HKU/MATH3301 (Algebra I)/Test1 - Suggested Solution/2Oct15/

1. (4 points) Let G = {a, b, c, d} be a set of 4 elements and its multiplication table be

a
a a
b b
c c
d d

b c
b c
c d
d c
a b

d
d
a
b
c

Does G under the operation form a group? Explain your answer.

Ans. No, G is not a group. From the table, a2 = a and c2 = c. Suppose G is a group.
Then multiplying the inverses of a and c respectively, we get a = e andc = e where
e {a, b, c, d} denotes the identity of G. This implies a = c, contradiction arises.

2. (10 points) [In Parts (b) and (c) below, e denotes the identity of the group.]
(a) Compute the orders of all elements in Z2 Z3 .
(b) Let G be a group and a G have order k. Show that if ah = e, then k divides h.
(c) Let G be a group of order 2015. Show that no element x G \ {e} satisfies x201 = e.
Ans.
(a) ord(0, 0) = 1, ord(0, 1) = ord(0, 2) = 3, ord(1, 0) = 2, ord(1, 1) = ord(1, 2) = 6.
(b) See Tutorial 3, Qn 7. Note that the tutorial solution is very (too!) brief.
One should emphasize the minimality of the order. Below is an example.
By division algorithm, h = qk + r where 0 r < k. Now, ah = e implies
(): (ak )q ar = e.
As ord(a) = k, ak = e and there is no integer 0 < r < k such that ar = e.
The equation () implies ar = e with 0 r < k and thus r = 0. Hence k|h.
Classmates mistakes :
ord(0, 0) = 0.
Z2 Z3
= Z6 is a cyclic group (this is correct!)
All elements in Z6 are of order 6 (wrong)
x201 = e implies ord(x) = 201
201 = 3 67, ord(x) = 3 or 67

HKU/MATH3301 (Algebra I)/Test1 - Suggested Solution/2Oct15/

3. (10 points)
For each of the following either give an example or say that no such example exists.
NO explanation is required.
(a) A group G that ab 6= ba for some a, b G.
(b) A non-cyclic finite abelian group.
(c) Two non-isomorphic finite groups of the same order.
(d) A subgroup H of a group G with their orders satisfying 1 < |H| < |G| = 17.
(e) An infinite nonabelian subgroup H of a group G with the index [G : H] = 2.
Ans.
(a) GL(2, R)
(b) Z2 Z2
(c) Z4 and Z2 Z2
(d) No such example.
Here is an explanation (although it is not required in the question):
By Lagrange theory, the order of a subgroup must divide the order of the group.
Now |G| = 17 is a prime. Only 1 and 17 divide 17. Hence the possible order of a
subgroup in G is 1 or 17.
(e) Example 1. G = {A GL(2, R) : det A = 1 or 1} and H = SL(2, R).
Example 2. G = SL(2, R) Z2 and H = SL(2, R) {0}
Classmates mistakes :
Group of nonzero matrices under multiplication. (It is not a group)
Mn (R) with matrix multiplication. (It is not a group)
G = the group of 2 2 invertible matrices and H = the subgroup of matrices in G
whose determinant = 1. (But [G : H] 6= 2)
Perm(X) is non-abelian. (How about the case X = {1} or X = {1, 2}?!)

Z
4 is non-cyclic. (Note |Z4 | = 2. Could we have a non-cyclic group of order 2?)

HKU/MATH3301 (Algebra I)/Test1 - Suggested Solution/2Oct15/

4. (10 points) Prove or disprove with justification the following statements.

(a) If xy = x1 y 1 for all x, y in the group G, then G is abelian.
(b) There is a non-abelian subgroup of the product group G1 G2 where |G1 | = 4 and
|G2 | = 11.
Ans.
(a) True. (It is a variant of Assignment 1 Qn 5!)
Take y = e, then we have x = x1 for all x, i.e. x2 = e for all x G. Now argue as
in Assignment 1, Qn 5 to conclude G is abelian.
(b) False.
As |G1 | = 4, we know G1 is abelian (indeed, G1
= Z4 or Z2 Z2 ).
As |G2 | = 11 which is a prime, G2 is a cyclic group (see Lecture Notes).
Thus G2 is abelian.
Hence G1 G2 is abelian (see Tutorial 2, Qn 5). Thus any subgroup of G1 G2 ,
which is abelian, must be abelian.
Classmates mistakes :
(xy)1 = x1 y 1
If H G1 G2 is a subgroup, then H = H1 H2 where H1 , H2 are subgroups of
G1 , G2 respectively. (Wrong. Figure out a counterexample please!)
xz 2 = z 2 x for all x, z G xy = yx by taking y = z 2 for y G. (Can we always
express an element x in a group G into the form x = z 2 where z G?)
ord(x) = ord(y) = 2 x = y
Some classmates commented that for part (b) it suffices to give a counterexample.
This is not sufficient! Think about the following question:
There is a non-abelian subgroup of the product group G1 G2 where |G1 | = 6
and |G2 | = 11.
What will be the answer?
The answer is yes, and a justification is: Consider G1 = S3 and G2 = Z11 and take
H = G1 {0}. That means the question is understood as: There exist groups G1
and G2 of order 4 and 11 such that G1 G2 has a non-abelian subgroup. To disprove
it, you have to assure no such a pair of groups, not just to find one pair.

HKU/MATH3301 (Algebra I)/Test1 - Suggested Solution/2Oct15/

5. (6 points) Let H be a subgroup of the group G and K a subgroup of H.

(a) Show that [G : K] = [G : H][H : K] if G is finite. (b) Does Part (a) hold if G is an
infinite group while both [G : H] and [H : K] are finite? Justify your answer.
Ans.
(a) By Lagrange theorem, [G : K] =

|G|
|K|

|G| |H|
|H| |K|

= [G : H][H : K].

(b) Yes, the formula still holds when [G : H] and [H : K] are finite (even though G is
infinite).
Proof. As [G : H] and [H : K] are finite, we may write
G/H = {a1 H, , am H}
Then G =

m
[

ai H and H =

i=1

n
[

and

H/K = {b1 K, , bn K}.

bj K. Want to show:

j=1

G/K = {ai bj K : i = 1, , m, j = 1, , n}.

Observe that G =

m [
n
[

ai bj K.

i=1 j=1

Thus it suffices to show ai bj K 6= ap bq K whenever (i, j) 6= (p, q).

Suppose ai bj K = ap bq K.
This implies ai bj k ap bq K for some k K and hence ai ap bq Kb1
j .
As bq , bj H and K H, this implies ai ap H. Thus i = p and also bj k bq K.
This implies bj bq K, so j = q.
In summary, the set {ai bj K : i = 1, , m, j = 1, , n} of mn elements is the set
of all left K-cosets in G. Thus [G : K] = mn = [G : H][H : K].

End