Written Examination for selection into Ph.

D registration
under Utkal University-2012
Nodal Centre: IGIT, Sarang, Dhenkanal.
Stream: ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
Instruction: A candidate has to answer 30 multiple type questions in 30 minutes.
Each question carries 4 marks. There is no negative marking for wrong answers.
The candidate has to encircle only the correct (most appropriate) answer out of the
four (a), (b), (c) and (d) choices given. Putting any mark other than the circle
mark or encircling more choices or answering in any ambiguous manner will
invite ZERO mark on evaluation.
TIME: 30 MINUTES;

FULL MARKS: 120

1. A three-phase synchronous machine of negligible stator resistance is under floating

condition after being synchronized with the infinite bus. State the next operating step
required to force the machine to act as a synchronous generator and share the grid load.
(a) Increase the excitation of the machine
(b) Decrease the excitation of the machine
(c) Increase the mechanical input to the prime mover
(d) Decrease the mechanical input to the prime mover
2. A three-phase cylindrical rotor synchronous motor, fed from an infinite bus, is operating
at unity power factor while driving its rated full load. What will be the nature of its
operating power factor if the load on its shaft is reduced to 70% of its full load without
changing its excitation? Neglect the stator resistance.
(a) Lagging with power factor close to 0.9
(b) Lagging with power factor close to zero
(c) Leading
(d) Unity
3. The per-phase direct axis and the quadrature axis synchronous reactances of a gridsynchronized three-phase salient pole synchronous generator supplying full load rated
current at 0.95 lagging power factor are 0.88 per unit and 0.52 per unit respectively. The
stator resistance of the machine can be neglected. The excitation of the machine is kept
unaltered. What is the per-unit no-load induced emf per phase along with its load angle?
(a) 1 p.u. with a load angle of 18.2 degree approximately
(b) 1.4 p.u. with a load angle of 71.8 degree approximately
(c) 1.5 p.u. with a load angle of 23.02 degree approximately
(d) 1 p.u. with a load angle of 20.02 degree approximately

4. A balanced three-phase induction motor has an efficiency of 88% when its output is 60
kW. At this load, both the stator and rotor copper losses are identical and each of these
losses individually equals to the stator core loss. The rotor core loss can be neglected.
The mechanical losses are 25% of the no-load loss. What is the slip of the motor under
this operating condition?
(a) 0.083793
(b) 0.038793
(c) 0.073893
(d) 0.093873
5. If the excitation of a grid-connected three-phase synchronous motor operating at unity
power factor and driving a certain mechanical load on its shaft is increased by 10%, then
its stator input current will
(a) increase
(b) remain same
(c) decrease
(d) decrease by 10%

6. Consider the following statements regarding a first order system with a proportional (P)
controller which exhibits an offset to a step input:
In order to reduce the offset, it is necessary to
i.
increase the gain of the P controller
ii.
add derivative mode
iii.
add integral mode
(a) i, ii and iii
(b) i and ii
(c) ii and iii
(d) i and iii
7. Which of the following are the characteristics of a hydraulic actuator?
i.sluggish
ii.having capacity to handle large power
iii.having linear operation
(a) i, ii and iii
(b) i and ii
(c) ii and iii
(d) i and iii
8. Which of the following analytical methods are applicable to sampled data system?
i.
ii.
iii.
iv.

Modified Z-Transformation
Shanons Theorem
State Transition Matrix
Nyquist Plot

(a) i, ii, iii and iv

(b) iii and iv
(c) i and ii
(d) i, ii and iii

9. The winding factor of a full-pitched narrow phase spread winding is

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

0.855
1.0
0.955
0.9

10. In case of a synchro error detector, the electrical zero position of control transformer is
obtained when angular displacement between rotors is
(a) Zero
(b) 45 degreeq
(c) 90 degree
(d)180 degree

11. For a discrete time sequence with finite unit sample response hn , 2 n 2, a
finite duration input signal sequence xn , 1 n 6 produces output that is
nonzero in the interval
a) 2 n 6
b) 1 n 4
c) 3 n 8
d) 0 n 11
12. For input sequence x(n), y(n) is the output sequence for a system. Which of the
following systems is linear, time-variant and causal?
a) y (n) x (n 2 )
b) y (n) y n 1 x (n), y 0 1
c) y (n) nx(n)
d) y (n) x(n)
13. Step response of the causal system described by the difference equation
y n y n 1 xn is
n

a) 1 u n
b) nu n
c) n 1u n
d)

1n nu n

14. Given two 4-point sequences x(n)=[4, 3, 2, 1] and h(n) =[1, -1, 0, 0], their 4-point
circular convolution, y(n) is
a) [-3, 1, 1. 1]
b) [3, -1, -1. -1]
c) [3, 1, -1. 1]
d) [1, 1. 1, -3]

15. A two stage amplifier with two identical and non-interacting stages is required to
have an upper cut off frequency of 3 MHz and lower cut off frequency of 30 Hz.
What should be the upper and lower cut off frequency of individual stages (most
appropriate answer)?
a) 2 MHz & 50 Hz respectively
b) 4 MHz & 20 Hz respectively
c) 5 MHz & 20 Hz respectively
d) 5 MHz & 50 Hz respectively
16. An amplifier with open loop gain of -1000 and feedback factor = -0.1 had a gain
change of 20 % due to temperature. What would be change in gain of feedback
amplifier?
a) 1 %
b) 2 %
c) 0.1 %
d) 0.2 %
17. The tilt P and rise time t r for the output waveform of an amplifier, with square
wave as the input, are related to upper cut off frequency f H and lower cut off
frequency f L of the amplifier as follows
a) P is inversely proportional to f L and t r is proportional to f H
b) P is inversely proportional to f H and t r is proportional to f L
c) P is proportional to f L and t r is inversely proportional to f H
d) P is proportional to f H and t r is inversely proportional to f L
18. An EX-OR gate is to be built with NAND gates only. The minimum number of 2input NAND gates required is
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6
19. An 8 input MUX is to be built with a tree network of 2 input MUXs. The number
of 2 input MUXs required is
a) 4
b) 8
c) 6
d) 7
20. While computing N-point discrete point DFT, the phase factor is defined
as W N e j 2 / N . Then which of the following is not true for an integer value
of K ?
K

a) W N

N
2

W NK

b) W NK N W NK
K

c) W N

N
2

WN

d) W N2 K W NK
2

N
2

21. The unit impulse response of a system is given as c (t) = 4 e t + 6 e 2t. The step
response of the same system for t 0 is equal to:
a) 3 e 2t + 4 e t + 1
b) 3 e 2t 4 e t + 1
c) 3 e 2t + 4 e t + 1
d) 3 e 2t 4 e t + 7
22. For the arrangement shown in Fig. below, the circuit is initially in steady state
with thyristor T off. After thyristor T is turned on, the peak thyristor current
would be

a) 2 A
b) 22 A
c) 40 A
d) 42 A
23.A step up chopper is fed from a 200V dc source to deliver a load voltage of 600V. If
the non-conduction time of thyristor is 100 sec, the required pulse width will be
a) 100 sec
b) 200 sec
c) 220 sec
d) 660 sec
24. In a two plant system, the load is connected at plant no. 2. The loss coefficients
a) B11 and B22 are nonzero but B12 is zero
b) B11, B12 and B22 are nonzero
c) B11 and B12 are nonzero but B22 is zero
d) B11 is nonzero but B12 and B22 is zero

25. If the penalty factor for bus 1 in a two-bus system is 1.25 and if the incremental cost
of production at bus 1 is Rs. 200 per MWh, the cost of received power at bus 2 is
a) Rs. 250 / MWh
b) Rs. 62.5 / MWh
c) Rs. 160 / MWh
d) None of the above
26. The capacitance and inductance per unit length of a line operating at 110 kV are 0.01
microfarad and 2 mH. The surge impedance loading of the line is
a) 40 MVA
b) 30 MVA
c) 27 MVA
d) None of the above
27. An alternator of 300 kW is driven by a prime mover of speed regulation 4% and
another alternator of 200 kW driven by a prime mover of speed regulation 3%, the total
load they can take is
a) 500 kW
b) 567 kW
c) 425 kW
d) 257 kW
28. In a type A chopper, source voltage is 100 V DC, on period = 100 sec, off period
=150 sec and RLE load consists of R = 2 ohm, L = 5 mH and E =10 V. For continuous
conduction, determine the values of average output voltage.
(a) 66.66 V (b) 56.66 V (c) 100 V
(d) 191 V
29. A three-phase full wave controlled rectifier feeds a separately excited dc motor. The
data are Td = 140 Nm, Ia =60 A and m = 65 rad/s. With these data, the back emf of the
motor will be nearly
(a) 102
(b) 178
(c) 152
(d) 194
30. In a dc drive supplied by a single-phase ac source and a rectifier, discontinuous
conduction can be avoided by
(a) decreasing the frequency of the ac supply
(b) adding a capacitor in series with the armature of the dc motor
(c) increasing the frequency of the ac supply
(d) adding an inductor in series with the armature of the dc motor
---------------------------x------------------------

PhD Entrance Test-2012(Electronics & Telecommunication

Engineering)
Utkal University
Nodal center: IGIT
Full mark: 120
Time: 1 hr
Name of the candidate:
(All questions carry equal marks)
SET A
1. A complex bandpass signal has a bandwidth of 200 kHz. What is the minimum
sampling rate for this signal?

2.

3.

4.

5.

a) 200 kHz
b) Cannot be determined
c) 400 kHz
d) 800 kHz
The advanced mobile phone system (amps) uses two bands. The first band of 824
to 849 MHz is used for sending, and 869 to 894 MHz is used for receiving. Each
user has a bandwidth of 30 kHz in each direction. The 3-kHz voice is modulated
using FM, creating 30 kHz of modulated signal. How many people can use their
cellular phones simultaneously assuming 33 channels used for control?
a) 790
b) 800
c) 820
d) 750
An analog voltage is in the range of 0 to 8 v is divided in eight equal intervals for
conversion to 3-bit digital output. The maximum quantization error is
a) 0 V
b) 1 V
c) 0.5 V
d) 2 V
A C program contains the declaration and initial assignments:
int i = 8, j =5
float x = 0.005, y = - 0.01;
char C = C , d = d;
the values of arithmetic expression (2*(i/5) + (4*j-3)) % (i=j-2) is
a) 18
b) 15
c) 10
d) 17
In a 8085 microprocessor, the following sequence of instructions is executed:

STC
CMC
MOVE A,B
RAL
MOVE B,A
After the last instruction, the output will
(a) Rotate the contents of the accumulator and store it in B
(b) Get the contents of B register into accumulator and rotate it to left by one bit.
(c) Double contents of B register
(d) Manipulate carry in A and B
6. OC- 48 is a network line with transmission speeds of approximately equal to
a) 10 Gbps
b) 51.84 Mbps
c) 40 Gbps
d) 2.5 Gbps
7. A 741 op amp has a rise time of 0.35 micro-second. Find the small-signal or
unity-gain bandwidth.
a) 10 MHz
b) 1 MHz
c) 5 MHz
d) 20 MHz
8. A transmission line of characteristic impedance Zo = 50 ohms, phase velocity vp =
2*108 m/s, and length l = 1m is terminated by a load Zl = (30-j40) ohms. The
input impedance of the line for a frequency of 100 MHz will be
a) (30+j40) ohms
b) (50-j40) ohms
c) (30+j60) ohms
d) (30-j40) ohms
9. We need to send data at a 1-Mbps rate. What is the minimum required bandwidth
using a combination of 4B/5B and NRZ-I or Manchester coding ?
a) 625 kHz and 1 MHz
b) 500 kHz and 2 MHz
c) 500 kHz and 1 MHz
d) 625 kHz and 1.5 MHz
10. What are the propagation time and the transmission time for a 2.5-kbyte message
if the bandwidth of the network is 1Gbps ? The distance between the sender and
receiver is 12,000 km and that light travels at 2.4 x 108 m/s
a) 100 ms and 0.02 ms
b) 100 ms and 0.01 ms
c) 50 ms and 0.02 ms

d) .02 ms and 50 ms
11. For input sequence x(n), y(n) is the output sequence for a system. Which of the
following systems is linear, time-variant and causal?
a) y(n) x(n 2 )
b) y(n) yn 1 x(n), y0 1
c) y(n) nx(n)
d) y(n) x(n)
12. If a discrete time system is described by input and output equation
y(n) H xn x n , the system is
a) Causal, time variant, and linear
b) Non-causal, time invariant, and linear
c) Non-causal, time variant, and linear
d) Causal, time invariant, and non-linear
13. While computing N-point discrete point DFT, the phase factor is defined
as WN e j 2 / N . Then which of the following is not true for an integral value
of K ?
K

a) WN

N
2

WNK

b) WNK N WNK
K

c) WN

N
2

WN

N
2

d) WN2 K W NK
2

14. A two stage amplifier with two identical and non-interacting stages is required to
have an upper cut off frequency of 3 MHz and lower cut off frequency of 30 Hz.
What should be the upper and lower cut off frequency of individual stages (most
appropriate answer)?
a)
b)
c)
d)

2 MHz & 50 Hz respectively

4 MHz & 20 Hz respectively
5 MHz & 20 Hz respectively
5 MHz & 50 Hz respectively

15. An amplifier with open loop gain of -1000 and feedback factor = -0.1 had a gain
change of 20 % due to temperature. What would be change in gain of feedback
amplifier?
a) 1 %
b) 2 %
c) 0.1 %
d) 0.2 %
16. What is the output voltage v o of the OpAmp circuit shown in the following
figure:

a) -25 volt
b) 12volt
c) 12volt
d) 0 volt
17. The tilt P and rise time t r for the output waveform of an amplifier, with square
wave as the input, are related to upper cut off frequency f H and lower cut off
frequency f L of the amplifier as follows
a) P is inversely proportional to f L and t r is proportional to f H
b) P is inversely proportional to f H and t r is proportional to f L
c) P is proportional to f L and t r is inversely proportional to f H
d) P is proportional to f H and t r is inversely proportional to f L
18. A PCM system uses a uniform quantizer followed by a 7 bit binary encoder. The
bit rate of the system is equal to50 megaBits per second (Mbps). What is the
maximum message bandwidth for which the system operates satisfactorily?
a) 7.14 MHz
b) 3.57 MHz
c) 0.28 MHz
d) 0.14 MHz
19. An OP Amp has slew rate of 5 Volt/ Sec. The largest possible amplitude of
sinusoidal output voltage is
a) 10 volts
b) 5 volts
5
c)
volts

5
d)
volts
2
20. An 8 input MUX is to be built with a tree network of 2 input MUXs. The number
of 2 input MUXs required is
a) 4

b) 8
c) 6
d) 7
21. The Doppler Effect is used in
a) MTI radar system
b) FM radar system
c) Both a and b
d) Crystal oscillator
22. Gain margin is the reciprocal of the gain at the frequency at which the phase
margin is?
a) 0
b) 90
c) -90
d) 180
23. When electromagnetic waves are propagated in a waveguide
a) They travel along the border walls of the guide
b) They are reflected from the walls but do not travel along them
c) They travel through the dielectric without touching the walls
d) They travel along all four walls of the waveguide
24. For separating channels in FDM receivers
a) Band pass filters are used.
b) Band stop filters are used
c) Differentiators are used.
d) Integrators are used.
25. An antenna to be used for a band of frequencies ranging from 60 to 65 MHz was
designed for 65 MHz. The tuning element required is
a) A variable inductance
b) A fixed capacitance
c) A variable capacitance.
d) none of these
26. The transmission line whose characteristic impedance is 300 is used to interconnect the receiving antenna and the receiver input. Reflection coefficient of
is observed on the line. The impedance of the load is
a) 75
b) 200
c) 500 .
d) none of these
27. The maximum power efficiency of an AM modulator is
a) 78.5%
b) 50%

c) 85%
d) 100%
28. A 10 KW transmitter is modulated to 80%.The average sideband power will be
a) 1.80KW
b) 8KW
c)3.2KW
d) 4.6KW
29. A shift counter comprising of five Flip Flops with an inverse feedback from the
output of the MSB Flip Flops to the input of the LSB Flip Flop is a
a) Divided by 32 counter
b) Divided by 10 counter
c) 5 bit shift register
d) Modulus -5 counter
30. The base width in a junction transistor is deliberately chosen small so that
a) The electric field is large
b) The concentration gradient of injected carriers is small
c) To reduce recombination of injected minority carriers
d) The majority carriers easily reach the collector

BEST OF LUCK

Written Test for PhD

Subject: Computer Science

Date : 22.02.2013

Time: 10.00 a.m to 11 a.m

Name of the Candidate:

Qualification:
Subject of Research:
Signature of the candidate with date:
Instruction: The question paper contains total of 30 numbers of questions. Each question
carries 4 marks. There is no negative mark. The candidate is required to score minimum of 50%
of total 120 marks, i.e. 60 marks, which is to be considered as qualifying marks. Answer all
questions. Each question is having four alternative answers as given immediately after each
question labeled as A, B, C and D. Encircle only one alternative with blue coloured ball point
pen which you would think as the most appropriate alternative for correct answer. Overwriting
or encircle of more than one answer is liable for wrong answer for which no credit may be
given.
Q1.

If the address of A[1][1] and A[2][1] are 1000 and 1010 respectively and each element occupies 2 bytes
then the array has been stored in _________ order.
A. Row Major

Q2.

B. Column major

C. Matrix major

D. None of these

A class of language that is closed under

A. union and complementation has to be closed under intersection
B. intersection and complement has to be closed under union
C. union and intersection has to be closed under complementation
D.

Q3.

both (A) and (B)

Consider the following type definition.

typedef char x[10];

x myArray[5];

What will sizeof(myArray) be ? (Assume one character occupies 1 byte)

A. 15 bytes

B. 10 bytes

C. 50 bytes
1

D. 30 bytes

Q4.

A girl counted in the following way on the fingers of her left hand : She started by calling the thumb 1,
the index finger 2, middle finger 3, ring finger 4, little finger 5 and then reversed direction calling the
ring finger 6, middle finger 7 and so on. She counted upto 1994. She ended counting on which finger ?
A.

Q5.

Index finger

C.

Middle finger D.

D.

True = T

Ring finger

B.

C.

In how many different ways can the letters of the word 'DETAIL' be arranged in such a way that the
vowels occupy only the odd positions?
A.

Q7.

B.

(P v Q) ^ (PR) ^ (Q R) is equivalent to
A.

Q6.

Thumb

32

B.

48

C.

36

D.

60

The time complexity of an algorithm T(n), where n is the input size,is given by
T( n) = T( n - 1) + 1/n if n > 1. The order of this algorithm is
A.

Q8.

B.

C.

n2

D.

nn

A text is made up of the characters a, b, c, d, e each occurring with the probability .12, .4, .15, .08 and
.25 respectively. The optimal coding technique will have the average length of
A.

Q9.

log n

2.15

B.

3.01

C.

2.3

D.

1.78

For the same problem the code size in KLOC in various language can be best estimated at Assembly
language: OO languages : icon based graphical language as
A. 1:10: 100

B. 100: 10:1

C. 1:20: 20

D. 1: 1:2

Q10. A scheduling algorithm assigns priority proportional to the waiting time of a process. Every process
starts with priority zero(the lowest priority). The scheduler re-evaluates the process priorities every T
time units and decides the next process to schedule. Which one of the following is TRUE if the
processes have no I/O operations and all arrive at time zero?
A.

This algorithm is equivalent to the first-come-first-serve algorithm.

B.

This algorithm is equivalent to the round-robin algorithm.

C.

This algorithm is equivalent to the shortest-job-first algorithm.

D.

This algorithm is equivalent to the shortest-remaining-time-first algorithm.

Q11. P, Q, R are three languages, if P and R are regular and if PQ = R, then

A.

Q has to be regular

B.

Q cannot be regular

C.

Q need not be regular D.

Q cannot be a CFL

Q12. What is the return value of f(p,p), if the value of p is initialized to 5 before the call? Note that the first
parameter is passed by reference, where as the second parameter is passed by value.
int f(int &x, int c)

{ c = c-1; if(c= =0) return 1; x = x+1; return f(x,c) *x; }

A.

B.

3024

6561

C.

55440

D.

161051

Q13. Following context free grammar

S > aB | bA
A >b | aS | bAA
B > b | bS | aBB
generates strings of terminals that have
A. equal number of a's and b's

B. odd number of a's and odd number b's

C. even number of a's and even number of b's

D. odd number of a's and even number of a's

Q14. Which of the following is TRUE?

A.

Every relation in 3NF is also in BCNF

B.

A relation R is in 3NF if every non-prime attribute of R is fully functionally dependent on every

key of R

C.

Every relation in BCNF is also in 3NF

D.

No relation can be in both BCNF and 3NF

Q15. Consider the following program segment

d = 0;
for(i = 1; i < 31; ++i)
for(j = 1; j < 31; ++j)
for(k = 1; k < 31; ++k)
if(((i + j + k) % 3) = = 0)
d = d + 1;
printf("%d", d );
The output will be
A. 9030

B. 27000

C. 3000
3

D. none of the above

Q16.

Consider the join of a relation R with relation S. If R has m tuples and S has n tuples, then the
maximum size of join is:
A.

mn

B. m+n

C. (m+n)/2

D. 2(m+n)

Q17. An instance of relational schema R (A, B, C) has distinct values of A including NULL values. Which
one of the following is true?
A.

A is a candidate key

B.

A is not a candidate key

C.

A is a primary Key

D.

Both (A) and (C)

Q18. Which one of the following is not true for a view:

A. View is derived from other tables.

B. View is a virtual table.

C. A view definition is permanently stored as part of the database.

D. View never contains derived columns.
Q19.

The smallest integer than can be represented by an 8-bit number in 2s complement form is
A.

-256

B.

-128

C.

-127

D.

Q20. (P v Q) ^ (P R )^ (Q S) is equivalent to
A. S ^ R

B. S R

C. S v R

D. All of above

Q21. In a time - division switch, which governs the destination of a packet stored in RAM?
A. TDM bus

B. Crosspoint

C. Crossbar

D. Control unit

Q22. The functionally complete set is

.

^ v

B.

C.

D. None of these

Q23. A group of 2m - 1 routers are interconnected in a centralized binary tree with router at each tree node.
Router I communicates with router J by sending a message to the root of the tree. If root then sends the
message back down J, the mean path length will be
A. 2 (m - 2)

B. 2 (2m - 1)

C. m - 1

D. (2m - 1)/mJ

Q24. A circuit switching network has the following characteristics :

Set up time = 5 sec;

Propagation = 5 sec; Message size = 1 M bits;

Data transmission rate = 1 M bits; Data transmission rate = 1Kbps ; Number of hops = 10
When will the last bit of the message reach the receiver?
A. t = 520 sec

B. t = 1000 ms

C. t = 250 sec
4

D. t = 1025 sec

Q25. For the same functionality coding in C vs coding in assembly language yields code in LOC which is
A. three times larger B. times smaller
Q26.

C. 10 times smaller

D. same size

The amount of ROM needed to implement a 4 bit multiplier is

A.

64 bits

B.

128 bits

C.

1 Kbits D.

2 Kbits

Q27. In the IPv4 addressing format, the number of networks allowed under Class C addresses is
A.

214

B.

27

(C) 221

(D) 224

Q28. A primary key if combined with a foreign key creates

A. Parent-Child relationship between the tables that connect them.
B. Many to many relationship between the tables that connect them.
C. Network model between the tables that connect them.
D. None of the above.
Q29. Which of the following gates would output 1 when one input is 1 and other input is 0?
A.

OR gate

B.

AND gate

C.

NAND gate

D. both (a) and (c)

Q30. Minimum number of interchange needed to convert the array 89, 19, 14, 40, 17, 12, 10, 2 , 5 ,7, 11, 6,
9,70, into a heap with the maximum element at the root is
A. 0

B. 1

C. 2

D. 3

------------------------ROUGH WORK-----------------------------------------------------------------------