Practice Set IBPS PO Mains

IBPS PO
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Practice Set
Test-I: Reasoning Ability
Directions (Q. 1-5): Read the following information

carefully and answer the questions.
Eight groups A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are going for
rock climbing in different mountain ranges, viz. Aravallis,
Himalayas, Satpura, Andes, Alps, Rockies, Atlas and
Appalachian but not necessarily in the same order. These
groups are also going for rafting in different rivers, viz.
Spree, Hudson, Amazon, Tigris, Tiber, Nile, Danube and
Thames but not necessarily in the same order.
Group G is going neither to river Danube nor to river
Hudson. Neither group F nor group G is going to raft in the
river Tigris or the river Nile. Group E is going to the
Appalachian mountain range. Group C is going to the Andes
mountain range and the river Tiber. The one who is going
to raft in the Amazon is also going to the Appalachian
mountain range. Group A and B are going for rafting either
in the Nile or Thames. Group D does not want to raft in the
Tigris and F does not want to raft in the Hudson. The
group which is climbing on the Aravallis is rafting in the
Danube and the group which is climbing on the Atlas is
rafting in the Hudson. A and G do not climb on the Rockies
and the Satpura. The group which is climbing on the
Himalayas is rafting in the Thames. Group H and G climb
either on Alps or on the Satpura mountain range.
1. Which of the following groups is going to climb on
the Aravallis?
1) D
2) E
3) F
4) H
5) None of these
2. The group rafting in the Nile is climbing in which of
the following mountain ranges?
1) Andes
2) Rockies
3) Aravallis
4) Atlas
5) None of these
3. Which group is going to raft in the river Nile?
1) G
2) D
3) A
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these
4. Which of the following combinations is definitely true
with regard to the above information?
1) C Aravallis Tiber
2) A Himalayas Nile
3) D Atlas Danube
4) H Satpura Tigris
5) G Andes Spree
5. Which of the following combinations is not true with
respect to the above information?
1) G Alps Spree
2) F Aravallis Danube
3) E Appalachian Amazon
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4) B Rockies Nile
5) A Andes Thames
Directions (Q. 6-10): In each question below are given
three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I
and II. You have to take the given statements to be true
even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known
facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of
the given conclusions logically follows from the given
statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Give
answer
1) if only conclusion I follows.
2) if only conclusion II follows.
3) if either conclusion I or II follows.
4) if neither conclusion I nor II follows.
5) if both conclusions I and II follow.
6.
Statements: All equals are questions.
All questions are symbols.
Some questions are answerable.
Conclusions: I. All answerable being symbols is
a possibility.
II. No equal is answerable.
7.
Statements: No game is an application.
Some applications are easy.
All easy are dynamics.
Conclusions: I. No game is dynamic.
II. No dynamic is application.
8.
Statements: Some vitamins are calcium.
All calcium are minerals.
Some minerals are not vitamins.
Conclusions: I. All calcium are vitamins.
II. Some vitamins are not minerals
is a possibility.
9.
Statements: Some details are beneficial.
All beneficial are helpful.
Some informations are not details.
Conclusions: I. Some informations are helpful.
II. All helpful being beneficial is a
possibility.
10. Statements: No word is a statement.
Some statements are paragraphs.
No paragraph is a chapter.
Conclusions: I. All statements can never be
chapters.
II. All words being chapters is a
possibility.
carefully and answer the questions that follow.
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are eight members of a family
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Practice Set
18. Statements:
A D, B > H
Conclusions: I. B D
II. H > A
19. Statements:
P Q > R = S < T, W < R
Conclusions: I. Q > W
II. P < T
20. Statements:
L < M > N < O > P, Q P, L < S
Conslusions:
I. N = Q
II. N < Q
Direction (Q. 21-25) : Read the given information
carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Twelve wards N, O, P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W, X and Y of a
hospital are in two parallel buildings. Building 1 is facing
west and Building 2 is facing east. Wards P, Q, R, S, T and
U are in Building 1 and wards N, O, V, W, X and Y are in
Building 2. Each ward of Building 1 is exactly opposite the
other ward in Building 2.
l
Ward V, which is at one of the ends of the building, is
second to the left of ward Y.
l
There are two wards between ward N and O.
l
There is only one ward between ward S and T.
l
Ward U is third to the right of Q.
l
Ward U is not opposite either V or Y.
l
Ward S and T are not opposite V. Ward P is adjacent to
ward S.
l
Ward W, which is not opposite T, is not adjacent to N.
21. Which ward is opposite Q?
1) N
2) Y
3) W
4) X
5) O
22. How many wards are there between wards R and S?
1) Four
2) Three
3) Two
4) One
5) None of these
23. Ward R is related to ward X in the same way as ward U
is related to O, based on the given arrangement. Who
among the following is Q related to, following the same
pattern?
1) N
2) V
3) W
4) Y
5) None of these
24. Which of the following wards are at the ends of the
building?
1) V, O
2) U, Q
3) V, W
4) R, T
5) None of these
25. Which of the following statements is true about P?
1) Ward Y is opposite ward P.
2) Ward N is not the neighbour of that ward which is
opposite P.
3) Ward S is not adjacent to ward P.
4) Ward P is 2nd from the right end.
5) Ward O is opposite that ward which is 3rd to the
left of ward P.
Directions (Q. 26-30): Study the following information
carefully to answer the given questions.
In a certain code language, government is ready for
disaster management is written as ti cu ko mo je pe,
management less government is written as de cu ko,
less organised management is written as cu pa de and
government ready in management is written as cu ti ko
su.
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sitting around a circular table and all of them are facing

away from the centre. Each of them has a different sunsign,
viz. Aquarius, Libra, Leo, Cancer, Virgo, Pisces, Aries and
Capricorn, but not necessarily in the same order.
C sits second to the right of Fs wife, whose sunsign
is neither Cancer nor Capricorn. No male is an immediate
neighbour of C. Es son sits second to the left of H and on
the immediate right of the person whose sunsign is Leo. H,
who is brother of B, has the sunsign Capricorn. H is not an
immediate neighbour of Fs wife. Es sons sunsign is Libra.
Only one person sits between G and H. Fs sister E sits on
the immediate right of her father, whose sunsign is Aries. G
is mother of B. Only one person sits between Fs father
and A. A sits on the immediate left of the person whose
sunsign is Pisces. Only one person sits between F and B.
B sits second to the left of the person whose sunsign is
Aquarius. B is father of D and is not an immediate neighbour
of A.
11. Whose sunsign is Aquarius?
1) D
2) G
3) Father of D
4) Cant be determined
5) None of these
12. Who among the following is Es son?
1) B
2) F
3) A
4) D
5) C
13. The person whose sunsign is Virgo is sitting between
who among the following?
1) The persons whose sunsigns are Pisces and Leo
2) The persons whose sunsigns are Aries and Libra
3) The persons whose sunsigns are Libra and Cancer
5) None of these
14. Four of the five are alike in a certain way and hence
form a group. Which is the one that does not belong
to that group?
1) D
2) C
3) A
4) F
5) B
15. What is the position of G with respect to her
granddaughter according to the given seating
arrangement?
1) 4th to the right
2) 4th to the left
3) Immediate left
4) Immediate right
5) 2nd to the left
Direction (Q. 16-20): In each of these questions,
relationships between some elements are shown in the
statement(s). This/these statement(s) are followed by two
conclusions numbered I and II. Read the statements and
give answer
1) if only conclusion I follows.
2) if only conclusion II follows.
3) if either conclusion I or II follows.
4) if neither conclusion I nor II follows.
5) if both conclusions I and II follow.
16. Statements:
V P, U > R, P Q < R = S
Conclusions: I. U > Q
II. V > Q
17. Statement:
N R = Q C > B A
Conclusions: I. A C
II. P R
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26. Which of the following is the code for disaster?

1) je
2) ti
3) mo
5) None of these
27. What does su stand for?
1) government 2) ready
3) for
4) in
28. Which of the following is the code for management
in government?
1) su cu ti
2) su ko cu
3) ti ko cu
4) ko mo su
5) None of these
29. Which of the following may be the possible code for
government should ready in management?
1) cu ti ko su ye
2) ye ti su ko mo
3) cu ti mo su ye
4) ti ko cu ye je
5) None of these
30. If organised is related to pa, less is related to de
and ready is related to ti, then for is related to
which of the following?
1) je
2) pe
3) mo
4) Either je or pe
carefully and answer the given questions.
A word and number arrangement machine when given
an input line of words and numbers rearranges them
following a particular rule in each step. The following is an
illustration of input and rearrangement:
Input :
202 nokia 65 samsung 116 micromax 5 apple
610 lenovo panasonic 51 huawei
Step I:
610 202 nokia 65 samsung 116 micromax 5
apple lenovo panasonic 51 huawei
Step II:
610 202 65 nokia samsung 116 micromax 5
Step III: 610 202 65 116 nokia samsung micromax 5
Step IV: 610 202 65 116 5 nokia samsung micromax
Step V:
610 202 65 116 5 51 nokia samsung
micromax apple lenovo panasonic huawei
Step VI: 610 202 65 116 5 51 huawei nokia samsung
micromax apple lenovo panasonic
Step VII: 610 202 65 116 5 51 huawei panasonic nokia
samsung micromax apple lenovo
Step VIII: 610 202 65 116 5 51 huawei panasonic
micromax nokia samsung apple lenovo
Step IX: 610 202 65 116 5 51 huawei panasonic
micromax nokia lenovo samsung apple
Step X : 610 202 65 116 5 51 huawei panasonic
micromax nokia lenovo apple samsung
Step X is the last step of the above input, as the
desired arrangment is obtained. As per the rules
followed in the above questions find the appropriate
step for the given input.
Input: 24 whirlpool 55 kelvinator 81 godrej hitachi 200

electrolux 43 bluestar 315 sharp
31. Which of the following is the last step but one?
1) VII
2) VIII
3) IX
4) X
5) None of these
32. If 24 is related to kelvinator and godrej is related
to 43, electrolux is related to which of the following
in step III?
1) bluestar
2) 43
3) 315
4) sharp
5) None of these
33. Which of the following is third to the left of the one
that is 8th from the left end in Step III?
1) godrej
2) kelvinator
3) whirlpool
4) 24
5) None of these
34. Which is the position of kelvinator in Step VI?
1) 7th from the right
2) 8th from the left
3) 6th from the left
4) 5th from the right
5) None of these
35. Which of the following will be Step V of the
rearrangement?
1) 315 81 200 43 24 whirlpool 55 kelvinator godrej
hitachi electrolux bluestar sharp
2) 315 81 200 43 55 24 whirlpool kelvinator godrej
hitachi electrolux bluestar sharp
3) 315 81 200 24 whirlpool 55 kelvinator godrej hitachi
electrolux 43 bluestar sharp
4) 315 81 200 24 whirlpool 55 kelvinator godrej hitachi
electrolux bluestar sharp 43
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 36-40): In each of the following
questions, a question is followed by information given in
three statements. You have to study the question along
with the statements and decide the information given in
which statement(s) are sufficient to answer the question.
Give your answer
1) if the data in statement I and II are sufficient to
answer the question, while the data in statement III
are not required to answer the question.
2) if the data in statement I, II and III are not sufficient
to answer the question.
3) if the data in statement II and III are sufficient to
answer the question while the data in statement I
are not required to answer the question.
4) if the data in statement I alone or in statement II
alone or in statement III alone are sufficient to
answer the question.
5) if the data in all the statements I, II and III together
are necessary to answer the question.
36. Who is brother-in-law of Kiran?
I. Kiran is married to brother of Rakhi. Priya is
daughter of Kiran.
II. Priyank and Kabir are the two brothers of Rakhi.
III.Only Priyank has no child.
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Practice Set
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Practice Set
42. Which of the following could be an assumption in the
above passage?
1) Only B
2) Only C
3) Only E
4) Only A
5) Both B and F
43. Which of the statements, if true, would weaken the
statement?
1) Only C
2) Only E
3) Both E and F
4) Only D
5) None of these
44. Which of the statements is superfluous with regard
to the above passage?
1) Only A
2) Only B
3) Both B and C
4) Both D and E 5) None of these
45. Walmart will be a speck in Indias market and its
absence wont make a huge difference. A statement
by Indias Finance Minister
Which of the following has been assumed by the
finance minister before giving the above statement?
1) Walmart has not made any substantial investment
in India so far and has had a negligible presence.
2) Walmart has a bad reputation in multi-brand retail
world wide.
3) Walmarts demands were not in favour of Indias
domestic industries.
4) Only 2) and 3)
5) None of these
carefully and answer the questions:
Heavy rains and the flooding in North India have
switched off nearly 4,000 MW of hydropower generation.
The power stations run by NHPC, SJVN and Jaiprakash
power ventures across Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal
Pradesh and Uttarakhand were shut down due to heavy
silt deposits and tripping of transmission lines. This
resulted in power cut in many Northern States and National
Capital.
(A) Most of the hydropower generation stations in
Northern States were switched off .
(B) Generally, during monsoon, hydropower stations
produce maximum electricity.
(C) The hydropower stations supply electricity to the
National Capital.
(D) Due to heavy rains, hydropower generation in
Northern India got disrupted.
(E) Heavy rains lead to silt deposits.
46. Which of the following statements (A), (B), (C), (D)
and (E) is definitely true in the context of the given
paragraph?
1) Only A
2) Only B
3) Only C
4) Both A and B 5) None of these
and (E) seems to be false in the context of the given
paragraph?
1) Only B
2) Only C
3) Both A and C
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37. What does effective represent in a code language?

I. problem of pollutants means yo ko ta in that
code language.
II. pollutants suffering public place means pa jo ko
de in that code language.
III.effective awareness place means qo no de in
that code language.
38. What is the number of students in an institute?
I. Each classroom contains 38 chairs.
II. There are 15 classes in the institute.
III.Each class has a strength of 28.
39. What is the distance between a garden and a market?
I. Starting from the garden, Rahul walks 10 km in a
straight line in south direction. He then turns to his
left and covers a distance of 5 km. He again turns
to his left and covers a distance of 10 km. He finally
turns to his right and covers a certain distance and
reaches the market.
II. The market and the garden are not in a straight line.
III.Starting from the market, Rahul walks in north-east
direction. He then takes two right turns one by one
after covering equal distances.
40. How many general awareness programmes are shown
on a TV channel?
I. Riya watches six programmes a day.
II. There is a gap of 2 hours exactly between any two
programmes.
III.The general awareness programmes receive a
response of 8 hours a day.
carefully and answer the questions that follow:
Why is inflation at double digits and growth at
stagnation levels of around 4.5 per cent for the second
year running? It has to do with the UPAs growth and
distribution model. This socialist distribution model has
been discussed extensively, and with no apparent effect
on the policymakers.
(A) Socialism has had a negative impact on growth
and inflation both.
(B) Inflation of 10 per cent or more is hazardous to an
economy.
(C) The policymakers have failed to realise that you
need to create wealth before you can distribute it.
(D) India is a dominantly agricultural country, and
most of the poor reside in rural agricultural areas.
(E) Most of the socialist countries have witnessed
low levels of inflation.
(F) A countrys economy is shaped largely by the
model it adopts.
41. Which of the following statements, if true, would
strengthen the statement?
1) Only A
2) Only B
3) Only C
4) Both B and E 5) None of these
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4) Only D
5) Only A
and (E) has been assumed in the facts/information
given in the paragraph?
1) E
2) B and E
3) C
4) C and D
5) None of these
and (E) can be inferred from the given paragraph?
1) Only C
2) Both B and E 3) Both C and D
4) Only A
5) None of these
50. Because heavy rains for last five days, water level of
the river has crossed the danger mark.
Which of the following statement (A), (B) and (C) is/
are the proper courses of action?
(A) The government should employ para-military
personnel to meet any eventuality.
(B) The health officials should gear up to face the
onset of any disease.
(C) Relief operatioin should be planned in advance.
1) Only A and B 2) Only B and C 3) Only C
4) All the above 5) None of these
threatening the world, including the US, the EU, India,

Russia and China, to say nothing of the Central Asian
states, which cower before the Uzbek terrorists trained in
Pakistan.
Manmohan Singh's reaction to an act of terrorism in
Jammu on the eve of his meeting with Sharif was brave and
statesmanlike, given the negative press he has at home
and the populist atmospherics of the coming elections in
India. He said he would not be deterred by terrorism while
talking peace with Pakistan. While in New York, he met
President Barack Obama who could not find time for his
Pakistani counterpart and agreed to meet Sharif, with
caveats against pinning high hopes on the meeting.
Sharif's reference to Kashmir at the UNGA was aimed
more at audiences at home than at India. He also expressed
Pakistan's newfound plaint about the "unjust" global
system created by a flawed UN and called, unrealistically,
for reforms in the world body. At home, right-wing TV
anchors and newspaper reporters were pleased that "he
spoke softly but gave a harsh message". Some were put
off because he was not "fiery" enough, meaning that he
lacked in denunciatory "Chavizmo" or the parading of a
poor man's useless tumescence in global politics.
Ace anchor Kamran Khan gave the familiar, but
repeatedly defeated, spin to the Jammu attack on Indian
police and military troops: "The attacks inflicted a heavy
loss to the Indian army and police and also revived the
assertion that no effort for peace between Pakistan and
India could bear fruit until the Kashmir issue was resolved."
Sharif was toeing the Foreign Office line, which has
traditionally toed the Pakistan army line, built on the frozen
geopolitical position on India as a permanent enemy
opposed to the very existence of Pakistan. The last bit is
supported by the textbook brainwash in the schools of
Pakistan, particularly Punjab, currently ruled by Sharif's
rightwing PML(N).
His plaint about Kashmir not finding place on the
roster of issues at the UN was purely for home
consumption, because the 1972 Indo-Pak Simla Agreement
had forever assigned it to bilateral dialogue. Pakistan had
wrongly tried to move the International Court of Justice
(ICJ) against India for the 1999 shooting down of a
surveillance aircraft. The ICJ, while asserting that it had no
jurisdiction over the matter, gratuitously advised Pakistan
to abide by the 1972 change of status of all disputes.
51. Why did the issue of Kashmir not figure on the roster
of issues at the UN?
1) Because the UN does not want to poke its nose in
such a complicated issue.
2) Because the Kashmir issue is not so important in
comaprison to other global issues.
3) Because, as per the Indo - Pak Shimla Agreement
1972, Kashmir issue can be resolved only through
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Practice Set
Test-II: English Language
Directions (Q. 51-65): Read the passage carefully

and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/
phrases are given in bold to help you locate them while
answering some of the questions.
Things have got so bad between India and Pakistan
that when they talk peace it looks like war. Their prime
ministers were to address the 65th annual session of the
United Nations General Assembly (UNGA) in New York
and then meet on the sidelines.
One day Prime Minister Nawaz Sharif made some illadvised, bellicose, Kashmir-related remarks against India
in his speech at the UNGA. On the following day Prime
Minister Manmohan Singh lashed out at Pakistan in his
speech. Before they met the next day Sharif reportedly
called Singh a "village hag" (sic) off the record and put
paid to whatever diplomatic gains he had counted on. After
that, the meeting could not be one-on-one.
Back home, the Indo-Pak media war was savage,
sharpened by BJP leader Narendra Modi's explosive
reaction to the "village hag" remark. One channel pitted
the notoriously visceral Pakistani politician Sheikh Rashid
Ahmed against Hindu and Muslim Indians, scoring brownie
points while anchors lost their neutral cool.
The New York meeting achieved nothing except a
vague agreement on sorting out the recent Line of Control
incidents through armies that hate each other. Pakistan's
reference to Indian terrorism in Balochistan was correct
but not comparable to India's globally accepted
designation of Pakistan as the epicentre of terrorism,
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Practice Set
2) Because he knew that Pakistan is not so weak that
it could be easily defeated in a war.
3) Because of the internal pressure from the party
members.
4) Because he wanted to establish that an act of
terrorism cannot deter his strong determination of
peace talk with Pakistan
5) Because he wanted to create populist atmospherics
of the coming elections in India.
57. Which of the following is false about Sharifs address
to the 65th annual session of the United Nations
General Assembly in New York?
1) Nawaz Sharif asserted Pakistans newfound
complaint against the unjust global system created
by the United Nations.
2) As per the right-wing TV anchors and newspaper
reporters, Sharif gave a harsh message in soft tone.
3) Some of the left-wing TV anchors and newspaper
reporters claimed that his speech was not so fiery
as it should have been.
4) Sharifs reference to Kashmir at the UNGA was
aimed at India rather than at Pakistan.
5) All the above are true
58. Which of the following is true about the given
passage?
1) The given passage is a reflection of improving
relationship between India and Pakistan.
2) The given passage presents the current status of
Indo-Pak relations.
3) The given passage tries to defame the Prime
Ministers of both India and Pakistan.
4) The given passage has been written by a proPakistan writer.
5) The given passage presents a distorted picture of
Indo-Pak relations.
59. What is Pakistan doing, as a last resort, to create antiIndia sentiment?
(A) It is helping terrorist organisations on its land.
(B) It is trying to brainwash school children and instil
anti-India sentiments in their minds.
(C) It is recruting women suicide bombers in its
terroritory.
1) Only (A)
2) Only (B)
3) Only (C)
4) Only (A) and (B)
5) Only (B) and (C)
Directions (Q. 60-62): Choose the word/group of
words which is MOST SIMILAR in meaning of the word/
group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.
60. Caveat
1) reason
2) rule
3) caution
4) promise
5) attitude
61. Plaint
1) herb
2) simplicity
3) opinion
4) theory
5) allegations
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52.
bilateral dialogues.
4) Because ICJ does not exercise its jurisdiction over
the matters of India and Pakistan.
5) None of these
What results came out of the New York meeting
between the two Prime Ministers?
1) That they would effecitvely deal with the Uzbek
terrorists being trained in Pakistan
2) Both the countries agreed to reduce deployment
of their forces at Indo-Pak borders.
3) That they would take concrete steps to minimise
the threat of Indian terrorism in Balochistan
4) Nothing except a vague agreement on sorting out
the recent LoC incidents through armies.
5) All the above
Why is it mentioned that when India and Pakistan talk
peace, it looks like war?
(A) Because the Prime Ministers of both the countries
made reproachful remarks against each other.
(B) Because both the countries are weak at their
homes and they cannot help a war talk.
(C) Because both the countries tend to behave in a
savage manner.
1) Only (A)
2) Only (B)
3) Only (C)
4) Both (A) and (B)
5) Both (A) and (C)
Why did Nawaz Sharif call Manmohan Singh a village
hag?
1) Because Nawaz Sharif has gone insane and does
not have any bit of courtesy and manner.
2) Because Manmohan singh had lashed out at
Pakistan in his speech just a day before.
3) Because of their bitter relationships
4) Because Nawaz Sharif knew that India is a very
weak country and would not dare to counter his
remarks.
5) None of these
What prompted the anchors of a media channel to
lose their neutral cool?
(A) The pugnacious remarks made by Nawaz Sharif
against India
(B) Because of the humiliating remarks by a Pakistani
politician against Hindu and Muslim Indians
(C) Because of the rude tone of a prominent BJP leader
1) Only (A)
2) Only (B)
3) Both (A) and (B)
4) Both (A) and (C)
5) Only (C)
Why did Manmohan Singh say before going to New
York to meet President Barack Obama that he would
not be deterred by terrorism while talking peace with
Pakistan?
1) Because he knew that war against war or terror
against terror cannot bring peace to a region.
53.
54.
55.
56.
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62. Denunciatory
1) accusatory
2) praiseworthy 3) reforming
4) excellent
5) harsh
Directions (Q. 63-65): Choose the word/group of
words which is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning of the word/
group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.
63. Cower
1) meet
2) kowtow
3) face
4) cowardice
5) stand
64. Deterred
1) impeded
2) frightened
3) diverted
4) encouraged 5) stopped
65. Tumescence
1) void
2) totality
3) amplitude
4) congestion
5) surfeit
Directions (Q. 66-70): Read each sentence to find out
whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it.
The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The
number of that part is the answer. If there is No error,
the answer is 5). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)
66. 1) The Supreme Court has restricted all authorities for
denying / 2) a benefit or service to any citizen of India
/ 3) for want of the Aadhaar card / 4) even as the centre
claimed that the scheme was only voluntary. / 5) No
error
67. 1) Faced with the prospect of judicial scrutiny / 2) of
any decision to ban opinion polls, / 3) the Centre said
there is no move / 4) at this time to ban opinion polls.
/ 5) No error
68. 1) There is the obvious pain for those / 2) without
jobs, and for those losing / 3) those, but at one level,
the solution appears / 4) to be simple: just wait for the
economy to pick up. / 5) No error
69. 1) In a decisive endorsement of her policies at home /
2) and in Europe, Chancellor Angela Merkels Christian
Democratic block gathered / 3) 42 per cent of the votes
/ 4) only few seats short of an absolute majority. / 5)
No error
70. 1) The Planning Commission in its National Human
Development Report / 2) points out that corruption is
the most endemic / 3) and entrenched manifestation
of poor government / 4) in the Indian society. / 5) No
error
Directions (Q. 71-75): Against each question number,
an incomplete statement is provided. In order to complete
the statement there are fillers denoted by (a), (b), (c), (d),
(e), (f), (g), (h) and (i). You have to find out which one, two or
more of these can grammatically and meaningfully
complete the incomplete statement provided against the
question number.
(a) to racism fundamentally misunderstand America
and its justice system.
(b) she is superbly qualified to do this.
(c) have drawn inspiration from the terrorists who
took over Mumbais Taj Hotel in 2008.

(d) probe the reasons for underdevelopment and
work towards removing the impediments
responsible for inequality among citizens.
(e) in a criminal case is beyond a reasonable doubt.
(f) adding one more twist to politics in Andhra
Pradesh.
(g) who value the craft and beauty of literary
endeavour.
(h) extend help on the basis of need, not language or
religion.
(i) and is now back in business.
71. After 484 days in jail, YSR Congress leader
Jaganmohan Reddy walked out of jail, ________
1) Only (c)
2) Only (e)
3) Either (f) or (i)
4) Only (h)
5) Only (i)
72. The terrorists who held hundreds hostage in the
Westgate shopping mall in Nairobi appeared to
________
1) Only (b)
2) Only (i)
3) Only (e)
4) Only (c)
5) Only (a)
73. The Indians who attribute Rajat Guptas conviction
________
1) Only (h)
2) Only (a)
3) Only (e)
4) Either (a) or (e)
5) None of these
74. Manjula Padmanabhan is a writers writer, a cult heroine
for those ________
1) Only (f)
2) Either (b) or (g)
3) Only (b)
4) Only (c)
5) Only (g)
75. Politicians, if they really are interested in all-round
development of people, should ________
1) Either (d) or (h) 2) Only (c)
3) Only (d)
4) Only (g)
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 76-80): Rearrange the following six
sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper
sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer
the questions given below.
(A) No force is used to persuade the reader.
(B) The pen expresses a personal or public opinion.
(C) The reader has the right to hold his own view; he
may not be convinced of the writers judgement
and opinions presented to him.
(D) It stands for the press, literature, newspapers,
books and other writings.
(E) We may, therefore, say that the pen stands for
the peaceful means by which a person is
persuaded to accept the views which the writer
holds.
(F) The purpose of all writings is to connect ones
mind with another, to persuade the reader to take
up the view which the writer holds on a particular
subject.
76. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence
after rearrangement?
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Practice Set
89. 1) constructed
4) developed
90. 1) claim
4) secure
2) designed
5) purchased
2) calculate
5) promise
3) useful
3) arrange
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1) A
2) F
3) E
4) C
5) B
77. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH)
sentence after rearrangement?
1) B
2) A
3) C
4) D
5) E
78. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence
after rearrangement?
1) E
2) C
3) A
4) F
5) B
79. Which of the following should be the SECOND
1) D
2) E
3) F
4) C
5) B
80. Which of the following should be the FOURTH
1) F
2) D
3) C
4) B
5) A
Directions (Q. 81-90): In the following passage, some
of the words have been left out, each of which is indicated
by a number. Find the suitable word from the options given
against each number and fill up the blanks with
appropriate words to make the paragraph meaningful.
Life insurance helps families maintain their standard
of living and also helps them save for their long-term goals.
LIC, being the oldest and the biggest in the life insurance
industry, knows it best in (81) lives and money.
Most people have their first contact with an insurance
company (82) an insurance sales agent. These people help
individuals, families and businesses (83) insurance polices
that provide the best protection for their lives, health and
property. Agents prepare reports, maintain records, (84)
out new clients, and, in the (85) of a loss, help
policyholders (86) their insurance claims. Increasingly,
some are also offering their clients financial analysis or
advice on ways to minimise risk.
Life insurance agents (87) in selling policies that pay
the beneficiaries in the event of death of life insured or on
(88). Depending on the policyholders circumstances, a
cash-value policy can be (89) to provide retirement income,
funds for the education of children, or other benefits. Life
insurance agents also sell annuities that (90) a retirement
income.
81. 1) returning
2) handling
3) saving
4) promising
5) controlling
82. 1) with
2) of
3) over
4) about
5) through
83. 1) select
2) elect
3) choice
4) detect
5) pick
84. 1) hunt
2) investigate
3) seek
4) chase
5) delve
85. 1) accident
2) event
3) fact
4) occasion
5) chance
86. 1) clear
2) conclude
3) decide
4) adjudge
5) settle
87. 1) specialise
2) pursue
3) work
4) broaden
5) convince
88. 1) endurance
2) durability
3) survival
4) revival
5) medical
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Test-III: Quantitative Aptitude
Directions (Q. 91-95): What will come in place of

question mark (?) in the following questions?
91. 38.5 5.25 12 4 = ?
1) 84
2) 48
3) 40
4) 75
5) 74
92. (?)2 + (79)2 = (172)2 (88)2 8203
1) 96
2) 89
3) 83
4) 81
5) 86
93. [(222)2 48 16] 24 = ?
1) 654.25 2) 624
3) 684.5 4) 678.75 5) 784.5
94. (52% of 3543) (38% of 2759) = ?
1) 653.36
2) 993.24
3) 821.64
4) 793.94
5) 893.94
95. 416 ? 8 = 59904
1) 17
2) 12
3) 21
4) 15
5) 18
Directions (Q. 96-100): What approximate value
should come in place of the question mark (?) in the
following questions? (Note you are not expected to calculate
the exact values.)
96. (1513)2 = ? 3294
1) 688
2) 674
3) 700
4) 695
5) None of these
97. (8531 + 6307 + 1093) (501 + 724 + 396) = ?
1) 19
2) 10
3) 16
4) 13
5) None of these
98. (682% of 782) 856 = ?
1) 4
2) 10
3) 12
4) 8
5) 6
99.
197 + 365 = ?
1) 25
2) 33
3) 44
4) 22
5) 11
100. (54 154) (34 134) = ?
1) 13
2) 3.00
3) 4
4) 1.5
5) 2.00
Directions (Q. 101-103): What should come in place
of question mark (?) in the following number series.
101. 10 22 8 24 6 ?
1) 16
2) 18
3) 12
4) 26
5) None of these
102. 60.5 72 84.5 98 112.5 ?
1) 125
2) 122
3) 126
4) 127
5) None of these
103. 96 107 129 162 206 ?
1) 258
2) 261
3) 256
4) 260
5) 252
Directions (Q. 104-108): Study the following table
carefully to answer the questions that follow.
Total number of students studying in
various colleges over the years
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College
A
B
C
D
E
2007
860
890
780
900
840
2008
910
980
820
970
880
2009
930
1040
910
908
990
2010
990
1000
980
940
1000
2011
940
940
980
960
1050
2012
980
960
1020
920
1120
104. What is the ratio of the number of students studying
in College A to the number of students studying in
College E in the year 2012?
1) 15 : 14
2) 7 : 8
3) 9 : 8
4) 10 : 11
5) None of these
105. What is the difference between the average number
of students studying in College A over the given
period and the average number of students studying
in College C over the same period?
1) 23
2) 128
3) 120
4) 32
5) 20
106. What is the difference between the total number of
students studying in College B over the given period
and the total number of students studying in College
D over the same period?
1) 218 2) 35
3) 32
4) 212 5) None of these
107. What is the average number of students studying in
College E over the given period?
1) 928
2) 930
3) 933
4) 941
5) 980
108. The number of students studying in College C in the
year 2010 is approximately what per cent of the total
number of students studying in various colleges in
that year?
1) 20
2) 23
3) 17
4) 25
5) None of these
109. 75% of a number is 380 more than 35% of the same
number. What is 20% of that number?
1) 190
2) 195.5
3) 189.5
4) 180
5) None of these
110. The ratio of the length of a rectangle to its breadth is
4 : 3 and the area of the rectangle is 1728 sq cm. What
is the ratio of the breadth to area of the rectangle?
1) 1 : 38 2) 1 : 24 3) 1 : 42 4) 1 : 34 5) 1 : 48
111. What compound interest can be obtained on an
amount of `3980 after 2 years at the rate of 8 per cent
per annum? (Calculate the approximate value.)
1) `650 2) `680 3) `600 4) `590 5) `665
Year
of 10 kmph. How much time will the man take to cover

a distance of 28 km, if he covers half of his journey
walking and half of his journey running?
1) 8.4 hours
2) 6 hours
3) 5 hours
4) 4.2 hours
5) None of these
115. A, B, C and D are four consecutive numbers. If the
sum of A and D is 103, what is the product of B and C?
1) 2652
2) 2562
3) 2970
4) 2550
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 116-120): Study the following piecharts carefully to answer the given questions.
Percentage of students enrolled for different
activities in School N
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Practice Set
112. If
a
b
a bc
c
=
= , then
=?
6
10
c
4
3
1
2)
3) 2
4) 5
5) None of these
5
4
113. If 7x + 8y = 53 and 5x + 12y = 63, then what is the value
of (y x)?
1) 2
2) 2
3) 1
4) 1
5) None of these
114. A man walks at a speed of 5 kmph and runs at a speed
1)
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Dancing
24%
Singing
21%
Craft
25%
Drawing
14%
Swimming
16%
Total number of students = 3000

Percentage break-up of the girls enrolled for these
activities
Dancing
20%
Singing
28%
Craft
22%
Drawing
16%
Swimming
14%
Total number of girl students = 1750

116. The number of girls enrolled for Dancing forms what
per cent of the total number of students in School N?
(Rounded off to two digits after decimal)
1) 12.35
2) 14.12
3) 11.67
4) 10.08
5) None of these
117. How many boys are enrolled for Singing and Craft
together?
1) 505
2) 610
3) 485
4) 420
5) 705
118. What is the ratio of the number of girls to the number
of boys enrolled for Swimming?
1) 47 : 49
2) 23 : 29
3) 29 : 23
4) 49 : 47
5) None of these
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Practice Set
Directions (Q. 126-130): Study the following graph
carefully to answer the questions that follow:
Profit earned by a company over the years
80
70
60
50
40
30
20
10
0
75
70
Number of students
Appeared
Qualified
3500
3000
Profit (in ` crore)
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119. What is the total number of girls enrolled for Swimming

and Drawing together?
1) 480 2) 525 3) 505 4) 495 5) None of these
120. What is the approximate percentage of boys in the
school?
1) 34
2) 56
3) 28
4) 50
5) 42
Directions (Q. 121-125): Study the following graph
carefully and answer the questions given below:
The graph shows the total number of students appeared
and qualified from various schools for scholarship
55
50
40
30
2007
2500
2000
1500
1000
500
0
121. The average number of students qualified from School

C and D is what per cent of the average number of
students appeared from the same school? (Rounded
off to two digits after decimal.)
1) 58.62
2) 73.91
3) 62.58
4) 58.96
5) None of these
122. What is the ratio of the number of students appeared
to the number of students qualified for the scholarship
from School C?
1) 7 : 12
2) 6 : 5
3) 9 : 13
4) 9 : 10
5) None of these
123. What is the ratio of the number of students qualified
from School A to the number of students qualified
from School B?
1) 8 : 3
2) 5 : 7
3) 7 : 3
4) 9 : 5
5) 7 : 5
124. The number of students appeared from School D is
approximately what per cent of the total number of
students appeared from all the schools together?
1) 12%
2) 24%
3) 29%
4) 18%
5) 8%
125. What is the difference between the average number
of students appeared from all the given schools and
the average number of students qualified from all the
given schools?
1) 950
2) 1100
3) 990
4) 1020
5) None of these
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2008
2009 2010
Year
2011
2012
126. If the income of the company in the year 2010 was

`120 crore, what was the percentage profit of the
company in the year 2010?
1) 100%
2) 120%
3) 133%
4) 125%
5) 140%
127. If the expenditure of the company in the year 2011 was
`85 crore, what was the ratio of income to expenditure
of the company in that year?
1) 23 : 17
2) 5 : 4
3) 11 : 8
4) 21 : 16
5) None of these
128. What is the approximate average profit (in ` crore)
earned by the company over the years?
1) 50
2) 48
3) 53
4) 57
5) 61
129. If the income of the company in the year 2007 was
`950000000, what was the expenditure (in `) of the
company in that year?
1) 50000000
2) 550000000
3) 40000000
4) 350000000
5) None of these
130. What is the percentage increase in the profit of the
company in the year 2010 from the previous year?
1) 43%
2) 46%
3) 50%
4) 40%
5) None of these
131. Ram invested 20% more than Gautam. Gautam invested
20% less than Vijeta. If the total sum of their
investments is `69069 then what amount did Vijeta
invest?
1) `24185
2) `25025
3) `26523
4) `220625
5) `21008
132. The circumferences of two circles are 264 metres and
352 metres respectively. What is the difference
between the area of the larger circle and that of the
smaller circle?
1) 3412m2
2) 4132m2
3) 4132m2
2
2
4) 5312m
5) 5043m
133. In how many different ways can the letters of the word
GENERAL be arranged?
1) 3280
2) 2640
3) 2830
4) 2520
5) 2250
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134. A man purchased 250 shirts and 340 trousers at the

rate of `550 and `650 respectively. What should be
the selling price of the shirts and trousers so that 40%
profit could be earned?
1) `623000
2) `625000
3) `423000
4) `425000
5) `501900
135. An amount of `2560000 becomes `12960000 in 2 years,
if the interest is compounded half-yearly. What is the
rate of compound interest?
1) 80% 2) 90% 3) 100% 4) 60% 5) 110%
136. A 380-metre-long train running at a speed of 80 kmph
will take how much time to cross another 420-metrelong train running in opposite direction at a speed of
48 kmph?
1) 20.12 seconds 2) 22.5 seconds 3) 20.5 seconds
4) 18.57 seconds 5) 19.68 seconds
137. How many kilograms, of sugar at `42 per kg should a
man mix with another 25 kg of sugar at `28 per kg so
that he may gain 25% profit by selling `40 per kg?
1) 8 kg
2) 15 kg
3) 20 kg
4) 10 kg
5) 35 kg
138. A number X is increased by 20% to get another number
Y. A third number Z is obtained by increasing Y by
10%. By what per cent should Z be decreased to get
X?
1) 26.51%
2) 24.24%
3) 28.36%
4) 31.71%
5) 34.98%
139. Z can do a piece of work in 42 days. Y can do the same
piece of work in 36 days. W can do it in 56 days. Z
worked for 18 days and handed it to Y, who worked for
9 days and left the job for W. How many days will W
take to finish the work?
1) 16 days
2) 20 days
3) 24 days
4) 22 days
5) 18 days
140. Munsi Premchand sold a cow at a loss of 15%. Had he
sold it for `300 more he would have earned a profit of
10% instead of loss. Find the cost price of the cow.
1) `1200
2) `1250
3) `1100
4) `1400
5) `1500
1) RBI
2) FMC
3) SEBI
4) NPCI
5) None of these
143. Consider the following organisations:
(A) SAARC
(B) SCO
(C) APEC
(D) ASEAN
India is a member of which of the above organisations?
1) Only (A)
2) Only (A) and (C)
3) Only (A), (B) and (C) 4) Only (A), (B) and (D)
5) All (A), (B), (C) and (D)
144. 3. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is NOT empowered
to issue banknotes of which of the following
denominations?
1) Rs 5
2) Rs 500
3) Rs 1000
4) Rs 10000
5) None of these
145. Adani Power and Reliance Power have signed separate
MoUs with which of the following countries, recently,
to set up power utilities of 1,600 MW and 3,000 MW
there respectively?
1) Sri Lanka
2) Myanmar
3) Nepal
4) Bangladesh
5) None of these
146. A ____________is a negotiable financial instrument
issued by a bank to represent a foreign companys
publicly traded securities.
1) depositary receipt
2) participatory notes
3) buyers credit
4) cross listed stock
5) None of these
147. When a person wants to save money for a longer
period of time with a view to earning a higher rate of
interest, he/she should open which of the following
types of accounts?
1) Savings account
2) Current account
3) Term Deposit account
4) Recurring account
5) None of these
148. Which of the following is NOT related to economy?
1) CAMELS
2) Barter System
3) Pledging
4) Adiabatic
5) None of these
149. What is the full form of ASCI? It is the abbreviated
form of the self-regulatory voluntary organisation of
the advertising industry that curbs misleading ads.
1) Advertisement Screening Council of India
2) Advertising Supervision Council of India
3) Advertisement Support Council of India
4) Advertising Standards Council of India
5) None of these
150. Who among the following has won the men's singles
title of the Wimbeldon Open tennis tournament
recently?
1) David Ferrer
2) Andy Murray
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Practice Set
Test-IV: General Awareness
(with Special Reference to Banking Industry)
141. The FMC is in process to merge with the Securities

and Exchange Board of India (Sebi). Here, the term
FMC stands for
1) Future Markets Commission
2) Food Markets Commission
3) Foreign Markets Commission
4) Forward Markets Commission
5) None of these
142. The depositories in India are regulated by
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Practice Set
1) Overdraft
2) Kisan Credit Card
3) Demat Account
4) Education loan
5) None of these
160. The newly appointed Chief Information Commissioner
(CIC) and the Central Vigilance Commissioner (CVC)
respectively are
1) Vijai Sharma and KV Chowdary
2) Ajit Seth and Sujatha Singh
3) Shivshankar Menon and Nripendra Misra
4) Ajit Seth and KV Chowdary
5) None of these
161. Which of the following has become the sixth city in
the country to operate a Metro rail system?
1) Chennai
2) Jaipur
3) Panji
4) Bhopal
5) Pune
162. Who among the following was awarded freedom of
expression prize in Norway on 2 Jun?
1) Malala Yousafzai
2) Glenn Greenwald
3) Edward Snowden
4) Julian Assange
5) None of these
163. Usually the equated monthly instalments (EMIs), used
to repay a loan or an advance, comprises of which of
the following?
1) Principal
2) Interest
3) Tax
4) All the above 5) Only 1) and 2)
164. Who among the following is/are authorised to issue
commercial papers in India as per the prevailing rules?
1) Corporate
2) Commercial Banks
3) Foreign Companies
4) Only 1) and 2)
5) Only 1) and 3)
165. What is the new Reverse Repo rate after the RBIs Jun
2 policy review?
1) 6 per cent
2) 6.25 per cent 3) 6.50 per cent
4) 6.75 per cent 5) None of these
166. Ratan Tata-led panel has decided to benchmark Indian
Railways against the train networks of four global
giants which are
1) Japan, Spain, Russia and France
2) Japan, South Korea, Italy and Germany
3) US, China, Russia and Germany
4) US, China, Italy and France
5) None of these
167. The World Bank has ranked which Indian scheme as
the top-most social security programme with
conditional cash transfers?
1) Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao
2) Janani Suraksha Yojna
3) Atal Pension Yojana
4) Indira Awaas Yojana
5) Indira Gandhi National Old Age Pension Scheme
168. Which of the following pairs of international
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3) Novak Djokovic
4) Roger Federer
5) None of these
151. R Seshasayee has taken over as the new chairman of
which of the following information technology firms?
1) Infosys
2) Wipro
3) Tech Mahindra
4) TCS
5) None of these
152. MK Sharma has been appointed as the non-executive
Chairman of which of the following private sector
banks in India?
1) HDFC Bank 2) Axis Bank
3) ICICI Bank
4) Federal Bank 5) None of these
153. The commercial paper (CP) is an unsecured money
market instrument issued in the form of a promissory
note. It can be issued by
1) Corporates
2) Primary Dealers (PDs)
3) All-India Financial Institutions (FIs)
4) All the above
5) None of these
154. What is the expanded form of the term OLTAS?
1) On-Line Tax Auditing System
2) On-Line Trade Auditing System
3) On-Line Trade Accounting System
4) On-Line Tax Accounting System
5) None of these
155. The practice of banks of providing banking facilities
to the poor people of the society for mutual benefit of
poor persons as well as banks is called
1) financial prudence
2) financial literacy
3) financial inclusion
4) universal banking
5) None of these
156. The Road transport minister Nitin Gadkari inaugurated
Indias first automated vehicle testing centre at which
of the following places recently?
1) Hyderabad
2) Bengaluru
3) Chennai
4) Nashik
5) None of these
157. A universal bank does not undertake which of the
following activities?
1) Investment Banking
2) Commercial Banking
3) Development Banking
4) Insurance
5) None of these
158. Which of the following types of accounts do not earn
any interest as per the norms of the Reserve Bank of
India?
1) Current Account
2) Savings Account
3) Recurring Account
4) Deposit Account
5) None of these
159. Examine the following and choose the one which is
NOT a medium for granting credit by a bank.
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institutions and their heads is NOT matched correctly?

1) World Bank Jim Yong Kim
2) International Labour Organisation Guy Ryder
3) International Monetary Fund Christine Lagarde
4) Asian Development Fund Takehiko Nakao
5) None of these
169. Who won the womens singles title of the 2015
Wimbledon tennis tournament?
1) Garbine Muguruza
2) Victoria Azarenka
3) Coco Vandeweghe
4) Maria Sharapova
5) Serena Williams
170. The proposed USD 10-bn TAPI gas pipeline project
will originate in
1) Tajikistan
2) Tanzania
3) Turkmenistan
4) Trinidad and Tobago
5) Turkey
171. Sriram Kalyanaraman is the new MD and CEO of which
of the following regulators?
1) NHB
2) FMC
3) SEBI
4) NABARD
5) IRDAI
172. Leander Paes clinched the mixed doubles title of
Wimbledon 2015 with his partner
1) Martina Navratilova
2) Monica Seles
3) Anna Kournikova
4) Sania Mirza
5) Martina Hingis
173. Consider the following rates/ratios with respect to the
monetary and credit policy of the RBI and identify the
one which is not used under these policies.
1) CRR
2) Repo Rate
3) Reverse Repo Rate
4) Bank Rate
5) None of these
174. Which of the following banks falls in the category of
development banks in India?
1) IFCI
2) State Bank of India
3) HDFC
4) HSBC
5) None of these
175. Who among the following is the new MD and CEO of
Credit Information Bureau India Ltd (CIBIL)?
1) Arun Thukral 2) Satish Pillai
3) Arun Duggal
4) Pranab Kumar Choudhury
5) Ashu Suyash
176. The United Nations General Assembly decided to
celebrate the first World Youth Skills Day (WYSD) on
1) 15 Jul
2) 18 Jul
3) 21 Jul
4) 25 Jul
5) 31 Jul
177. Vijender Singh, who was in news for turning
professional, recently, is associated with the game of
1) hockey
2) tennis
3) archery
4) shooting
5) boxing
178. A common bank customer is usually not expected to
be involved in which of the following activities?
1) Using Mobile Banking
2) Using Internet Banking
3) Withdrawing cash from ATM
4) Clearing cheques
5) None of these
179. Which of the following NASA spacecrafts passed by
dwarf planet Pluto (within just 12,500 km of its surface)
recently?
1) Discovery
2) Colombia
3) Path Finder
4) New Horizons 5) Rosetta
180. Who among the following has been appointed as the
Vice-Chief of the Indian Army?
1) Philip Campose
2) Man Mohan Singh Rai
3) Karan Singh Shekhawat
4) Mukul Kumar Singh
5) None of these
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Test-V: Computer Knowledge
181. The ability to recover and read deleted or damaged

files from a criminal's computer is an example of a law
enforcement specialty called
1) robotics
2) simulation
3) computer forensics
4) animation
5) None of these
182. ________ server stores and manages files for network
users.
1) Authentication
2) Main
3) Web
4) File
5) None of these
183. The power supply supplies power to every single part
in the PC. The power supply is to convert the 230V AC
into 3.3V, 5V and 12V DC power that the system requires
for the operations. It is commonly known as
1) Simple mode power supply
2) Switching power supply
3) Uninterrupted power supply
4) Inverter
5) Converter
184. Database that spreads information across different
tables while maintaining links between them is referred
as
1) Relational database
2) Rotational database
3) Database connection 4) Tabular database
5) None of these
185. Custom software, developed to address the specific
needs of a company, is known as ________software.
1) developmental
2) privately owned
3) copyrighted
4) proprietary
5) None of these
186. In the ESRB ratings, software that is suitable for ages
six and older is rated
1) E (Everyone)
2) AO (Adults Only)
3) T (Teen)
4) M (Mature)
5) None of these
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Practice Set
3) Mini computer
4) Super computer
5) Nano computer
198. Two or more computers connected with each other for
sharing information form a ________.
1) tunnel
2) server
3) router
4) network
5) None of these
199. ________ is a form of permanent memory that holds
all the instructions the computer needs to start up and
does not get erased when the power is turned off.
1) The Network Interface Card (NIC)
2) The CPU
3) RAM
4) ROM
5) None of these
200. Servers are computers that provide resources to other
computers connected to a
1) network
2) mainframe
3) supercomputer
4) client
5) None of these
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187. Clicking special areas called ________ activates

various features of a multimedia presentation.
1) activators
2) starters
3) pages
4) buttons
5) None of these
188. The creation of a storyboard is essential to the
development of the project. This is the ________ step
of development.
1) planning
2) designing
3) creating
4) supporting
5) None of these
189. Who is the founder of Oracle Corporation?
1) Larry Ellison
2) Bill Gates
3) Dennis Ritche
4) Linux Torvalds
5) None of these
190. What is the communication protocol that allows you
to connect your computer to the internet using a
standard telephone line?
1) HTTP
2) ISDN
3) SLIP
4) TCP/IP
5) None of these
191. To produce a high-quality graphics (hard copy) in
colour, you would like to use a
1) Virtual printer
2) Laser printer
3) Ink-jet printer
4) Plotter
5) RGB monitor
192. Which of the following is the fastest memory ?
1) DDR RAM
2) DDR2 RAM
3) DDR3 RAM
4) Swap Memory
5) Buffer Memory
193. Commands at the top of a screen such as FILE-EDITFONT-TOOLS to operate and change things within
programs are referred to as
1) menu bar
2) tool bar
3) user-friendly
4) word processor
5) None of these
194. CD-ROM stands for
1) Central Processing Unit
2) CD-Remote Open Mouse
3) CD-Resize or Minimize
4) CD-Read Only Memory
5) None of these
195. What is the name of an application program that
gathers user information and sends it to someone
through the Internet?
1) Virus
2) Spybot
3) Logic bomb
4) Security patch
5) None of these
196. Perforated paper used as input of output media is
known as
1) paper tapes
2) magnetic tape
3) punched paper tape
4) card punch
5) None of these
197. A computer with CPU speed around 100 million
instructions per second and word length of around 64
bits, is known as
1) Micro computer
2) Macro computer
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Practice Set
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Practice Set
Answers
(1-5):
Mountain
River
Ara Him Sat And Roc Alp Atl Appal Spr Hud Ama Tig Tib Nil Dan Tha
... (i)
... (ii)
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Person
19. 1; Given statements:

PQ>R=S<T
W<R
Combining (i) and (ii), we have
A
B
C
D
E
F
G
H
Name
Mountain
River
A
Himalayas
Thames
B
Rockies
Nile
C
Andes
Tiber
D
Atlas
Hudson
E
Appalachian
Amazon
F
Aravallis
Danube
G
Alps
Spree
H
Satpura
Tigris
1. 3
2. 2
3. 5
4. 4
5. 5
6. 1; Some questions are answerable (I)
conversion Some answerable are questions
(I) + All questions are symbols (A) = I + A =
I = Some answerable are symbols. Hence, the
possibility in I exists. Hence, conclusion I
follows. But there is no negative statement.
Thus any negative conclusion does not follow.
Hence, conclusion II does not follow.
7. 4; Some applications are easy (I) + All
easy are dynamics (A) = I + A = I = Some
applications are dynamics. Hence, conclusion
II does not follow.
Again, No game is an application (E) + Some
applications are dynamics (I) = E + I = O* =
Some dynamics are not games. Hence,
conclusion I does not follow.
8. 2; Conclusion I does not follow from first
statement. But the possibility in conclusion
II exists from third statements. Hence,
conclusion II follows.
9. 2; Some details are beneficial (I) + All
beneficial are helpful (A) = I + A = I = Some
details are helpful (I).
Now, Some informations are not details (O)
+ Some details are helpful (I) = O + I = No
conclusion. Hence, conclusion I does not
follow.
Again, the possibility in II exists from second
statement.
10. 5; Some statements are paragraphs (I) +
No paragraph is a chapter (E) = I + E = O =
Some statements are not chapters. Hence,
conclusion I follows.
Now, No word is a statement (E) + Some
statements are paragraphs (I) = E + I = O* =
Some paragraphs are not words.
Again, No paragraph is a chapter
conversion No chapter is a paragraph (E)
+ Some paragraphs are not words (O) = E +
O = No conclusion.
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But the possibility in conclusion II exists.

Hence, conclusion II follows.
(11-15):
Family tree
11. 1
12. 3
13. 5
14. 1; All others are males.
15. 3
VP
... (i)
U>R
... (ii)
P Q < R = S ... (iii)
Combining (ii) and (iii), we have
P Q < R = S < U, so Q < R < U. Hence, Q Q is true.
Thus conclusion I follows.
Again, combining (i) and (iii),

17. 4;
So, we cant compare A and C. Hence,

conclusion I doesnt follow.
Again R = Q < P, ie R D ... (i)
B>H
... (ii)
From statement (i), we have
B > D. Hence conclusion I does not follow.
Again, combinining (i) and (ii),
A H. Thus, we cant compare A and H.
Hence, conclusion II doesnt follow.
Hence conclusion I follows.

From statement (i), we have
P > S < T, so we cant compare P and T.
L < M > N < O > P ... (i)
QP
... (ii)
L<S
... (iii)
Combining (i) and (ii), we have
We cant compare N and Q. So both
conclusion I and II do not follow.
(21-25):
21. 5
22. 3
23. 1
24. 4
25. 1
(26-30):
government is ready for disaster management
ti cu ko mo je pe
... (i)
management less government de cu ko
... (ii)
less organised management cu pa de
... (iii)
government ready in management
cu ti ko su
... (iv)
From (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
management cu
... (v)
From (i), (ii), (iv) and (v)
government ko
... (vi)
From (i) and (iv)
ready ti
... (vii)
From (iv), (v), (vi) and (vii)
in su
... (viii)
From (ii), (v) and (vi)
less de
... (ix)
From (iii), (v) and (ix)
organised pa
... (x)
From (i), (v), (vi) and (vii)
26. 4
27. 4
28. 2
29. 1
30. 5
(31-35): The machine rearranges first the
numbers and then the words. For numbers, it
starts rearranging with the numbers divisible
by 5 but the biggest number divisible by 5 is
taken first. Rest of the numbers (not divisible
by 5) are rearranged in descending order. Both
divisible and non-divisible by 5 are taken in
alternate steps. As for words, they are
rearranged according to decreasing number
of vowels. If there are two words having the
same number of vowels then words are
arrranged in alphabetical order.
If there are two words having equal number
of vowels and there is repetition of a vowel
in a word, then this word will come after
other words having the same number of
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vowels and alphabetical order will not be

applicable.
Input: 24 whirlpool 55 kelvinator 81 godrej
hitachi 200 electrolux 43 bluestar 315 sharp
Step I. 315 24 whirlpool 55 kelvinator 81
godrej hitachi 200 electrolux 43 bluestar
sharp
Step II. 315 81 24 whirlpool 55 kelvinator
godrej hitachi 200 electrolux 43 bluestar
sharp
Step III. 315 81 200 24 whirlpool 55
kelvinator godrej hitachi electrolux 43
bluestar sharp
Step IV. 315 81 200 43 24 whirlpool 55
kelvinator godrej hitachi electrolux bluestar
sharp
Step V. 315 81 200 43 55 24 whirlpool
kelvinator godrej hitachi electrolux bluestar
sharp
Step VI. 315 81 200 43 55 24 kelvinator
whirlpool godrej hitachi electrolux bluestar
sharp
Step VII. 315 81 200 43 55 24 kelvinator
electrolux whirlpool godrej hitachi bluestar
sharp
Step VIII. 315 81 200 43 55 24 kelvinator
electrolux bluestar whirlpool godrej hitachi
sharp
Step IX. 315 81 200 43 55 24 kelvinator
electrolux bluestar hitachi whirlpool godrej
sharp
31. 2 32. 4
33. 3
34. 1
35. 2
36. 5; From I & II. Kiran is married either
to Priyank or to Kabir.
From I, II & III. Priyank has no child and
Kiran has a daughter. Hence, Kabir is husband
of Kiran.
37. 2; From I, II, III code for effective
cant be determined.
38. 3; From I. Number of chairs in each
classroom = 38
From II. Number of classes in the institute
= 15
From III. Strength in each class = 28
From II and III. Total number of students
= 15 28 = 420
39. 2; From I.
held responsible for the high inflation here.

44. 1; (A) is at best a summary of the passage
and hence a mere repetition.
45. 1; When the call something a Speck,
we assume that its size is negligible.
46. 5; Both C and D
47. 1; Nothing specific has been mentioned
about the quantum of electricity produced
during monsoon. But going by the problems
faced during monsoon, statement (B) seems
to be false.
48. 1; Heavy rains lead to silt deposits,
which in turn lead to shutdown of plants.
49. 1; That is why there has been an impact
of their closure on the National Capital.
50. 4; All the action are advisable as they
would reduce the chance of any eventuality.
51. 3
52. 4
53. 1
54. 2
55. 2
56. 4
57. 4
58. 2
59. 2
60. 3
61. 5
62. 1
63. 5
64. 4
65. 1
66. 1; Replace for with from
67. 3; Replace is with was
68. 3; Replace those with them
69. 4; Replace only few with only a few
70. 3; Replace government with
governance
71. 3
72. 4
73. 2
74. 5
75. 1
(76-80): BDFCAE
76. 5
77. 5
78. 4
79. 1
80. 3
81. 2
82. 5
83. 1
84. 3
85. 2
86. 5
87. 1
88. 3
89. 2
90. 5
91. 1; 38.5 5.25 12 4 = ?
38.5
12 4 = 88 4 = 84
or, ? =
5.25
2
2
92. 5; (?) + (79) = (172)2 (88)2 8203
or, ?2 = (172 + 88) (172 88) 8203 (79)2
= 260 84 8203 6241
= 21840 8203 6241 = 7396
102. 5; The series is
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Practice Set
Total distance butween garden and market

cant be determined. From II & III we cant
determine the distance.
40. 2; From I, II & III we cant determine
the number of general awareness
programmes.
41. 3; (C) points out the flaw in the socialist
model and thus adds to the argument that it
is the socialist model that has been
responsible for the diseased economy.
42. 5; (B) has clearly been assumed in the
concern shown for inflation at double
digits. (F) is assumed in the way the writer
links inflation and growth with the UPAs
growth and distribution model.
43. 2; If (E) is correct, socialism cannot be
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?=
7396 = 86
93. 3: ? = [(222) 2 48 16] 24
222 222 16
= 684.5
48
24
94. 4; ? = (52% of 3543) (38% of 2759)
= 52 35.43 38 27.59
= 1842.36 1048.42 = 793.94
95. 5; 416 ? 8 = 59904
59904
18
? =
416 8
2
96. 4; (1513) = ? 3294
15131513
?=
= 694.95 695
3294
97. 2; ? = (8531 + 6307 + 1093) (501 +
724 + 396)
=
15931
= 9.83 10
1621
98. 5; ? = (682% of 782) 856
=
6.82 782
682 8
6.23 6
=
856
856
99. 2; ? =
197 + 365 14 + 19 = 33
100. 5; ? = (54 154) (34 134) = 8316
4556 1.82 2
101. 4; The series follows the pattern as:
103. 2; The series is
980 7
=7:8
1120 8
105. 5; Average number of students in
5610
College A =
= 935
6
Average number of students in College C
104. 2; Reqd ratio =
5490
= 915
6
Reqd difference = 935 915 = 20
106. 4; Total number of students in College
B = 5810
Total number of students in College D = 5598
Reqd difference = 5810 5598 = 212
107. 5; Average number of students in
5880
College E =
= 980
6
108. 1; Reqd %
=
Number of students in College C in 2010
100 %
Total number of students in 2010
980
100 % = 19.95% 20%

=
4910
109. 1; Let that number be x.

x (75 35)% = 380
380 100
950
x=
40
Now, 20% of 950
20
= 950
= 190
100
110. 5; Area = 4x 3x = 1728
(Where 4x and 3x are the length and the
breadth of the rectangle)
or, x2 = 144
x = 12
Now, 4x = 48 and 3x = 36
36
1
= 1 : 48
48 36 48
111. 5; For 2 years CI at 8%
8 8
=8+8+
= 16.64%
100
16.64
CI = 3980
= 662.2 `665
100
Reqd ratio =
a b c
1
6 10 4
a = 6k, b = 10k, c = 4k
a b c (6 10 4)k
5
c
4k
113. 3; 7x + 8y = 53
... (i)
5x + 12y = 63
... (ii)
On solving the equations, we get
112. 4; Let
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Practice Set
1750 7
=7:5
1250 5
124. 4; Total number of students appeared
from all the schools together = 3000 + 2250
+ 3250 + 2500 + 3000 = 14000
Number of students appeared from School D
= 2500
2500
100 17.85% 18%
Reqd % =
14000
125. 1; Total number of students appeared
= 14000
Total number of students qualified = 1750 +
1250 + 2250 + 2000 + 2000 = 9250
Reqd difference
14000 9250
4750
=
=
= 950
5
5
126. 5; Expenditure = 120 70 = 50 crore
70
100 140%
Profit % =
50
127. 1; Income in 2011 = 85 + 30 = 115
Reqd ratio = 115 : 85 = 23 : 17
128. 3;
40 55 50 70 30 75
Average profit =
6
320
=
53 crore
6
129. 2; Expenditure = Income Profit
= 95000000 400000000 = `550000000
130. 4; % increase from previous year
20
100 40%
=
50
131. 2; Let the amount invested by Vijeta be
` x.
And the amount invested by Gautam
80
4
=
=
x
100
5
352 7
56
2 22
And smaller circle = 2r = 264
R=
264 7
= 42
2 22
Thus, difference between the area of larger
circle and that of the smaller circle
= R2 r2 =562 422
or, r =
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x = 3, y = 4
yx=43=1
14 14 42
h = 4.2h
114. 4; Time =
5 10 10
Distance
Time
Speed
115. 1; Let the numbers be x, (x + 1), (x + 2)

and (x + 3).
Then, x + (x + 3) = 103
or, x = 50
Hence, product of B and C
= (50 + 1) (50 + 2) = 51 52 = 2652
1750 20
100%
116. 3; Reqd % =
3000
350
35
100 =
= 11.67%
3000
3
117. 1; Number of boys enrolled in Singing
and Craft together
46
50
1750
= 3000
100
100
= 1380 875 = 505
118. 4; Reqd ratio
14% of 1750
=
16% of 3000 14% of 1750
=
245
245
49
=
= 49 : 47
480 245 235
47
119. 2; Total number of girls in Swimming
30
525
and Drawing together = 1750
100
120. 5; Reqd % of boys
=
(3000 1750)
1250
100% =
100%
3000
3000
= 41.67 42%
121. 2; Average number of students qualified
from School C and D
2250 2000 4250
2125
=
2
2
Average number of students appeared from
School C and D
3250 2500 5750
2875
=
2
2
2125
100 73.91%
Reqd % =
2875
=
3250 13
= 13 : 9
2250 9
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Amount invested by Ram =
Now, x +
or,
4 x 120
24
=
x
5
100
25
4x
24x
+
= 69069
5
25
(25 20 24) x
69069
25
69069 25
= `25025
69
Hence, Vijeta invested `25025.
132. 3; Let the circumference of the larger
circle be 2R.
And that of the smaller circle be 2r
Now, 2R = 352
or, x =
22
(98 14) = 4312m2
7
133. 4; The word GENERAL contains 7
letters, and E comes twice.
Reqd number of ways
= (562 422) =
7!
= 7 6 5 4 3 = 2520
2!
134. 5; Total cost price = (250 550) +
(340 650) = 137500 + 221000 = `358500
Now, profit = 40%
=
Selling price = 358500
140
= `501900
100
135. 3; Let the rate be r%.

Now, rate of interest is compounded halfyearly.
25600001
100
2t
12960000
r
12960000 6

or, 1
2560000 4
200
r
3
or, 1
200 2
r
3
1
or,
200 2
1
or, r = 200
= 100%
2
136. 3; Reqd time
Length of train A Length of train B
= Speed of train A Speed of train B
380 420
800 18
= 22.5 seconds
5
128 5
(80 48)
18
137. 4; Selling price of 1 kg mixture

= `40 per kg profit = 25%
Cost price of 1 kg mixture
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= 40
100
= `32 per kg
125
By Alligation Method
10
28 (12 7) 9
28
28
Now, W will take 56
9
= 18 days to finish
28
Basic Mantras
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Practice Set
the work.
140. 1; Let the cost price of the cow be `x.
Selling price at 15% loss = x
=5:2
Now, let the quantity of sugar at `28 per kg
be 5x and that of sugar at `42 per kg be 2x.
So, 5x = 25 kg
x = 5 kg
Hence the sugar at `42 must be 2 5 = 10 kg
120 6X
138. 2; Y = X
100
5
110 11Y
Z = Y
900 10
=
11 6
66
X
X
10 5
50
66
XX
50
100
Reqd % =
66
X
50
=
16X
50 100
66
X
50
16
100 = 24.24%
66
1
42
18 3
Work of Z in 18 days =
42 7
139. 5; Work of Z in 1 day =
Work of Y in 1 day =
1
36
Work of Y in 9 days =
Work of W in 1 day =
9 1
36 4
1
56
3 1
Remaining work = 1
7 4
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or,
85x
110
300 x
100
100
or,
(110 85)x
= 300
100
85
100
300 100
= `1200
25
141. 4 142. 3 143. 1 144. 5 145. 4
146. 1 147. 3 148. 4 149. 4 150. 3
151. 1 152. 3 153. 4 154. 4 155. 3
156. 4 157. 5 158. 1 159. 3 160. 1
161. 2 162. 3 163. 5 164. 1 165. 2
166. 3 167. 2 168. 5 169. 5 170. 3
171. 1 172. 5 173. 5 174. 1 175. 2
176. 1 177. 5 178. 4 179. 4 180. 2
181. 3 182. 4 183. 2
184. 1; A relational database stores information across different tables and connects them
with links in the computer.
185. 4
186. 1 187. 4 188. 1 189. 1 190. 1
191. 2 192. 3 193. 1 194. 4 195. 2
196. 2 197. 4 198. 4 199. 4 200. 1
or, x =
for success in
Bank PO Exams
1.
Learn to solve Mathematics

questions (50) in 30-35 minutes.
Read Magical Book on
QUICKER MATHS by M Tyra.
Read Practice Book on
QUICKER MATHS by M Tyra &
K Kundan.
Read DATA INTERPRETATION,
DATA SUFFICIENCY AND
SERIES by M Tyra and K Kundan.
Join BSC Academy.
2. Learn the concepts of Reasoning
and score more in minimal time.
Read Magical Book Series:
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Practice Set IBPS PO Mains

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Practice Set IBPS PO Mains

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IBPS PO

Test-I: Reasoning Ability

Directions (Q. 1-5): Read the following information

sitting around a circular table and all of them are facing

26. Which of the following is the code for disaster?

Input: 24 whirlpool 55 kelvinator 81 godrej hitachi 200

37. What does effective represent in a code language?

threatening the world, including the US, the EU, India,

Test-II: English Language

Directions (Q. 51-65): Read the passage carefully

took over Mumbais Taj Hotel in 2008.

Test-III: Quantitative Aptitude

Directions (Q. 91-95): What will come in place of

of 10 kmph. How much time will the man take to cover

Total number of students = 3000

Total number of girl students = 1750

Profit (in ` crore)

119. What is the total number of girls enrolled for Swimming

121. The average number of students qualified from School

126. If the income of the company in the year 2010 was

134. A man purchased 250 shirts and 340 trousers at the

Test-IV: General Awareness

(with Special Reference to Banking Industry)

141. The FMC is in process to merge with the Securities

institutions and their heads is NOT matched correctly?

Test-V: Computer Knowledge

181. The ability to recover and read deleted or damaged

187. Clicking special areas called ________ activates

19. 1; Given statements:

But the possibility in conclusion II exists.

Hence, conclusion II does not follow.

So, we cant compare A and C. Hence,

Hence conclusion I follows.

vowels and alphabetical order will not be

held responsible for the high inflation here.

102. 5; The series is

Total distance butween garden and market

93. 3: ? = [(222) 2 48 16] 24

103. 2; The series is

Number of students in College C in 2010

100 % = 19.95% 20%

109. 1; Let that number be x.

115. 1; Let the numbers be x, (x + 1), (x + 2)

122. 5; Reqd ratio =

Amount invested by Ram =

Selling price = 358500

135. 3; Let the rate be r%.

137. 4; Selling price of 1 kg mixture

Now, W will take 56

Learn to solve Mathematics

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