10p14 Adv 3 Paper 2 Aceg2

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Aggarwal Corporate Heights, 3rd Floor, Plot No. A - 7, Netaji Subhash Place,
Pitam Pura, Delhi - 110034 Phone: 011-45221191-93
JEE ADVANCED - 3/JEE-2014/Paper - 2

25/12/2013
02:00 PM - 05:00 PM
M.M. : 180
TEST CODE : ACEG
TIME : 3.00 Hrs
Read the following Instructions very carefully before you proceed.

1.
The question paper consists of 3 parts (Part I : Chemistry, Part II : Physics, Part III : Mathematics).
Each Part has 3 sections (Section I, Section II & Section III).
2.
Section I contains 8 Multiple Objective type Questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONE or MORE Choices may be Correct.
3.
Section II contains 8 Straight Objective (Paragraph) type Questions. Each question has 4 choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE Choice is Correct.
4.
Section III contains 4 Match the following Objective type Questions. Each question contains
statements given in 2 lists. Statements in the first list have to be matched with statements in the
second list and then option with the appropriate code is to be marked in the answer sheet.
5.
For answering a question, an ANSWER SHEET (OMR SHEET) is provided separately. Please fill your
Test Code, Roll No. and Group Properly in the space given in the ANSWER SHEET.
6.
For each question in Section I, you will be given 3 Marks if you have darkened only the bubble
corresponding to all correct answers and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases,
minus ONE (1) mark (NEGATIVE MARKING) will be given.
7.
For each question in Section II, you will be given 3 Marks if you have darkened only the bubble
corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases,
8.
For each question in Section III, you will be given 3 Marks if you have darkened only the bubble
corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases,
9.
No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile
phone, any electronic device, etc., except the Admit Card inside the examination hall/room.
10.
On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty
in the Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
11.
No one will be permitted to leave the test room before the end of the test, i.e. 05.00 PM
VMC/JEE-2014/Paper-2
JEE Advanced - 3/ACEG
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PART - I (CHEMISTRY)
60 MARKS
SECTION - I
MULTIPLE CORRECT ANSWERS TYPE
This section contains 8 Multiple Choice Questions. Each Question has 4 choices A, B, C & D, out of which
ONE or MORE Choices may be Correct:
Which of the following are diastereomeric pairs ?
H
H
Br
H
Br
Br
[I]
I and III
(B)
(C)
COOH
Br
H
Br
Br
H
Br
Me
Me
[III]
I and II
[IV]
III and IV
(D)
Select the CORRECT statements for the equilibrium under standard conditions.
S3 S2
S3 S1
(D)
(C)
H2O(v) ; S3
S2 S1
H2O(v) ; S2 ; H2O(s)
(B)
S1 S2
(A)
; H2O( )
H2O( ) ; S1
H2O(s)
3.
[II]
II and IV
2.
H
H
H
Br
COOH
COOH
(A)
COOH
Me
Me
1.
Boyles law may be expressed as : (K is a constant)

(A)
(dP / dV)T K / V
(B)
(dP / dV)T K / V2
(C)
(dP / dV)T K / V
(D)
1
P
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
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4.
5.
Me
|
H 2O
CH 2 CH C H Cl
(I) + (II). Which of the following statements are CORRECT ?
(A)
Me
|
CH 2 CH CH OH (I) is the major product at 0C
(B)
HO CH2 CH CH Me (II) is themajor product at 40C
(C)
(D)
Allyl chloride is reactive towards SN1 and SN2 reaction

Formation of (II) takes place via allylic delocalisation of carbocation
Which of the following statements is(are) TRUE about P4O10.

(A)
The number of P O P bonds is 6
(B)
The number of P O P bonds is 10
(C)
P4O10 is a potent dehydrating agent
(D)
The number of P O bonds in the structure of P4O10 is 4

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6.
A hydrogen like ion, He (Z 2) is exposed to electromagnetic waves of wavelength 256.4 .

The exited electron gives out induced radiations. Which of the following statements is true about this
system: (Given R = 109677 cm1 , energy of an electron in the Bohr's first orbit of H-atom is 13.6eV )
(A)
The wavelengths of the Induced radiations, when electron de-excites back to ground state are
256.4 , 303.9 and 1641.3 respectively
7.
(B)
The total energy of electron in the ground state of He is 54.4eV
(C)
The total energy of electron in first excited state of He is 13.6 eV
(D)
The potential energy of electron in the first excited state of He is 27.2eV
Which of the following statement(s) is(are) CORRECT?

(A)
Inductive effect is permanent shifting of electrons towards more electronegative element
(B)
Mesomeric effect is delocalization of electrons over a conjugated system
(C)
Hyperconjugation is simultaneous shifting of and electrons at 1, 3-position without the
(D)
movement of H atom from its position

Tautomerism is simultaneous shift of and electrons at 1, 3-position with the movement of
H atom from its position
8.
Which of the following statements is(are) TRUE for d block elements.

(A)
In any row, the melting points of these metals rise to a maximum and then fall regularly as
atomic number increases
(B)
Higher oxidation state is favoured by heavier elements
(C)
Cr2+ is oxidising in nature
(D)
Magnetic moment of a divalent ion of Manganese in aqueous solution is 5.92 BM
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SECTION - II
SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE
This section contains 8 Single Choice Paragraph based Questions. Each Question has 4 choices A, B, C & D
out of which ONLY ONE Choice is Correct.
Paragraph for Questions 9 - 10
(Ag /Ag)
0.80 V and Ecell 1.05 V at 25 C
A voltaic cell consists of an electrode of solid silver immersed in a 0.10 M AgNO3 solution and an electrode of
unknown metal X immersed in a 0.10 M solution X(NO3)2. A porous barrier separates two half cells.
Also given:
X(s) | X2 (1.0 M) || Ag (0.1 M) | Ag(s)
Which of the following statements regarding the cell and X is incorrect?

(A)
Standard EMF (E ) of X2 | X is 0.25 V at 25C
(B)
X is a stronger reducing agent than H2(g)
(C)
As the cell operates, the concentration of both X2 and Ag increase in their respective half
(D)
cells
As the cell operates, the concentration of X2+ increases in the anode chamber while the
9.
10.
If Ag | Ag half cell in the above voltaic cell is replaced by Zn 2 | Zn half cell (E

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
concentration of Ag decrease in the cathode chamber

Zn 2 |Zn
0.76 V) .
The direction of current flow will remain same

Polarity of the electrodes will be reversed
Cell will stop working
EMF of the cell will increase
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Paragraph for Question 11 - 12

Spontaneity of any process can be predicated with the help of Stotal . But this requires calculation of changes
in system as well as surroundings. If some criteria (depending upon the system only) can be developed for
checking spontaneity under specific conditions, then that would be a more useful parameter. The criteria can be
derived from Clausius inequality.
> sign for irreversible process
= sign for reversible process
TdS q
or
TdS dU W for an irreversible process
or
T dSsys dUsys PdV [consider no non-PV work]
If
U and V are constant,

T dSsys 0
or
(dS)U.V 0 for spontaneous process
If
V and T are constant

TdS dU
or
dU T dS 0
As temperature is constant, dU d(TS) 0 or d U TS 0

Another state function A (Helmholtzs function) = U TS
A decrease in Helmholtzs function (A) under constant volume and temperature is the criteria of spontaneity of
a process.
11.
If a state function G is defined such as G H TS , then G must decrease for a spontaneous process
(involving only PV work) occurring at :
(A)
Constant volume and temperature
(C)
Constant volume and pressure
12.
For an irreversible cyclic process

(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
Constant pressure and temperature

Constant entropy and volume
(B)
(D)
Greater than zero

Equal to change is Gibb's energy
dq
is :
T
Equal to zero
Less than zero
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Intramolecular aldol condensation :
The aldol condensation also offers a convenient way to synthesize molecules with five and six membered rings.
This can be done by an intramolecular aldol condensation using a di-aldehyde, a keto-aldehyde or a di-ketone as
the substrate. The major product is formed by the attack of the enolate from the ketone side of the molecule that
adds to the aldehyde group. The reason that aldehyde group undergoes addition preferentially may arise from
the greater reactivity of aldehyde towards nucleophillic addition generally.
In reaction of this type five membered rings form far more readily than seven membered rings and six
membered rings are more favorable than four or eight membered rings when possible.
13.
1-Ethylclopent-1-ene on reductive ozonolysis followed by aq. NaOH/ gives :

(A)
14.
(B)
(C)
(D)
Which of the following compounds on reaction with O3/Zn, H2O followed by aq. NaOH / will form
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
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The first (I H1 ) and second ( I H2 ) ionization enthalpies (in kJ mol1 ) and the ( eg H ) electron gain enthalpy
(in kJ mol1 ) of a few elements are given below :
15.
16.
Elements
1H1
1H1
egH
(A)
520
7300
60
(B)
419
3051
48
(C)
1681
3374
328
(D)
1008
1846
295
(E)
2372
5251
+ 48
(F)
738
1451
40
The least reactive element is :

(A)
P
(B)
(C)
(D)
The most reactive metal is :

(A)
P
(B)
(C)
(D)
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SECTION - III
MATRIX MATCH TYPE
This section contains 4 Single Choice Questions. Each question has matching lists. The codes for the lists
have 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE Choice is correct.
17.
MATCH THE FOLLOWING LISTS :

List 1
List 2
(P)
F-centres
1.
Extra
cations
interstitial sites
present
in
(Q)
Metal excess defect
2.
Some cations are replaced by

one of higher valence
(R)
Metal deficiency defect
3.
Both cations and anions are

missing from lattices
(S)
Schottky defects
4.
Electrons trapped in anionic

vacancies
Codes :
(A)
(C)
P
4
4
Q
2
1
R
1
2
S
3
3
(B)
(D)
P
3
3
Q
2
1
R
1
2
S
4
4
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18.

List 1
List 2
(P)
Silver
1.
Forms passive oxide layer on

reaction with conc. HNO3
(Q)
Aluminium
2.
Reacts with H2S to give black

coloured compound.
(R)
Gold
3.
Reacts with Aqua regia to form

complex.
(S)
Tin
4.
Reacts with water

Hydrogen gas.
to
give
Codes :
(A)
(C)
P
3
2
Q
4
4
R
2
3
S
1
1
(B)
(D)
P
2
3
Q
1
1
R
3
2
S
4
4
10
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19.
List 1
List 2
(P)
Ea (f )
1.
10KJ mol1
(Q)
Ea (b)
2.
40 KJ mol1
(R)
r H
3.
30 KJ mol1
(S)
Ethreshold
4.
50 KJ mol1
Codes :
(A)
(C)
P
3
3
Q
1
2
R
2
1
S
4
4
(B)
(D)
P
1
4
Q
2
2
R
3
3
S
4
1
11
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20.

List 1
List 2 [Major Product]
(P)
1.
(Q)
2.
(R)
3.
(S)
4.
Codes :
(A)
(C)
P
3
3
Q
2
1
R
1
2
S
4
4
(B)
(D)
P
3
4
Q
3
1
R
1
3
S
4
3
12
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PART - II (PHYSICS)
60 MARKS
SECTION - I
21.
A metal wire of length L, cross-sectional area A and Youngs Modulus Y is stretched by a variable force
F. F is varying in such a way that F is always slightly greater than the elastic forces of resistance in the
wire. When the elongation in the wire is l, upto this instant :
(A)
22.
The work done by F is
YAl 2
(B)
2L
(C)
The elastic potential energy stored in wire is
(D)
No energy is lost during elongation
The work done by F is

YAl
YAl 2
L
2L
Internal energy :
(A)
Is a state function
(B)
Is a path function
(C)
Is related to work done by the system and heat exchange from the system by the First Law of
Thermodynamics
(D)
Of two systems of the same ideal gas but with different masses at the same temperature is
different
13
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23.
24.
A particle, moving horizontally, collides perpendicularly at one and

of a rod having equal mass and placed on a smooth horizontal
surface.
(A)
Particle comes to rest if collision is perfectly elastic and
centre of rod starts to move with the same velocity
m
(B)
Particle continues to move along the same direction,
v0
whatever is the value of e
(C)
Particle may rebound back.
(D)
Velocity of mid-point of the rod will be less than 0 / 2 if the particle gets stuck
The string shown in the figure is passing over small smooth pulley
rigidly attached to trolley A. If the speed of trolley is constant and equal
to vA towards right, speed and magnitude of acceleration of block B with
respect to trolley at the instant shown in figure are :
(A)
(C)
25.
B vA , aB 0
3
B vA
5
(B)
(D)
aB 0
aB
16 A2
125
All the particles thrown with the same initial speed would strike the ground.
(A)
With same speed
(B)
Simultaneously
(C)
Time would be least for the particle
thrown with velocity v downward i.e.,
particle 1
(D)
Time would be maximum for the particle 2
14
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26.
X-ray from a tube with a target A of atomic number Z shows strong K lines for target A and weak K
lines for impurities. The wavelength of K lines is z for target A and 1 and 2 for two impurities.
z
1
4 and
z
2
1
4
Assuming the screening constant of K lines to be unity. Select the correct statement(s) :
(A)
(B)
The atomic number of first impurity is 2 z 1

The atomic number of first impurity is 2z + 1.
(C)
The atomic number of second impurity is
28.
2
z
1.
2
For the situation shown in the figure, select the correct statement(s):
q
(A)
Potential of the conductor is
4 0 d R
q
(B)
Potential of the conductor is
4 0 d
(C)
Potential of the conductor cant be determined as nature of distribution of induced charges is
not known
qR
(D)
Potential at point B due to induced charges is
4 0 d R d
(D)
27.
z 1
The atomic number of second impurity is
Consider three converging lenses L1 , L 2 and L3 having identical geometrical construction. The index
of reflection of L1 and L 2 are 1 and 2 respectively . The upper half of the lens L3 has a refractive
index 1 and the lower half has 2 . A point object O is imaged at O1 by the lens L1 and at O2 by the
lens L2 placed in same position. If L3 is placed at the same place,
(A)
There will be an image at O1
(B)
There will be an image at O2
(C)
The only image formed will

somewhere between O1 and O2
(D)
The only image formed will be away from O1
be
15
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SECTION - II

A light rod of length L = 2 m is suspended horizontally from the ceiling by
two wires A and B of equal lengths. The wire A is made of steel with the
area of cross section As 1 105 m2 while the wire B is made of brass of
cross-sectional area Ab 2 105 m2 . A weight W is suspended at a
distance x from the wire A as shown in the figure. Take, Youngs Modulus
of steel and brass as Ys 2 1011 Nm2 and Yb 1 1011 Nm2 .
29.
30.
Determine the value of x so that equal stresses are produced in each wire.
(A)
1.33 m
(B)
1.5 m
(C)
0.67 m
(D)
0.33 m
Determine the value of x so that equal strains are produced in each wire.
(A)
1m
(B)
0.5m
(C)
0.67 m
(D)
1.2 m

A monoatomic ideal gas of two moles is taken through a cyclic process starting from A as shown.
VD
VA
31.
32.
VB
VA
2 and
4 . Temperature (TA) at A is 27C .

Find the temperature at B, TB :
(A)
600 K
(B)
450 K
(C)
400 K
(D)
900 K
Find the work done during the process A B :

(A)
1200 R
(B)
1500 R
(C)
1400 R
(D)
1000 R
16
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The arrangement for a Lloyds mirror experiment is shown in
figure. S is a point source of frequency 6 1014 Hz. D and C
1mm
represent the two ends of a mirror placed horizontally and LOM
5cm
5cm
190cm
represents the screen.

33.
34.
Determine the width of the region where the fringes will be visible.
(A)
4 cm
(B)
6 cm
(C)
2 cm
(D)
3 cm
Find the fringe width of the fringe pattern.

(A)
0.05 cm
(B)
0.25 cm
(D)
0.1 cm
(C)
0.01 cm
17
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Cyclotron is a device to speed up a charge particle to any desired
speed. The principle is that a charge particle speeds up in the gap
between the Dees where an alternating electric field is applied.
The time of circular motion of the charge particle in the
magnetic field normal to the Dees does not depend on the speed
2 m
of the particle which is given as T
. Hence, the particle
qB
takes t
m
qB
to revolve a half circle.
During this time the polarity of the Dees can be changed (adjusted) so that always the particle speeds up in the
gap. This is possible by synchronizing the frequency of oscillation of the electric field and frequency of
revolution of the particle. In each revolution, the particle gets two impulses to increase its speed. After millions
of revolutions, the particle attains suitable speeds for different purpose such as atom splitting etc. The Dees are
perforated so that the stream of particles move in spiral path before emerging by the deflector. Using the above
ideas answer the following questions.
35.
The angular momentum of an accelerating charge in the cyclotron depends on r as:

(A)
36.
(B)
r2
(C)
r0
(D)
r3
If the maximum voltage across the gap is gap is 50 kV, the number of revolution to attain 100 MeV for
a proton is:
(A)
2000
(B)
1000
(C)
500
(D)
None of these
18
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SECTION - III
MATRIX MATCH TYPE
have 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
37.

List 1
List 2
(P)
Splitting of bigger drop into small

droplets
1.
Temperature increases
(Q)
Formation of bigger drop from small

droplets
2.
Temperature decreases
(R)
Spraying of liquid
3.
Surface energy increases
(S)
In isochoric process, as pressure

decreases
4.
Surface energy decrease
Codes :
(A)
(C)
P
3
2
Q
4
1
R
2
3
S
1
2
(B)
(D)
P
3
2
Q
4
3
R
1
2
S
2
2
19
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38.

List 1
List 2
F
(P)
1.
Body accelerates forwards
2.
Rotation about the centre of mass is

clockwise
3.
Friction force acts backwards
4.
No friction acts
Ring
(Q)
Disc
R/2
(R)
Solid Cylinder
R/2
(S)
Solid Cylinder
Codes :
(A)
(C)
P
1
2
Q
4
1
R
2
3
S
4
2
(B)
(D)
P
3
4
Q
1
3
R
3
2
S
2
1
20
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39.
A white light ray is incident on a glass prism, and it

create four refracted rays A, B, C and D. Match the
refracted rays with the colors given (I and D are rays
due to total internal reflection):
Note that blue green yellow red
List 1
List 2
(P)
1.
Red
(Q)
2.
Green
(R)
3.
Yellow
(S)
4.
Blue
Codes :
(A)
(C)
P
4
1
Q
2
3
R
3
2
S
1
4
(B)
(D)
P
3
2
Q
1
4
R
4
1
S
2
3
21
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F, are net force and torque acting on any of the loop :
40.

List 1 [Systems of two currents]
(P)
i1
(Q)
i2
i2
i1
List 2 [Forces and Torques]

1.
0, F =0
2.
0, F 0
3.
0, F 0
4.
0, F 0
(B)
(D)
P
4
4
Loops are in the same plane

i2
i1
(R)
The loops lie in perpendicular planes

i2
i1
(S)
The loops lie in perpendicular planes

Codes :
(A)
(C)
P
4
4
Q
2
3
R
2
1
S
2
2
Q
3
1
R
2
2
S
1
4
22
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PART - III (MATHEMATICS)
60 MARKS
SECTION - I
41.
If in a ABC, cos A C cos B cos 2B 0 , then which of the following options is(are) correct?
(where, the symbols have their usual meanings)
42.
(A)
sin2 A sin2 C 2 sin2 B
(B)
a 2 , b2 and c 2 are in AP
(C)
a 2 , b2 and c 2 are in GP
(D)
sin A sin C sin2 B
A,
B,
are
three
events
for
P A B 0.75, P A C 0.35
and
which
P(A)
0.4,
P A B C 0.2 .
P(B)
If
0.6,
P(C)
0.5,
P A B C 0.75 ,
then
P B C can take the value :
(A)
43.
44.
0.1
(B)
0.2
(C)
0.3
(D)
0.5
The equation 16 x2 3 y 2 32 x 12 y 44 0 represents a hyperbola.

(A)
(B)
(C)
The length of whose transverse axis is 4 3

The length of whose conjugate axis is 4
Whose centre is (1, 2)
(D)
Whose eccentricity is
19
3
Let c a b a b where a and b are unit vectors such that a b 0 . Then :

(A)
b c
(B)
a c
(C)
a b c
(D)
a b a b c
23
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45.
If a, b, c are three consecutive integers then the determinant
a 2
ab
ac
ab
b 2
bc
bc
ac
(A)
46.
If S
36
10
sin
(B)
2 k
11
k 1
(A)
47.
(C)
(C)
SS 1
(B)
(C)

One solution in the interval , 0
2

One solution in the interval 0 ,
2
For n N , if 1 x x 2
a
n
(D)
None of these
1
2
1 i
(D)
S S 0

0 , where lies in the interval , has :
2 2

(B)
No solution in the interval , 0
2

(D)
Two solutions in the interval 0 ,
2
2n
x r , then :
r 0
(A)
ar an r
(C)
2 a0 a1 . . . . an 1 an 2n
48
2 k
, then :
11
The equation 1 tan 1 tan sec2 2tan

(A)
48.
SS 0
i cos
144
is divisible by
(B)
ar a2n r
(D)
2
a02 a12 a22 a32 . . . . a2n
an
24
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SECTION - II

There are n students in a class. All the students appear for an exam. The probability that exactly k students
(out of the total n students) will pass the examination is directly proportional to k2.
Now, based on the above information, answer the following questions :
49.
What is the probability that a student selected at random has passed the examination?
(A)
50.
3 n 1
(B)
4 2n 1
3 n 1
(C)
2 2n 1
n 1
2n 1
(D)
n 1
2 2n 1
If a student selected randomly has been found to pass the examination, then what is the probability that
he is the only student who passed the examination ?
(A)
n n 1
(B)
n 1
(C)
n n 1
(D)
2

n
x x ,
Let f : R R, f x
x x 1 ,
51.
The value of
(A)
52.
x is odd
, where [.] denotes greatest integer function.
x is even
2 f x dx is equal to :
4
5
2
(B)
3
2
At x = 1, the function f (x) is :

(A)
Continuous and differentiable
(C)
Discontinuous and not differentiable
(C)
(D)
(B)
(D)
Continuous but not differentiable

Not defined
25
Vidyamandir Classes
cos sin
Let
and A
5
sin cos
53.
54.
The matrix Ak
(A)
cos k
1k sink
(C)
cos k
k
sin
sink
cos k
sin k
cos k
(B)
cos k
sin k
sin k
cos k
(D)
cos k
sin k
sin k
cos k
The matrix B A A2 A3 A4 is :
(A)
Symmetric
(B)
Skew-symmetric
(C)
Singular
(D)
None of these

There are two points A 2, 2, 3 and B 13, 3, 13 . L is a line through A.
55.
56.
Equation of a line L, perpendicular to the line AB is :

x2 y 2 z 3
(A)
(B)
15
5
10
x2 y 2 z 3
(C)
(D)
3
13
2
x2
3
x2
15
y2
13
y2
5
z 3
2
z 3
10
Direction ratios of the normal to the plane passing through the origin and the points A and B are :
(A)
(B)
(C)
3, 13, 2
(D)
7, 13, 4
15, 5, 10
11, 1, 16
26
Vidyamandir Classes
SECTION - III
MATRIX MATCH TYPE
have 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
57.

List 1
(P)
List 2
The sum of abscissa and ordinate of the point on the
1.
2.
10
3.
4.
parabola y x 7 x 2 which is nearest to the straight

2
line y 3x 3 is equal to
(Q)
If a circle is drawn with variable chord x ay 5 0

(a being a parameter) of the parabola y 2 20 x as
diameter, then it always touches the line x k 0 , where
k is equal to
(R)
The foot of perpendicular from a point P on the parabola to

its directrix is M. If R is the mid-point of SM S focus ,
then the angle between PR and SM is equal to
k
, where k
2
is equal to
(S)
If the normals at the end points of a variable chord AB of

the parabola y 4 y 2 x 0 are perpendicular, then the
2
tangents at A and B will intersect at the line 2 x k 0 ,

where k is equal to
Codes:
(A)
(C)
P
2
3
Q
3
4
R
1
2
S
3
1
(B)
(D)
P
2
2
Q
4
3
R
1
1
S
3
4
27
Vidyamandir Classes
58.

List 1
(P)
List 2
If f x
g x
dt
1t
, where g x
cos x
2
1 sin t dt
then the
1.
2.
3.
4.
value of f / 2 is equal to
(Q)
If f (x) is a non-zero differentiable function such that

x
f t dt f x
for all x, then f (2) equals
0
b
(R)
If
2
2 x x dx is maximum, then (a + b) is equal to
a
(S)
b
sin 2 x
If lim 3 a 2 0 , then (3a + b) has the value
x 0 x
x
Codes:
(A)
(C)
P
4
4
Q
3
3
R
3
3
S
1
2
(B)
(D)
P
3
3
Q
3
4
R
1
1
S
1
2
28
Vidyamandir Classes
59.

List 1
(P)
List 2
If exactly two real common tangents can be drawn to the circles
1.
2.
3.
4.
16
x2 y 2 2 x 2 y 0 and x2 y 2 8x 8 y 6 0 for Z then
the greatest possible value of equals

2
| sin x| |cos x | dx equals
(Q)
(R)
The slope of a curve at (x, y) is
x y
and it passes through the
x
points 3, and , 1 then one of the values of is

6
(S)
, 6, 2
is a point on the plane passing through the line
x 1 y 1 z 3
and parallel to the line of intersection of the
2
1
1
planes x y 5z 6 and 3x 5 y 3z 4 . Then is
Codes:
(A)
(C)
P
1
2
Q
4
4
R
2
1
S
3
3
(B)
(D)
P
2
1
Q
4
1
R
1
2
S
2
3
29
Vidyamandir Classes
60.

List 1
List 2
1
cos cos
0
cos
1
cos cos
cos cos
1
cos
(P)
cos cos
0
cos
cos
0
26
1.
if cos 2 cos 2 cos 2

(Q)
(R)
The value of
b . c d b c . a d c a . b d
If
plane
sphere
3.
There are four boxes A1, A2, A3 and A4. Box Ai has i cards and on
each card a number is printed, the numbers are from 1 to i.
A box is selected randomly, the probability of selection of box i,
i
is
and then a card is drawn. Let Ei represents the event that a
10
card with number i is drawn. P(A3/E2) is equal to
4.
2x 3 y 6z k 0
is
tangent
2.
to
the
x2 y 2 z 2 2 x 2 y 2 z 6 0 , then a value of k is
(S)
Codes:
(A)
(C)
P
4
4
Q
3
3
R
1
4
S
2
2
(B)
(D)
P
3
3
Q
4
4
R
1
1
S
2
4
30
Vidyamandir Classes
31
Vidyamandir Classes
End of JEE Advanced Test - 3/PAPER-2/JEE-2014
32

10p14 Adv 3 Paper 2 Aceg2

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Vidyamandir Classes

JEE ADVANCED - 3/JEE-2014/Paper - 2

TEST CODE : ACEG

TIME : 3.00 Hrs

Read the following Instructions very carefully before you proceed.

JEE Advanced - 3/ACEG

Boyles law may be expressed as : (K is a constant)

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

JEE Advanced - 3/ACEG

HO CH2 CH CH Me (II) is themajor product at 40C

Allyl chloride is reactive towards SN1 and SN2 reaction

Which of the following statements is(are) TRUE about P4O10.

The number of P O P bonds is 10

P4O10 is a potent dehydrating agent

The number of P O bonds in the structure of P4O10 is 4

JEE Advanced - 3/ACEG

A hydrogen like ion, He (Z 2) is exposed to electromagnetic waves of wavelength 256.4 .

The total energy of electron in the ground state of He is 54.4eV

The total energy of electron in first excited state of He is 13.6 eV

The potential energy of electron in the first excited state of He is 27.2eV

Which of the following statement(s) is(are) CORRECT?

Mesomeric effect is delocalization of electrons over a conjugated system

Hyperconjugation is simultaneous shifting of and electrons at 1, 3-position without the

movement of H atom from its position

Which of the following statements is(are) TRUE for d block elements.

JEE Advanced - 3/ACEG

Paragraph for Questions 9 - 10

0.80 V and Ecell 1.05 V at 25 C

X(s) | X2 (1.0 M) || Ag (0.1 M) | Ag(s)

Which of the following statements regarding the cell and X is incorrect?

Standard EMF (E ) of X2 | X is 0.25 V at 25C

X is a stronger reducing agent than H2(g)

If Ag | Ag half cell in the above voltaic cell is replaced by Zn 2 | Zn half cell (E

concentration of Ag decrease in the cathode chamber

The direction of current flow will remain same

JEE Advanced - 3/ACEG

Paragraph for Question 11 - 12

TdS dU W for an irreversible process

T dSsys dUsys PdV [consider no non-PV work]

U and V are constant,

(dS)U.V 0 for spontaneous process

V and T are constant

As temperature is constant, dU d(TS) 0 or d U TS 0

For an irreversible cyclic process

Constant pressure and temperature

Greater than zero

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

JEE Advanced - 3/ACEG

Paragraph for Questions 13 - 14

1-Ethylclopent-1-ene on reductive ozonolysis followed by aq. NaOH/ gives :

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

JEE Advanced - 3/ACEG

Paragraph for Questions 15 - 16

The least reactive element is :

The most reactive metal is :

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

JEE Advanced - 3/ACEG

MATCH THE FOLLOWING LISTS :

Metal excess defect

Some cations are replaced by

Metal deficiency defect

Both cations and anions are

Electrons trapped in anionic

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK