Test 33 Final Questions..

INSIGHTS
MOCK TEST - 33

INSIGHTS ON INDIA MOCK PRELIMINARY EXAM - 2015

INSIGHTS ON INDIA MOCK TEST - 33
GENERAL STUDIES
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Page 1
INSIGHTS MOCK TEST - 33

1. Unnat Bharat Abhiyaan programme

relates to
a) improving the Indian urban
economic growth rate
b) skill development of workers in the
unorganized sector
c) establishment of centres of
excellence throughout the country
d) upliftment of rural India
2. Which of the following correctly

differentiates between Aesthenosphere
and Lithosphere?
1. Aesthenosphere is more solid than
Lithosphere.
2. The Mid-oceanic ridges occur in
Aesthenosphere and not lithosphere.
3. Lithosphere lies above
Aesthenosphere.
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
3 only
3. Diastrophism includes all those

processes that involve
1. Uplifting or warping of the large
parts of earths crust
2. Folding of earths crust
3. Generation of earths crust
below.

a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
None of the above
4. Who among the following can appear in

the proceedings of the Parliament but
without a right to vote?
1. President of India
2. CAG
3. Attorney General of India
4. Chairman of Finance Commission
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2 and 4 only
1 and 4 only
3 only
2 and 3 only
5. Nalayira Divyaprabandhanam is known

as
a) a major composition of the Alvar
saints
b) the rulebook of Lingayats guiding
their social and economic conduct
c) the most famous Tamil translation of
Kabirs work
d) the code of conduct of the
Vaishanavas in TamilNadu
6. Some laws made on general matters by

the Autonomous District Councils
established under Sixth Schedule of the
Constitution need the approval of
a) State Legislature
b) Parliament
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c) Governor of the State

d) Home Minister of the State
7. Which of the following statements

regarding the governance in Union
Territories is INCORRECT?
a) Lt. Governor cannot promulgate an
ordinance in the recess of the
assembly without the prior
permission of the President.
b) Parliament can enact laws for Union
Territories even where an elected
Assembly exists.
c) Governor of a state can be given
additional responsibility of a Union
territory, which he governs without
the aid and advice of the State
Council of Ministers.
d) None of the above
8. Consider the following about the

financial powers of the Governor of a
State.
1. No demand for a grant can be made
except on his recommendation.
2. Money bills can be introduced in the
state legislature only with his prior
recommendation.
3. He can make advances out of the
Contingency Fund of the state to
meet any unforeseen expenditure.
4. He sees that the Annual Financial
Statement (state budget) is laid
before the state legislature.
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 3 and 4 only
d) All of the above
9. To uphold the Sovereignty and integrity

of India is a part of the Oath of the
a) Judges of the Supreme Court
b) Members of the Parliament
c) President of India
d) Both (a) and (b)
10. The Committee on Petitions in the

Parliament pertains to
a) Privilege matters of the Members of
the Parliament
b) Entertaining complaints regarding
political defections
c) Entertaining representation from
public on matters relating to the
Union List
d) Enforcing the code of conduct of the
Members of the Parliament
11. Which of the following statements about

Cabinet Committees is INCORRECT?
a) Non-cabinet ministers are barred
from its membership.
b) They are setup by the Prime
Minister.
c) They are not mentioned in the
constitution.
d) There are both ad hoc and
permanent cabinet committees.

below.
a) 1, 2 and 4 only

12. Consider the following statements.

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1. No ground has been mentioned in

the constitution for the removal of
the Vice President.
2. He can be elected for any number of
terms.
3. He can act as a President for a
maximum period of six months.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
13. The Constitution of Jammu and

Kashmir (J&K) declares
a) The state of J&K to be an integral
part of India.
b) The state of J&K to be a temporary
part of India.
c) The State of J&K to be an
autonomous state supported and
guarded by the Government of
India.
d) J&K to be a sovereign state in
alliance with the Government of
India.
14. Presidents Rule under Article 356 can

be imposed on a state if
1. The state government is pursing
anti-secular politics.
2. The State government has been
accused of corruption and
maladministration.

3. The State government disregards

constitutional directions given by the
Central government.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
15. The Zonal Councils have been

established by
a) The Constitution of India
b) States Reorganization Act 1956
c) A resolution of the Central Cabinet
16. Full Faith and Credit Clause laid down

by the Constitution means that
a) The Council of Ministers is able to
govern because it carries the
credibility of a universal adult
franchise.
b) All records and acts of the
Government of India or the states are
to given full faith and credit
throughout the territory of India.
c) Lok Sabha passes the Vote on
Account motion based on the
credibility of the executive even
before the annual budget is
examined thoroughly.
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17. The Ajivika sect believes that

a) Everything is pre-determined.
b) The world is a random chaos.
c) The world is a play of four elements
and temporary.
d) Human will is supreme.
18. As per the teachings of Mahavira Jain

1. Monastic existence is necessary for
salvation.
2. Salvation cannot be attained by
women and non-brahmin castes.
3. Observing celibacy is a very
important condition for attaining
salvation.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
19. Khanqahs are related to the

a) places where Mughal rulers met their
subjects for grievance redressal
b) places of rest where Sufi mystics met
and discussed spiritual matters with
the visitors
c) art galleries where artists performed
for the general public in Mughal
courts
d) a style of decorative wall embroidery
found mostly on the centre of arches
erected by Mughal rulers

20. Earliest sites found to the East or South

of the Indus river system include
1. Kalibangan
2. Lothal
3. Dholavira
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
21. Instead of spreading paddy seeds on the

field, saplings are sown. Why?
a) It increases survival chances of the
crop.
b) It reduces attack from pests.
c) It allows more use of fertilizers in the
field.
d) If seeds are thrown directly on the
ground, roots may not penetrate
deep.
22. Under Gana or Sangha system of

governance during the period of the
Magadha Kingdom
a) People ruled through their directly
elected representatives
b) Several Rajas ruled together and
took collective decisions.
c) Only one king governed a very large
area.
d) Village assemblies were selfgoverned by popular representation
Page 5

23. As per Buddhist teachings constant

craving could be removed by
a) Renouncing everything
b) Joining the Buddhist sangha
c) Becoming a celibate and doing
penance
d) Following moderation in everything
24. Arthashashtra by Kautilya was written

during the rule of
a) Chandragupta Maurya
b) Bindusara
c) Ashoka
d) Harshavardhana
25. According to Swami Dayanand

Saraswati
1. World is an illusion and one must get
rid of it.
2. Salvation can be attained by
performing the right rituals with the
learned and pious.
3. Worshipping idols is one way of
attaining to the formless ultimate
reality.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
None of the above
26. Consider the following about the Oudh

Kisan Sabha setup in 1920.
1. It was established by Jawaharlal
Nehru.

2. It was setup to address the subdued

participation from Awadh in mass
movements.
3. The Sabha adopted strictly
constitutional and legal methods for
achieving its objectives.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1 only
27. Which of the following statements is

INCORRECT concerning the Civil
Disobedience Movement?
a) Dalit participation in Civil
Disobedience movement was limited.
b) It was launched in response to
Montague statement that did not
satisfy Indian leaders.
c) Gandhi-Irwin pact came amidst the
movement.
28. Kheda Satyagraha was organized by

Gandhiji in response to
a) British forcing the Kheda peasants to
grow only particular crops on their
farms
b) Exploitative land ownership
structure in rural areas that resulted
in farmer suicides
c) Lack of security of tenure for Kheda
peasants
d) British authorities refusing to grant
remission of revenue for farmers that
suffered crop losses
Page 6

3. Kal
29. The aim of the Home Rule League
Movement launched by Tilak was
a) Demanding purna swaraj from the
British by using both constitutional
and extra-constitutional methods
b) Overthrowing the British
government with support from
Burma
c) Gradual reform of the administration
to introduce self-government by
Indians
d) Organizing mass movements to in
India and abroad to expose the
exploitative character of the British
rule
30. Which of the following statements with

regard to the Zimmerman Plan is
correct?
1. It was formed in Europe.
2. It aimed to mobilize Indian settlers
abroad to help invade British India.
3. It was behind organizing the RIN
mutiny in India.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
31. Which of the following newspapers and

journals advocated revolutionary
terrorism in British India?
1. Yugantar
2. Sandhya


below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
32. Bande Matram, for the first time, was

the theme song of which movement?
a) Non-cooperation Movement
b) Rowlatt Satyagraha
c) Swadeshi Movement
d) Civil Disobedience Movement
33. Consider the following about the Poona

Sarvajanik Sabha.
1. It was founded by Dadabhai Naoroji.
2. Its objective was to serve as a bridge
between the government and people.
3. It was the first organization to
propose the concept of Swaraj for
India.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
2 only
1 and 3 only
34. Moral policing with reference to the

Government may refer to
a) State intruding in the cultural liberty
of the individual
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b) State trying to regulate any area of a

citizens political or social life
c) State using excessive use of police
force even for small illegal activities
d) State mandating moral education to
be compulsory in schools and
colleges
35. 10th August was celebrated recently as

a) World Ecology Day
b) World Bio-Fuel Day
c) Global Commons Day
d) World Conservation Day
36. Consider the following statements about

the recently launched scheme Nayi
manzil.
1. It intends to cover people in 17-35
age groups.
2. It will cover all minority
communities.
3. It will intervene in education and
skill development for improving the
welfare of minorities.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
2 only
All of the above
37. ISRO has recently started commercial

production at the first indigenous
Titanium Sponge Plant. Titanium
sponge can be useful in applicable in
aerospace and defence areas due to its

1. High strength to weight ratio

2. Excellent corrosion resistance
3. Use in Liquid propellant tanks
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
2 only
All of the above
38. A new mobile app Disha has been

launched by the Union Telecom
Minister recently. The app is concerned
with
a) Promoting awareness of government
schemes in rural areas
b) Tracking individuals who are joining
Naxalite cadres and help bring them
back
c) Aiding digital literacy in the State of
Bihar
39. Aadhar enrolment can be done for

1. Non-resident Indians (NRIs)
2. Overseas Indian Citizens
3. Persons of Indian Origin (PIOs)
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
2 only
All of the above
Page 8

40. Consider the following about Lakshya

developed by DRDO.
1. It is a pilotless target aircraft.
2. Its flight path can be preprogrammed based upon the type of
mission.
3. It is equipped with cruise missile.
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
2 only
All of the above
41. Suez Canal links the

a) Red Sea with Caspian Sea
b) Arabian Sea with Caspian Sea
c) Mediterranean Sea with Red Sea
d) Caspian Sea with Arabian Sea
42. 193 member states of United Nations

have reached an agreement on the
outcome document New Sustainable
Development Agenda for the next 15
years. The new agenda draft document
is called
a) Towards New Development: The
2030 Agenda for Sustainable
Development
b) A Brave New World: The 2030
Agenda for Sustainable Development
c) Transforming our World: The 2030
d) People, Planet and Peace: The 2030

43. Maitri and Dakshin Gangotri are

a) Indian research stations in
Antarctica
b) Indo-Chinese research base in upper
Himlayas near Siachin
c) Indo-Russian observatory in Arctic
to track climate change
d) Indo-Denmark research observatory
Arctic Ocean
44. Which of these nations do NOT have any

known mineral deposit?
a) Uganda
b) Switzerland
c) Georgia
45. Which of these crops/plants is/are NOT

native to India and have been brought
here from abroad for cultivation?
1. Lotus
2. Jasmine
3. Mango
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
3 only
All are native to India.
46. Consider the following about Deccan

traps.
1. They are formed from lava flows.
2. They are a flood basalt province.
3. They cover most of Northern
plateaus of India.
Page 9


below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All the above
47. Earth is not a perfect sphere; it has a

bulge at the equator. This bulge is due to
a) The revolution of earth around the
Sun
b) The rotation of Earth on its axis
c) Dynamic action of Primordial heat of
earth
d) Lower gravitation force at equator as
compared to the poles
48. Which one of the following is NOT an

evidence to prove Sea floor spreading?
a) The age of rocks from the ocean floor
b) Synchronic reversing of magnetic
field in rocks of ocean floor.
c) The way fossils are distributed across
different continents.
d) Volcanic activity along the midoceanic ridges
49. Lithification is a process by which

a) Aesthenosphere has been formed
b) Lithosphere has been formed
c) Sedimentary rocks are formed
d) Igneous rocks are formed
50. Depth of weathering mantle is more in

tropical forests than in Tundra regions.
The factors contributing to this are
1. Higher moisture and water
availability
2. Higher temperature
3. More active biological weathering
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All the above
51. In a meandering large river, there is

active deposition over convex banks
whereas undercutting dominates over
the concave bank. This is because of
a) Difference in the rush velocity of
water on the convex and concave side
of the bank
b) Formation of ox-bow lakes in the
course of meandering
c) Change in Coriolis force as the river
meanders
d) Low velocity of the river
52. Troposphere is responsible for which of

the following?
1. Temperature variation on earth
2. Pressure variation on surface of
earth
3. Humidity, clouds and precipitation
below.
a) 1 and 2 only

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b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above

Assertion (A): Generally at the same latitude
rainfall is more over the oceans than on the
continents.
Reason (R): Generally at the same latitude
solar insolation received over the oceans is
more than that on continents.
In the context of the statements above, which
of these is true?
a) A and R both are true, and R is the
correct explanation for A.
b) A and R both are true, and R is the NOT
the correct explanation for A.
c) A is correct, R is incorrect.
d) A is incorrect, R is correct
54. The conditions that support dew

formation are
1. High speed winds in the night
2. Clear sky
3. High relative humidity
4. Cold nights
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 4 only
1 and 3 only
2, 3 and 4 only
55. The Central parts of tropical land

generally receive lesser rainfall than the
coastal parts because
a) Westerlies are present at low lying
coastal areas in tropical areas
b) Moisture carried by winds reduces as
they travel inward in a continent
c) Central parts receive higher solar
insolation than the coastal areas
d) Jet streams cannot reach inner
continental areas
56. The Mediterranean climate is

characterised by hot, dry summer and
mild, rainy winter due to the influence
of
1. Influence of sub-tropical high in
summer
2. Westerly wind in winter
Which of the above is/are correct?
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
None
57. Surface salinity of ocean water is

influenced in
1. Coastal regions by the fresh water
flow
2. Polar regions by the processes of
freezing and thawing of ice
3. Movement of ocean currents
below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only

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c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above
58. Apart from Winds, movement of ocean

water is influenced by
1. Temperature differences
2. Density differences
3. External force of Sun
4. External force of Moon
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 4 only
2 and 3 only
1, 3 and 4 only
All of the above
59. Zenkeria Sebastinei is

a) a critically endangered grass in
Agasthiyamalai peak
b) a newly found frog species in
Western Ghats
c) an antidote to cancer found in
Caribbean islands discovered
recently
d) an endemic grass species of Sri
Lanka that has been introduced in
India to improve pastoral lands
60. Which of the following continents does

NOT have any Mega diversity centres
(ecological hotspots as characterized by
IUCN)?
a) Europe
b) North America
c) Australia
d) Africa

61. Which of the following factors affect the

recharge or availability of potable
groundwater?
1. Vegetation cover
2. Diversion of water for high water
demanding crops
3. Pollution from industrial effluents
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
62. The Chipko Andolan (Hug the Trees

movement) was concerned with
a) Local communities losing control in
official management of forest
resources
b) Governments legitimate right to cut
trees in a hilly area
c) Global warming caused due to
deforestation
d) Stopping alienation of people from
their forests
63. Coliform group of bacteria, found in

human intestine, if also present in water
indicates
a) Contamination of water by diseasecausing organisms
b) Cultutal eutrophication of water
c) High pH of water that is unsuitable
for drinking
d) Presence of radiation in water
Page 12

64. What kind of Mirror would be best

suited for use in a solar cooker?
a) Concave mirror
b) Convex mirror
c) Plain mirror
d) A combination of convex and plain
mirror
65. Electricity generation from Ocean

thermal energy is based on the
a) Heat generated from volcanic
eruptions at the bottom of the ocean
b) Hot springs found in the ocean
c) Difference in the temperature of high
and low tides
d) Temperature differential between
surface and Deep Ocean
66. Which of the following gases are

generated in the decomposition process
of slurry in a bio-gas plant?
1. Methane
2. Carbon dioxide
3. Hydrogen
4. Hydrogen Sulphide
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2 and 3 only
2 and 4 only
1 and 3 only
All the above

Assertion (A): Many thermal power plants are

set up near coal or oil fields.
Reason (R): The transmission of electricity is
more efficient than transporting coal or
petroleum over the same distance.
of these is true?
a) A and R both are true, and R is a
possible correct explanation for A.
b) A and R both are true, and R can
NOT be a correct explanation for A.
68. Most power stations constructed these

days produce Alternating Current (AC)
instead of Direct Current (DC). What is
the advantage of producing AC over DC?
1. In AC power can be transmitted
across long distances without much
loss of energy.
2. DC power generation is much
costlier than AC generation.
Which of the above is/are true?
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
None
69. Which of the two organs of human body

produce a significant magnetic field?
1. Heart
2. Brain
3. Lungs
4. Legs
Page 13


below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3
2 and 4
1 and 2
3 and 4
70. Sky appears dark to passengers flying at

very high altitudes because
a) Scattering of light is not prominent
at such heights
b) Clouds are absent at such heights
c) The absence of polluting particles at
such heights
d) The low atmospheric pressure
outside the aeroplane
71. In the formation of rainbow, which of
the following phenomenon occurs?
1. Refraction of light
2. Dispersion of light
3. Internal reflection of light
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
72. When growing plants detect light, a

hormone X, synthesises at the shoot
tip, helps the cells to grow longer in that
direction. The hormone X is
a) Cytokinin
b) Auxin
c) Melanin
d) Abscicic acid

73. Rate of breathing in aquatic organisms

is much faster than that seen in
terrestrial organisms. This may be
because
a) Water is a denser medium than air.
b) Aquatic organisms lie at a lower trophic
level than terrestrial organisms.
c) Amount of oxygen dissolved in water is
fairly low as compared to that in air.
d) Aquatic organisms are not biologically
as evolved as the terrestrial organisms.
74. If you observe the bottom of a cooking

vessels getting blackened on a gas stove,
it means that
a) The gas fuel contains very high
amounts of carbon
b) The gas fuel contains lead
c) The air holes of the stove are blocked
and the fuel is getting wasted
d) The gas fuel contains blue carbon

Assertion (A): Carbon plays a very important
role in sustaining life on earth.
Reason (R): Carbon is the most abundant
element in the earths crust.
of these is true?
a) A and R both are true, and R is a
possible correct explanation for A.
b) A and R both are true, and R can
NOT be a correct explanation for A.
Page 14

76. Under the River boards Act, a River

board is established
a) by Central government on the
request of the state governments
concerned to advise them
b) by Supreme Court on a petition by
the state governments concerned to
advise them
c) by the Parliament based on the
exigencies of the situation
d) by the State governments jointly
after seeking permission from the
President
77. Apart from Central government, the

Comptroller and Auditor general of
India presently is authorized to audit the
accounts of
1. State governments
2. Local governments
3. National political parties
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1 only
78. The Preamble to the Indian constitution

is based on
a) Nehru Report 1928
b) Objectives Resolution drafted by
Pandit Nehru
c) Government of India Act, 1935

d) The Constitution of the Indian

National Congress in British India
79. Balance of Payments deficit can be

reduced through
1. Export promotion
2. Import control
3. Increasing foreign exchange reserves
4. Devaluation of currency
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1, 2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 4 only
3 and 4 only
80.Fiscal policy of the government is

related with
1. Taxation
2. Government spending
3. Government borrowing
4. Public debt
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1, 2 and 3 only
3 and 4 only
All of the above
81. As per Keynes, speculative demand for

money arises due to the
a) Predictions in the market about
future bond interest rates
b) Needs for transaction in a market
economy
Page 15

c) Uncertainty of a household
expenditure
d) The fluctuations in the external
sector of the economy
82. Marginal productivity of labour in

agricultural sector of India is zero. This
points to
a) Disguised unemployment in Indian
agriculture
b) Potential for employment in Indian
agriculture
c) Unemployment in Indian agriculture
d) Growing labour demand in the
agricultural sector
83. Liquidity trap is a situation where

a) All potential investors expect the
interest rates to move up in future
b) Interest rates in the market fluctuate
so much that bonds become nonliquid
c) People put all their money in buying
bonds
d) All of the above
84. Since the 1991 economic reforms, Indian

agriculture has been experiencing
slowdown in growth rates. This may be
because of
1. Stagnation in green revolution
technology
2. Falling public investment in
agriculture
3. Low market price of agricultural
produce


below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
85. The main objectives of food

management in India is/are
1. Maintenance of buffer stock for
ensuring food security
2. Procurement of food grains from
farmers at remunerative prices
3. Distribution of food grains at
affordable prices
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
86. Which of these methods can be used in

India to solve Industrial disputes?
1. Decision by labor Unions
2. Collective bargaining
3. Workers participation in
management
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
Page 16

87. Securities and Exchange Board of India

(SEBI) regulates
1. Money market
2. Capital market
3. Commodity market
4. Futures market
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 4 only
1 only
1, 2 and 3 only
88. Price rigging in stock market refers to

a) Insider trading of stocks in securities
markets
b) Manipulation of securities prices so
as to inflate or depress their market
price
c) Speculative and high frequency
trading
89. Which of the following banking services
are provided to the government by RBI?
1. Maintaining and operating of deposit
accounts of the Central and State
Governments
2. Receipts and collection of payments
to the Central and State
Governments.
3. Making payments on behalf of the
Central and State Governments.
4. Transfer of funds and remittance
facilities to the Central and State
Governments


below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 4 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
90. Inflation in the country can be managed

by
1. Fiscal policy
2. Monetary policy
3. Supply management through
imports
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
91. The practice of purchasing a currency in

one market and selling it in another
market is called as
a) Spot trading
b) Futures Trading
c) Arbitrage
d) Speculative trading
92. The free radical theory of aging (FRTA)

states that organisms age because cells
accumulate free radical damage over
time. Free radicals can be tackled by
1. Taking food rich in antioxidants
2. Taking high calories food to remain
energetic throughout the day
Page 17

3. Reducing the intake of watery and

fibrous food
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 only
1 and 3 only
93. When a transgene is introduced into the

genome of an organism it can
1. Prevent the expression of an existing
native gene
2. Enhance the expression of a native
gene
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
None
94. Bio-pesticides can be used for the

control of
1. Weeds
2. Insects
3. Pathogens
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
a) Using different genetic material to

preserve different traits of organisms
b) Changing culture vessels containing
fresh media from time to time to
preserve tissues
c) Growing genetically modified plants
in laboratory
96. When a plant is introduced from an

outside country Quarantine is
necessary because
1. There is a risk of entry of disease in
the country via plants.
2. Exotic species may come with the
plants that can disrupt ecosystems.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
None
97. Viruses can spread from host plant to

other plants through
1. Seeds
2. Pollens
3. Insect vectors
4. Fungi
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
95. Sub-culturing is a process of


Page 18

98. Ozone layer is thicker at poles as

compared to tropics. A possible reason
is
a) Lower solar insolation received at
poles to break ozone down
b) Lower breakdown of ozone layer due
to free radicals
c) Greater albedo coming from the ice
sheets at poles
99. Sea-level rise is projected to have
negative impacts on
1. Human settlements
2. Tourism
3. Freshwater supplies
4. Fisheries
5. Wetlands
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2, 3 and 4 only
2 and 4 only
1, 3 and 5 only
All of the above
100.
Which of the following can help
reduce global warming and its effects?
1. Reducing the use of nitrogenous
fertilizers in agriculture
2. Increasing the vegetation cover
3. Reducing urban heat islands
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

Page 19

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INSIGHTS

INSIGHTS ON INDIA MOCK PRELIMINARY EXAM - 2015

Time Allowed: 2 Hours

Maximum Marks: 200

INSIGHTS MOCK TEST - 33

1. Unnat Bharat Abhiyaan programme

2. Which of the following correctly

3. Diastrophism includes all those

4. Who among the following can appear in

5. Nalayira Divyaprabandhanam is known

6. Some laws made on general matters by

INSIGHTS MOCK TEST - 33

c) Governor of the State

7. Which of the following statements

8. Consider the following about the

9. To uphold the Sovereignty and integrity

10. The Committee on Petitions in the

11. Which of the following statements about

Choose the correct answer using the codes

12. Consider the following statements.

INSIGHTS MOCK TEST - 33

1. No ground has been mentioned in

13. The Constitution of Jammu and

14. Presidents Rule under Article 356 can

3. The State government disregards

15. The Zonal Councils have been

16. Full Faith and Credit Clause laid down

INSIGHTS MOCK TEST - 33

17. The Ajivika sect believes that

18. As per the teachings of Mahavira Jain

19. Khanqahs are related to the

20. Earliest sites found to the East or South

21. Instead of spreading paddy seeds on the

22. Under Gana or Sangha system of

INSIGHTS MOCK TEST - 33

23. As per Buddhist teachings constant

24. Arthashashtra by Kautilya was written

25. According to Swami Dayanand

26. Consider the following about the Oudh

2. It was setup to address the subdued

27. Which of the following statements is

28. Kheda Satyagraha was organized by

INSIGHTS MOCK TEST - 33

30. Which of the following statements with

31. Which of the following newspapers and

Choose the correct answer using the codes

32. Bande Matram, for the first time, was

33. Consider the following about the Poona

34. Moral policing with reference to the

INSIGHTS MOCK TEST - 33

b) State trying to regulate any area of a

35. 10th August was celebrated recently as

36. Consider the following statements about

37. ISRO has recently started commercial

1. High strength to weight ratio

38. A new mobile app Disha has been

39. Aadhar enrolment can be done for

INSIGHTS MOCK TEST - 33

40. Consider the following about Lakshya

41. Suez Canal links the

42. 193 member states of United Nations

43. Maitri and Dakshin Gangotri are

44. Which of these nations do NOT have any

45. Which of these crops/plants is/are NOT