1.

The following structures are found in the spermatic cord

a. vas deferens
b. ilioinguinal nerve
c. iliohypogastric nerve
d. testicular vein
e. testicular lymph vessels
2. The following structures are part of the uterine tubes 399
a. ampulla
b. isthmus
c. infundibulum
d. uterine part
e. fimbriae
3. What are the structures related to the posterior fornix of the vagina
a. sigmoid colon
b. rectum
c. peritoneum
d. pouch of Douglas
e. round ligament of the uterus
4. The deep muscles in the urogenitral triangle include 407
a. ischiocavernosus
b. sphincter of urethra
c. deep transverse muscle of the perineum
d. levator ani
e. bulbospongiosus
5. The ligaments attached to the uterus 394
a. cardinal ligament
b. broad ligament
c. round ligament
d. suspensory ligament of the ovary
e. ovarian ligament
6. The following are parts of the normal penis 390
a. corpora cavernosa
b. corpora spongiosum
c. ischiocavernosus muscle
d. sphincter urethrae
e. dorsal vein of penis
7. The layers of the scrotum include the following
a. skin
b. tunica vaginalis
c. tunica albuginea
d. cremasteric fascia
e. dartos

8. The vagina
a. extends upwards and backward between the vulva and the uterus
b. drains into the external iliac veins
c. is innervated by branches of the lumbar plexus
d. has the greater vestibular glands draining into it
e. lies partly within the perineum
9. The greater vestibular glands are located 402
a. base of labium majus
b. base of labium minus
c. in front of bulb of vestibule
d. behind bulb of vestibule
e. above the level of the hymen

Urinary System
10. Which of the following structures are in relation to the anterior surface of the left kidney357
a. spleen
b. body of the pancreas
c. splenic artery
d. lesser omentum
e. stomach
11. The structures found in the renal sinus are 356
a. renal arteries
b. renal veins
c. renal pelvis
d. major calices
e. minor calices

12. Which of the following structures are found in the cortex of the kidney ? 361
a. renal bodies
b. distal convoluted tubules
c. interlobar artery
d. proximal convoluted tubules
e. collecting ducts
13. The pelvic part of the ureter lies 371
a. behind ovary
b. lateral to cervix of uterus
c. in front of ovary
d. between anterior wall of vagina and the urinary bladder
e. in relation to the lateral fornix of vagina

14. The base of the prostate gland is adjacent to 385

a. neck of urinary bladder
b. seminal vesicles
c. ampullae of ductus deferens
d. apex of urinary bladder
e. rectovesical pouch

15. The male urethra

a. is about 15cm long
b. is straight throughout its course from the bladder to the external meatus
c. has the verumontanum in the area of the membranous urethra
d. is mostly lined by squamous epithelium
e. has a part within the corpus cavernosus
16. The following structures are attached to the urinary bladder
a. puboprostatic ligament
b. median arcuate ligament
c. medial arcuate ligament
d. peritoneum
e. lateral arcuate ligament

Endocrine
17. The endocrine glands of branchiogenic origin include the 410
a. pancreas
b. interstitial cells of gonads
c. pineal gland
d. parathyroid glands
e. pituitary gland
18. The pituitary gland
a. is found in the middle cranial cavity
b. is attached to the hypothalamus
c. has an anterior lobe connected via a portal system
d. has a posterior lobe connected via a portal system
e. developmentally is partly of non-neurological origins
19. The thyroid gland
a. usually has two lobes joined by an isthmus
b. receives blood from both subclavian and external carotid arteries
c. has the recurrent laryngeal nerves closely related to the superior pole
d. has a close relationship to the tracheal cartilages
e. develops in relationship to the base of the tongue
20. The suprarenal gland
a. is partly of neurological origin
b. drains directly into the inferior vena cava on the right side
c. produces norepinephrine from the zona glomerulosa
d. on both sides are sorrounded by renal fascia
e. has a cresentic shape on the right side
21. The pancreas
a. develops from two diverticulae
b. has its main duct opening on the major dueodenal papilla
c. has the islets of Langerhans mostly in its uncinate process
d. is mostly a retroperitoneal structure
e. is posterior to the stomach
22. The parathyroid glands
a. are usually eight in number, four on each side
b. are found along the isthmus of the thyroid gland
c. have their blood supply from the tracheal blood vessels
d. develop from the pharyngeal pouches
e. has a close relationship to the thymus developmentally

23.

Musculoskeletal

24. Most of the bones of the vault of the skull

a. are ossified in membrane
b. are joined by fibrous union
c. have synovial joints
d. have no bone marrow in a young adult
e. have emissary veins
25. The Atlas
a. has no foramen transvarium
b. does not have a body
c. lacks an arch
d. has a relatively narrow vertebral foraman
e. has a groove for the axillary nerve on its superior surface
26. The scaphoid
a. is ossified in cartilage
b. ossifies approximately in the 5th year of life
c. has synovial joints with other carpal bones
d. has an easily palpable hook like projection
e. gets its blood supply from its distal end
27. In regards to the ribs
a. The last five ribs are called false ribs
b. Has two articular surfaces divided by a crest in each head of the rib
c. the tubercle of the rib has two articular surfaces
d. the first rib has no angle
e. has three intercostal muscles in between the ribs
28. The temporal bone of the skull
a. has a stylomastoid foraman transmitting the facial nerve
b. has a zygomatic process from its petrous part
c. forms part of the temperomandibular joint
d. is grooved by the occipital artery
e. gives attachment to the digastric muscle

29. In regards to the sphenoid bone

a. the body of the bone has the sphenoidal air sinuses
b. has a deep groove named the sella turcica
c. has a part called the clivus which is continuous with the occipital bone
d. it gives origin to the lateral pterygoid muscles
e. articulates with both the parietal and temporal bones
30. The hyoid bone
a. has a convex anterior surface
b. is fully ossified at birth
c. is attached to the skull by stylohyid ligaments
d. the greater cornu end in a tubercle
e. develops from the 5th pharyngeal pouch
31. The mandible
a. gives attachment to the mylohyoid muscle
b. has two rami which unite at almost right angles
c. has a mental foramen that is found at the level of the second premolar tooth
d. gives attachment to the masseter and temporalis muscles via the coronoid process
e. has a synovial joint with the articular surfaces lined by fibrocartilage
32. The ethmoid bone
a. has two pterygoid processes
b. does not have any sinuses
c. is perforated by many small branches of the facial nerve in its cribrifom plate
d. has a perpendicular plate arising from the superior aspect of the cribriform plate
e. develops mostly by membranous ossification
33. The clavicle
a. is one of the last bones to ossify in the fetus before birth
b. has a joint with a intra-articular disk
c. gives attachment to the pectoralis major muscle
d. gives attachment to the latissimus dorsi muscle
e. gives attachment to the trapezius
34. The radius
a. has the radial nerve grooving the neck of the bone
b. has an annular ligament around the head and neck
c. rotates across the ulna
d. has an ulna notch at the lower end to articulate with the distal ulna
e. has a tuberosity for the attachment of the biceps tendon
35. The following carpal bones form the proximal row

a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

lunate
hamate
capitate
triquetrum
scaphoid

36. The hip bone

a. is formed by three bones
b. forms the boundaries of the false pelvis mostly from the ala of the ilium
c. has two sciatic foramina separated by a sacrospinous ligament
d. forms the acetabulum by the fusion of all the bones
e. has the acetabulum facing forwards, superiorly and lateraly
37. The greater sciatic foraman transmits
a. the pyriformis
b. obturator nerve
c. nerve to obturator internus
d. the iternal pudendal vessels
e. the sciatic nerve
38. The lesser sciatic foraman transmits
a. the pyriformis muscle
b. the internal pudendal vessels
c. the internal pudendal nerves
d. the tendon of obturator internus
e. the posterior cutaneous nerve of the thigh
39. The obturator foraman
a. is found between the ilium and the ischium
b. is smaller in the male
c. is situated between the pubis and the ischial bones
d. is mostly covered by a membrane
e. transmits the tibial branch of the sciatic nerve
40. The pelvis
a. has a pelvic brim formed partly by the arcuate and pectineal lines
b. has a lesser or true pelvis below and behind the pelvic brim
c. the pubic arch is narrower in the male
d. the plane of the outlet forms an angle about 15 degrees to the horizontal plane
e. the pubic arch has an obtuse angle in the female

41. The patella

a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

is regarded as a sesamoid bone

protects the knee joint
has a hyaline cartilage lined articular surface
has a pointed apex giving attachment to a ligament
ossification centre usually appears in the third year

42. The femur

a. has a ligament attached to the head of femur
b. the neck has an angle of about 60 degrees to the body
c. has a shaft that is convex behind
d. has a shaft that is convex in front
e. has a prominent ridge the linea aspera posteriorly on the shaft
43. The linea aspera
a. gives attachment to the vastus lateralis
b. gives attachment to the vastus medialis
c. is perforated by a nutrient canal
d. has no nutrient canals
e. continues upwards to the base of the lesser trochanter by a rough ridge
44. The tibia
a. has an articular surface for the head of the fibula
b. gives attachment to the patellar ligament by a prominent tuberosity
c. has a subcutaneous medial border
d. has a popliteal line on its posterior surface below which is the nutrient foramen
e. inferiorly articulates with the talus
45. Regarding the tarsal bones
a. The sustentaculum talus of the calcaneous articulates with a facet of the talus
b. the body of the talus articulates with the tibia
c. the head of the talus articulates with the tibia
d. the head of the talus lies partly on the plantar calcaneonavicular ligament
e. the navicular bone articulates with all three cuneiform bones
46. Sesamoid bones
a. are found in relationship to joints
b. change angle of pull of tendons
c. are found at the metacarpophalangeal joints of the thumb
d. are often found in the peroneus longus tendon
e. develop only after birth
47. Regarding joints
a. sutura of the skull are an example of a gomphosis

b.
c.
d.
e.

the epiphyses are an example of a schindylesis

synovial joints are mostly enarthroses
the hip joint is an example of a diarthrosis
the hip joint is an example of an enarthrosis

48. The shoulder joint

a. is innervated by the axillary nerve
b. has the deltoid as the main abductor
c. has no bursae connected to the joint
d. is weakest inferiorly
e. commonly dislocates anteriorly
49. The sternoclavicular joint
a. is a synovial joint
b. is a saddle type of joint
c. has an intrarticular disk
d. has superior and inferior ligaments
e. is part of the shoulder girdle
50. The flexor digitorum profundus muscle
a. is fully innervated by the ulna nerve
b. has four tendons that are closely attached to each other until the wrist joint
c. partly originates from the common flexor origin
d. is fully innervated by the median nerve
e. has four tendons that are inserted into the distal phalanx
51.