (3) 3m (4) wat ‘arena! wee an aha-firds & Q) a+r 2) a+ Ay (3) + 9 @) am+mai STSE/14 - LCT 02/K a (9) LOT-2 Language Comprehension Test Subject ; English There are 40 questions in this paper. Each question carries 1 mark. Rajat took the bunch of keys to lock the house but he wu... the lock in the hall. eee (2) forget forgot (4) forgotten Kajal has a meeting in Jaipur on Monday next week. She «. to go by a car. (1) planned (2) had planned (3) plan \ay~is planning. The boys were playing the game until their mother ....... UY called (2) will call (3) calls (4) call. Eklavya never « why he had been punished. (1) knows knew (3) will know (4) 1s going to know. Smoking «............ at public places in India. (1) prohibited 12) Is prohibited (3) was prohibited (4) will be prohibited, ‘The one day series between India and Australia held last month India (1) is'won (2) will be won (3) has won {4}“was won. Somebody killed my parrot. <4” My parrot had been killed (2) My parrot was killed (3) My parrot is killed (4) My parrot had killed. Mr. Verma said to his neighbour, "Dont worry, Tam ready to help you.” a7 Mr, Verma assured his neighbour not to worry, he was ready to help him, Mr. Verma told his neighbour not to worry, he was ready to help him. rma assure his neighbour to not to worry as he was ready to help (2) (3) Mr. Vet him. (4) Mr, Verma said to his neighbour that he will be ready to help him, 02/x | P2.0. 14 - LCT LeT-2 (10) 9. The captain said, "Alas ! we lost the match.” ‘The captain exclaimed with sorrow that they had lost the'match. (2) The captain said that they lost the match. (3) The captain said that Alas he had lost the match. (4) The captain said that they lose the match. 10. Even my best efforts .. .. not put the broken toy together. () ought to 2) must > (3) should \@Y7 could. 11. Every citizen of the country ............ respect the constitution Q) wil 2h ought to (3) can (4) could . caught in the disaster in Uttarakhand 12. A number of pilgrims ... () was (QQ) were @) ts (4) are. 13. The people of our country... of varied cultures. Nut are Q) ts (3) were (4) was. @ There was .......--.... of water in the tank. Still my mother shouted at me for wasting some in a bath. (1) some (2) many ey plenty (4) utue ‘The old man made .. final effort to call his son at last. (1) much ey the Oya (4) an 16. The monkeys were swinging .. » one branch of the tree to another using their tails. QQ). for trom (3) of (4) by. STSE/14- LCT o2/x (1) LeT-2 17. The new manager decided to go ... a) in 2) to 8) at wr tor. 18. He kept the wads of notes .. the steel chest over “ co 11. a sorting of the excess staff. away 48) in (4) from 19. Coal was formed out of dead forests by chemical processes. Here the underlined word stands for .... (Q) result S (2) continued natural action ~~ step method Don't buy a used car from that rogue. Here the underlined word stands for yn {07a dishonest man Yan honest man ANCE robber Aga burglar. 21. ‘Legible' means that can be spoken (2) that can be announced (3) that can be published (4) that can be read. 22. ‘Parole’ means (1) freedom (2) to set free (910 set free on conditions (4) torun away. ‘The nearest word opposite to the meaning of ‘Gaudy’ is. (1) bright (2) garish (3) shining ayull. 24, The nearest word similar to the meaning of ‘grown up’ Is 2 wrt progress (2) young (3) mature (@) grow tall. 25. The reason he felt offended is unknown. (1). what™ (2) why | @) who er whieh. 1/14 - LET 02/x {P.T.0. (2) that oo (4) bua. 28, The sculptor worked all seven cs a week .. ., he made no changes to the original statue. Wy but 2) so (3) and (4) that. 29. shines | make | the sun | hay | while 3 a] 5 +3 The correct order is ... . ‘ () 21.3,5,4 591.204 lr 23'4;'5, 3, 1 (4) 3,4,2,5,1 80. the platform | rattling noise | lived | making a | eniteretl 2 4 1 5 > ‘The correct order is ... () 1,4,5,2,3 3, 5.1, 4,2 (3) 3,2,1,4,5 (4) 1,4, 3,5, 2. It is a mark of generosity . . the poor. a) eee (2) help (4) helped. (2) forgot (4) forget. (13) nee ‘The aca je a ‘Don't you ever make mistakes ?' is 's mistakes (2) The speaker makes mistakes (8) The listener does not make mistakes (4) The speaker does not make mistakes. 34. Hart built a big house. Hari built a big farm house. The correct transformation of this question ts ... Hari not only built a big house but also a big farm house (2) Hari built not only a big house but a big farm house also (3) Hari built a big house not only but also a big farm house (4) Hari built not only a big house but also a big farm house. 33. 35. The sale brought in about one lac rupees. ‘Brought in’ stands for .... (1) produced (2) lost SY gained (4) spent, 36. Finding no space to settle in the town the troop set out for the outskirts. The underlined phrasal verb stands for () fell = (2) deposited moved (4) stopped. 37) The doctor regularly prayed for her sick grandmother. Choose the correct alternative question What does he do for her sick grandmother ? (2) / What do she do for her sick grandmother ? What did she do for her sick grandmother ? (4) What had she to do for her sick grandmother ? 38. 1 exercised all the steps which I knew, Choose the correct 'tag question (1) don't 1? (2) didn't 1? (3) ain't 1? Le aren't 1? 39. Choose the correctly punctuated alternative. Stop, you are under check ! (2) Stop; you are under check. {G) Stop, you are under check? _{##7 Stop. you are under check. 40, Choose the correctly punctuated alternative, (1) Why only Prakash should bear. all the expenses ? et Why only Prakash should bear all the expenses ? ; (3) Why only prakash should bear All the expenses ? : (4) Why only Prakash should bear all the expenses. [ P.T.0,

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